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Question 1
Correct
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A 68-year-old male presents to the general practitioner with progressive dyspnoea, chronic cough and wheeze. He has a 50-pack-year smoking history and a past medical history of atopy and is currently taking a salbutamol inhaler. Spirometry shows a forced expiratory volume over 1 second (FEV1) of 55% predicted and an FEV1/forced vital capacity (FVC) ratio of 0.49. The patient also keeps a peak flow diary, which shows a diurnal variation in readings.
What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Salmeterol and beclomethasone bronchodilator therapy
Explanation:NICE guidelines recommend smoking cessation advice, annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccinations, and pulmonary rehabilitation for COPD patients. Bronchodilator therapy is first-line treatment, with the addition of LABA and LAMA for patients without asthmatic features and LABA, ICS, and LAMA for those with asthmatic features. Theophylline is recommended after trials of bronchodilators or for patients who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients. Mucolytics should be considered for patients with a chronic productive cough. Loop diuretics and long-term oxygen therapy may be used for cor pulmonale. Smoking cessation and long-term oxygen therapy may improve survival in stable COPD patients. Lung volume reduction surgery may be considered in selected patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 2
Correct
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A 55-year-old man presents with a chronic cough and is diagnosed with lung cancer. He asks if his occupation could be a contributing factor. What is the most probable occupational risk factor for developing lung cancer?
Your Answer: Passive smoking
Explanation:Risk Factors for Lung Cancer
Lung cancer is a deadly disease that can be caused by various factors. The most significant risk factor for lung cancer is smoking, which increases the risk by a factor of 10. However, other factors such as exposure to asbestos, arsenic, radon, nickel, chromate, and aromatic hydrocarbon can also increase the risk of developing lung cancer. Additionally, cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis has been linked to an increased risk of lung cancer.
It is important to note that not all factors are related to lung cancer. For example, coal dust exposure has not been found to increase the risk of lung cancer. However, smoking and asbestos exposure are synergistic, meaning that a smoker who is also exposed to asbestos has a 50 times increased risk of developing lung cancer (10 x 5). Understanding these risk factors can help individuals make informed decisions about their health and take steps to reduce their risk of developing lung cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 3
Correct
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At a coffee shop, you observe a young woman beginning to cough and wheeze. Approaching her, you inquire if she is choking. She replies that she believes a sip of hot coffee went down the wrong way. What should be your initial course of action?
Your Answer: Encourage him to cough
Explanation:Dealing with Choking Emergencies
Choking is a serious medical emergency that can be life-threatening. It occurs when the airway is partially or completely blocked, often while eating. The first step in dealing with a choking victim is to ask them if they are choking. If they are able to speak and breathe, it may be a mild obstruction. However, if they are unable to speak or breathe, it is a severe obstruction and requires immediate action.
According to the Resus Council, mild airway obstruction can be treated by encouraging the patient to cough. However, if the obstruction is severe and the patient is conscious, up to five back-blows and abdominal thrusts can be given. If these methods are unsuccessful, the cycle should be repeated. If the patient is unconscious, an ambulance should be called and CPR should be started.
It is important to note that choking can happen to anyone, so it is important to be prepared and know how to respond in an emergency. By following these steps, you can help save a life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 4
Correct
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Samantha is a 55-year-old woman who has been experiencing difficulty breathing. She undergoes a spirometry evaluation with the following findings: a decrease in forced vital capacity (FVC), an increase in the forced expiratory volume in one second to forced vital capacity ratio (FEV1:FVC ratio), and a decrease in the transfer factor for carbon monoxide (TLCO), indicating impaired gas exchange. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pulmonary fibrosis
Explanation:Understanding Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is a chronic lung condition that causes progressive fibrosis of the interstitium of the lungs. Unlike other causes of lung fibrosis, IPF has no underlying cause. It is typically seen in patients aged 50-70 years and is more common in men.
