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  • Question 1 - A 60-year-old woman comes in with severe, crushing chest pain that spreads to...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman comes in with severe, crushing chest pain that spreads to her left shoulder and jaw. The pain has improved after receiving GTN spray under the tongue and intravenous morphine.
      What other medication should be recommended at this point?

      Your Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      This particular patient has a high risk of experiencing an acute coronary syndrome. Therefore, it is recommended to administer aspirin at a dosage of 300 mg and clopidogrel at a dosage ranging from 300-600 mg.

      Further Reading:

      Acute Coronary Syndromes (ACS) is a term used to describe a group of conditions that involve the sudden reduction or blockage of blood flow to the heart. This can lead to a heart attack or unstable angina. ACS includes ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non-ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina (UA).

      The development of ACS is usually seen in patients who already have underlying coronary heart disease. This disease is characterized by the buildup of fatty plaques in the walls of the coronary arteries, which can gradually narrow the arteries and reduce blood flow to the heart. This can cause chest pain, known as angina, during physical exertion. In some cases, the fatty plaques can rupture, leading to a complete blockage of the artery and a heart attack.

      There are both non modifiable and modifiable risk factors for ACS. non modifiable risk factors include increasing age, male gender, and family history. Modifiable risk factors include smoking, diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and obesity.

      The symptoms of ACS typically include chest pain, which is often described as a heavy or constricting sensation in the central or left side of the chest. The pain may also radiate to the jaw or left arm. Other symptoms can include shortness of breath, sweating, and nausea/vomiting. However, it’s important to note that some patients, especially diabetics or the elderly, may not experience chest pain.

      The diagnosis of ACS is typically made based on the patient’s history, electrocardiogram (ECG), and blood tests for cardiac enzymes, specifically troponin. The ECG can show changes consistent with a heart attack, such as ST segment elevation or depression, T wave inversion, or the presence of a new left bundle branch block. Elevated troponin levels confirm the diagnosis of a heart attack.

      The management of ACS depends on the specific condition and the patient’s risk factors. For STEMI, immediate coronary reperfusion therapy, either through primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) or fibrinolysis, is recommended. In addition to aspirin, a second antiplatelet agent is usually given. For NSTEMI or unstable angina, the treatment approach may involve reperfusion therapy or medical management, depending on the patient’s risk of future cardiovascular events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You conduct a cardiovascular examination on a 62-year-old man who complains of palpitations....

    Correct

    • You conduct a cardiovascular examination on a 62-year-old man who complains of palpitations. He informs you that he has a known heart valve issue. During auscultation, you observe a faint second heart sound (S2).
      What is the most probable cause of this finding?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary stenosis

      Explanation:

      The second heart sound (S2) is created by vibrations produced when the aortic and pulmonary valves close. It marks the end of systole. It is normal to hear a split in the sound during inspiration.

      A loud S2 can be associated with certain conditions such as systemic hypertension (resulting in a loud A2), pulmonary hypertension (resulting in a loud P2), hyperdynamic states (like tachycardia, fever, or thyrotoxicosis), and atrial septal defect (which causes a loud P2).

      On the other hand, a soft S2 can be linked to decreased aortic diastolic pressure (as seen in aortic regurgitation), poorly mobile cusps (such as calcification of the aortic valve), aortic root dilatation, and pulmonary stenosis (which causes a soft P2).

      A widely split S2 can occur during deep inspiration, right bundle branch block, prolonged right ventricular systole (seen in conditions like pulmonary stenosis or pulmonary embolism), and severe mitral regurgitation. However, in the case of atrial septal defect, the splitting is fixed and does not vary with respiration.

      Reversed splitting of S2, where P2 occurs before A2 (paradoxical splitting), can occur during deep expiration, left bundle branch block, prolonged left ventricular systole (as seen in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy), severe aortic stenosis, and right ventricular pacing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      69.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 72-year-old woman is evaluated in the cardiac care unit 2 days after...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman is evaluated in the cardiac care unit 2 days after experiencing a heart attack. She complains of significant shortness of breath. During the physical examination, a pansystolic murmur is audible and is most prominent at the lower left sternal border.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mitral regurgitation

      Correct Answer: Ventricular septal defect

      Explanation:

      Post myocardial infarction ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a rare but serious complication that occurs when the cardiac wall ruptures. It typically develops 2-3 days after a heart attack, and if left untreated, 85% of patients will die within two months. The murmur associated with VSD is a continuous sound throughout systole, and it is loudest at the lower left sternal edge. A palpable vibration, known as a thrill, is often felt along with the murmur.

      Dressler’s syndrome, on the other hand, is a type of pericarditis that occurs 2-10 weeks after a heart attack or cardiac surgery. It is characterized by sharp chest pain that is relieved by sitting forwards. Other signs of Dressler’s syndrome include a rubbing sound heard when listening to the heart, pulsus paradoxus (an abnormal drop in blood pressure during inspiration), and signs of right ventricular failure.

