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  • Question 1 - A 55-year-old woman with Graves’ disease presents for a check-up on her thyroid...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman with Graves’ disease presents for a check-up on her thyroid status. She is on propranolol and carbimazole. During the visit, she reports experiencing eye pain and double vision, especially when looking to the sides. Upon examination, there is significant proptosis. Her blood pressure is 122/82, pulse is regular at 60. Despite using artificial tears and eye patches, she has not found relief. What is the first-line treatment to improve her ophthalmopathy?

      Your Answer: Orbital radiotherapy

      Correct Answer: IV glucocorticoids

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for Graves’ ophthalmopathy

      Graves’ disease can cause ophthalmopathy with various symptoms such as lid lag, lid retraction, proptosis, and diplopia. The initial inflammatory phase is followed by a fibrotic stage. Mild symptoms can be managed with lubricants, eye patches, and smoking cessation. However, if the symptoms are severe and sight-threatening, immediate treatment is necessary.

      Treatment options for Graves’ ophthalmopathy

      IV glucocorticoids are the first-line treatment for sight-threatening dysthyroid optic neuropathy. Ibuprofen is used for symptom control in cases of subacute thyroiditis. Radioiodine is a definitive treatment option for relapsed Graves’ thyrotoxicosis, but it could exacerbate Graves’ ophthalmopathy. Surgical decompression may be done to improve proptosis and address strabismus, but it is performed after IV glucocorticoids if the response is poor. Orbital radiotherapy is an alternative option to reduce acute orbital inflammation, but it is not recommended for dysthyroid optic neuropathy.

      In conclusion, the treatment options for Graves’ ophthalmopathy depend on the severity of the symptoms. Mild symptoms can be managed with conservative measures, while severe and sight-threatening symptoms require immediate treatment with IV glucocorticoids. Other treatment options such as radioiodine, surgical decompression, and orbital radiotherapy may be considered depending on the individual case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
      55.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old man presents to the Neurology Clinic with complaints of disrupted sleep...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the Neurology Clinic with complaints of disrupted sleep patterns and sudden episodes of muscle weakness. He reports falling asleep during important tasks and experiencing up to ten episodes of collapse during emotional situations. He has no significant medical history and his vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals no neurological abnormalities and routine blood tests are normal. What is the most effective intervention for managing his cataplexy symptoms?

      Your Answer: Modafinil

      Correct Answer: Oxybate

      Explanation:

      Cataplexy is a common symptom of narcolepsy, and there are several medications available to manage it. Among these medications, oxybate has been found to have the greatest effect on reducing cataplexy episodes in adult patients. In clinical trials, oxybate was shown to be more effective than other stimulants when used in addition to other medications. In fact, continued use of oxybate more than halved the number of cataplexy episodes compared to withdrawal. Modafinil, on the other hand, is primarily used to increase wakefulness and is more useful for patients with poor night-time sleep. Clomipramine is an antidepressant that can improve the quality of sleep, but it is not as effective as oxybate in reducing cataplexy episodes. Methylphenidate is a stimulant that has the most impact on symptoms of narcolepsy, but it is less effective than other options in reducing cataplexy episodes. Finally, reboxetine is primarily used to treat depression, anxiety, and mood disorders in ADHD patients and is not typically used to manage cataplexy in narcolepsy patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      34.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 27-year-old woman with a history of left frontal lobe glioma presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman with a history of left frontal lobe glioma presents to the Neuro-Oncology Clinic six months after post-surgical excision. She reports experiencing several short-lived episodes of right-sided numbness and tingling without loss of consciousness following the operation. A recent MRI brain scan showed no recurrence of malignancy. The patient also has a history of depression. On neurological examination, she demonstrates distal right arm weakness that has not changed since the postoperative phase. She visited the local Emergency Department after a cluster of episodes and was discharged following a period of monitoring. Her investigations revealed normal values for haemoglobin, white cell count, platelets, sodium, potassium, creatinine, albumin, corrected calcium, and magnesium. Her electrocardiogram showed sinus rhythm with a heart rate of 77 beats per minute and a QTc of 427 milliseconds. What is the most appropriate next action in this patient's management?