The symptoms of IPF include progressive exertional dyspnoea, dry cough, clubbing, and bibasal fine end-inspiratory crepitations on auscultation. Diagnosis is made through spirometry, impaired gas exchange tests, and imaging such as chest x-rays and high-resolution CT scans.
Management of IPF includes pulmonary rehabilitation, but very few medications have been shown to be effective. Some evidence suggests that pirfenidone, an antifibrotic agent, may be useful in selected patients. Many patients will eventually require supplementary oxygen and a lung transplant.
The prognosis for IPF is poor, with an average life expectancy of around 3-4 years. CT scans can show advanced pulmonary fibrosis, including honeycombing. While there is no cure for IPF, early diagnosis and management can help improve quality of life and potentially prolong survival.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 5
Correct
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A 70-year-old retired ship-builder has a 6-month history of increasing shortness of breath, dull right-sided chest pain, loss of appetite and sweats. He is a non-smoker. Examination of his lungs reveals dullness to percussion and reduced air entry at the right base.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Malignant mesothelioma
Explanation:Distinguishing Mesothelioma from Other Lung Diseases
Mesothelioma is a type of cancer that affects the pleura and peritoneum, and is almost always caused by exposure to asbestos. Symptoms include chest pain, shortness of breath, cough, fever, weight loss, and fatigue. A pleural effusion is also common in mesothelioma cases.
Small-cell lung cancer, on the other hand, is highly aggressive and life expectancy is only weeks without treatment. Smoking is the major risk factor, although asbestos can also cause this type of lung cancer. Symptoms are similar to mesothelioma, but lack of smoking history and longer onset of symptoms point more towards mesothelioma.
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is usually caused by smoking and presents with progressive shortness of breath, productive cough, frequent chest infections, and wheeze. Examination could reveal cyanosis, barrel chest, hyperresonance on percussion, poor air entry, and wheeze or coarse crackles. However, this presentation does not fit with COPD.
Chronic thromoboembolic pulmonary hypertension (CPTH) can develop months or years after a large pulmonary embolism (PE) or after several episodes. Symptoms include shortness of breath, chest pain on exertion, and fatigue. The patient can go on to develop right heart failure, but this diagnosis would not explain the weight loss and sweats.
Tuberculosis usually presents with a persistent productive cough, weight loss, night sweats, fevers, lymphadenopathy, and general malaise. In this patient, the symptoms, along with history of asbestos exposure, are highly suggestive of mesothelioma rather than tuberculosis.
In summary, distinguishing mesothelioma from other lung diseases requires careful consideration of symptoms, risk factors, and examination findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 6
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of fatigue and difficulty breathing for the past 2 days. She has a medical history of hypertension, a heart attack 3 years ago, heart failure, and a recent chest infection that was successfully treated with antibiotics. During the examination, the patient has bibasal crepitations and an elevated JVP. Her temperature is 37ºC, oxygen saturation is 95% on air, heart rate is 95 beats per minute, respiratory rate is 26 breaths per minute, and blood pressure is 129/86 mmHg.
What is the most appropriate course of treatment?Your Answer: IV furosemide
Explanation:The recommended treatment for acute pulmonary oedema in this patient is IV loop diuretic, specifically furosemide. This is because the patient is experiencing acute decompensated heart failure, which causes pulmonary oedema. IV loop diuretic has a prompt diuretic effect, reducing ventricular filling pressures and improving symptoms within 30 minutes.
IV dobutamine is not necessary for this patient as they are not in shock and dobutamine is typically reserved for patients with severe left ventricular dysfunction who have potentially reversible cardiogenic shock.
IV morphine is not recommended for acute heart failure as it may increase morbidity in patients with acute pulmonary oedema.
Oral furosemide is not the preferred route of administration for this patient as IV furosemide has a faster onset of diuresis.
