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Question 1
Incorrect
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A radiologist examined a coronary angiogram of a 75-year-old man with long-standing heart disease and identified stenosis of the right coronary artery resulting in reduced perfusion of the myocardium of the right atrium. Which structure related to the right atrium is most likely to have been impacted by the decreased blood flow?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sinoatrial node
Explanation:Coronary Arteries and their Supply to Cardiac Conduction System
The heart’s conduction system is responsible for regulating the heartbeat. The following are the coronary arteries that supply blood to the different parts of the cardiac conduction system:
Sinoatrial Node
The sinoatrial node, which is the primary pacemaker of the heart, is supplied by the right coronary artery in 60% of cases through a sinoatrial nodal branch.Atrioventricular Node
The atrioventricular node, which is responsible for delaying the electrical impulse before it reaches the ventricles, is supplied by the right coronary artery in 80% of individuals through the atrioventricular nodal branch.Atrioventricular Bundle
The atrioventricular bundle, which conducts the electrical impulse from the atria to the ventricles, is supplied by numerous septal arteries that mostly arise from the anterior interventricular artery, a branch of the left coronary artery.Left Bundle Branch
The left bundle branch, which conducts the electrical impulse to the left ventricle, is supplied by numerous subendocardial bundle arteries that originate from the left coronary artery.Right Bundle Branch
The right bundle branch, which conducts the electrical impulse to the right ventricle, is supplied by numerous subendocardial bundle arteries that originate from the right coronary artery. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old man presents with a 5-month history of low back pain and stiffness that lasts for 20 minutes in the morning. He reports that his pain improves with exercise and taking ibuprofen. He denies any gastrointestinal, genitourinary, or skin symptoms. During the examination, he exhibits limited lumbar flexion as determined by Schober's test. An x-ray of his lumbar spine and sacroiliac joints has been ordered. What radiographic finding is likely to be observed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Syndesmophytes
Explanation:Investigating and Managing Ankylosing Spondylitis
Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in males aged 20-30 years old. Inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP are usually elevated, but normal levels do not necessarily rule out ankylosing spondylitis. HLA-B27 is not a reliable diagnostic tool as it can also be positive in normal individuals. The most effective way to diagnose ankylosing spondylitis is through a plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints. However, if the x-ray is negative but suspicion for AS remains high, an MRI can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis.
Management of ankylosing spondylitis involves regular exercise, such as swimming, and the use of NSAIDs as the first-line treatment. Physiotherapy can also be helpful. Disease-modifying drugs used for rheumatoid arthritis, such as sulphasalazine, are only useful if there is peripheral joint involvement. Anti-TNF therapy, such as etanercept and adalimumab, should be given to patients with persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments, according to the 2010 EULAR guidelines. Ongoing research is being conducted to determine whether anti-TNF therapies should be used earlier in the course of the disease. Spirometry may show a restrictive defect due to a combination of pulmonary fibrosis, kyphosis, and ankylosis of the costovertebral joints.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman is admitted with an unstable open tib-fib fracture after a road traffic collision. There is neurovascular compromise; however, there is no overt bleeding, and the decision is made to bleep the on-call consultants in vascular and trauma and orthopaedics to take the patient to theatre. She is on warfarin for atrial fibrillation (AF), and her international normalised ratio (INR) is currently 3.2 (normal value <1.1).
What is the most appropriate intervention before surgery, with regard to her INR?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Administer Prothrombinex™ 35–50 iu/kg
Explanation:Interventions for High INR in Emergency Surgery
When a patient requires emergency surgery and has a high INR, urgent reversal of anticoagulation is necessary. Administering Prothrombinexâ„¢ intravenously can act as a rapid reversal agent before taking the patient to theatre. While the benefits of surgery may outweigh the risks, the raised INR should not be ignored. Oral vitamin K is typically used when a patient’s INR is >10.0, but no overt bleeding is present and the patient is not due for theatre. If the patient is going to theatre the following day, 3 mg of vitamin K IV would be appropriate. Fresh frozen plasma is a second-line intervention to Prothrombinexâ„¢. It is crucial to retest the INR a few hours after administering vitamin K and take further actions based on the subsequent result.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male with a history of heavy alcohol consumption presents with sudden onset epigastric pain that spreads to the right side. During examination, his sclera appear yellow, and he experiences tenderness in the right upper quadrant of his abdomen with localized guarding. His vital signs are as follows: heart rate 95/min, blood pressure 80/50 mmHg, saturation 99% on 2L, temperature 39.5ºC, and Glasgow coma score 14/15 (confused speech). Which of the following diagnoses could account for these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ascending cholangitis
Explanation:Charcot’s cholangitis triad consists of three symptoms: fever, jaundice, and right upper quadrant pain. Meanwhile, Reynolds Pentad, which includes jaundice, right upper quadrant pain, fever/rigors, shock, and altered mental status, is linked to ascending cholangitis. Before conducting further investigations on the biliary tree, such as ultrasound or magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography for common bile duct stones, or endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography, the patient must first receive adequate resuscitation.
Understanding Ascending Cholangitis
Ascending cholangitis is a bacterial infection that affects the biliary tree, with E. coli being the most common culprit. This condition is often associated with gallstones, which can predispose individuals to the infection. Patients with ascending cholangitis may present with Charcot’s triad, which includes fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. However, this triad is only present in 20-50% of cases. Other common symptoms include hypotension and confusion. In severe cases, Reynolds’ pentad may be observed, which includes the additional symptoms of hypotension and confusion.
