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  • Question 1 - A 42-year-old woman returns to her GP after attempting lifestyle modifications and pelvic...

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    • A 42-year-old woman returns to her GP after attempting lifestyle modifications and pelvic floor exercises for four months without success in managing her urinary stress incontinence. She expresses a desire for additional treatment options but prefers to avoid surgery. What is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Prescription of duloxetine

      Explanation:

      If pelvic floor muscle exercises are ineffective and surgical intervention is not desired, duloxetine may be used to manage stress incontinence, as per NICE guidance from 2019. It should be noted that bladder retraining is not recommended for this type of incontinence, and oxybutynin is only indicated for urge incontinence if bladder retraining has failed. Referral for urodynamics testing is also not recommended, with urogynaecology being the preferred option for secondary care. Additionally, NICE does not recommend continuing pelvic floor exercises for an additional 3 months.

      Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management

      Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.

      In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 2 - As a healthcare professional on a gynaecology ward, you are caring for a...

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    • As a healthcare professional on a gynaecology ward, you are caring for a 65-year-old woman who underwent an endometrial biopsy due to postmenopausal bleeding. Can you identify which type of ovarian tumor is linked to the development of endometrial hyperplasia?

      Your Answer: Granulosa cell tumours

      Explanation:

      The development of atypical hyperplasia of the endometrium is caused by excessive stimulation of the endometrium by oestrogen, and it is classified as a premalignant condition. Hormone production is increased in sex cord stromal tumours such as Thecomas, Fibromas, Sertoli cell and granulosa cell tumours, which are associated with this condition.

      Endometrial hyperplasia is a condition where the endometrium, the lining of the uterus, grows excessively beyond what is considered normal during the menstrual cycle. This abnormal proliferation can lead to endometrial cancer in some cases. There are four types of endometrial hyperplasia: simple, complex, simple atypical, and complex atypical. Symptoms of this condition include abnormal vaginal bleeding, such as intermenstrual bleeding.

      The management of endometrial hyperplasia depends on the type and severity of the condition. For simple endometrial hyperplasia without atypia, high dose progestogens may be prescribed, and repeat sampling is recommended after 3-4 months. The levonorgestrel intra-uterine system may also be used. However, if atypia is present, hysterectomy is usually advised.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 3 - A 28-year-old dentist presents to the General Practitioner (GP) with symptoms of irregular...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old dentist presents to the General Practitioner (GP) with symptoms of irregular menstrual bleeding associated with abdominal discomfort. She often does not have periods for months at a time. She is also overweight and has always had a history of hirsutism. The patient is concerned that she may have polycystic ovarian syndrome.
      A pelvic ultrasound is ordered to confirm the diagnosis.
      Which of the following is the most common site of referred ovarian pain?

      Your Answer: The hypochondria

      Correct Answer: The periumbilical region

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Referred Pain of Ovarian Inflammation

      The ovaries receive both sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation, with the nerve supply running along the suspensory ligament of the ovary. Ovarian pain is typically referred to the periumbilical region due to its sympathetic nerve supply originating at T10. Inflammation of an ovary can also cause referred pain to the inner thigh through stimulation of the adjacent obturator nerve. While pain may radiate to the suprapubic area, the most common site of ovarian pain is the periumbilical region. Pain in the hypochondria is more commonly associated with liver, gallbladder, or cardiac conditions. Understanding the referred pain of ovarian inflammation can aid in diagnosis and treatment.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain. She has a medical history of endometriosis and reports that her last period was one week ago. An ultrasound scan reveals the presence of free fluid in her pelvic region. What could be the underlying cause of her acute abdomen?

      Your Answer: Endometriosis

      Correct Answer: Ruptured endometrioma

      Explanation:

      A rupture endometrioma can result in a sudden and severe pain, given the patient’s medical history of endometriosis, acute abdomen, and fluid accumulation in the pelvis. Diverticular disease is an improbable diagnosis in this age group and does not match the symptoms described. Additionally, the patient’s current menstrual cycle rules out endometriosis pain as a possible cause.

      Understanding Endometriosis

      Endometriosis is a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. It affects around 10% of women of reproductive age and can cause chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, painful intercourse, and subfertility. Other symptoms may include urinary problems and painful bowel movements. Diagnosis is typically made through laparoscopy, and treatment options depend on the severity of symptoms.

      First-line treatments for symptomatic relief include NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. If these do not help, hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens may be tried. If symptoms persist or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Secondary treatments may include GnRH analogues or surgery. For women trying to conceive, laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis is recommended, as well as ovarian cystectomy for endometriomas.

      It is important to note that there is poor correlation between laparoscopic findings and severity of symptoms, and that there is little role for investigation in primary care. If symptoms are significant, referral for a definitive diagnosis is recommended.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of menorrhagia. She reports that...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of menorrhagia. She reports that her periods have been lasting for 10 days and are very heavy. She denies any recent weight loss and her recent sexual health screening was negative. On examination, there are no abnormalities. She has completed her family and has two children. What is the initial treatment option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Intrauterine system (Mirena coil)

      Explanation:

      For patients with menorrhagia who have completed their family and do not have any underlying pathology, pharmaceutical therapy is recommended. The first-line management for these patients, according to NICE CKS, is the Mirena coil, provided that long-term contraception with an intrauterine device is acceptable.

      Managing Heavy Menstrual Bleeding

      Heavy menstrual bleeding, also known as menorrhagia, is a condition where a woman experiences excessive blood loss during her menstrual cycle. While it was previously defined as total blood loss of over 80 ml per cycle, the management of menorrhagia now depends on the woman’s perception of what is excessive. In the past, hysterectomy was a common treatment for heavy periods, but the approach has changed significantly since the 1990s.

      To manage menorrhagia, a full blood count should be performed in all women. If symptoms suggest a structural or histological abnormality, a routine transvaginal ultrasound scan should be arranged. For women who do not require contraception, mefenamic acid or tranexamic acid can be used. If there is no improvement, other drugs can be tried while awaiting referral.

      For women who require contraception, options include the intrauterine system (Mirena), combined oral contraceptive pill, and long-acting progestogens. Norethisterone can also be used as a short-term option to rapidly stop heavy menstrual bleeding. The flowchart below shows the management of menorrhagia.

      [Insert flowchart here]

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old female patient presents to her GP seeking emergency contraception. She started...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female patient presents to her GP seeking emergency contraception. She started taking the progesterone-only pill on day 10 of her menstrual cycle and had unprotected sex with a new partner 3 days later. She is concerned about the lack of barrier contraception used during the encounter. What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Levonorgestrel

      Correct Answer: Reassurance and discharge

      Explanation:

      The progesterone-only pill requires 48 hours to become effective, except when started on or before day 5 of the menstrual cycle. During this time, additional barrier methods of contraception should be used. Since the patient is currently on day 10 of her menstrual cycle, it will take 48 hours for the POP to become effective. Therefore, having unprotected sex on day 14 of her menstrual cycle would be considered safe, and emergency contraception is not necessary.

      The intrauterine device can be used as emergency contraception within 5 days of unprotected sex, but it is not necessary in this case since the POP has become effective. The intrauterine system is not a form of emergency contraception and is not recommended for this patient. Levonorgestrel is a type of emergency contraception that must be taken within 72 hours of unprotected sex.

      Counselling for Women Considering the progesterone-Only Pill

      Women who are considering taking the progesterone-only pill (POP) should receive counselling on various aspects of the medication. One of the most common potential adverse effects is irregular vaginal bleeding. When starting the POP, immediate protection is provided if it is commenced up to and including day 5 of the cycle. If it is started later, additional contraceptive methods such as condoms should be used for the first 2 days. If switching from a combined oral contraceptive (COC), immediate protection is provided if the POP is continued directly from the end of a pill packet.

      It is important to take the POP at the same time every day, without a pill-free break, unlike the COC. If a pill is missed by less than 3 hours, it should be taken as normal. If it is missed by more than 3 hours, the missed pill should be taken as soon as possible, and extra precautions such as condoms should be used until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours. Diarrhoea and vomiting do not affect the POP, but assuming pills have been missed and following the above guidelines is recommended. Antibiotics have no effect on the POP, unless they alter the P450 enzyme system, such as rifampicin. Liver enzyme inducers may reduce the effectiveness of the POP.

      In addition to these specific guidelines, women should also have a discussion on sexually transmitted infections (STIs) when considering the POP. It is important for women to receive comprehensive counselling on the POP to ensure they are aware of its potential effects and how to use it effectively.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old female comes to see her GP with concerns about her mood...

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    • A 25-year-old female comes to see her GP with concerns about her mood during her menstrual cycle. She has been experiencing symptoms for the past 8 months despite making lifestyle changes. The week before her period, she notices a significant change in her mood, feeling extremely low and anxious with poor concentration. Her irritability is starting to affect her work as a primary school teacher. She has no other physical symptoms and feels like her usual self for the rest of the month. She has a medical history of migraine with aura.
      What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient, given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Understanding Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)

      Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is a condition that affects women during the luteal phase of their menstrual cycle. It is characterized by emotional and physical symptoms that can range from mild to severe. PMS only occurs in women who have ovulatory menstrual cycles and does not occur before puberty, during pregnancy, or after menopause.

      Emotional symptoms of PMS include anxiety, stress, fatigue, and mood swings. Physical symptoms may include bloating and breast pain. The severity of symptoms varies from woman to woman, and management options depend on the severity of symptoms.

      Mild symptoms can be managed with lifestyle advice, such as getting enough sleep, exercising regularly, and avoiding smoking and alcohol. Specific advice includes eating regular, frequent, small, balanced meals that are rich in complex carbohydrates.