Heart failure requires acute management, with recommended treatments for all patients including IV loop diuretics such as furosemide or bumetanide. Oxygen may also be necessary, with guidelines suggesting oxygen saturations be kept at 94-98%. Vasodilators such as nitrates should not be routinely given to all patients, but may have a role in cases of concomitant myocardial ischaemia, severe hypertension, or regurgitant aortic or mitral valve disease. However, hypotension is a major side-effect/contraindication. Patients with respiratory failure may require CPAP, while those with hypotension or cardiogenic shock may require inotropic agents like dobutamine or vasopressor agents like norepinephrine. Mechanical circulatory assistance such as intra-aortic balloon counterpulsation or ventricular assist devices may also be necessary. Regular medication for heart failure should be continued, with beta-blockers only stopped in certain circumstances. Opiates should not be routinely offered to patients with acute heart failure due to potential increased morbidity.
In summary, acute management of heart failure involves a range of treatments depending on the patient’s specific condition. It is important to carefully consider the potential side-effects and contraindications of each treatment, and to continue regular medication for heart failure where appropriate. Opiates should be used with caution, and only in cases where they are likely to reduce dyspnoea/distress without causing harm. With appropriate management, patients with acute heart failure can receive the care they need to improve their outcomes and quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents to you with complaints of increasing shortness of breath. He reports having to use 3 or 4 pillows to sleep at night and feeling more breathless after climbing just one flight of stairs. His medical history includes a previous myocardial infarction and high cholesterol. During examination, you observe bibasal crepitations and notice swelling in his ankles. What is the most suitable next investigation to perform?
Your Answer: Echocardiogram
Correct Answer: B-type Natriuretic Peptide (BNP)
Explanation:According to the updated 2018 NICE guidelines, the initial test for patients with suspected chronic heart failure should be an NT-proBNP test, regardless of their history of myocardial infarction. Additionally, all patients should undergo a 12-lead ECG. While a CT chest is typically not necessary, a chest x-ray may be performed to rule out other potential conditions.
Chronic heart failure is a condition that requires proper diagnosis and management. In 2018, NICE updated their guidelines on the diagnosis and management of this condition. Previously, the first-line investigation was determined by whether the patient had previously had a myocardial infarction or not. However, this is no longer the case. All patients should now have an N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide (NT‑proBNP) blood test as the first-line investigation.
Interpreting the NT-proBNP blood test is crucial in determining the severity of the condition. If the levels are high, specialist assessment, including transthoracic echocardiography, should be arranged within two weeks. If the levels are raised, specialist assessment, including echocardiogram, should be arranged within six weeks. B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is a hormone produced mainly by the left ventricular myocardium in response to strain. Very high levels of BNP are associated with a poor prognosis.
There are different levels of BNP, and each level indicates a different severity of the condition. High levels of BNP are greater than 400 pg/ml (116 pmol/litre) for BNP and greater than 2000 pg/ml (236 pmol/litre) for NTproBNP. Raised levels of BNP are between 100-400 pg/ml (29-116 pmol/litre) for BNP and between 400-2000 pg/ml (47-236 pmol/litre) for NTproBNP. Normal levels of BNP are less than 100 pg/ml (29 pmol/litre) for BNP and less than 400 pg/ml (47 pmol/litre) for NTproBNP.
It is important to note that several factors can alter the BNP level. Factors that increase BNP levels include left ventricular hypertrophy, ischaemia, tachycardia, right ventricular overload, hypoxaemia (including pulmonary embolism), GFR < 60 ml/min, sepsis, COPD, diabetes, and age > 70. On the other hand, factors that decrease BNP levels include diuretics, ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, angiotensin 2 receptor blockers, and aldosterone antagonists.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 8
Correct
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A 48-year-old male presents to the hospital with a productive cough and a temperature of 38.2 C. He has been feeling ill for the past 10 days with flu-like symptoms. Upon examination, his blood pressure is 96/60 mmHg and his heart rate is 102/min. A chest x-ray reveals bilateral lower zone consolidation. What is the probable pathogen responsible for this condition?
Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Prior infection with influenza increases the likelihood of developing pneumonia caused by Staphylococcus aureus.