To diagnose ascending cholangitis, ultrasound is typically used as a first-line investigation to look for bile duct dilation and stones. Raised inflammatory markers may also be observed. Treatment involves intravenous antibiotics and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) after 24-48 hours to relieve any obstruction.
Overall, ascending cholangitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the symptoms and risk factors associated with this condition can help individuals seek medical attention early and improve their chances of a successful recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old patient presents with acute pain in his right calf, from the knee downwards, causing him great difficulty in walking. Of note, pulses are not palpable in the right limb below the knee. While standing, the right limb appears more erythematosus than the left, but this colour quickly fades on laying the patient flat.
Which one of the following statements is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic arterial insufficiency is likely to be an underlying factor in the above presentation
Explanation:Understanding Chronic Arterial Insufficiency and Acute Limb Ischaemia
Chronic arterial insufficiency can be a contributing factor to acute limb ischaemia, a condition where blood flow to a limb is suddenly blocked. In patients with pre-existing stenotic vessels, an embolus or thrombus can easily occlude the vessel, leading to acute limb ischaemia. While patients with chronic arterial insufficiency may develop collaterals, these may not prevent the symptoms of acute limb ischaemia. Paraesthesiae, or altered sensation, is a common symptom of acute limb ischaemia. While ankle-brachial pressure index measurement can be useful, it is of limited use in diagnosing acute limb ischaemia. A Fogarty catheter can be used for surgical embolectomy, and lumbar sympathectomy may be performed in chronic arterial insufficiency to increase distal blood flow.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man has had surgery for an inguinal hernia. After a week, he comes back with a wound that is red, painful, and oozing pus. What is the probable reason for this?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Infection with Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Staph aureus was responsible for the majority of infections, as per the given situation. Infections caused by strep pyogenes and other organisms were infrequent.
Preventing Surgical Site Infections
Surgical site infections (SSI) are a common complication following surgery, with up to 20% of all healthcare-associated infections being SSIs. These infections occur when there is a breach in tissue surfaces, allowing normal commensals and other pathogens to initiate infection. In many cases, the organisms causing the infection are derived from the patient’s own body. Measures that may increase the risk of SSI include shaving the wound using a razor, using a non-iodine impregnated incise drape, tissue hypoxia, and delayed administration of prophylactic antibiotics in tourniquet surgery.
To prevent SSIs, there are several steps that can be taken before, during, and after surgery. Before surgery, it is recommended to avoid routine removal of body hair and to use electric clippers with a single-use head if hair needs to be removed. Antibiotic prophylaxis should be considered for certain types of surgery, such as placement of a prosthesis or valve, clean-contaminated surgery, and contaminated surgery. Local formulary should be used, and a single-dose IV antibiotic should be given on anesthesia. If a tourniquet is to be used, prophylactic antibiotics should be given earlier.
During surgery, the skin should be prepared with alcoholic chlorhexidine, which has been shown to have the lowest incidence of SSI. The surgical site should be covered with a dressing, and wound edge protectors do not appear to confer any benefit. Postoperatively, tissue viability advice should be given for the management of surgical wounds healing by secondary intention. The use of diathermy for skin incisions is not advocated in the NICE guidelines, but several randomized controlled trials have demonstrated no increase in the risk of SSI when diathermy is used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which type of tumor is typically linked to a paraneoplastic syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bronchial carcinoma
Explanation:Paraneoplastic Syndromes
Paraneoplastic syndromes are commonly linked to certain types of cancer, such as bronchial carcinoma, pancreatic carcinoma, breast carcinoma, and renal cell carcinoma. These syndromes are characterized by clinical effects that are associated with the presence of a neoplasm, but are not directly related to the infiltration of the primary tumor or its metastases. Paraneoplastic syndromes may or may not be caused by hormone secretion.
One example of a paraneoplastic syndrome is Cushing’s syndrome, which can occur in association with small cell bronchial carcinoma due to the secretion of ectopic ACTH. Another example is hypercalcemia, which can occur in the absence of bony metastases and may be caused by the secretion of a PTH-related peptide. Other paraneoplastic syndromes include myopathy and cerebellar ataxia.
In summary, paraneoplastic syndromes are a group of clinical effects that are associated with the presence of a neoplasm but are not directly related to the tumor itself. These syndromes can be caused by hormone secretion or other factors and can occur in a variety of cancer types.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of dysuria and urinary frequency that have been present for 2 weeks. She denies any recent sexual activity or vaginal discharge and is in good health otherwise. The GP suspects a UTI. What is the leading cause of UTIs?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Escherichia coli
Explanation:Common Bacteria that Cause Urinary Tract Infections
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are a common health problem caused by bacterial infections. The following are some of the most common bacteria that cause UTIs:
Escherichia coli (E. coli): This bacterium is responsible for up to 90% of UTIs. E. coli is part of the normal flora of the colon, and perianal colonisation can lead to ascending infection of the urethra. UTIs may involve the urethra (urethritis) or may ascend to infect the bladder (cystitis) or kidneys (pyelonephritis).
Staphylococcus aureus (S. aureus): This bacterium causes infections of the skin and wounds but, in severe cases, can also cause pneumonia, osteomyelitis, and endocarditis. They are also found as a commensal skin bacterium.
Proteus mirabilis: This is a less common cause of UTI but, like E. coli, is an enteric organism.
Klebsiella: This is also a less common cause of UTI but, like E. coli, is an enteric organism having spread from the anus.