      Moderate symptoms may benefit from a new-generation combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), such as Yasmin® (drospirenone 3 mg and ethinylestradiol 0.030 mg). Severe symptoms may benefit from a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which can be taken continuously or just during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle (for example, days 15-28, depending on the length of the cycle). Understanding PMS and its management options can help women better cope with this common condition.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 8 - A 36-year-old patient undergoing IVF for tubal disease presents with abdominal discomfort, nausea,...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old patient undergoing IVF for tubal disease presents with abdominal discomfort, nausea, and vomiting four days after egg retrieval. She has a history of well-controlled Crohn's disease and is currently taking azathioprine maintenance therapy. On examination, her abdomen appears distended. What is the most likely diagnosis in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Ruptured ovarian cyst

      Correct Answer: Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Ovarian Hyperstimulation Syndrome

      Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS) is a potential complication that can occur during infertility treatment. This condition is believed to be caused by the presence of multiple luteinized cysts in the ovaries, which can lead to high levels of hormones and vasoactive substances. As a result, the permeability of the membranes increases, leading to fluid loss from the intravascular compartment.

      OHSS is more commonly seen following gonadotropin or hCG treatment, and it is rare with Clomiphene therapy. Approximately one-third of women undergoing in vitro fertilization (IVF) may experience a mild form of OHSS. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has classified OHSS into four categories: mild, moderate, severe, and critical.

      Symptoms of OHSS can range from abdominal pain and bloating to more severe symptoms such as thromboembolism and acute respiratory distress syndrome. It is important to monitor patients closely during infertility treatment to detect any signs of OHSS and manage the condition appropriately. By understanding OHSS and its potential risks, healthcare providers can work to minimize the occurrence of this complication and ensure the safety of their patients.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 9 - A 30-year-old nulliparous patient presents to the Gynaecology Clinic with complaints of severe...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old nulliparous patient presents to the Gynaecology Clinic with complaints of severe menstrual pain and pain during intercourse. She reports that the symptoms have been progressively worsening. An ultrasound of the pelvis reveals a 4-cm cyst in the right ovary. The serum CA-125 level is 225 (0–34 iu/ml). What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ectopic endometrial tissue

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely suffering from endometriosis, which is the presence of endometrial tissue outside of the uterus. This condition can cause subfertility, chronic pelvic pain, dysmenorrhoea, and dyspareunia. It may also lead to an increase in serum CA-125 levels and the development of ovarian deposits known as chocolate cysts. Acute appendicitis and ovarian neoplasms are unlikely causes of the patient’s symptoms, while mittelschmerz only causes mid-cycle pain and does not explain the elevated CA-125 levels. Granulosa cell tumors of the ovary typically secrete inhibin and estrogen, making endometriosis a more likely diagnosis. Symptoms of ovarian cancer are often vague and include abdominal discomfort, bloating, back and pelvic pain, irregular menstruation, loss of appetite, fatigue, and weight loss. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include not having children, early first menstruation and last menopause, hormone replacement therapy, endometriosis, and the BRCA genes. In this age group, germ cell tumors are the most likely ovarian carcinoma.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 10 - A 59-year-old postmenopausal woman with a history of chronic hypertension and diabetes mellitus...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old postmenopausal woman with a history of chronic hypertension and diabetes mellitus presents with mild vaginal bleeding. Bimanual pelvic examination reveals a relatively large mass on the right side of the pelvis. The patient undergoes an abdominal and pelvic computed tomography scan with contrast injection. The scan shows multiple enlarged lymph nodes in the pelvis, along the iliac arteries. The para-aortic lymph nodes appear normal.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Uterine leiomyosarcoma

      Correct Answer: Cervical squamous cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Gynaecological Malignancies: Understanding the Differences

      When a postmenopausal woman presents with vaginal bleeding, pelvic mass, and pelvic lymphadenopathy, it is important to consider the different types of Gynaecological malignancies that could be causing these symptoms. The most likely diagnosis in this case is cervical squamous cell carcinoma, which typically metastasises to the pelvic lymph nodes along the iliac arteries.

      While endometrial carcinoma (adenocarcinoma) is the most common Gynaecological malignancy, it would also be a possibility in this patient. Ovarian cancer, the second most common Gynaecological cancer, typically metastasises to the para-aortic lymph nodes and is not associated with vaginal bleeding.

      Vulval cancers tend to metastasise to the superficial inguinal node and are unlikely to present with a pelvic mass or vaginal bleeding. Cervical adenocarcinomas are rare and derived from the endocervix, while uterine leiomyosarcoma often extends beyond the uterine serosa and occasionally metastasises to distant organs through blood vessels. However, neither of these malignancies typically present with vaginal bleeding and pelvic lymphadenopathy.

      In summary, understanding the differences between the various types of Gynaecological malignancies is crucial in accurately diagnosing and treating patients with these conditions.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 11 - A 35-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with concerns about her...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with concerns about her inability to conceive despite trying for two years with her regular partner. She has a BMI of 29 kg/m² and a known history of polycystic ovarian syndrome. What medication would be the most effective in restoring regular ovulation in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      For overweight or obese women with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) who are having difficulty getting pregnant, the initial approach is weight loss. If weight loss is not successful, either due to the woman’s inability to lose weight or failure to conceive despite weight loss, metformin can be used as an additional treatment.

      Managing Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome

      Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that affects a significant percentage of women of reproductive age. The exact cause of PCOS is not fully understood, but it is associated with high levels of luteinizing hormone and hyperinsulinemia. Management of PCOS is complex and varies depending on the individual’s symptoms. Weight reduction is often recommended, and a combined oral contraceptive pill may be used to regulate menstrual cycles and manage hirsutism and acne. If these symptoms do not respond to the pill, topical eflornithine or medications like spironolactone, flutamide, and finasteride may be used under specialist supervision.

      Infertility is another common issue associated with PCOS. Weight reduction is recommended, and the management of infertility should be supervised by a specialist. There is ongoing debate about the most effective treatment for infertility in patients with PCOS. Clomiphene is often used, but there is a potential risk of multiple pregnancies with anti-oestrogen therapies like Clomiphene. Metformin is also used, either alone or in combination with Clomiphene, particularly in patients who are obese. Gonadotrophins may also be used to stimulate ovulation. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) published an opinion paper in 2008 and concluded that on current evidence, metformin is not a first-line treatment of choice in the management of PCOS.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 12 - A 30-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of sudden onset of...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of sudden onset of right-sided iliac fossa pain, right tip shoulder pain and a scanty brown per vaginum (PV) bleed. She missed her last menstrual period which was due eight weeks ago. She has an intrauterine device (IUD) in place.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ruptured ectopic pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnoses for Abdominal Pain in Women of Childbearing Age

      One of the most likely diagnoses for a woman of childbearing age presenting with abdominal pain is a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. This is especially true if the patient has a history of using an intrauterine device (IUD), has missed a period, and experiences scanty bleeding. However, other possible differential diagnoses include appendicitis, ovarian cysts, and pelvic inflammatory disease.

      Appendicitis may cause right iliac fossa pain, but the other symptoms and history suggest an ectopic pregnancy as a more likely cause. A femoral hernia is inconsistent with the clinical findings. Ovarian cysts may also cause right iliac fossa pain, but the other features from the history point to an ectopic pregnancy as a more likely cause. Pelvic inflammatory disease is not consistent with the history described, as there is no offensive discharge and no sexual history provided. Additionally, pelvic inflammatory disease does not cause a delay in the menstrual period.

      It is important to always test for pregnancy in any woman of childbearing age presenting with abdominal pain, regardless of contraception use or perceived likelihood of pregnancy. Early diagnosis and treatment of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy can be life-saving.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 13 - A 32-year-old woman is considering artificial insemination. What is the most reliable blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman is considering artificial insemination. What is the most reliable blood hormone marker for predicting ovulation?

      Your Answer: Progesterone

      Correct Answer: Luteinising hormone (LH)

      Explanation:

      Hormones Involved in the Menstrual Cycle

      The menstrual cycle is regulated by a complex interplay of hormones. Here are the key hormones involved and their functions:

      Luteinising hormone (LH): This hormone triggers ovulation by causing the release of an egg from the ovary. An LH surge occurs prior to ovulation, and ovulation occurs about 12 hours after the peak in LH.

      Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH): FSH stimulates the development of follicles in the ovary. It peaks on day 3 of the menstrual cycle.

      Oestrogen: Oestrogen is responsible for the growth of the endometrium, the lining of the uterus.

      Progesterone: After ovulation, progesterone induces secretory activity of the endometrial glands in anticipation of implantation.

      Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG): If fertilisation occurs, the developing conceptus begins to secrete hCG from the syncytiotrophoblast. This hormone is a convenient marker for pregnancy, not ovulation.

      Understanding the roles of these hormones can help women better understand their menstrual cycle and fertility.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 14 - A 62-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a complaint of postmenopausal bleeding...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a complaint of postmenopausal bleeding that has been going on for a month. She takes aspirin 75 mg once daily as her only medication. An ultrasound scan of the uterus reveals an endometrial lining thickness of 4.1 mm. Although an endometrial pipelle biopsy was performed, it was inconclusive. What should be the next course of action?

      Your Answer: Hysteroscopy with biopsy

      Explanation:

      Investigation is necessary for any postmenopausal bleeding. The first step is to conduct a transvaginal ultrasound scan to examine the thickness of the endometrium. To diagnose endometrial cancer, a Pipelle biopsy is used to sample the endometrium, which is effective in most cases. Hysteroscopy with directed sampling (dilation and curettage) can be used to detect lesions or when Pipelle has been inconclusive. CT scan is not required as a pre-operative imaging test nor is it used to diagnose endometrial cancer.
      Reference: Colombo N, Preti E, Landoni F, Carinelli S, Colombo A, et al. Endometrial cancer: ESMO clinical practice guidelines for diagnosis, treatment and follow-up. Ann Oncol. 2013; 24 (6): vi33-vi38.

      Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Postmenopausal bleeding is the most common symptom of endometrial cancer, which is usually slight and intermittent initially before becoming more heavy. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.

      When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness (< 4 mm). Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for investigation. The management of localized disease involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may have postoperative radiotherapy. progesterone therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.

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  • Question 15 - A 27-year-old female patient comes in seeking advice on contraception. She is currently...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old female patient comes in seeking advice on contraception. She is currently on day 14 of her regular 28-30 day cycle and has no medical history or regular medications. She desires a method that is effective immediately and does not require daily attention. What contraceptive option would be suitable for her?