Causes of Pneumonia
Pneumonia is a respiratory infection that can be caused by various infectious agents. Community acquired pneumonia (CAP) is the most common type of pneumonia and is caused by different microorganisms. The most common cause of CAP is Streptococcus pneumoniae, which accounts for around 80% of cases. Other infectious agents that can cause CAP include Haemophilus influenzae, Staphylococcus aureus, atypical pneumonias caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae, and viruses.
Klebsiella pneumoniae is another microorganism that can cause pneumonia, but it is typically found in alcoholics. Streptococcus pneumoniae, also known as pneumococcus, is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia. It is characterized by a rapid onset, high fever, pleuritic chest pain, and herpes labialis (cold sores).
In summary, pneumonia can be caused by various infectious agents, with Streptococcus pneumoniae being the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia. It is important to identify the causative agent to provide appropriate treatment and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 9
Correct
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A 63-year-old man visits his doctor with a persistent cough that has lasted for 5 weeks. He reports coughing up smelly, green phlegm and experiencing night sweats, left-sided chest pain, and occasional fevers. He denies any weight loss. During the examination, the lower left lung is dull to percussion with low-pitched bronchial breath sounds, and he has a temperature of 38.2°C. The patient has not traveled recently or had any contact with sick individuals. The doctor notes that he was treated for pneumonia 7 weeks ago. What is the most probable cause of this patient's presentation?
Your Answer: Lung abscess
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for this patient is lung abscess, as they are presenting with a subacute productive cough, foul-smelling sputum, and night sweats. The duration of a cough can be categorized as acute, subacute, or chronic, and this patient falls under the subacute category. The patient’s recent history of aspiration pneumonia and examination findings, such as dullness on percussion, bronchial breath sounds, and fever, support the diagnosis of lung abscess.
Lung cancer is not the most likely diagnosis for this patient, as they do not have weight loss and have other findings that point towards lung abscess. Pulmonary fibrosis is also unlikely, as it is rare to have unilateral pulmonary fibrosis, and the patient’s examination findings do not support this diagnosis. Recurrent pneumonia is a good differential, but the presence of bronchial breath sounds and night sweats make lung abscess a more likely diagnosis.
Understanding Lung Abscess
A lung abscess is a localized infection that occurs within the lung tissue. It is commonly caused by aspiration pneumonia, which can be triggered by poor dental hygiene, reduced consciousness, or previous stroke. Other potential causes include haematogenous spread, direct extension, and bronchial obstruction. The infection is typically polymicrobial, with Staphylococcus aureus, Klebsiella pneumonia, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa being the most common monomicrobial causes.
The symptoms of lung abscess are similar to pneumonia, but they tend to develop more slowly over several weeks. Patients may experience fever, productive cough, foul-smelling sputum, chest pain, and dyspnea. Some may also have systemic features such as night sweats and weight loss, while a minority may experience haemoptysis. Physical examination may reveal dull percussion and bronchial breathing, as well as clubbing in some cases.
To diagnose lung abscess, a chest x-ray is usually performed, which shows a fluid-filled space within an area of consolidation. Sputum and blood cultures should also be obtained to identify the causative organism. Treatment typically involves intravenous antibiotics, but if the infection does not resolve, percutaneous drainage or surgical resection may be required in rare cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 10
Correct
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An anxious, 30-year-old saleswoman presents with mild shortness of breath on exertion, which had come on gradually over several months. The symptom was intermittent and seemed to get worse in the evening. She has also been on treatment for depression over the last two months. On examination, she has minimal weakness of shoulder abductors and slight weakness of eye closure bilaterally. Deep tendon reflexes are present and symmetrical throughout and plantar responses are flexor. You now have the results of the investigations: FBC, U&E, LFT, TFT - normal; chest radiograph and lung function tests - normal; ECG - normal.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Select the SINGLE most likely diagnosis.Your Answer: Myasthenia gravis
Explanation:Understanding Myasthenia Gravis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Myasthenia gravis (MG) is a neuromuscular disorder that occurs when the body produces autoantibodies against the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor at the neuromuscular junction. This results in muscular weakness that is characterized by fatigability, meaning that the muscles become increasingly weaker during their use. MG primarily affects the muscles of the face, the extrinsic ocular muscles (causing diplopia), and the muscles involved in deglutition. Respiratory and proximal lower limb muscles may also be involved early in the disease, which can cause breathlessness and even sudden death.