Candida albicans: Candida is an unlikely cause for a UTI and is a far more common cause of vaginal infections, and can commonly contaminate a urine sample. Only in immunosuppression or if strong clinical suspicion should a urine sample growing Candida be considered to be a fungal UTI.
To diagnose a UTI, a urine dipstick test is needed to look for the presence of nitrites and leukocytes. If these are present, then empirical treatment is usually started with a 3-day course of trimethoprim (7-day course in men). If symptoms persist, then a mid-stream specimen of urine is sent for analysis where infection is diagnosed by the presence of >105 organisms per ml. The symptoms of UTIs may vary depending on the location of the infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman is being staged for her ovarian cancer diagnosis. The scan reveals that the tumor has extended beyond the ovary, but remains within the pelvic region. What is the stage of her cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.
Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.
Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman contacts her GP via telephone. She is currently 20 weeks pregnant and has had no complications thus far. However, she is now concerned as she recently spent time with her niece who has developed a rash that her sister suspects to be chickenpox. The patient is unsure if she had chickenpox as a child, but she had no symptoms until the past 24 hours when she developed a rash. She feels fine otherwise but is worried about the health of her baby. What is the most appropriate course of action at this point?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral acyclovir
Explanation:When pregnant women who are at least 20 weeks along contract chickenpox, they are typically prescribed oral acyclovir if they seek treatment within 24 hours of the rash appearing. This is in accordance with RCOG guidelines and is an important topic for exams. If the patient is asymptomatic after being exposed to chickenpox and is unsure of their immunity, a blood test should be conducted urgently. If the test is negative, VZIG should be administered. However, if the patient is certain that they are not immune to chickenpox, VZIG should be given without the need for a blood test. It is incorrect to administer both VZIG and oral acyclovir once symptoms of chickenpox have appeared, as VZIG is no longer effective at that point. Intravenous acyclovir is only necessary in cases of severe chickenpox.
Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral acyclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents to his GP with bone pain and muscle tenderness. He has a past medical history of stage 3 chronic kidney disease.
The GP decides to take some blood, and the results are shown below.
Calcium 2.1 mmol/L (2.2-2.7)
Phosphate 0.72 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
Magnesium 0.9 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 4.8 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
Free thyroxine (T4) 10.8 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
What is the most appropriate initial management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin D supplements
Explanation:The appropriate management for osteomalacia, which is likely caused by chronic kidney disease, involves vitamin D supplementation with an initial loading dose regime. Blood tests for osteomalacia typically reveal low levels of calcium and phosphate, as well as high levels of alkaline phosphatase. Calcium supplementation may also be prescribed if the patient’s dietary intake is insufficient. Intravenous fluids and bisphosphonates are not recommended for the treatment of hypocalcaemia, while levothyroxine is used to manage hypothyroidism and oral bisphosphonates are used for osteoporosis.
Understanding Osteomalacia
Osteomalacia is a condition that occurs when the bones become soft due to low levels of vitamin D, which leads to a decrease in bone mineral content. This condition is commonly seen in adults, while in growing children, it is referred to as rickets. The causes of osteomalacia include vitamin D deficiency, malabsorption, lack of sunlight, chronic kidney disease, drug-induced factors, inherited conditions, liver disease, and coeliac disease.
The symptoms of osteomalacia include bone pain, muscle tenderness, fractures, especially in the femoral neck, and proximal myopathy, which may lead to a waddling gait. To diagnose osteomalacia, blood tests are conducted to check for low vitamin D levels, low calcium and phosphate levels, and raised alkaline phosphatase levels. X-rays may also show translucent bands known as Looser’s zones or pseudofractures.
The treatment for osteomalacia involves vitamin D supplementation, with a loading dose often needed initially. Calcium supplementation may also be necessary if dietary calcium intake is inadequate. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for osteomalacia is crucial in managing this condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old male visits his doctor with complaints of urological symptoms. He reports frequent nighttime urination, urgency, difficulty initiating urination, and a weak stream. During a digital rectal exam, the doctor notes a smooth but enlarged prostate and orders a blood test to check PSA levels. To alleviate his symptoms, the doctor prescribes tamsulosin.
What is the mechanism of action of tamsulosin?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: α-1 antagonist
Explanation:The relaxation of smooth muscle is promoted by alpha-1 antagonists.
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition that affects older men, with around 50% of 50-year-old men showing evidence of BPH and 30% experiencing symptoms. The risk of BPH increases with age, with around 80% of 80-year-old men having evidence of the condition. BPH typically presents with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), which can be categorised into voiding symptoms (obstructive) and storage symptoms (irritative). Complications of BPH can include urinary tract infections, retention, and obstructive uropathy.
Assessment of BPH may involve dipstick urine tests, U&Es, and PSA tests. A urinary frequency-volume chart and the International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) can also be used to assess the severity of LUTS and their impact on quality of life. Management options for BPH include watchful waiting, alpha-1 antagonists, 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors, combination therapy, and surgery. Alpha-1 antagonists are considered first-line treatment for moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms, while 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors may be indicated for patients with significantly enlarged prostates and a high risk of progression. Combination therapy and antimuscarinic drugs may also be used in certain cases. Surgery, such as transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), may be necessary in severe cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man arrives at the emergency department following his fifth suicide attempt in the past two years. He was discovered by his ex-girlfriend, who ended their relationship the day before due to his intense mood swings and overwhelmingly negative emotions. He has no communication with his family and appears unkempt. When questioned, he expresses feelings of worthlessness and a belief that everyone will eventually leave him. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Emotionally unstable personality disorder (EUPD)
Explanation:The correct diagnosis for this patient is emotionally unstable personality disorder. This disorder is characterized by impulsive behavior, disturbances in self-image, and a fear of abandonment. Patients with this disorder often experience severe mood swings and intense negative emotions, including explosive anger outbursts and a chronic sense of emptiness. They tend to have intense relationships with others and may have a history of self-harm or suicide attempts.