      Your Answer: Intrauterine device

      Explanation:

      If a woman is not starting her contraceptive method on the first day of her period, the time until it becomes effective varies. The only option that is effective immediately is an intrauterine device (IUD), which is a T-shaped device containing copper that is inserted into the uterus. Other methods, such as the progesterone-only pill (POP), combined oral contraceptive (COC), injection, implant, and intrauterine system (IUS), require a certain amount of time before they become effective. The POP requires 2 days, while the COC, injection, implant, and IUS all require 7 days before they become effective. It’s important to consider the effectiveness and convenience of each method before choosing the best option.

      Implanon and Nexplanon are subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the progesterone hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. Nexplanon is the newer version and has a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It does not contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a past history of thromboembolism or migraine. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraceptive methods are required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1 to 5 of a woman’s menstrual cycle.

      The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs such as certain antiepileptic and rifampicin may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a method unaffected by enzyme-inducing drugs or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment.

      There are also contraindications for using these implants, such as ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained, suspicious vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Current breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, which represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used. Overall, these implants are a highly effective and long-acting form of contraception, but they require careful consideration of the potential risks and contraindications.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 16 - A 19-year-old visits her doctor to discuss birth control options. After being informed...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old visits her doctor to discuss birth control options. After being informed about the different choices, she decides to begin taking a progesterone-only pill. Currently, she is on day 16 of her regular 29-day menstrual cycle. If she were to start taking the pill today, how many more days would she need to use additional contraception to avoid getting pregnant?

      Your Answer: 2 days

      Explanation:

      The effectiveness of different contraceptives varies in terms of the time it takes to become effective if not started on the first day of the menstrual cycle. The intrauterine device is the only method that is instantly effective at any time during the cycle as it reduces sperm motility and survival. The progesterone only pill takes at least 2 days to work if started after day 5 of the cycle and is immediately effective if started prior to day 5. The combined oral contraceptive pill, injection, implant, and intrauterine system take 7 days to become effective and work by inhibiting ovulation, thickening cervical mucous, and preventing endometrial proliferation. Side effects of the progesterone only pill may include menstrual irregularities, breast tenderness, weight gain, and acne.

      Counselling for Women Considering the progesterone-Only Pill

      Women who are considering taking the progesterone-only pill (POP) should receive counselling on various aspects of the medication. One of the most common potential adverse effects is irregular vaginal bleeding. When starting the POP, immediate protection is provided if it is commenced up to and including day 5 of the cycle. If it is started later, additional contraceptive methods such as condoms should be used for the first 2 days. If switching from a combined oral contraceptive (COC), immediate protection is provided if the POP is continued directly from the end of a pill packet.

      It is important to take the POP at the same time every day, without a pill-free break, unlike the COC. If a pill is missed by less than 3 hours, it should be taken as normal. If it is missed by more than 3 hours, the missed pill should be taken as soon as possible, and extra precautions such as condoms should be used until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours. Diarrhoea and vomiting do not affect the POP, but assuming pills have been missed and following the above guidelines is recommended. Antibiotics have no effect on the POP, unless they alter the P450 enzyme system, such as rifampicin. Liver enzyme inducers may reduce the effectiveness of the POP.

      In addition to these specific guidelines, women should also have a discussion on sexually transmitted infections (STIs) when considering the POP. It is important for women to receive comprehensive counselling on the POP to ensure they are aware of its potential effects and how to use it effectively.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 17 - A 21-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of abdominal pain that started...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of abdominal pain that started yesterday. She had her last period 2 weeks ago, and her menstrual cycle is usually regular. She has had multiple sexual partners in the past 6 months and has been experiencing deep dyspareunia lately. She has noticed an increase in vaginal discharge over the past few days, and the pain is not relieved by paracetamol. During the examination, her temperature is 37.8 °C, and she is otherwise stable within the normal range. Her abdomen is soft but tender, and a cervical exam reveals cervical excitation +++ with right adnexal tenderness and thick yellow/green discharge from the cervical os. Swabs are taken, and there is no bleeding. A urine β-HCG test is negative. What would be your next step?

      Your Answer: Give oral doxycycline and metronidazole for 2 weeks

      Correct Answer: Give intramuscular (im) ceftriaxone stat and a 14-day course of doxycycline and metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a common condition caused by the ascending infection of Chlamydia or gonorrhoeae from the vagina. The symptoms include bilateral lower abdominal pain, deep dyspareunia, and abnormal bleeding or discharge. The recent British Association for Sexual Health and HIV (BASHH) guideline recommends empirical antibiotic treatment for sexually active women under 25 who have these symptoms. The treatment includes stat im ceftriaxone and a 2-week course of doxycycline and metronidazole. Intravenous therapy is indicated in severe cases.

      Pelvic ultrasound scan is not necessary for the diagnosis of PID. Blood tests to check inflammatory markers and serum β-HCG are not required if the clinic history and examination suggest PID. Analgesia and observation are not sufficient for the treatment of PID. Oral antibiotics alone are not recommended for the treatment of PID.

      In conclusion, PID requires prompt and appropriate treatment with broad-spectrum antibiotics. The recommended treatment options should be followed based on the severity of the disease.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 18 - A 32-year-old woman visits a fertility clinic after trying to conceive for more...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman visits a fertility clinic after trying to conceive for more than two years. She is worried that she may not be ovulating despite having a regular menstrual cycle lasting 30 days. She is not using any form of birth control and her pregnancy test is negative. What is the most effective method to detect ovulation?

      Your Answer: Progesterone level

      Explanation:

      The most reliable way to confirm ovulation is through the Day 21 progesterone test. This test measures the peak level of progesterone in the serum, which occurs 7 days after ovulation. While the length of the follicular phase can vary, the luteal phase always lasts for 14 days. Therefore, if a woman has a 35-day cycle, she can expect to ovulate on Day 21 and her progesterone level will peak on Day 28. To determine when to take the test, subtract 7 days from the expected start of the next period (Day 21 for a 28-day cycle and Day 28 for a 35-day cycle). Basal body temperature charts and cervical mucous thickness are not reliable predictors of ovulation. Gonadotropins may be used to assess ovarian function in women with irregular menstrual cycles.

      Infertility is a common issue that affects approximately 1 in 7 couples. It is important to note that around 84% of couples who have regular sexual intercourse will conceive within the first year, and 92% within the first two years. The causes of infertility can vary, with male factor accounting for 30%, unexplained causes accounting for 20%, ovulation failure accounting for 20%, tubal damage accounting for 15%, and other causes accounting for the remaining 15%.

      When investigating infertility, there are some basic tests that can be done. These include a semen analysis and a serum progesterone test. The serum progesterone test is done 7 days prior to the expected next period, typically on day 21 for a 28-day cycle. The interpretation of the serum progesterone level is as follows: if it is less than 16 nmol/l, it should be repeated and if it remains consistently low, referral to a specialist is necessary. If the level is between 16-30 nmol/l, it should be repeated, and if it is greater than 30 nmol/l, it indicates ovulation.

      It is important to counsel patients on lifestyle factors that can impact fertility. This includes taking folic acid, maintaining a healthy BMI between 20-25, and advising regular sexual intercourse every 2 to 3 days. Additionally, patients should be advised to quit smoking and limit alcohol consumption to increase their chances of conceiving.

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  • Question 19 - A 52-year-old woman comes in for her routine cervical smear. She reports discomfort...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old woman comes in for her routine cervical smear. She reports discomfort during the insertion of the speculum and reveals that she has been experiencing dyspareunia and a burning sensation when using tampons for the past few months. The pain can persist for several hours after sexual intercourse. She denies having any vaginal discharge, and her skin appears normal. What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Provoked vulvodynia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Vulvodynia: Types, Causes, and Associated Conditions

      Vulvodynia is a chronic pain condition that affects the vulvovaginal region and lasts for at least three months without any identifiable cause. There are two types of vulvodynia: provoked and unprovoked. Provoked vulvodynia is triggered by sexual intercourse or tampon insertion, while unprovoked vulvodynia is a spontaneous chronic pain that is present most of the time.

      Vulvodynia can be localised or generalised and can be primary or secondary. It can affect women of any age and is associated with various factors such as neurological conditions, chronic pain syndromes, genetic predisposition, pelvic muscle overactivity, anxiety, and depression. The exact mechanism of vulvodynia is not yet understood, but it is believed to be multifactorial and complex.

      Other conditions that can cause pain in the vulvovaginal region include sexually transmitted infections, lichen sclerosus, and lichen planus. Sexually transmitted infections usually present with dyspareunia, abnormal bleeding, and a vaginal discharge. Lichen sclerosus presents with itching and burning, while lichen planus presents with purple-red lesions and overlying lacy markings.

      Vulvodynia is a dysfunctional pain syndrome that can significantly impact a woman’s quality of life. It is essential to seek medical attention if you experience any pain or discomfort in the vulvovaginal region to determine the underlying cause and receive appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 20 - A 30-year-old woman presents with a 3-week history of episodes of postcoital bleeding....

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman presents with a 3-week history of episodes of postcoital bleeding. She has had some lower abdominal pain but no tenderness or urinary symptoms. She is sexually active, with regular periods and her last menstrual cycle was one week ago. Her temperature is 37.1 °C and she has no systemic symptoms. She is a smoker and takes the oral contraceptive pill. Her last smear test was two years ago.
      What is the most appropriate initial investigation?

      Your Answer: Speculum examination of the cervix

      Explanation:

      Investigating Postcoital Bleeding: The Role of Speculum Examination and Other Tests

      Postcoital bleeding can be caused by various abnormalities of the cervix, including cervical ectropion, polyps, infection, or cervical cancer. In women presenting with postcoital bleeding, cervical cancer should be suspected if there are other symptoms such as vaginal discharge, pelvic pain, or dyspareunia. Risk factors for cervical cancer include smoking, oral contraceptive use, HPV infection, HIV infection, immunosuppression, and family history.

      The primary screening tool for cervical cancer is a cervical smear, which should be done every three years for women aged 25-49. If a patient presents with postcoital bleeding, the first step is to perform a speculum examination to visualize the cervix, which can detect over 80% of cervical cancers. If the cervix appears normal, a smear may be taken if it is due, and swabs can be taken for STI testing and pregnancy testing. If symptoms persist, referral to colposcopy may be necessary.