      Mitral regurgitation also causes a continuous murmur throughout systole, but it is best heard at the apex of the heart and may radiate to the axilla (armpit).

      Tricuspid stenosis, on the other hand, causes an early diastolic murmur that is best heard at the lower left sternal edge during inspiration.

      Lastly, mitral stenosis causes a rumbling mid-diastolic murmur that is best heard at the apex of the heart. To listen for this murmur, the patient should be in the left lateral position, and the stethoscope bell should be used during expiration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old woman with a history of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia is found to...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with a history of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia is found to have a diagnosis of Lown-Ganong-Levine (LGL) syndrome.
      Which of the following statements about LGL syndrome is NOT true?

      Your Answer: There is no delta wave present

      Correct Answer: It is caused by an accessory pathway for conduction

      Explanation:

      Lown-Ganong-Levine (LGL) syndrome is a condition that affects the electrical conducting system of the heart. It is classified as a pre-excitation syndrome, similar to the more well-known Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome. However, unlike WPW syndrome, LGL syndrome does not involve an accessory pathway for conduction. Instead, it is believed that there may be accessory fibers present that bypass all or part of the atrioventricular node.

      When looking at an electrocardiogram (ECG) of a patient with LGL syndrome in sinus rhythm, there are several characteristic features to observe. The PR interval, which represents the time it takes for the electrical signal to travel from the atria to the ventricles, is typically shortened and measures less than 120 milliseconds. The QRS duration, which represents the time it takes for the ventricles to contract, is normal. The P wave, which represents the electrical activity of the atria, may be normal or inverted. However, what distinguishes LGL syndrome from other pre-excitation syndromes is the absence of a delta wave, which is a slurring of the initial rise in the QRS complex.

      It is important to note that LGL syndrome predisposes individuals to paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (SVT), a rapid heart rhythm that originates above the ventricles. However, it does not increase the risk of developing atrial fibrillation or flutter, which are other types of abnormal heart rhythms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 32-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance due to...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance due to 'severe palpitations.' Her heart rate is 180 bpm, and her rhythm strip is suggestive of supraventricular tachycardia. You plan to administer adenosine.
      Which of the following is NOT a contraindication to the use of adenosine?

      Your Answer: History of heart transplant

      Explanation:

      Adenosine is a type of purine nucleoside that is primarily utilized in the diagnosis and treatment of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia. Its main mechanism of action involves stimulating A1-adenosine receptors and opening acetylcholine-sensitive potassium channels. This leads to hyperpolarization of the cell membrane in the atrioventricular (AV) node and slows down conduction in the AV node by inhibiting calcium channels.

      When administering adenosine, it is given rapidly through an intravenous bolus, followed by a saline flush. The initial dose for adults is 6 mg, and if necessary, additional doses of 12 mg or 18 mg can be given at 1-2 minute intervals until the desired effect is observed. It is important to note that the latest ALS guidelines recommend 18 mg for the third dose, while the BNF/NICE guidelines suggest 12 mg.

      One of the advantages of adenosine is its very short half-life, which is less than 10 seconds. This means that its effects are rapid, typically occurring within 10 seconds. However, the duration of action is also short, lasting only 10-20 seconds. Due to its short half-life, any side effects experienced are usually brief. These side effects may include a sense of impending doom, facial flushing, dyspnea, chest discomfort, and a metallic taste.

      There are certain contraindications to the use of adenosine. These include 2nd or 3rd degree AV block, sick sinus syndrome, long QT syndrome, severe hypotension, decompensated heart failure, chronic obstructive lung disease, and asthma. It is important to exercise caution when administering adenosine to patients with a heart transplant, as they are particularly sensitive to its effects. In these cases, a reduced initial dose of 3 mg is recommended, followed by 6 mg and then 12 mg.

      It is worth noting that the effects of adenosine can be potentiated by dipyridamole, a medication commonly used in combination with adenosine. Therefore, the dose of adenosine should be adjusted and reduced in patients who are also taking dipyridamole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You are asked to evaluate a 62-year-old patient who has come in with...

    Correct

    • You are asked to evaluate a 62-year-old patient who has come in with complaints of chest discomfort. The nurse has handed you the ECG report, which states 'unspecified age septal infarction' in the comments section.

      Which leads would you anticipate observing ST elevation in an acute septal STEMI?

      Your Answer: V1, V2

      Explanation:

      The septum, which is a part of the heart, can be best identified by examining leads V1 and V2. The septum receives its blood supply from the proximal left anterior descending artery (LAD). The LAD is responsible for supplying blood to the anterior myocardium and also contributes to the blood supply of the lateral myocardium. If the LAD becomes blocked, it can result in ST elevation in all the chest leads.