      Your Answer: Electroencephalogram (EEG)

      Correct Answer: Lamotrigine therapy

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing recurrent focal onset seizures following surgery for glioma. The most suitable treatment options for this type of seizure include lamotrigine, levetiracetam, sodium valproate, and carbamazepine. Levetiracetam is not recommended due to its potential to worsen mood disorders, while sodium valproate is relatively contraindicated in women of childbearing age. Carbamazepine is effective but carries a slightly higher risk of fetal malformations compared to lamotrigine. Therefore, lamotrigine is the most appropriate choice due to its good side effect profile and high efficacy in focal onset seizures. Dexamethasone is typically used to manage oedema in intracranial malignancies, but recurrence of the primary tumour is less likely in this case. An EEG is not necessary as the diagnosis is clinical, and an abnormal result is expected due to previous brain surgery. Levetiracetam is not recommended due to the patient’s history of mood disorder. While recurrence of the primary tumour is possible, the presentation is consistent with seizures secondary to the surgery rather than malignancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      271
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old female presents with a rash. She reports feeling feverish and having...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old female presents with a rash. She reports feeling feverish and having a runny nose before the rash appeared on her arms, trunk, and legs. She recently moved to the UK from Poland, where she lived in a travellers community and has no knowledge of childhood vaccinations. She has a medical history of asthma and hereditary spherocytosis. On examination, an erythematous maculopapular rash is observed on her upper limbs, thorax, and lower limbs.

      The following investigations were conducted:

      Hb 95 g/l Na+ 138 mmol/l
      Platelets 110 * 109/l K+ 3.8 mmol/l
      WBC 3.8 * 109/l Urea 6.5 mmol/l
      Neuts 1.8 * 109/l Creatinine 58 µmol/l
      Lymphs 1.6 * 109/l CRP 48 mg/l

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Parvovirus B19

      Explanation:

      The patient’s febrile rash has a broad range of possible causes. The history of immunization suggests measles or rubella, but the presence of pancytopenia indicates a higher likelihood of parvovirus B19 infection, which can lead to aplastic crisis. While parvovirus infection typically results in decreased hematopoiesis, it poses a greater risk to individuals with pre-existing bone marrow stress, such as sickle cell anemia or hereditary spherocytosis, due to their increased reliance on erythropoiesis caused by the shorter lifespan of red blood cells.

      Parvovirus B19: A Virus with Various Clinical Presentations

      Parvovirus B19 is a type of DNA virus that can cause different clinical presentations. One of the most common is erythema infectiosum, also known as fifth disease or slapped-cheek syndrome. This illness may manifest as a mild feverish condition or a noticeable rash that appears after a few days. The rash is characterized by rose-red cheeks, which is why it is called slapped-cheek syndrome. It may spread to other parts of the body but rarely involves the palms and soles. The rash usually peaks after a week and then fades, but it may recur for some months after exposure to triggers such as warm baths, sunlight, heat, or fever. Most children recover without specific treatment, and school exclusion is unnecessary as the child is no longer infectious once the rash emerges. However, in adults, the virus may cause acute arthritis.

      Aside from erythema infectiosum, parvovirus B19 can also present as asymptomatic, pancytopenia in immunosuppressed patients, or aplastic crises in sickle-cell disease. The virus suppresses erythropoiesis for about a week, so aplastic anemia is rare unless there is a chronic hemolytic anemia. In pregnant women, the virus can cross the placenta and cause severe anemia due to viral suppression of fetal erythropoiesis, which may lead to heart failure secondary to severe anemia and the accumulation of fluid in fetal serous cavities such as ascites, pleural and pericardial effusions. This condition is called hydrops fetalis and is treated with intrauterine blood transfusions.