      Other tests such as blood tests, urine dipstick, and high vaginal swab may be useful in certain cases, but they are not the primary investigation for postcoital bleeding. Blood tests may be indicated later, while urine dipstick and high vaginal swab are secondary investigations following visualisation of the cervix.

      In summary, speculum examination is the key initial investigation for postcoital bleeding, and cervical smear is the primary screening tool for cervical cancer. Other tests may be useful in specific situations, but they should not replace the essential role of speculum examination and cervical smear in the evaluation of postcoital bleeding.

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  • Question 21 - A 35-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of worsening menstrual pain and...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of worsening menstrual pain and heavier bleeding in the past year. During a bimanual pelvic exam, an enlarged, non-tender uterus is palpated. A transvaginal ultrasound reveals a 2 cm fibroid. The patient is nulliparous and desires to have children in the future but not within the next three years. What is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Progesterone-releasing intrauterine system

      Explanation:

      Management Options for Fibroids in Women

      Fibroids are a common gynecological condition that can cause symptoms such as dysmenorrhoea and menorrhagia. There are several management options available for women with fibroids, depending on their individual circumstances.

      Progesterone-releasing intrauterine system: This is recommended as a first-line treatment for women with fibroid-associated menorrhagia, where the fibroids are < 3 cm and do not distort the uterine cavity. It also provides a long-term form of contraception for up to two years. Combined oral contraceptive pill: This can be used as a management option for fibroids and is a suitable option for women who do not wish to conceive at present. However, the intrauterine system is more effective and provides longer-term contraception. Expectant management: This can be considered for women who have asymptomatic fibroids. However, it is not appropriate for women who are experiencing symptoms such as dysmenorrhoea and menorrhagia. Hysterectomy: This is a surgical option for women with symptomatic fibroids who do not wish to preserve their fertility. It is not appropriate for women who wish to become pregnant in the future. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs): These can be a useful management option for fibroid-related dysmenorrhoea and menorrhagia. However, hormonal contraceptives may be more appropriate for women who do not wish to conceive. Management Options for Women with Fibroids

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  • Question 22 - A 27-year-old female receives a cervical smear test through the UK cervical screening...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old female receives a cervical smear test through the UK cervical screening programme and is found to be hrHPV positive. However, her cytological examination shows no abnormalities. What is the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer: Repeat the test in 12 months

      Explanation:

      If a cervical smear test is hrHPV positive but cytologically normal, the recommended course of action is to repeat the test in 12 months. This is in contrast to negative hrHPV results, which are returned to normal recall. Abnormal cytology results require colposcopy, but normal cytology results do not. It is important to note that returning to normal recall is not appropriate in this case, as the patient’s higher risk status warrants a repeat test sooner than the standard 3-year interval. Repeating the test within 3 or 6 months is also not recommended.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

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  • Question 23 - A 14-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother. She reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother. She reports that her daughter has not yet had her first period, although her two sisters both experienced menarche at the age of 12. She also reports a history of red-green colour blindness and an inability to smell. On physical examination, there is little axillary and pubic hair, and the patient is noted to be Tanner stage II.
      Which one of the following is most likely to be found in this patient?

      Your Answer: ↑ GnRH, ↔ LH, ↔ FSH, ↓ oestrogen

      Correct Answer: ↓ GnRH, ↓ LH, ↓ FSH, ↓ oestrogen

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hormonal Patterns in Hypogonadism: A Guide to Diagnosis

      Hypogonadism is a condition that affects the production of hormones necessary for sexual development. One form of hypogonadism is Kallmann syndrome, which is characterized by delayed or absent puberty and an inability to smell. This condition is caused by a defect in the release or action of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), leading to gonadal failure. As a result, we expect to see reduced levels of GnRH, luteinising hormone (LH), follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), and oestrogen in affected individuals.

      Secondary hypogonadism, on the other hand, is caused by a problem in the pituitary gland. This can result in increased levels of GnRH, but decreased levels of LH, FSH, and oestrogen.

      Primary hypogonadism, such as in Klinefelter’s and Turner syndrome, is characterized by problems with the gonads. In these cases, we expect to see increased levels of GnRH, LH, and FSH, but decreased levels of oestrogen.

      Ectopic or unregulated oestrogen production can also cause hormonal imbalances, leading to decreased levels of GnRH, LH, and FSH, but increased levels of oestrogen.

      It is important to understand these hormonal patterns in order to diagnose and treat hypogonadism effectively. By identifying the underlying cause of the condition, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate interventions to improve sexual development and overall health.

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  • Question 24 - A 20-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of discharge. She mentions having a...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of discharge. She mentions having a recent sexual partner without using barrier protection. During the examination, the doctor observes thick cottage-cheese-like discharge. The patient denies experiencing any other notable symptoms. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Candida albicans

      Explanation:

      Vaginal candidiasis, also known as thrush, is a common condition that many women can diagnose and treat themselves. Candida albicans is responsible for about 80% of cases, while other candida species cause the remaining 20%. Although most women have no predisposing factors, certain factors such as diabetes mellitus, antibiotics, steroids, pregnancy, and HIV can increase the likelihood of developing vaginal candidiasis. Symptoms include non-offensive discharge resembling cottage cheese, vulvitis, itching, vulval erythema, fissuring, and satellite lesions. A high vaginal swab is not routinely indicated if the clinical features are consistent with candidiasis. Treatment options include local or oral therapy, with oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose being the first-line treatment according to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. If there are vulval symptoms, a topical imidazole may be added to an oral or intravaginal antifungal. Pregnant women should only use local treatments. Recurrent vaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more episodes per year by BASHH. Compliance with previous treatment should be checked, and a high vaginal swab for microscopy and culture should be performed to confirm the diagnosis. A blood glucose test may be necessary to exclude diabetes, and differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus should be ruled out. An induction-maintenance regime involving oral fluconazole may be considered. Induction involves taking oral fluconazole every three days for three doses, while maintenance involves taking oral fluconazole weekly for six months.

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  • Question 25 - A 17-year-old student presents to the genito-urinary medicine (GUM) clinic. She is worried...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old student presents to the genito-urinary medicine (GUM) clinic. She is worried about a fishy-smelling green vaginal discharge that she has developed. The symptoms have been ongoing for two weeks and include pruritus, dysuria and frequency. Vaginal swabs were taken and revealed a motile flagellate on wet film microscopy.
      What is the causative organism for this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae

      Correct Answer: Trichomonas vaginalis

      Explanation:

      Trichomonas vaginalis is a protozoan that causes trichomoniasis, characterized by a green-yellow discharge with a foul odor. Men usually do not show symptoms, while women may experience dysuria, frequent urination, and itching. Treatment involves taking oral metronidazole for seven days. Although complications are rare, pregnant women with trichomoniasis may experience premature labor. The disease is sexually transmitted, so a thorough sexual history should be taken.

      Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a diplococcus that causes gonorrhea, which may be asymptomatic in women but can cause vaginal discharge and painful urination. Treatment involves a single intramuscular injection of ceftriaxone 500 mg.

      Chlamydia trachomatis is an intracellular organism that causes chlamydia, which is often asymptomatic in women but may cause cervicitis, urethritis, or salpingitis. Treatment involves a single oral dose of azithromycin 1 g.

      Candida albicans causes thrush, which is characterized by white curd-like discharge, red and sore vulva, and hyphae visible on microscopy. Treatment involves using clotrimazole in pessary or topical form, with fluconazole used for resistant cases.

      Treponema pallidum causes syphilis, which may present as a painless ulcer in the genital area called a chancre. Treatment involves using benzathine penicillin. While secondary and further stages of syphilis are becoming rare, it is important to seek treatment promptly.

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  • Question 26 - A 55-year-old woman presents to the clinic with worsening perimenopause symptoms. Her periods...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents to the clinic with worsening perimenopause symptoms. Her periods have become irregular over the past year, and she is experiencing low mood, night sweats, and hot flashes. The patient is interested in treatment options but is worried about the potential risk of breast cancer. Which of the following choices is most likely to increase her risk of developing breast cancer?

      Your Answer: Oestrogen only HRT

      Correct Answer: Combined hormone replacement therapy (HRT)

      Explanation:

      The addition of progesterone to hormone replacement therapy (HRT) has been found to raise the risk of breast cancer. It is worth noting that taking low doses of progesterone alone, without oestrogen, does not seem to have the same effect on breast cancer risk. If used for less than 10 years, oestrogen-only HRT does not appear to increase the likelihood of developing breast cancer. However, it does increase the risk of endometrial cancer and should be avoided unless the patient has had a hysterectomy.

      Adverse Effects of Hormone Replacement Therapy

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, often combined with a progesterone in women with a uterus, to alleviate menopausal symptoms. While it can be effective in reducing symptoms such as hot flashes and vaginal dryness, HRT can also have adverse effects and potential complications.

      Some common side-effects of HRT include nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, and weight gain. However, there are also more serious potential complications associated with HRT. For example, the use of HRT has been linked to an increased risk of breast cancer, particularly when a progesterone is added. The Women’s Health Initiative study found a relative risk of 1.26 at 5 years of developing breast cancer with HRT use. The risk of breast cancer is also related to the duration of use, and it begins to decline when HRT is stopped.

      Another potential complication of HRT is an increased risk of endometrial cancer. Oestrogen by itself should not be given as HRT to women with a womb, as this can increase the risk of endometrial cancer. The addition of a progesterone can reduce this risk, but it is not eliminated completely. The British National Formulary states that the additional risk is eliminated if a progesterone is given continuously.

      HRT has also been associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), particularly when a progesterone is added. However, transdermal HRT does not appear to increase the risk of VTE. Women who are at high risk for VTE should be referred to haematology before starting any treatment, even transdermal, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE).

      Finally, HRT has been linked to an increased risk of stroke and ischaemic heart disease if taken more than 10 years after menopause. It is important for women considering HRT to discuss the potential risks and benefits with their healthcare provider and make an informed decision based on their individual circumstances.