Diagnosing MG can be challenging, as weakness may not be apparent on a single examination. However, electrodiagnostic tests and detecting the autoantibodies can confirm the diagnosis. The Tensilon test, which involves injecting edrophonium chloride to reverse the symptoms of MG, is now used only when other tests are negative and clinical suspicion of MG is still high.
Treatment of MG involves anticholinesterase medications, but many patients also benefit from thymectomy. It is important to note that a thymoma may be present in up to 15% of patients with MG.
Other conditions, such as transient ischaemic attacks, angina, multiple sclerosis, and somatisation disorder, may cause weakness, but they do not typically present with the same symptoms as MG. Therefore, it is crucial to consider MG as a potential diagnosis when a patient presents with fatigable muscular weakness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 11
Correct
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A new mother in her early thirties, who has asthma, has just given birth to her first child. She experienced a sudden worsening of her asthma symptoms and was prescribed 30mg of oral prednisolone. She is now concerned about the safety of taking prednisolone while breastfeeding and wonders if she should switch to a different medication.
Your Answer: It is safe to continue 30mg prednisolone and breastfeed
Explanation:When a mother who is breastfeeding takes prednisolone, the amount of the drug that is transferred to the breast milk is minimal. Therefore, it is unlikely to have any negative impact on the baby.
Management of Acute Asthma
Acute asthma is classified by the British Thoracic Society (BTS) into three categories: moderate, severe, and life-threatening. Patients with any of the life-threatening features should be treated as having a life-threatening attack. A fourth category, Near-fatal asthma, is also recognized. Further assessment may include arterial blood gases for patients with oxygen saturation levels below 92%. A chest x-ray is not routinely recommended unless the patient has life-threatening asthma, suspected pneumothorax, or failure to respond to treatment.
Admission criteria include a previous near-fatal asthma attack, pregnancy, an attack occurring despite already using oral corticosteroid, and presentation at night. All patients with life-threatening asthma should be admitted to the hospital, and patients with features of severe acute asthma should also be admitted if they fail to respond to initial treatment. Oxygen therapy should be started for hypoxaemic patients. Bronchodilation with short-acting betaâ‚‚-agonists (SABA) is recommended, and all patients should be given 40-50mg of prednisolone orally daily. Ipratropium bromide and IV magnesium sulphate may also be considered for severe or life-threatening asthma. Patients who fail to respond require senior critical care support and should be treated in an appropriate ITU/HDU setting. Criteria for discharge include stability on discharge medication, checked and recorded inhaler technique, and PEF levels above 75% of best or predicted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 12
Correct
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A 32-year-old engineer attended a business trip in France last weekend and developed a fever of up to 39°C that lasted for three days. He had associated shortness of breath and dry cough. In addition, he had loose motions for a day. His blood results showed deranged LFTs and hyponatraemia. His WBC count was 10.2 × 109/l. Bibasal consolidation was seen on his radiograph.