      It is important to note that parvovirus B19 can affect an unborn baby in the first 20 weeks of pregnancy. If a woman is exposed early in pregnancy, she should seek prompt advice from her antenatal care provider as maternal IgM and IgG will need to be checked. The virus is spread by the respiratory route, and a person is infectious 3 to 5 days before the appearance of the rash. Children are no longer infectious once the rash appears, and there is no specific treatment. Therefore, school exclusion is unnecessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      69
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 75-year-old woman, previously healthy, arrived at the Emergency department complaining of fevers,...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman, previously healthy, arrived at the Emergency department complaining of fevers, chills, and fatigue for the past four weeks. Upon examination, she had a soft pansystolic murmur and a temperature of 39°C. She also had bilateral palmar erythema and splinter hemorrhages on both hands. Blood cultures were taken, and all three sets grew Streptococcus viridans. A transthoracic echocardiogram revealed a mobile mass on the posterior mitral valve leaflet with moderate mitral regurgitation. The patient was immediately started on appropriate IV antibiotics. What factor has the greatest impact on prognosis?

      Your Answer: Presence of moderate mitral regurgitation

      Correct Answer: Old age

      Explanation:

      Prognostic Factors for Endocarditis

      Prognosis for endocarditis varies depending on the patient’s characteristics. Poor prognostic factors include old age, presence of prosthetic valve endocarditis, insulin dependent diabetes mellitus, and severe co-morbidities. Other factors that are crucial in prognostic assessment are endocarditis caused by fungus or Gram negative bacilli, endocarditis complications such as heart failure, renal failure, stroke, septic shock, and periannular complications, and echocardiographic findings such as severe left sided valve regurgitation, low left ventricular ejection fraction, pulmonary hypertension, large vegetations, and severe prosthetic valve dysfunction. It is important to consider these factors when assessing the prognosis of patients with endocarditis. Proper management and treatment can improve outcomes for those with poor prognostic factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      147.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 78-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department due to concerns from his...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department due to concerns from his wife about his behavior. She reports that he was packing a suitcase because he believed he was on a cruise and needed to go home. The patient was recently prescribed antibiotics for a UTI by his General Practitioner. He has a medical history of benign prostatic hyperplasia, osteoarthritis, hypertension, and gout. During the examination, he appears disoriented and experiences lower abdominal discomfort. Which of the patient's current medications is most likely contributing to his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Codeine

      Correct Answer: Oxybutynin

      Explanation:

      Medication Review for an Older Patient: Assessing the Risk of Confusion

      As patients age, the risk of adverse effects from medications increases. In particular, anticholinergic medications can cause confusion and cognitive decline in older patients. When reviewing medications for an older patient, it is important to assess the risk of these effects.

      One medication that carries a high risk of confusion in older patients is oxybutynin. This medication is often prescribed for benign prostatic hyperplasia to reduce urinary urgency and frequency. However, long-term use of anticholinergic agents like oxybutynin can increase the risk of cognitive decline and dementia.

      Colchicine is another medication that can contribute to confusion in older patients, but it is not typically a long-term medication. Atenolol carries a lower risk of anticholinergic effects than oxybutynin, but can still contribute to confusion, dizziness, and falls in older people.

      Codeine may increase the risk of urinary retention, constipation, and confusion in older patients, but the risk is lower than with oxybutynin. Nitrofurantoin, which may be given for a urinary tract infection, is not associated with anticholinergic effects but may cause confusion in rare cases.

      In summary, when reviewing medications for an older patient, it is important to assess the risk of confusion and cognitive decline associated with anticholinergic medications. Regular medication reviews can help prevent adverse effects and ensure that patients are receiving the most appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
      93.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old patient presents to the emergency department feeling extremely fatigued and exhausted...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old patient presents to the emergency department feeling extremely fatigued and exhausted for the past week. He has been experiencing shortness of breath on exertion and can only walk a few hundred yards before becoming breathless. He has a history of sickle cell disease and is currently under the care of the Haematology team at the hospital. Upon examination, his vital signs are stable, but he becomes noticeably short of breath with minimal movement.