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  • Question 27 - A 22-year-old law student, with a history of cyclical pelvic pain and dysmenorrhoea...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old law student, with a history of cyclical pelvic pain and dysmenorrhoea not responding to paracetamol is attending her follow-up appointment to receive the histology results of her diagnostic laparoscopy. She does not want to conceive at present and uses barrier methods of contraception. She has asthma, which is well controlled with inhalers but was made worse in the past when she took some painkillers.
      The histology report concludes that: ‘The peritoneal deposits, submitted in their entirety, contain evidence of endometrial glands and stroma surrounded by red blood cells and a mixed chronic inflammatory cell infiltrate’. The operation notes say that all deposits seen were removed.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP)

      Explanation:

      Management Options for Endometriosis-Related Pain: A Guide for Healthcare Professionals

      Endometriosis is a condition where endometrial tissue grows outside the uterus, causing pain and discomfort. Hormonal contraception is an effective treatment option for women who do not wish to conceive. The combined oral contraceptive pill suppresses ovarian function and limits the effect of estrogen on endometrial tissue. progesterone-containing contraceptives cause atrophy of the endometrial tissue. A trial of three months is recommended before reassessment.

      Hysterectomy is indicated for adenomyosis or heavy menstrual bleeding that has not resolved with other treatments. A hysteroscopy is not necessary for a newly diagnosed young patient. A trial of ibuprofen or combination therapy is the first step in pain management, but NSAIDs are contraindicated for asthmatic patients who have already tried paracetamol.

      Further laparoscopy for excision and/or ablation of endometriotic deposits is indicated if there is further disease. However, if all visible deposits were removed during diagnostic laparoscopy, a further laparoscopy is not necessary at present.

      Ovarian cystectomy is recommended for women with endometriotic cysts who are concerned about fertility. Laparoscopic removal of the cyst wall can improve the chances of spontaneous pregnancy and reduce the risk of recurrence of endometriomas. These guidelines are based on NICE recommendations.

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  • Question 28 - A 50-year-old woman presents with severe itching in the perineal region, accompanied by...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with severe itching in the perineal region, accompanied by pain during urination and painful intercourse. During examination, you observe white, polygonal papules on the labia majora that merge into a patch that affects the labia minora. There is one area of fissuring that bleeds upon contact. The skin appears white, thin, and shiny, with mild scarring. There is no vaginal discharge, and no other skin lesions are present on the body. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lichen sclerosus

      Explanation:

      Common Genital Skin Conditions: Symptoms and Treatment Options

      Lichen sclerosus, candidiasis, contact dermatitis, lichen planus, and psoriasis are some of the most common skin conditions that affect the genital area. Each condition has its own set of symptoms and treatment options.

      Lichen Sclerosus: This chronic inflammatory condition can affect any part of the body but is most commonly found in the genital area. It presents with pruritus, skin irritation, hypopigmentation, and atrophy. Treatment involves topical steroids and good hygiene.

      Candidiasis: This fungal infection is associated with pruritus, burning sensation, erythema, and oedema of the vestibule. The most common characteristic is a thick, curd-like, white vaginal discharge.

      Contact Dermatitis: This condition is often caused by changes to shower gel or washing detergent. It presents with pruritus, erythematosus skin, excoriations, and skin breaks, leading to ulceration and superimposed infection. Chronic contact dermatitis can lead to lichenoid changes.

      Lichen Planus: This condition presents with purple, red plaques usually on the labia, with central erosion and overlying lacy, white, striated patch. It can cause scarring and narrowing of the introitus and dyspareunia.

      Psoriasis: This condition is rare in the genital area but can appear in the inguinal creases and the labia majora. It presents with erythematous plaques with minimal white scale and is associated with itching and excoriations.

      It is important to seek medical attention if you suspect you have any of these conditions. Treatment options may include topical or oral medications, good hygiene practices, and lifestyle changes.

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  • Question 29 - A 55-year-old woman is prescribed tamoxifen for the management of an oestrogen receptor...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman is prescribed tamoxifen for the management of an oestrogen receptor positive breast cancer. What types of cancers are linked to the use of tamoxifen?

      Your Answer: Ovarian cancer

      Correct Answer: Endometrial cancer

      Explanation:

      Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Postmenopausal bleeding is the most common symptom of endometrial cancer, which is usually slight and intermittent initially before becoming more heavy. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.

      When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness (< 4 mm). Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for investigation. The management of localized disease involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may have postoperative radiotherapy. progesterone therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.

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  • Question 30 - A 42-year-old woman has a hysterectomy due to severe dysmenorrhoea after exhausting pharmacological...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman has a hysterectomy due to severe dysmenorrhoea after exhausting pharmacological options. Several months later, she experiences a vaginal vault prolapse and is referred to gynaecologists. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention for her?

      Your Answer: Sacrocolpopexy

      Explanation:

      Sacrocolpopexy is the recommended treatment for vaginal vault prolapse. This surgical procedure involves suspending the vaginal apex to the sacral promontory, typically using the uterosacral ligaments for support. Other surgical options include anterior colporrhaphy for repairing a cystocele, vaginoplasty for reconstructing the vagina, vaginal hysterectomy for removing the uterus via the vagina, and bilateral oophorectomy for removing the ovaries. However, these options would not be appropriate for treating vaginal vault prolapse as the ovaries are not involved in the underlying pathology.

      Understanding Urogenital Prolapse

      Urogenital prolapse is a condition where one of the pelvic organs descends, causing protrusion on the vaginal walls. This condition is prevalent among postmenopausal women, affecting around 40% of them. There are different types of urogenital prolapse, including cystocele, cystourethrocele, rectocele, uterine prolapse, urethrocele, and enterocele.

      Several factors increase the risk of developing urogenital prolapse, such as increasing age, vaginal deliveries, obesity, and spina bifida. The condition presents with symptoms such as pressure, heaviness, and a sensation of bearing down. Urinary symptoms such as incontinence, frequency, and urgency may also occur.

      Treatment for urogenital prolapse depends on the severity of the condition. If the prolapse is mild and asymptomatic, no treatment may be necessary. Conservative treatment options include weight loss and pelvic floor muscle exercises. A ring pessary may also be used. In severe cases, surgery may be required. The surgical options for cystocele/cystourethrocele include anterior colporrhaphy and colposuspension. Uterine prolapse may require hysterectomy or sacrohysteropexy, while posterior colporrhaphy is used for rectocele.

      In conclusion, urogenital prolapse is a common condition among postmenopausal women. It is important to understand the different types, risk factors, and treatment options available to manage the condition effectively.

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  • Question 31 - A 47-year-old woman with a history of breast cancer, requiring a lumpectomy two...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old woman with a history of breast cancer, requiring a lumpectomy two years ago, is currently on tamoxifen therapy and presents to her follow-up clinic with her partner.
      She is feeling down, has a low mood and reports difficulty sleeping due to hot flashes. She is seeking assistance in improving her mood.
      What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Referral for cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Menopausal Symptoms in Breast Cancer Patients

      Breast cancer patients experiencing mood disturbance, anxiety, and depression related to menopausal symptoms can benefit from cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) and lifestyle modifications. A 2-week trial of fluoxetine may be an option, but it is contraindicated in patients receiving tamoxifen therapy. Combined cyclic hormonal replacement therapy (HRT) is not routinely offered due to the increased risk of breast cancer recurrence, but can be prescribed in exceptional circumstances. Over-the-counter herbal products like black cohosh are not recommended due to safety concerns and potential interactions with medications. Lifestyle changes such as reducing caffeine and alcohol consumption, using a handheld fan, and regular exercise can also help alleviate symptoms.

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  • Question 32 - A 25-year-old woman presents with an ectopic pregnancy that has been confirmed by...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents with an ectopic pregnancy that has been confirmed by ultrasound. However, the ultrasound report only mentions that the ectopic pregnancy is located in the 'left fallopian tube' without providing further details. To ensure appropriate management, you contact the ultrasound department to obtain more specific information. Which location of ectopic pregnancy is most commonly associated with a higher risk of rupture?

      Your Answer: Ampulla

      Correct Answer: Isthmus

      Explanation:

      The risk of rupture is higher in ectopic pregnancies that are located in the isthmus of the fallopian tube. This is because the isthmus is not as flexible as other locations and cannot expand to accommodate the growing embryo/fetus. It should be noted that ectopic pregnancies can occur in various locations, including the ovary, cervix, and even outside the reproductive organs in the peritoneum.

      Understanding Ectopic Pregnancy: The Pathophysiology

      Ectopic pregnancy is a medical condition where the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube. According to statistics, 97% of ectopic pregnancies occur in the fallopian tube, with most of them happening in the ampulla. However, if the implantation occurs in the isthmus, it can be more dangerous. The remaining 3% of ectopic pregnancies can occur in the ovary, cervix, or peritoneum.

      During ectopic pregnancy, the trophoblast, which is the outer layer of the fertilized egg, invades the tubal wall, leading to bleeding that may dislodge the embryo. The natural history of ectopic pregnancy involves three possible outcomes: absorption, tubal abortion, or tubal rupture.

      Tubal abortion occurs when the embryo dies, and the body expels it along with the blood. On the other hand, tubal absorption occurs when the tube does not rupture, and the blood and embryo are either shed or converted into a tubal mole and absorbed. However, if the tube ruptures, it can lead to severe bleeding, shock, and even death.

      In conclusion, understanding the pathophysiology of ectopic pregnancy is crucial in diagnosing and managing this potentially life-threatening condition. Early detection and prompt treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes.

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  • Question 33 - During your work in the Gynaecology outpatient department, you come across a 59...

    Incorrect

    • During your work in the Gynaecology outpatient department, you come across a 59 year old patient who has been referred to you for abnormal vaginal bleeding. The patient informs you that she underwent menopause at the age of 54. As a medical professional, you know that postmenopausal bleeding (PMB) is a common issue. What is the leading cause of PMB?