Which of the following would be the most effective treatment for his condition?Your Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:Treatment options for Legionnaires’ disease
Legionnaires’ disease is a common cause of community- and hospital-acquired pneumonia, caused by Legionella pneumophila. The bacterium contaminates water containers and distribution systems, including air-conditioning systems, and can infect individuals who inhale it. Symptoms include fever, cough, dyspnoea, and systemic symptoms such as myalgia, arthralgia, diarrhoea, nausea, vomiting and neurological signs. Diagnosis is usually confirmed by urinary antigen testing. Treatment options include macrolides, such as clarithromycin, which is the preferred choice, and quinolones, such as ciprofloxacin, which are used less frequently due to a less favourable side-effect profile. Amoxicillin, cefuroxime, and flucloxacillin are not effective against Legionella pneumophila. It is important to remember that the organism does not show up on Gram staining. Outbreaks are seen in previously fit individuals staying in hotels or institutions where the shower facilities and/or the cooling system is contaminated with the organism. The incubation period is 2–10 days. A clinical clue is the presence of otherwise unexplained hyponatraemia and deranged liver function tests in a patient with pneumonia. A chest radiograph can show bibasal consolidation, sometimes with a small pleural effusion.
Treatment options for Legionnaires’ disease
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 13
Correct
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Patients with severe pneumonia may face various risk factors that increase their chances of death. Which of the following factors does not contribute to this risk?
Your Answer: Age 49 years
Explanation:Understanding the CURB-65 Score for Mortality Prediction in Pneumonia
Pneumonia is a serious respiratory infection that can lead to mortality, especially in older patients. Several factors can increase the risk of death, including elevated urea levels, low blood pressure, leukopenia, and atrial fibrillation. To predict mortality in pneumonia, healthcare professionals use the CURB-65 score, which considers five parameters: confusion, urea >7 mmol/l, respiratory rate >30/min, systolic blood pressure <90 mmHg or diastolic blood pressure <60 mmHg, and age >65 years. Each parameter scores a point, and the higher the total score, the higher the associated mortality.
Based on the CURB-65 score, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions about treatment and admission to hospital. Patients with a score of 0 or 1 can be treated at home with oral antibiotics, while those with a score of 2 should be considered for hospital admission. Patients with a score of 3 or higher should be admitted to hospital, and those with a score of 4-5 may require high dependency or intensive therapy unit admission. However, individual circumstances, such as the patient’s performance status, co-morbidities, and social situation, should also be considered when making treatment decisions.
In summary, the CURB-65 score is a valuable tool for predicting mortality in pneumonia and guiding treatment decisions. By considering multiple factors, healthcare professionals can provide the best possible care for patients with this serious infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 14
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man is admitted with a right lower lobe pneumonia. Along with consolidation, there seems to be a moderate-sized pleural effusion on the same side. A pleural fluid aspiration is performed under ultrasound guidance, and the fluid's appearance is clear, sent off for culture. While waiting for the culture results, what is the most crucial factor in deciding whether to place a chest tube?
Your Answer: Protein of the pleural fluid
Correct Answer: pH of the pleural fluid
Explanation:According to the British Thoracic Society (BTS), chest tube placement in pleural infection is mainly indicated for patients with purulent or cloudy pleural fluid, positive Gram stain and/or culture results from non-purulent pleural fluid, and pleural fluid pH below 7.2. Among these indications, pleural fluid pH is considered the most valuable test.
Investigating and Managing Pleural Effusion: BTS Guidelines
Pleural effusion is a condition where fluid accumulates in the pleural space, the area between the lungs and the chest wall. To investigate and manage this condition, the British Thoracic Society (BTS) has provided guidelines.
Imaging is an essential part of the investigation process, and the BTS recommends performing posterioranterior (PA) chest x-rays in all patients. Ultrasound is also recommended as it increases the likelihood of successful pleural aspiration and is sensitive for detecting pleural fluid septations. Contrast CT is increasingly performed to investigate the underlying cause, particularly for exudative effusions.
Pleural aspiration is another crucial step in the investigation process. The BTS recommends using ultrasound to reduce the complication rate. A 21G needle and 50ml syringe should be used, and fluid should be sent for pH, protein, lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), cytology, and microbiology. Light’s criteria can help distinguish between a transudate and an exudate. Other characteristic pleural fluid findings include low glucose in rheumatoid arthritis and tuberculosis, raised amylase in pancreatitis and oesophageal perforation, and heavy blood staining in mesothelioma, pulmonary embolism, and tuberculosis.