Bipolar disorder is an incorrect diagnosis as there is no evidence of past manic episodes. Histrionic personality disorder is also incorrect as the patient does not exhibit the typical attention-seeking behavior and preoccupation with physical appearance. Major depressive disorder is also not the correct diagnosis as it does not account for the patient’s intense interpersonal relationships and fear of abandonment.
Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.
Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.
Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with sudden onset of palpitations. Upon examination, her pulse rate is found to be 180 bpm and she appears warm and well perfused. Her blood pressure is 135/80 mmHg, respiratory rate is 20/min, and oxygen saturation is 100% on air. Chest auscultation reveals no signs of cardiac failure, but an ECG shows a narrow complex tachycardia. Despite attempts at carotid massage and Valsalva manoeuvre, the rhythm disturbance persists. What is the appropriate initial management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IV adenosine
Explanation:Management of Narrow Complex Supraventricular Tachycardia
When a patient presents with narrow complex supraventricular tachycardia, the initial management would be to administer IV adenosine, provided there are no contraindications such as asthma. This medication creates a transient conduction delay, which may terminate the tachycardia or slow down the heart rate enough to identify the underlying rhythm. This information is crucial in determining the optimal antiarrhythmic therapy for the patient.
However, if the patient experiences chest pain, hypotension, SBP <90 mmHg, or evidence of cardiac failure, then DC cardioversion would be necessary. It is important to note that if the patient is not haemodynamically compromised, IV adenosine is the preferred initial management for narrow complex supraventricular tachycardia. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage this condition and provide the best possible care for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of lower back pain that has been ongoing for the past week. The pain has gradually worsened over the last few days, and he is now unable to change his posture due to the severity of the pain. The patient has a history of intravenous drug use and had visited his GP earlier in the month for shortness of breath and a low-grade fever. On examination, the patient has a temperature of 40ºC, needle track marks on his forearm, a systolic murmur in the tricuspid region, and severe restriction of movement in his back. A urine dip test reveals the presence of blood, but no other abnormalities are found. An MRI of the spine confirms a diagnosis of discitis. What other urgent investigations should be performed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Echocardiography
Explanation:Patients who use intravenous drugs and have infective endocarditis may exhibit symptoms of discitis.
The patient in question displays signs of infective endocarditis, including a mild fever, a systolic murmur in the tricuspid region (likely tricuspid regurgitation), and blood in their urine. Although these symptoms may seem unrelated, they are consistent with endocarditis. Septic emboli from the heart can travel to various parts of the body, causing inflammation and damage to tissues such as the intervertebral disc space and renal parenchyma. This can result in back pain and hematuria. It is important to rule out this condition by obtaining images of the heart.
An MRI of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder would be an expensive way to diagnose kidney stones and would not provide any additional diagnostic benefit in this case. Surgical exploration is too invasive at this stage, and the issue lies with the heart rather than the kidneys. An X-ray of the kidneys would not be helpful in this situation.
Understanding Discitis: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Discitis is a condition characterized by an infection in the intervertebral disc space, which can lead to serious complications such as sepsis or an epidural abscess. The most common cause of discitis is bacterial, with Staphylococcus aureus being the most frequent culprit. However, it can also be caused by viral or aseptic factors. The symptoms of discitis include back pain, pyrexia, rigors, and sepsis. In some cases, neurological features such as changing lower limb neurology may occur if an epidural abscess develops.
To diagnose discitis, imaging tests such as MRI are used due to their high sensitivity. A CT-guided biopsy may also be required to guide antimicrobial treatment. The standard therapy for discitis involves six to eight weeks of intravenous antibiotic therapy. The choice of antibiotic depends on various factors, with the most important being the identification of the organism through a positive culture, such as a blood culture or CT-guided biopsy.
Complications of discitis include sepsis and epidural abscess. Therefore, it is essential to assess the patient for endocarditis, which can be done through transthoracic echo or transesophageal echo. Discitis is usually due to haematogenous seeding of the vertebrae, which implies that the patient has had a bacteraemia, and seeding could have occurred elsewhere. Understanding the causes, symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of discitis is crucial in managing this condition and preventing its complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with severe epigastric pain and vomiting. The pain radiates through to her back and began 2 hours ago while she was out with her friends in a restaurant. She has a past medical history of gallstones and asthma.
Which test should be used to confirm this woman’s diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serum lipase
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Acute Pancreatitis
Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is commonly caused by gallstones and alcohol consumption. Its symptoms include upper abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. While serum amylase is widely used for diagnosis, serum lipase is preferred where available. Serum lactate is a useful marker for organ perfusion and can indicate the severity of the inflammatory response. A raised white cell count, particularly neutrophilia, is associated with a poorer prognosis. Serum calcium levels may also be affected, but this is not a specific test for pancreatitis. Blood glucose levels may be abnormal, with hyperglycemia being common, but this is not diagnostic of acute pancreatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Who sets the rules on treatment and investigation of 16-year olds who lack capacity to consent in Scotland?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adults with Incapacity (Scotland) Act 2000
Explanation:Overview of Scottish Legislation and Guidance for Capacity and Welfare
In Scotland, there are several pieces of legislation and guidance in place to safeguard the welfare and manage the finances of individuals who lack capacity due to mental disorder or inability to communicate. The Adults with Incapacity (Scotland) Act 2000 provides the framework for this, while the Age of Legal Capacity (Scotland) Act 1991 presumes that all individuals aged 16 and over have the capacity to consent to treatment unless there is evidence to the contrary.