      His blood tests reveal:

      Hb 65 g/l
      Platelets 46 * 109/l
      WBC 2.5 * 109/l
      Neuts 1.2 * 109/l
      Haptoglobins 1.9 g/L (0.3-2.0)
      Reticulocytes 8.9 x10^9/L (25-80)

      Na+ 136 mmol/l
      K+ 3.9 mmol/l
      Urea 7.4 mmol/l
      Creatinine 78 µmol/l
      CRP <3 mg/L(<10)
      LDH 200 IU/L (200-500)

      Bilirubin 4 µmol/l
      ALP 89 u/l
      ALT 34 u/l
      Albumin 39 g/l

      His chest x-ray appears normal. Upon further questioning, he reveals that his 6-year-old son was unwell three weeks ago and was diagnosed with a viral illness by their GP. What is the most likely cause of his abnormal blood results?

      Your Answer: Parvovirus B19

      Explanation:

      This man is experiencing an aplastic sickle cell crisis due to a parvovirus infection, resulting in symptomatic anemia. There are no indications of splenic sequestration or acute chest syndrome, and a normal chest x-ray rules out pneumonia. While HIV is a potential consideration, it is less probable given the patient’s clinical presentation.

      Understanding Sickle-Cell Crises

      Sickle-cell anaemia is a condition that is characterized by periods of good health with intervening crises. There are different types of crises that are recognized, including thrombotic or painful crises, sequestration, acute chest syndrome, aplastic, and haemolytic. Thrombotic crisis, also known as painful crises or vaso-occlusive crises, are usually triggered by infection, dehydration, or deoxygenation. These crises are diagnosed clinically, and infarcts can occur in various organs, including the bones, lungs, spleen, and brain.

      Sequestration crises occur when sickling occurs within organs such as the spleen or lungs, causing pooling of blood and worsening of the anaemia. Acute chest syndrome is another type of crisis that is caused by vaso-occlusion within the pulmonary microvasculature, leading to infarction in the lung parenchyma. This can result in dyspnoea, chest pain, pulmonary infiltrates on chest x-ray, and low pO2. Management of acute chest syndrome includes pain relief, respiratory support, antibiotics, and transfusion.

      Aplastic crises are caused by infection with parvovirus, leading to a sudden fall in haemoglobin. Bone marrow suppression causes a reduced reticulocyte count. Haemolytic crises are rare and are characterized by a fall in haemoglobin due to an increased rate of haemolysis. Understanding the different types of sickle-cell crises is important for effective management and treatment of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      319.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 57-year-old man comes to his doctor for evaluation. He has been experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man comes to his doctor for evaluation. He has been experiencing increased bone pain in his lower back and pelvic area for the past few months. He was diagnosed with some hearing loss two years ago. Blood tests show normal calcium levels but elevated alkaline phosphatase. X-rays reveal skull features consistent with Paget's disease, and bone scanning shows increased activity in the lumbar vertebrae and pelvis. The doctor starts him on bisphosphonate therapy.
      What is the most appropriate method to monitor disease activity in this man?

      Your Answer: Monitoring disease activity through alkaline phosphatase levels

      Correct Answer: 6-monthly alkaline phosphatase levels

      Explanation:

      Monitoring Paget’s Disease: Recommended Tests and Frequency

      Paget’s disease is a condition that affects bone turnover, and the goal of therapy is to achieve normal levels of alkaline phosphatase, a marker of bone activity. Bisphosphonates are the primary treatment, with various formulations available. Monitoring disease activity is crucial, and alkaline phosphatase levels should be checked every 6 months, with subsequent checks every 6-12 months. Acid phosphatase levels may also be elevated in active Paget’s disease, but are not as reliable in males due to potential prostate cancer interference. Calcium levels are normal in Paget’s disease, and bone scans are not recommended due to unclear correlation with clinical outcomes and radiation exposure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      117.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 19-year-old woman who works as a teaching assistant in a nursery has...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old woman who works as a teaching assistant in a nursery has been experiencing shaking in her right arm when writing on the blackboard and has been dropping cups of tea due to shaking. She has also noticed poor balance and falls easily when playing with the children. These symptoms have developed gradually over the course of 15 months. During her neurological examination, a postural tremor of the upper limbs was observed, with the right side being worse than the left. Additionally, she has a broad-based ataxic gait and some rigidity in her right upper limb. The slit lamp examination revealed brown-green deposits in Descemet's membrane of the cornea. The rest of the clinical examination was unremarkable. What is the most appropriate treatment for the underlying condition?

      Your Answer: D-penicillamine

      Explanation:

      Wilson’s disease is a genetic disorder that affects the liver’s ability to excrete copper into bile, leading to copper accumulation in the liver and other organs. This can cause neurological, psychiatric, and hepatic dysfunction, with symptoms typically appearing in children and young adults. Diagnosis can be challenging, but a low caeruloplasmin level and elevated urine copper excretion are indicative of the disease. A liver biopsy may also be helpful in confirming the diagnosis. Treatment involves using copper-chelating medications such as penicillamine or trientine. Symptoms can be varied and affect multiple organs, so it’s important to look out for any of the characteristic features when considering a diagnosis of Wilson’s disease.

      Understanding Wilson’s Disease

      Wilson’s disease is a genetic disorder that causes excessive copper accumulation in the tissues due to metabolic abnormalities. It is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by a defect in the ATP7B gene located on chromosome 13. Symptoms usually appear between the ages of 10 to 25 years, with children presenting with liver disease and young adults with neurological disease.

      The disease is characterised by excessive copper deposition in the tissues, particularly in the brain, liver, and cornea. This can lead to a range of symptoms, including hepatitis, cirrhosis, basal ganglia degeneration, speech and behavioural problems, asterixis, chorea, dementia, parkinsonism, Kayser-Fleischer rings, renal tubular acidosis, haemolysis, and blue nails.

      To diagnose Wilson’s disease, doctors may perform a slit lamp examination for Kayser-Fleischer rings, measure serum caeruloplasmin and total serum copper (which is often reduced), and check for increased 24-hour urinary copper excretion. Genetic analysis of the ATP7B gene can confirm the diagnosis.

      Treatment for Wilson’s disease typically involves chelating agents such as penicillamine or trientine hydrochloride, which help to remove excess copper from the body. Tetrathiomolybdate is a newer agent that is currently under investigation. With proper management, individuals with Wilson’s disease can lead normal lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      40.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 72-year-old active smoker with a 35 pack year history presents with his...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old active smoker with a 35 pack year history presents with his second non-infective exacerbation of COPD in 3 months. He was diagnosed with COPD three years ago and had been relatively well controlled using salbutamol as required prior to these two admissions. Three days after his admission, he reports that he is close to his baseline and would like to go home. His repeat pulmonary function tests reveal a forced expiratory volume in 1 second of 48%.

      On reviewing his peak flow diary you note a significant (> 20%) diurnal variation in his peak flow.

      What would be the most effective approach to optimize his COPD management?

      Your Answer: Long term oxygen therapy

      Correct Answer: Add salmeterol and fluticasone combination inhaler

      Explanation:

      If a patient with COPD is experiencing breathlessness despite using SABA/SAMA and exhibits features of asthma/steroid responsiveness, the recommended course of action is to add a LABA + ICS. Since there is significant diurnal variation in this patient’s symptoms, a long-acting beta agonist such as salmeterol, along with an inhaled corticosteroid, is the next step in management. It is now recommended by NICE to use combined inhalers whenever possible.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenza vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.

      Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.

      If the patient does not have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.

      NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.

      Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE does not recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      149.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine (0/1) 0%
Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Cardiology (0/1) 0%
Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics (0/1) 0%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Rheumatology (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (1/1) 100%
Respiratory Medicine (0/1) 0%
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