In cases of pleural infection, diagnostic pleural fluid sampling is required for all patients with a pleural effusion in association with sepsis or a pneumonic illness. If the fluid is purulent or turbid/cloudy, a chest tube should be placed to allow drainage. If the fluid is clear but the pH is less than 7.2 in patients with suspected pleural infection, a chest tube should be placed.
For managing recurrent pleural effusion, options include recurrent aspiration, pleurodesis, indwelling pleural catheter, and drug management to alleviate symptoms such as opioids to relieve dyspnoea. The BTS guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to investigating and managing pleural effusion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 15
Correct
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A 38-year-old woman underwent bowel resection and 48 hours post-operation, she became breathless, tachycardic, tachypnoeic and complained of pleuritic chest pain.
Which of the following is the most definitive investigation to request?Your Answer: CT pulmonary angiogram (CTPA)
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Pulmonary Embolism: A Comparison
Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a serious medical condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. There are several diagnostic tests available for PE, but not all are equally effective. Here, we compare the most commonly used tests and their suitability for diagnosing PE.
CT pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) is the gold standard diagnostic test for PE. It is highly sensitive and specific, making it the most definitive investigation for PE. Patients with a history of recent surgery and subsequent symptoms pointing towards PE should undergo a CTPA.
Electrocardiography (ECG) is not a first-line diagnostic test for PE. Although classic ECG changes may occur in some patients with PE, they are not specific to the condition and may also occur in individuals without PE.
Chest radiograph is less definitive than CTPA for diagnosing PE. While it may show some abnormalities, many chest radiographs are normal in PE. Therefore, it is not a reliable test for diagnosing PE.
Echocardiogram may show right-sided heart dysfunction in very large PEs, but it is not a first-line diagnostic test for PE and is not definitive in the investigation of PE.
Positron emission tomography (PET)/CT of the chest is not recommended for the investigation of PE. It is a radioisotope functional imaging technique used in the imaging of tumours and neuroimaging, but not for diagnosing PE.
In conclusion, CTPA is the most definitive diagnostic test for PE and should be used in patients with a high suspicion of the condition. Other tests may be used in conjunction with CTPA or in specific cases, but they are not as reliable or definitive as CTPA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 16
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of persistent coloured sputum for the past 2 years. She has a history of frequent chest infections. On examination, bilateral basal crepitations were heard.
Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Bronchiectasis
Explanation:Differentiating Bronchiectasis from Other Respiratory Conditions
Bronchiectasis is a condition characterized by permanent dilatation of the bronchi and bronchioles due to chronic infection. Patients with bronchiectasis typically present with a persistent cough, copious purulent sputum, and occasional haemoptysis. Bilateral crackles are often found during examination. It is important to differentiate bronchiectasis from other respiratory conditions such as COPD, aspergilloma, extrinsic allergic alveolitis, and idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis. While patients with COPD may have sputum production and chronic dyspnoea, they are likely to have quiet breath sounds or wheeze. Aspergilloma, on the other hand, is usually asymptomatic with little sputum production, but may cause cough, haemoptysis, lethargy, and weight loss. Extrinsic allergic alveolitis results from a hypersensitivity reaction to fungal spores or avian proteins, causing a dry, non-productive cough. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, which causes a dry cough, exertional dyspnoea, weight loss, and arthralgia, is also different from bronchiectasis. Therefore, a thorough evaluation of symptoms and examination is necessary to accurately diagnose bronchiectasis and differentiate it from other respiratory conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with a history of alcohol dependence presents with fever and malaise. On admission, a chest x-ray reveals consolidation in the right upper lobe with early cavitation. What is the probable causative agent responsible for this condition?
Your Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Correct Answer: Klebsiella pneumoniae
Explanation:Causes of Pneumonia
Pneumonia is a respiratory infection that can be caused by various infectious agents. Community acquired pneumonia (CAP) is the most common type of pneumonia and is caused by different microorganisms. The most common cause of CAP is Streptococcus pneumoniae, which accounts for around 80% of cases. Other infectious agents that can cause CAP include Haemophilus influenzae, Staphylococcus aureus, atypical pneumonias caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae, and viruses.