      Your Answer: Endometrial hyperplasia

      Correct Answer: Vaginal atrophy

      Explanation:

      Causes of postmenopausal Bleeding: Understanding the Different Aetiologies

      postmenopausal bleeding (PMB) can be a concerning symptom for women, and it is important to understand the different causes that may be responsible. One of the most common causes is vaginal atrophy, which occurs due to a decrease in oestrogen levels after menopause. This can lead to thinning and drying of the vaginal mucosa, as well as other symptoms such as vaginal dryness and an increased risk of urinary tract infections. Treatment options include non-hormonal approaches such as lubricants and moisturisers, as well as hormonal treatments like topical preparations or systemic oestrogen replacement.

      Another potential cause of PMB is endometrial hyperplasia, which involves abnormal proliferation of the endometrium and is associated with an increased risk of endometrial cancer. While this is not the most common cause of PMB, ruling it out is important in order to identify any potential issues. Endometrial cancer itself is also a significant concern, with a 10% probability of being the cause of PMB. Urgent referral to a gynaecology outpatient is necessary to exclude this possibility.

      Cervical cancer is not typically the cause of PMB, but it is important to discuss the cervical cancer screening programme with patients and any history of abnormal smears. Finally, the use of hormone replacement therapy (HRT) can also trigger menstruation and lead to PMB, although this is not the most common cause. By understanding these different aetiologies, healthcare providers can better diagnose and treat PMB in their patients.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 34 - A 32-year-old mother of two presents to her general practitioner with depression. She...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old mother of two presents to her general practitioner with depression. She explains that for the last 4 months, she has been unable to leave her house or socialize with friends due to an embarrassing and uncomfortable incontinence problem.
      What is the most common type of urinary incontinence in women?

      Your Answer: Genuine stress incontinence

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Different Types of Urinary Incontinence in Women

      Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects many women. There are different types of urinary incontinence, each with its own causes and treatment options. The most common type of incontinence in women is genuine stress incontinence, which is caused by sphincter incompetence and leads to leakage of small amounts of urine on stress, such as sneezing, standing, laughing, and coughing.

      To diagnose incontinence, common investigations include a midstream urine specimen, frequency volume chart, filling urodynamic assessment, and voiding urodynamic assessment. Treatment options vary depending on the patient’s wishes, desire for future children, and severity of symptoms. Conservative treatment involves pelvic floor exercises, vaginal cones, and drugs such as estrogen. Surgery is the most effective way of restoring continence, with a cure rate of 80-90%. Procedures include burch colposuspension, anterior repair and bladder buttress, tension-free vaginal tape, and suburethral sling.

      Other types of urinary incontinence in women include fistula, which is a rare cause of incontinence caused by pelvic surgery, overactive bladder, which is the second most common type of incontinence, retention with overflow, which is a rare cause of incontinence more common in men, and congenital abnormalities, which is a rare cause of incontinence that is often apparent since early life.

      It is important for women to understand the different types of urinary incontinence and seek medical advice if they experience any symptoms. With proper diagnosis and treatment, urinary incontinence can be effectively managed, improving quality of life and overall health.

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  • Question 35 - A 48-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of pelvic pain that...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of pelvic pain that has been present for 4 months and worsens during her menstrual cycle. She has never experienced painful periods before. Additionally, she has lost 7 kg in weight over the past 5 months but feels that her abdomen has become unusually distended. She denies any changes in bowel movements.
      What blood tests should be ordered in primary care for this patient?

      Your Answer: CA125

      Explanation:

      Tumour Markers: An Overview

      Tumour markers are substances produced by cancer cells or normal cells in response to cancer. They can be used to aid in the diagnosis, monitoring, and treatment of cancer. Here are some commonly used tumour markers and their applications:

      CA125: This marker is used to detect ovarian cancer. It should be tested if a woman has persistent abdominal bloating, early satiety, pelvic or abdominal pain, increased urinary urgency or frequency, or symptoms consistent with irritable bowel syndrome. If CA125 is raised, the patient should be referred for a pelvic/abdominal ultrasound scan.

      AFP: Elevated AFP levels are associated with hepatocellular carcinoma, liver metastases, and non-seminomatous germ-cell tumours. It is also measured in pregnant women to screen for neural-tube defects or genetic disorders.

      CA15-3: This marker is used to monitor the response to treatment in breast cancer. It should not be used for screening as it is not necessarily raised in early breast cancer. Other causes of raised CA15-3 include liver cirrhosis, hepatitis, autoimmune conditions, and benign disorders of the ovary or breast.

      CA19-9: This marker is commonly associated with pancreatic cancer. It may also be seen in other hepatobiliary and gastric malignancies.

      CEA: CEA is commonly used as a tumour marker for colorectal cancer. It is not particularly sensitive or specific, so it is usually used to monitor response to treatment or detect disease recurrence.

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  • Question 36 - A 26-year-old woman comes to the emergency department worried that she cannot locate...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman comes to the emergency department worried that she cannot locate the threads of her intra-uterine device and is unable to schedule an appointment with her primary care physician. She reports no pain, fever, or unusual discharge. She has a regular menstrual cycle of 28 days, and her last period was a week ago.

      During a speculum examination, the threads are not visible, so a transvaginal ultrasound is performed. The device is detected, and the threads are discovered to have retracted into the cervical canal. The threads are brought back into view. Additionally, a 4 cm multiloculated cyst with strong blood flow is found in the right ovary.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Yearly transvaginal ultrasound to assess for cyst growth or changes

      Correct Answer: Refer for biopsy of cyst

      Explanation:

      When a complex ovarian cyst is discovered, there should be a high level of suspicion for ovarian cancer and a biopsy should be performed. The IOTA criteria can be used to determine if a cyst is likely benign or malignant. If any of the ‘M rules’ are present, such as an irregular solid tumor, ascites, at least 4 papillary structures, an irregular multilocular solid tumor with a diameter of at least 100mm, or very strong blood flow, the patient should be referred to a gynecology oncology department for further evaluation. In this case, the patient has a multiloculated cyst with strong blood flow, so a referral to the gynecology oncology service for biopsy is necessary. It is important not to reassure the patient that the cyst is benign just because it is asymptomatic, as many ovarian cancers are asymptomatic until a late stage. It is also not appropriate to immediately perform surgery, as the cyst may be benign and not require urgent intervention. Yearly ultrasounds may be appropriate for simple ovarian cysts of a certain size, but in this case, further investigation is necessary due to the concerning features of the cyst. While cysts under 5 cm in diameter are often physiological and do not require follow-up, the presence of a multiloculated cyst with strong blood flow warrants further investigation.

      Understanding the Different Types of Ovarian Cysts

      Ovarian cysts are a common occurrence in women, and they can be classified into different types. The most common type of ovarian cyst is the physiological cyst, which includes follicular cysts and corpus luteum cysts. Follicular cysts occur when the dominant follicle fails to rupture or when a non-dominant follicle fails to undergo atresia. These cysts usually regress after a few menstrual cycles. Corpus luteum cysts, on the other hand, occur when the corpus luteum fails to break down and disappear after the menstrual cycle. These cysts may fill with blood or fluid and are more likely to cause intraperitoneal bleeding than follicular cysts.

      Another type of ovarian cyst is the benign germ cell tumour, which includes dermoid cysts. Dermoid cysts are also known as mature cystic teratomas and are usually lined with epithelial tissue. They may contain skin appendages, hair, and teeth. Dermoid cysts are the most common benign ovarian tumour in women under the age of 30, and they are usually asymptomatic. However, torsion is more likely to occur with dermoid cysts than with other ovarian tumours.

      Lastly, there are benign epithelial tumours, which arise from the ovarian surface epithelium. The most common benign epithelial tumour is the serous cystadenoma, which bears a resemblance to the most common type of ovarian cancer (serous carcinoma). Serous cystadenomas are bilateral in around 20% of cases. The second most common benign epithelial tumour is the mucinous cystadenoma, which is typically large and may become massive. If it ruptures, it may cause pseudomyxoma peritonei.

      In conclusion, understanding the different types of ovarian cysts is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. Complex ovarian cysts should be biopsied to exclude malignancy, while benign cysts may require monitoring or surgical removal depending on their size and symptoms.

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  • Question 37 - Linda is a 32-year-old woman who presents to you with a 6 month...

    Correct

    • Linda is a 32-year-old woman who presents to you with a 6 month history of chronic pelvic pain and dysmenorrhoea that is beginning to impact her daily life, especially at work. During further inquiry, she also reports experiencing painful bowel movements that begin just before her period and persist throughout it. You suspect endometriosis and Linda inquires about the definitive test to confirm this diagnosis.

      What is the gold-standard investigation that can be performed to confirm endometriosis for Linda?

      Your Answer: Laparoscopic visualisation of the pelvis

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, laparoscopy is the most reliable method of diagnosing endometriosis in patients who are suspected to have the condition. Even if a transvaginal or transabdominal ultrasound appears normal, laparoscopy should still be considered. If a thorough laparoscopy is conducted and no signs of endometriosis are found, the patient should be informed that they do not have the condition and offered alternative treatment options.

      Understanding Endometriosis

      Endometriosis is a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. It affects around 10% of women of reproductive age and can cause chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, painful intercourse, and subfertility. Other symptoms may include urinary problems and painful bowel movements. Diagnosis is typically made through laparoscopy, and treatment options depend on the severity of symptoms.

      First-line treatments for symptomatic relief include NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. If these do not help, hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens may be tried. If symptoms persist or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Secondary treatments may include GnRH analogues or surgery. For women trying to conceive, laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis is recommended, as well as ovarian cystectomy for endometriomas.

      It is important to note that there is poor correlation between laparoscopic findings and severity of symptoms, and that there is little role for investigation in primary care. If symptoms are significant, referral for a definitive diagnosis is recommended.

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  • Question 38 - A 38-year-old woman is seeking advice on contraception options. She has been relying...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman is seeking advice on contraception options. She has been relying on barrier methods but is now interested in exploring long-acting reversible contraceptives (LARCs), specifically the progesterone-only depo injection. What medical conditions would make this method of contraception unsuitable for her?

      Your Answer: Severe dysmenorrhoea

      Correct Answer: Current breast cancer

      Explanation:

      Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera

      Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150 mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucous thickening and endometrial thinning.