The Children’s Act (Scotland) 1995 sets out the duties and powers available to public authorities to support children and their families and intervene when a child’s welfare requires it. The Scotland’s Commissioner for Children and Young People guidance explains the rights of young people under the age of 18.
In addition, the decision regarding young person’s competence in R v Gillick established the concept of Gillick competency and Fraser guidelines, which are used to assess whether a child has the maturity to make their own decisions and understand the implications of those decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ethics And Legal
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Question 18
Incorrect
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An 89-year-old patient presents to the Cardiology clinic. She has been seen previously for worsening congestive heart failure symptoms, but today she reports that her mobility and breathlessness have greatly improved, thanks to a new medication she has been prescribed. Routine blood tests report the following:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 122 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 4.7 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 187 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 137 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 2.7 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 115 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
What is the cause of her biochemical abnormality?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibition of the Na+K+2Cl− symporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle
Explanation:Mechanisms and Side-Effects of Different Diuretics
Loop diuretics like furosemide and bumetanide inhibit the Na+K+2Cl− symporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle, leading to hyponatraemia, hypochloraemia and hypokalaemia. Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, antagonizes aldosterone, causing natriuresis, diuresis and potassium conservation, but also hyperkalaemia. Acetazolamide inhibits carbonic anhydrase, leading to the excretion of sodium, chloride and bicarbonate, and is mainly used in acute open angle closure glaucoma. Thiazide diuretics like bendroflumethiazide inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+/Cl− cotransporter in the late distal convoluted tubules, causing hyponatraemia, hypokalaemia and other side-effects. ACE inhibitors like ramipril and enalapril block the production of angiotensin II, causing vasodilation and hyperkalaemia, and are used in hypertension, symptomatic heart failure and secondary prophylaxis following a myocardial infarction. Common side-effects of these diuretics include hyperkalaemia, hypokalaemia, hyperuricaemia, hyperglycaemia, gout, postural hypotension, and altered liver function tests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Biochemistry
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of epigastric pain and vomiting. He has a history of heavy alcohol consumption. His serum amylase level is 1020 u/l, and acute pancreatitis is diagnosed. Which of the following factors is NOT included in the modified Glasgow severity scoring?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serum amylase
Explanation:Markers for Severity and Mortality in Pancreatitis
Pancreatitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. Several markers can help assess the severity of the disease and predict mortality. The modified Glasgow severity score is a useful tool for stratifying patients based on their clinical presentation. A score of 3 or above indicates severe pancreatitis and the need for transfer to the Intensive Therapy Unit.
Serum amylase is a diagnostic marker for pancreatitis, but its levels may be normal even in severe cases. Elevated amylase levels can also occur in other acute conditions, such as acute cholecystitis or intestinal obstruction. Therefore, it should not be used as a serial marker for assessing disease progression. Instead, serial C-reactive protein levels are more useful for this purpose.
Serum albumin is an important marker of mortality in pancreatitis. A fall in albumin level can contribute to peripheral edema and difficulty in maintaining blood pressure. Age is another predictor of mortality, as it is associated with co-morbidities. Corrected calcium is a useful marker for severe pancreatitis, as it indicates the precipitation of calcium in the abdomen, causing hypocalcemia. Finally, white cell count is a marker of inflammation and can indicate the spread of the disease.
In conclusion, a combination of these markers can help clinicians assess the severity of pancreatitis and predict mortality. Early recognition and management of severe cases can improve outcomes and reduce morbidity and mortality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden lower abdominal pain that started 2 hours ago. She is sexually active and has not been using condoms lately. Although she has a long-term partner, she has not undergone any sexual health screening. During the examination, she experiences tenderness in the right iliac fossa, with a heart rate of 100 bpm, blood pressure of 120/75 mmHg, and a temperature of 37.8ºC. What is the initial investigation that should be conducted?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urine pregnancy test
Explanation:Ectopic pregnancy, appendicitis, and pelvic inflammatory disease are possible differentials for abdominal pain in women of Childbearing age. The first investigation to be performed should be a urine dip to rule out ectopic pregnancy. Low vaginal swabs are not necessary at this stage.
Exam Features of Abdominal Pain Conditions
Abdominal pain can be caused by various conditions, and it is important to be familiar with their characteristic exam features. Peptic ulcer disease, for instance, may present with epigastric pain that is relieved by eating in duodenal ulcers and worsened by eating in gastric ulcers. Appendicitis, on the other hand, may initially cause pain in the central abdomen before localizing to the right iliac fossa, accompanied by anorexia, tenderness in the right iliac fossa, and a positive Rovsing’s sign. Acute pancreatitis, which is often due to alcohol or gallstones, may manifest as severe epigastric pain and vomiting, with tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever on examination.
Other conditions that may cause abdominal pain include biliary colic, diverticulitis, and intestinal obstruction. Biliary colic may cause pain in the right upper quadrant that radiates to the back and interscapular region, while diverticulitis may present with colicky pain in the left lower quadrant, fever, and raised inflammatory markers. Intestinal obstruction, which may be caused by malignancy or previous operations, may lead to vomiting, absence of bowel movements, and tinkling bowel sounds.