Klebsiella pneumoniae is another microorganism that can cause pneumonia, but it is typically found in alcoholics. Streptococcus pneumoniae, also known as pneumococcus, is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia. It is characterized by a rapid onset, high fever, pleuritic chest pain, and herpes labialis (cold sores).
In summary, pneumonia can be caused by various infectious agents, with Streptococcus pneumoniae being the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia. It is important to identify the causative agent to provide appropriate treatment and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with known chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents to the Emergency Department with sudden shortness of breath, a productive cough and feeling generally unwell. He reports that he has not traveled recently and has been practicing social distancing.
What is the most probable reason for this patient's exacerbation?
Choose the SINGLE most likely cause from the options provided.
Your Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae
Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenzae
Explanation:Bacterial Causes of Acute COPD Exacerbation
Acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) can be caused by various bacterial pathogens. Among them, Haemophilus influenzae is the most common, followed by Streptococcus pneumoniae and Moraxella catarrhalis. Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis are less likely to cause COPD exacerbation unless there is an underlying immunodeficiency. Symptoms of bacterial infection include breathlessness, productive cough, and malaise. Treatment with doxycycline can effectively manage Haemophilus influenzae infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 19
Correct
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A 58-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) experiences an exacerbation of breathlessness and a productive cough with green sputum.
What is the most appropriate treatment option for him?Your Answer: Doxycycline and prednisolone
Explanation:Treatment Options for COPD Exacerbations: Antibiotics and Corticosteroids
COPD exacerbations are characterized by a sudden worsening of symptoms beyond the patient’s usual stable state. These symptoms include increased breathlessness, cough, sputum production, and changes in sputum color. To treat exacerbations, a combination of antibiotics and corticosteroids is often used.
Oral corticosteroids, such as prednisolone, should be prescribed for five days to patients experiencing a significant increase in breathlessness that interferes with daily activities. Antibiotics are recommended for exacerbations associated with purulent sputum, with first-line agents including amoxicillin, doxycycline, and clarithromycin.
It is important to follow local microbiologist guidance when initiating empirical antibiotic treatment. Flucloxacillin and clindamycin are not useful in treating COPD exacerbations and are recommended for other conditions such as skin infections and bacterial vaginosis, respectively. Nitrofurantoin and trimethoprim are used for urinary tract infections and may be considered as first or second-line agents depending on antibiotic resistance and previous sensitivity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of sudden breathlessness and pain on the left side of her chest for the past 24 hours. She is generally healthy and takes the combined oral contraceptive pill.
What is the highest scoring factor in the Wells' scoring system for suspected pulmonary embolism (PE)?Your Answer: Previous DVT/PE
Correct Answer: Clinical signs and symptoms of a deep-vein thrombosis (DVT)
Explanation:Understanding the Two-Level PE Wells Score: Clinical Signs and Symptoms of DVT
The Two-Level PE Wells Score is a tool used to assess the likelihood of a patient having a pulmonary embolism (PE). One of the key factors in this score is the presence of clinical signs and symptoms of a deep-vein thrombosis (DVT), which includes leg swelling and pain on palpation of the deep veins. This carries three points in the score, and is a crucial factor in determining the likelihood of a PE.
Other factors in the score include an alternative diagnosis being less likely than a PE, heart rate over 100 beats/min, immobilization or recent surgery, previous DVT/PE, haemoptysis, and malignancy. Each of these factors carries a certain number of points, and a score of over 4 points indicates a high likelihood of a PE, while a score of 4 points or less indicates a lower likelihood.
Overall, understanding the Two-Level PE Wells Score and the clinical signs and symptoms of DVT is important in accurately assessing the likelihood of a patient having a PE and determining the appropriate course of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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