      However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.

      It is important to note that there are contraindications to using Depo Provera, such as current breast cancer (UKMEC 4) or past breast cancer (UKMEC 3). While Noristerat is another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, it is rarely used in clinical practice and is given every 8 weeks. Overall, injectable contraceptives can be an effective form of birth control, but it is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before deciding on this method.

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  • Question 39 - A 28-year-old transgender male patient (assigned female at birth) comes to the clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old transgender male patient (assigned female at birth) comes to the clinic seeking advice on contraception. He is receiving testosterone therapy from the gender identity clinic and has a uterus, but plans to have surgery in the future. He is sexually active with a male partner and wants to explore other contraceptive options besides condoms. What recommendations can you provide for this patient?

      Your Answer: All hormonal contraception is contraindicated

      Correct Answer: A combined oral contraceptive pill is not suitable

      Explanation:

      Not all hormonal contraceptives are contraindicated for patients assigned female at birth undergoing testosterone therapy. The combined oral contraceptive pill, which contains oestrogen, should be avoided as it may interfere with the effects of testosterone therapy. However, the copper intrauterine device and progesterone-only pill are acceptable options as they do not have any adverse effects on testosterone therapy. The vaginal ring, which also contains oestrogen, should also be avoided.

      Contraceptive and Sexual Health Guidance for Transgender and Non-Binary Individuals

      The Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare has released guidance on contraceptive choices and sexual health for transgender and non-binary individuals. The guidance emphasizes the importance of sensitive communication and offering options that consider personal preferences, co-morbidities, and current medications or therapies.

      For individuals engaging in vaginal sex where there may be a risk of pregnancy and/or sexually transmitted infections, condoms and dental dams are recommended. Cervical screening and human papillomavirus vaccinations should also be offered to sexually active individuals with a uterus. Those engaging in anal sex and rimming should be advised of the risk of hepatitis A & B and offered vaccinations. Individuals at risk of HIV transmission should be advised of the availability of pre-exposure prophylaxis and post-exposure prophylaxis as required.

      For patients seeking permanent contraception, a fallopian tube occlusion or a vasectomy may be the most appropriate solution and neither would be affected by hormonal therapy. Testosterone therapy does not provide protection against pregnancy, and oestrogen-containing regimes are not recommended in patients undergoing testosterone therapy. Progesterone-only contraceptives are considered safe, and the intrauterine system and injections may also suspend menstruation. Non-hormonal intrauterine devices do not interact with hormonal regimes but can exacerbate menstrual bleeding.

      In patients assigned male at birth, there may be a reduction or cessation of sperm production with certain therapies, but the variability of effects means they cannot be relied upon as a method of contraception. Condoms should be recommended in those patients engaging in vaginal sex wishing to avoid the risk of pregnancy. Emergency contraception may be required in patients assigned female at birth following unprotected vaginal intercourse, and either of the available oral emergency contraceptive options may be considered. The non-hormonal intrauterine device may also be an option, but it may have unacceptable side effects in some patients.

      Overall, the guidance stresses the importance of individualized care and communication in contraceptive and sexual health decisions for transgender and non-binary individuals.

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  • Question 40 - A 38-year-old woman who has a history of injecting heroin has just received...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman who has a history of injecting heroin has just received a positive HIV diagnosis. During her initial visits to the HIV clinic, she is offered a cervical smear. What is the recommended follow-up for her as part of the cervical screening program?

      Your Answer: Annual cervical cytology

      Explanation:

      Due to a weakened immune response and reduced clearance of the human papillomavirus, women who are HIV positive face an elevated risk of cervical intra-epithelial neoplasia (CIN) and cervical cancer. If HIV positive women have low-grade lesions (CIN1), these lesions may not clear and could progress to high-grade CIN or cervical cancer. Even with effective antiretroviral treatment, these women still have a high risk of abnormal cytology and an increased risk of false-negative results. Therefore, it is recommended that women with HIV receive cervical cytology at the time of diagnosis and annually thereafter for screening purposes.

      Understanding Cervical Cancer: Risk Factors and Mechanism of HPV

      Cervical cancer is a type of cancer that affects the cervix, which is the lower part of the uterus. It is most commonly diagnosed in women under the age of 45, with the highest incidence rates occurring in those aged 25-29. The cancer can be divided into two types: squamous cell cancer and adenocarcinoma. Symptoms may include abnormal vaginal bleeding, postcoital bleeding, intermenstrual bleeding, or postmenopausal bleeding, as well as vaginal discharge.

      The most important factor in the development of cervical cancer is the human papillomavirus (HPV), particularly serotypes 16, 18, and 33. Other risk factors include smoking, human immunodeficiency virus, early first intercourse, many sexual partners, high parity, and lower socioeconomic status. While the association between combined oral contraceptive pill use and cervical cancer is sometimes debated, a large study published in the Lancet confirmed the link.

      The mechanism by which HPV causes cervical cancer involves the production of oncogenes E6 and E7 by HPV 16 and 18, respectively. E6 inhibits the p53 tumour suppressor gene, while E7 inhibits the RB suppressor gene. Understanding the risk factors and mechanism of HPV in the development of cervical cancer is crucial for prevention and early detection. Regular cervical cancer screening is recommended for all women.

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  • Question 41 - A 22-year-old female patient presents to you after missing a dose of her...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old female patient presents to you after missing a dose of her combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). She is currently on day 10 of her packet and missed the pill approximately 26 hours ago. The patient confirms that she has taken all other pills on time and has not experienced any recent vomiting or diarrhoea. She also reports having had unprotected sexual intercourse 10 hours ago. The patient contacts you seeking advice on whether she requires emergency contraception. What would be the most suitable course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: No emergency contraception required

      Explanation:

      If a patient on the combined oral contraceptive pill missed two or more pills and has had unprotected sexual intercourse during the pill-free period or week 1 of the pill packet, emergency contraception should be considered. However, in this case, the patient has only missed one pill on day 9 and does not require emergency contraception or a pregnancy test. If the patient had missed two pills during days 1-7 of the pill packet and had unprotected sex, emergency contraception would be necessary. The choice of emergency contraception depends on various factors, including the timing of the unprotected intercourse event, other medications the patient may be taking, and her preferences. Offering to insert a copper coil to prevent pregnancy would be inappropriate in this case. However, if the patient was having trouble remembering to take her pill correctly and wished to consider a long-acting contraceptive, options such as intrauterine devices, subnormal contraceptive implants, and the contraceptive injection could be discussed. It is important to note that the contraceptive injection cannot be used as a form of emergency contraception.

      Missed Pills in Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      When taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol, it is important to know what to do if a pill is missed. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their recommendations in recent years. If one pill is missed at any time in the cycle, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed in this case.

      However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. In this case, the woman should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for 7 days in a row. If pills are missed in week 1 (Days 1-7), emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week 1. If pills are missed in week 2 (Days 8-14), after seven consecutive days of taking the COC there is no need for emergency contraception.

      If pills are missed in week 3 (Days 15-21), the woman should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of 7 days on, 7 days off. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the effectiveness of the COC in preventing pregnancy.

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  • Question 42 - A 19-year-old female contacts her GP clinic with concerns about forgetting to take...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old female contacts her GP clinic with concerns about forgetting to take her combined oral contraceptive pill yesterday. She is currently in the second week of the packet and had unprotected sex the previous night. The patient is calling early in the morning, her usual pill-taking time, but has not taken today's pill yet due to uncertainty about what to do. What guidance should be provided to this patient regarding the missed pill?

      Your Answer: Take two pills today, no further precautions needed

      Explanation:

      If one COCP pill is missed, the individual should take the missed pill as soon as possible, but no further action is necessary. They should also take the next pill at the usual time, even if that means taking two pills in one day. Emergency contraception is not required in this situation, as only one pill was missed. However, if two or more pills are missed in week 3 of a packet, it is recommended to omit the pill-free interval and use barrier contraception for 7 days.

      Missed Pills in Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      When taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol, it is important to know what to do if a pill is missed. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their recommendations in recent years. If one pill is missed at any time in the cycle, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed in this case.

      However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. In this case, the woman should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for 7 days in a row. If pills are missed in week 1 (Days 1-7), emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week 1. If pills are missed in week 2 (Days 8-14), after seven consecutive days of taking the COC there is no need for emergency contraception.

      If pills are missed in week 3 (Days 15-21), the woman should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of 7 days on, 7 days off. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the effectiveness of the COC in preventing pregnancy.

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  • Question 43 - A 55-year-old nulliparous woman presents to the gynaecology clinic with a 3-month history...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old nulliparous woman presents to the gynaecology clinic with a 3-month history of postmenopausal bleeding. She has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and her last menstrual period was 5 years ago.
      On transvaginal ultrasound, the endometrial thickness measures 7mm. The pipelle biopsy results indicate an increased gland-to-stroma ratio and some nuclear atypia.
      What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy

      Explanation:

      For postmenopausal women with atypical endometrial hyperplasia, it is recommended to undergo a total hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy to reduce the risk of malignant progression. If bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy is not performed, there is an increased risk of ovarian malignancy. Endometrial ablation is not advised due to the risk of intrauterine adhesion formation and irreversible damage to the endometrium. In premenopausal patients with atypia or those who do not respond to medical management or have persistent bleeding, hysterectomy alone may be considered. However, the royal college of obstetrics and gynaecology green-top guidelines suggest that bilateral salpingectomy should still be considered in these patients due to the risk of further ovarian malignancy. For hyperplasia without atypia, the first-line treatment is a levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system such as the Mirena coil.

      Endometrial hyperplasia is a condition where the endometrium, the lining of the uterus, grows excessively beyond what is considered normal during the menstrual cycle. This abnormal proliferation can lead to endometrial cancer in some cases. There are four types of endometrial hyperplasia: simple, complex, simple atypical, and complex atypical. Symptoms of this condition include abnormal vaginal bleeding, such as intermenstrual bleeding.