It is also important to remember that some conditions may have unusual or medical causes of abdominal pain, such as acute coronary syndrome, diabetic ketoacidosis, pneumonia, acute intermittent porphyria, and lead poisoning. Therefore, being familiar with the characteristic exam features of various conditions can aid in the diagnosis and management of abdominal pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is experiencing severe joint pain and synovitis in her hands and wrists. Despite being prescribed methotrexate and sulfasalazine, her symptoms have not improved. Her rheumatologist has recommended switching to adalimumab. Before starting this medication, which test must be performed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chest x-ray
Explanation:Managing Rheumatoid Arthritis with Disease-Modifying Therapies
The management of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) has significantly improved with the introduction of disease-modifying therapies (DMARDs) in the past decade. Patients with joint inflammation should start a combination of DMARDs as soon as possible, along with analgesia, physiotherapy, and surgery. In 2018, NICE updated their guidelines for RA management, recommending DMARD monotherapy with a short course of bridging prednisolone as the initial step. Monitoring response to treatment is crucial, and NICE suggests using a combination of CRP and disease activity to assess it. Flares of RA are often managed with corticosteroids, while methotrexate is the most widely used DMARD. Other DMARDs include sulfasalazine, leflunomide, and hydroxychloroquine. TNF-inhibitors are indicated for patients with an inadequate response to at least two DMARDs, including methotrexate. Etanercept, infliximab, and adalimumab are some of the TNF-inhibitors available, each with their own risks and administration methods. Rituximab and Abatacept are other DMARDs that can be used, but the latter is not currently recommended by NICE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of urinary incontinence. She experiences this symptom throughout the day and has noticed that her urine flow is weak when she does manage to go voluntarily. During the examination, the GP detects a distended bladder despite the patient having just urinated before the appointment. What is the probable diagnosis for this woman's condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urinary overflow incontinence
Explanation:The patient, an elderly woman, is experiencing urinary incontinence as evidenced by the palpable bladder even after urination. While prostate problems are a common cause of urinary overflow incontinence, this is not applicable in this case as the patient is a woman. Other possible causes include nerve damage resulting in a neurogenic bladder, which can be a complication of diabetes, chronic alcoholism, or pelvic surgery. The absence of a sudden urge to urinate rules out urge incontinence, while overactive bladder syndrome, a type of urge incontinence, is characterized by incontinence, frequent urination, and nocturia, which are not present in this case. Stress incontinence, which is associated with increased intraabdominal pressure, is also not observed. Therefore, a diagnosis of mixed incontinence is not warranted.
Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management
Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.
In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department after ingesting a significant amount of prescription drugs. She was discovered at home with empty bottles of imipramine nearby. Despite appearing drowsy, she informs the doctor that she took the medications about 8 hours ago.
During the examination, the patient is found to be hypotensive, tachycardic, and drowsy. An ECG reveals a QRS width of 162ms. What treatment should be given?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous bicarbonate
Explanation:In cases of tricyclic overdose, the presence of a widened QRS complex or arrhythmia on ECG requires immediate administration of IV bicarbonate as the first-line therapy. Activated charcoal may not be effective if the patient presents more than 2 hours after ingestion. Amiodarone should be avoided as it can worsen hypotension and conduction abnormalities. Glucagon is not indicated for tricyclic overdose, as it is used for beta-blocker overdose. Magnesium sulphate is not useful in the management of tricyclic overdose, but is used for torsades de pointes and eclampsia.
Tricyclic overdose is a common occurrence in emergency departments, with particular danger associated with amitriptyline and dosulepin. Early symptoms include dry mouth, dilated pupils, agitation, sinus tachycardia, and blurred vision. Severe poisoning can lead to arrhythmias, seizures, metabolic acidosis, and coma. ECG changes may include sinus tachycardia, widening of QRS, and prolongation of QT interval. QRS widening over 100ms is linked to an increased risk of seizures, while QRS over 160 ms is associated with ventricular arrhythmias.
Management of tricyclic overdose involves IV bicarbonate as first-line therapy for hypotension or arrhythmias. Other drugs for arrhythmias, such as class 1a and class Ic antiarrhythmics, are contraindicated as they prolong depolarisation. Class III drugs like amiodarone should also be avoided as they prolong the QT interval. Lignocaine’s response is variable, and it should be noted that correcting acidosis is the first line of management for tricyclic-induced arrhythmias. Intravenous lipid emulsion is increasingly used to bind free drug and reduce toxicity. Dialysis is ineffective in removing tricyclics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 24-hour history of fever, headache, and neck stiffness. She has no significant past medical history and no allergies.
Her vital signs are currently stable, and there are no visible rashes on examination. The patient is fully alert and oriented with a GCS of 15/15.
After consulting with a senior physician, it is determined that a lumbar puncture is necessary. However, due to departmental constraints, it is unlikely that the procedure can be performed within the next hour.
What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IV ceftriaxone immediately
Explanation:When patients are suspected of having viral meningitis, doctors often prescribe antibiotics as a precaution until the results of a lumbar puncture are available. This is especially true for elderly patients or those with weakened immune systems. If a young patient presents with symptoms such as fever, headache, and neck stiffness, doctors may perform tests like Kernig’s or Brudzinski’s signs to help diagnose the condition. However, because bacterial meningitis can be very dangerous, doctors may start treatment before a definitive diagnosis is made. Even if the likelihood of bacterial meningitis is low, delaying treatment could have serious consequences for the patient. Viral meningitis is more common and less severe than bacterial meningitis, but it can be difficult to distinguish between the two based on symptoms alone. Therefore, doctors may prescribe antibiotics as a precaution if a lumbar puncture cannot be performed within an hour. In this case, intravenous ceftriaxone would be the appropriate treatment. IV fluconazole is used to treat severe fungal infections, but it is unlikely to be necessary in an otherwise healthy patient. IV amoxicillin is typically reserved for patients who are immunocompromised, under 6 months old, or over 60 years old, as it can help protect against Listeria monocytogenes.