      The management of endometrial hyperplasia depends on the type and severity of the condition. For simple endometrial hyperplasia without atypia, high dose progestogens may be prescribed, and repeat sampling is recommended after 3-4 months. The levonorgestrel intra-uterine system may also be used. However, if atypia is present, hysterectomy is usually advised.

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  • Question 44 - A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with sharp, left lower abdominal...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with sharp, left lower abdominal pain, which has been intermittently present for several days. It does not radiate anywhere. It is not associated with any gastrointestinal upset. Her last menstrual period was 10 weeks ago. She is sexually active although admits to not using contraception all the time. Her past medical history includes multiple chlamydial infections. On examination, the abdomen is tender. An internal examination is also performed; adnexal tenderness is demonstrated. A urine pregnancy test is positive.
      What investigation is recommended as the first choice for the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate investigation for a suspected ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound. In this case, the patient’s symptoms and examination findings suggest an ectopic pregnancy, making transvaginal ultrasound the investigation of choice. Transabdominal ultrasound is less sensitive and therefore not ideal. NAAT, which is used to detect chlamydia, is not relevant in this case as the patient’s history suggests a higher likelihood of ectopic pregnancy rather than infection. Laparoscopy, which is used to diagnose endometriosis, is not indicated based on the clinical presentation.

      Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.

      There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingostomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.

      Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women without other risk factors for infertility, while salpingostomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingostomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.

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  • Question 45 - A 29-year-old woman visits her GP six weeks after giving birth, seeking advice...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman visits her GP six weeks after giving birth, seeking advice on contraception. She prefers to use the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), which she has used before. She has been engaging in unprotected sexual activity since week three postpartum. Currently, she is breastfeeding her baby about 60% of the time and supplementing with formula for the remaining 40%. What recommendation should the GP give to the patient?

      Your Answer: A pregnancy test is required . The COCP is contraindicated in this situation, so discuss other forms of contraception.

      Correct Answer: A pregnancy test is required. The COCP can be prescribed in this situation

      Explanation:

      This question involves two components. Firstly, the lady in question is seven weeks postpartum and has had unprotected intercourse after day 21, putting her at risk of pregnancy. Therefore, she must have a pregnancy test before receiving any form of contraception. Secondly, the safety of the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) at 7 weeks postpartum is being considered. While the COCP is contraindicated for breastfeeding women less than 6 weeks postpartum, this lady falls into the 6 weeks – 6 months postpartum category where the benefits of prescribing the COCP generally outweigh the risks. Therefore, it would be suitable to prescribe the COCP for her. It is important to note that even if a woman is exclusively breastfeeding, the lactational amenorrhea method (LAM) is only effective for up to 6 months postpartum. Additionally, while the progesterone only pill is a good form of contraception, it is not necessary to recommend it over the COCP in this case.

      After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The progesterone-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first two days after day 21. A small amount of progesterone enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than six weeks post-partum. If breastfeeding is between six weeks and six months postpartum, it is a UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk post-partum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first seven days. The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after four weeks.

      The lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than six months post-partum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.

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  • Question 46 - A 25-year-old female presents to her GP with symptoms of vaginal candidiasis, including...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female presents to her GP with symptoms of vaginal candidiasis, including 'cottage cheese'-like discharge, itching, and dyspareunia. She has had four previous presentations with similar symptoms in the past year. The patient is in good health and does not report any other symptoms. She is not taking any regular medications. What test would be most helpful in investigating a possible underlying cause for her recurrent vaginal candidiasis?

      Your Answer: HbA1c

      Explanation:

      In cases of recurrent vaginal candidiasis, it is recommended to consider a blood test to rule out diabetes as a potential underlying condition. Other predisposing factors such as immunosuppression, pregnancy, and antibiotic or steroid usage should also be evaluated. While HIV testing is important, a CD4+ T-cell count is not the first line investigation and HIV testing is typically done using antibody, antigen, or nucleotide testing. A full blood count may be useful to assess the patient’s general health, but it is not the most likely cause of recurrent vaginal candidiasis. HbA1c testing should be done to assess for diabetes mellitus, and a pregnancy test and HIV test may also be indicated. While a high vaginal swab can confirm the diagnosis, it will not provide information about any underlying diseases.

      Vaginal candidiasis, also known as thrush, is a common condition that many women can diagnose and treat themselves. Candida albicans is responsible for about 80% of cases, while other candida species cause the remaining 20%. Although most women have no predisposing factors, certain factors such as diabetes mellitus, antibiotics, steroids, pregnancy, and HIV can increase the likelihood of developing vaginal candidiasis. Symptoms include non-offensive discharge resembling cottage cheese, vulvitis, itching, vulval erythema, fissuring, and satellite lesions. A high vaginal swab is not routinely indicated if the clinical features are consistent with candidiasis. Treatment options include local or oral therapy, with oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose being the first-line treatment according to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. If there are vulval symptoms, a topical imidazole may be added to an oral or intravaginal antifungal. Pregnant women should only use local treatments. Recurrent vaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more episodes per year by BASHH. Compliance with previous treatment should be checked, and a high vaginal swab for microscopy and culture should be performed to confirm the diagnosis. A blood glucose test may be necessary to exclude diabetes, and differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus should be ruled out. An induction-maintenance regime involving oral fluconazole may be considered. Induction involves taking oral fluconazole every three days for three doses, while maintenance involves taking oral fluconazole weekly for six months.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 47 - A 25 year old woman visits the family planning clinic seeking advice on...

    Correct

    • A 25 year old woman visits the family planning clinic seeking advice on contraception. She has a history of epilepsy and is currently on carbamazepine medication. Additionally, her BMI is 39 kg/m² and she has no other medical history. What would be the most appropriate contraceptive option to suggest for her?

      Your Answer: Copper intrauterine device

      Explanation:

      Contraception for Women with Epilepsy

      Women with epilepsy need to consider several factors when choosing a contraceptive method. Firstly, they need to consider how the contraceptive may affect the effectiveness of their anti-epileptic medication. Secondly, they need to consider how their anti-epileptic medication may affect the effectiveness of the contraceptive. Lastly, they need to consider the potential teratogenic effects of their anti-epileptic medication if they become pregnant.

      To address these concerns, the Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) recommends that women with epilepsy consistently use condoms in addition to other forms of contraception. For women taking certain anti-epileptic medications such as phenytoin, carbamazepine, barbiturates, primidone, topiramate, and oxcarbazepine, the FSRH recommends the use of the COCP and POP as UKMEC 3, the implant as UKMEC 2, and the Depo-Provera, IUD, and IUS as UKMEC 1.

      For women taking lamotrigine, the FSRH recommends the use of the COCP as UKMEC 3 and the POP, implant, Depo-Provera, IUD, and IUS as UKMEC 1. If a COCP is chosen, it should contain a minimum of 30 µg of ethinylestradiol. By considering these recommendations, women with epilepsy can make informed decisions about their contraceptive options and ensure the safety and effectiveness of their chosen method.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 48 - What is the appropriate management for endometrial cancer? ...

    Correct

    • What is the appropriate management for endometrial cancer?

      Your Answer: Most patients present with stage 1 disease, and are therefore amenable to surgery alone

      Explanation:

      1. The initial stage of endometrial cancer typically involves a hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy.
      2. Diagnosis of endometrial cancer requires an endometrial biopsy.
      3. Radiotherapy is the preferred treatment over chemotherapy, especially for high-risk patients after a hysterectomy or in cases of pelvic recurrence.
      4. Lymphadenectomy is not typically recommended as a routine procedure.
      5. Progestogens are no longer commonly used in the treatment of endometrial cancer.

      Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Postmenopausal bleeding is the most common symptom of endometrial cancer, which is usually slight and intermittent initially before becoming more heavy. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.

      When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness (< 4 mm). Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for investigation. The management of localized disease involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may have postoperative radiotherapy. progesterone therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 49 - A 25-year-old woman visits her doctor the day after having unprotected sex. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman visits her doctor the day after having unprotected sex. She is seeking emergency contraception as she forgot to take her progesterone-only pill for a few days before the encounter. The doctor advises her to book an appointment at the nearby sexual health clinic for proper screening. After counseling, the doctor prescribes levonorgestrel to the woman. What is the waiting period before she can resume taking her POP?

      Your Answer: 2 days

      Correct Answer: She doesn't - can start immediately

      Explanation:

      Women can begin using hormonal contraception right away after taking levonorgestrel (Levonelle) for emergency contraception. However, if ulipristal acetate was used instead, it is recommended to wait for 5 days or use barrier methods before resuming hormonal contraception.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 50 - A 35-year-old woman presents with increasing abdominal distension and feeling bloated, which has...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with increasing abdominal distension and feeling bloated, which has been getting worse over the last six months. She has no other medical history of note. She has regular periods with a 30-day cycle without heavy or intermenstrual bleeding.
      On examination, there is an abdominal mass in the region of the left iliac fossa which is tender to palpation. The doctor orders blood tests and arranges an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen to assess the mass further.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Ovarian serous cystadenomas

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Abdominal Mass in Women

      One of the common symptoms that women may experience is an abdominal mass that is painful on palpation. This can be caused by various conditions, including ovarian serous cystadenomas, polycystic ovarian syndrome, fibroids, cystocele, and rectocele.

      Ovarian serous cystadenomas are benign tumors composed of cysts suspended within fibrotic stroma. They are usually asymptomatic but can cause pain and mass symptoms when they grow to a size greater than 10 cm. These tumors are prone to torsion and can present as an acute abdomen. Removal of the mass is curative, and histological examination is essential to ensure there are no malignant features.

      Polycystic ovarian syndrome is associated with irregular periods, skin acne, and weight gain. Fibroids, on the other hand, are hormone-driven and can cause menorrhagia, dysmenorrhea, constipation, and urinary symptoms. Subserosal, pedunculated, or ovarian fibroids can also present as an abdominal mass.

      Cystocele and rectocele are conditions that present with a lump or dragging sensation in the vagina. Cystocele is associated with urinary frequency, incontinence, and frequent urinary tract infections, while rectocele is associated with incomplete emptying following a bowel motion and pressure in the lower pelvis.

      In conclusion, an abdominal mass in women can be caused by various conditions, and it is important to seek medical attention for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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