Understanding Viral Meningitis
Viral meningitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the leptomeninges and cerebrospinal fluid in the subarachnoid space caused by a viral agent. It is a more common and less severe condition compared to bacterial meningitis. Although approximately 3,000 cases of confirmed viral meningitis are reported yearly, the actual number of cases is likely to be much higher as patients often do not seek medical attention.
The causes of viral meningitis include non-polio enteroviruses such as coxsackievirus and echovirus, mumps, herpes simplex virus (HSV), cytomegalovirus (CMV), herpes zoster viruses, HIV, and measles. Patients at the extremes of age, immunocompromised patients, and intravenous drug users are at higher risk of developing viral meningitis.
Common symptoms of viral meningitis include headache, neck stiffness, photophobia, confusion, and fever. Focal neurological deficits on examination and seizures suggest a meningoencephalitis. A lumbar puncture is necessary to confirm the diagnosis, and cerebrospinal fluid findings in viral meningitis include lymphocyte-predominant cell differential, glucose levels of 2.8 – 4.2 mmol/L or 2/3 paired serum glucose mmol/L, and protein levels of 0.5 – 1 g/dL.
Management of viral meningitis involves supportive treatment while awaiting the results of the lumbar puncture. If there is any suspicion of bacterial meningitis or encephalitis, broad-spectrum antibiotics with CNS penetration such as ceftriaxone and acyclovir intravenously should be administered. Generally, viral meningitis is self-limiting, and symptoms improve over the course of 7 – 14 days. acyclovir may be used if the patient is suspected of having meningitis secondary to HSV. Complications are rare in immunocompetent patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 25
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man is scheduled for a surgery to remove a cancerous growth in his large intestine. He has been noticing a gradual decrease in weight and alteration in bowel movements for the past two months. A recent colonoscopy has revealed a mass in the lower part of his descending colon. Despite his age, he appears to be in good health and is prepared to proceed with the procedure. What is the most probable surgery he will undergo?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left hemicolectomy
Explanation:The appropriate surgical procedure for a patient with distal transverse or descending colon cancer is a left hemicolectomy. This procedure involves removing the distal two-thirds of the transverse colon, the descending colon, and the sigmoid colon. The rectum is left intact and anastomosed with the proximal transverse colon, avoiding the need for a permanent stoma.
Other surgical options, such as Hartmann’s procedure, high anterior resection, low anterior resection, and right hemicolectomy, are not suitable for this patient’s condition. Hartmann’s procedure is reserved for emergencies, while high anterior resection and low anterior resection are used for rectal tumors. Right hemicolectomy is performed for cancers in the cecum, ascending colon, or proximal third of the transverse colon.
Colorectal cancer is typically diagnosed through CT scans and colonoscopies or CT colonography. Patients with tumors below the peritoneal reflection should also undergo MRI to evaluate their mesorectum. Once staging is complete, a treatment plan is formulated by a dedicated colorectal MDT meeting.
For colon cancer, surgery is the primary treatment option, with resectional surgery being the only cure. The procedure is tailored to the patient and tumor location, with lymphatic chains being resected based on arterial supply. Anastomosis is the preferred method of restoring continuity, but in some cases, an end stoma may be necessary. Chemotherapy is often offered to patients with risk factors for disease recurrence.
Rectal cancer management differs from colon cancer due to the rectum’s anatomical location. Tumors can be surgically resected with either an anterior resection or an abdominoperineal excision of rectum (APER). A meticulous dissection of the mesorectal fat and lymph nodes is integral to the procedure. Neoadjuvant radiotherapy is often offered to patients prior to resectional surgery, and those with obstructing rectal cancer should have a defunctioning loop colostomy.
Segmental resections based on blood supply and lymphatic drainage are the primary operations for cancer. The type of resection and anastomosis depend on the site of cancer. In emergency situations where the bowel has perforated, an end colostomy is often safer. Left-sided resections are more risky, but ileocolic anastomoses are relatively safe even in the emergency setting and do not need to be defunctioned.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner for a follow-up appointment after being diagnosed with depression. She is currently undergoing treatment with citalopram and has started a course of cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT).
What is used to assess the effectiveness of treatment in patients with depression?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9)
Explanation:Common Screening Tools Used in Primary Care
Primary care physicians often use various screening tools to assess their patients’ mental and physical health. Here are some of the most commonly used screening tools:
1. Patient Health Questionnaire-9 (PHQ-9): This tool is used to monitor the severity of depression and the response to treatment.
2. Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE): This questionnaire is used to identify cognitive impairment and screen for dementia.
3. Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test (AUDIT): This screening tool is used to identify signs of harmful drinking and dependence on alcohol.
4. Generalised Anxiety Disorder Questionnaire (GAD-7): This tool consists of seven questions and is used to screen for generalised anxiety disorder and measure the severity of symptoms.
5. Modified Single-Answer Screening Question (M-SASQ): This is a single question alcohol harm assessment tool designed for use in Emergency Departments. It identifies high-risk drinkers based on the frequency of consuming six or more units (if female) or eight or more units (if male) on a single occasion in the last year.
By using these screening tools, primary care physicians can identify potential health issues early on and provide appropriate treatment and care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old male patient complains of worsening breathlessness and weight loss over the past two months. During examination, scattered wheezing, coughing, and fever are observed. A chest x-ray reveals pneumonic shadowing, and there are several tender subcutaneous nodules and a purpuric rash. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Churg-Strauss syndrome
Explanation:Churg-Strauss Syndrome: A Granulomatous Vasculitis
Churg-Strauss syndrome is a type of granulomatous vasculitis that is more commonly seen in males. The classic presentation of this syndrome includes asthma, rhinitis, and eosinophilia vasculitis. The condition is characterized by pulmonary eosinophilic infiltration, with the lungs, peripheral veins, and skin being the most commonly affected areas. Chest x-rays typically show transient patchy pneumonic shadows, while the skin may exhibit tender subcutaneous nodules and purpuric lesions. In addition, perinuclear anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (pANCA) is usually positive.
While sarcoidosis may present with similar symptoms, wheezing is not typically seen, and bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy is the typical x-ray feature. On the other hand, granulomatosis with polyangiitis may also be a possibility, but ENT symptoms are expected, and wheezing is not typical. Overall, Churg-Strauss syndrome should be considered in patients presenting with asthma, rhinitis, and eosinophilia vasculitis, along with the characteristic pulmonary and skin manifestations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl presents to her GP requesting contraception.
In which of the following scenarios could contraception be legally withheld?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She does not have an understanding of the implications of contraception
Explanation:Legal Considerations for Prescribing Contraception to a 15-Year-Old Girl
When considering prescribing contraception to a 15-year-old girl, there are legal criteria that must be met. The Fraser criteria state that the patient must have the ability to understand the implications of contraception for herself and her family. If this is the case, and there is no medical contraindication, the girl can request whichever form of contraception she prefers.
The Fraser criteria also state that the girl must have made a decision to start or continue to have sexual intercourse, despite attempts at persuasion, and that prescribing contraception is in her best interests. In Scotland, the legal underpinnings are statutory, and the girl must be capable of understanding the nature and possible consequences of the procedure or treatment.
It is important to note that the type of contraception used will not have legal implications on whether contraception should be provided. However, if the girl is frightened to say no to her boyfriend, this may be a child safeguarding issue that requires careful handling. In this case, contraception can still be legally prescribed.
If the girl refuses to discuss matters with her parents, this is not a legal reason to withhold contraception. As long as the sustained and consistent refusal to discuss with parents criteria are met, contraception can be supplied. Similarly, if the girl’s parents are abroad, this does not affect the decision to provide contraception as long as all other criteria are met.
In conclusion, when considering prescribing contraception to a 15-year-old girl, it is important to ensure that the legal criteria are met and that the decision is in the girl’s best interests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ethics And Legal
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old asylum seeker from Africa presents to the Surgical Outpatient Clinic with a mass on the right side of his neck that has been growing in size. On examination, a mass is found on the side of the neck, behind the sternocleidomastoid muscle, which transilluminates brightly. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cystic hygroma
Explanation:Differentiating Neck Abnormalities: Cystic Hygroma, Laryngocoele, Cervical Rib, Branchial Cyst, and Enlarged Lymph Node
Neck abnormalities can be challenging to differentiate, but understanding their characteristics can aid in proper diagnosis. Cystic hygromas are lymphatic abnormalities that are commonly found in the posterior triangle of the neck and transilluminate. They may not be noticeable at birth but typically grow as the child grows. Laryngoceles are abnormal cystic dilatations of the saccule or appendix of the laryngeal ventricle, which communicate with the lumen of the larynx and are filled with air. They are usually benign but can cause airway obstruction. Cervical ribs are extra ribs that arise from the seventh cervical vertebra and are located above the first rib. They do not transilluminate. Branchial cysts are remnants of the second branchial cleft and occur along the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid, most commonly at the junction of the lower and middle thirds of the muscle. They do not transilluminate. Enlarged lymph nodes are usually secondary to an infection and settle to normal size after six to eight weeks. Understanding the characteristics of these neck abnormalities can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 30
Incorrect
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You are requested to assess an infant in the neonatal unit. The baby was delivered at 39 weeks gestation without any complications. The parents are hesitant to give their consent for vitamin K administration, citing their preference for a more natural approach. How would you advise the parents on the recommended practice for neonatal vitamin K?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Once-off IM injection
Explanation:Vitamin K is crucial in preventing haemorrhagic disease in newborns and can be administered orally or intramuscularly. While both methods are licensed for neonates, it is advisable to recommend the IM route to parents due to concerns about compliance and the shorter duration of treatment (one-off injection). The oral form is not recommended for healthy neonates as there is a risk of inadequate dosage due to forgetfulness or the baby vomiting up the medication.
Haemorrhagic Disease of the Newborn: Causes and Prevention
Newborn babies have a relatively low level of vitamin K, which can lead to the development of haemorrhagic disease of the newborn (HDN). This condition occurs when the production of clotting factors is impaired, resulting in bleeding that can range from minor bruising to intracranial haemorrhages. breastfed babies are particularly at risk, as breast milk is a poor source of vitamin K. Additionally, the use of antiepileptic medication by the mother can increase the risk of HDN in the newborn.
To prevent HDN, all newborns in the UK are offered vitamin K supplementation. This can be administered either intramuscularly or orally. By providing newborns with adequate levels of vitamin K, the risk of HDN can be significantly reduced. It is important for parents and healthcare providers to be aware of the risk factors for HDN and to take steps to prevent this potentially serious condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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