      Further Reading:

      Acute Coronary Syndromes (ACS) is a term used to describe a group of conditions that involve the sudden reduction or blockage of blood flow to the heart. This can lead to a heart attack or unstable angina. ACS includes ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non-ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina (UA).

      The development of ACS is usually seen in patients who already have underlying coronary heart disease. This disease is characterized by the buildup of fatty plaques in the walls of the coronary arteries, which can gradually narrow the arteries and reduce blood flow to the heart. This can cause chest pain, known as angina, during physical exertion. In some cases, the fatty plaques can rupture, leading to a complete blockage of the artery and a heart attack.

      There are both non modifiable and modifiable risk factors for ACS. non modifiable risk factors include increasing age, male gender, and family history. Modifiable risk factors include smoking, diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and obesity.

      The symptoms of ACS typically include chest pain, which is often described as a heavy or constricting sensation in the central or left side of the chest. The pain may also radiate to the jaw or left arm. Other symptoms can include shortness of breath, sweating, and nausea/vomiting. However, it’s important to note that some patients, especially diabetics or the elderly, may not experience chest pain.

      The diagnosis of ACS is typically made based on the patient’s history, electrocardiogram (ECG), and blood tests for cardiac enzymes, specifically troponin. The ECG can show changes consistent with a heart attack, such as ST segment elevation or depression, T wave inversion, or the presence of a new left bundle branch block. Elevated troponin levels confirm the diagnosis of a heart attack.

      The management of ACS depends on the specific condition and the patient’s risk factors. For STEMI, immediate coronary reperfusion therapy, either through primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) or fibrinolysis, is recommended. In addition to aspirin, a second antiplatelet agent is usually given. For NSTEMI or unstable angina, the treatment approach may involve reperfusion therapy or medical management, depending on the patient’s risk of future cardiovascular events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 72 year old male presents with central chest pain radiating to the...

    Correct

    • A 72 year old male presents with central chest pain radiating to the jaw and left arm. The patient is sweating profusely and appears pale. The pain began 4 hours ago. ECG reveals 2-3 mm ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF. 300 mg aspirin has been administered. Transporting the patient to the nearest coronary catheter lab for primary PCI will take 2 hours 45 minutes. What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Administer fibrinolysis

      Explanation:

      Fibrinolysis is a treatment option for patients with ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) if they are unable to receive primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) within 120 minutes, but fibrinolysis can be administered within that time frame. Primary PCI is the preferred treatment for STEMI patients who present within 12 hours of symptom onset. However, if primary PCI cannot be performed within 120 minutes of the time when fibrinolysis could have been given, fibrinolysis should be considered. Along with fibrinolysis, an antithrombin medication such as unfractionated heparin (UFH), low molecular weight heparin (LMWH), fondaparinux, or bivalirudin is typically administered.

      Further Reading:

      Acute Coronary Syndromes (ACS) is a term used to describe a group of conditions that involve the sudden reduction or blockage of blood flow to the heart. This can lead to a heart attack or unstable angina. ACS includes ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non-ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina (UA).

      The development of ACS is usually seen in patients who already have underlying coronary heart disease. This disease is characterized by the buildup of fatty plaques in the walls of the coronary arteries, which can gradually narrow the arteries and reduce blood flow to the heart. This can cause chest pain, known as angina, during physical exertion. In some cases, the fatty plaques can rupture, leading to a complete blockage of the artery and a heart attack.

      There are both non modifiable and modifiable risk factors for ACS. non modifiable risk factors include increasing age, male gender, and family history. Modifiable risk factors include smoking, diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and obesity.

      The symptoms of ACS typically include chest pain, which is often described as a heavy or constricting sensation in the central or left side of the chest. The pain may also radiate to the jaw or left arm. Other symptoms can include shortness of breath, sweating, and nausea/vomiting. However, it’s important to note that some patients, especially diabetics or the elderly, may not experience chest pain.

      The diagnosis of ACS is typically made based on the patient’s history, electrocardiogram (ECG), and blood tests for cardiac enzymes, specifically troponin. The ECG can show changes consistent with a heart attack, such as ST segment elevation or depression, T wave inversion, or the presence of a new left bundle branch block. Elevated troponin levels confirm the diagnosis of a heart attack.

      The management of ACS depends on the specific condition and the patient’s risk factors. For STEMI, immediate coronary reperfusion therapy, either through primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) or fibrinolysis, is recommended. In addition to aspirin, a second antiplatelet agent is usually given. For NSTEMI or unstable angina, the treatment approach may involve reperfusion therapy or medical management, depending on the patient’s risk of future cardiovascular events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      33.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You are asked to assess an older patient who has fainted. They have...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to assess an older patient who has fainted. They have a bradyarrhythmia evident on their ECG, and you determine to administer a dose of atropine.
      Which ONE statement about the use of atropine is accurate?

      Your Answer: It is recommended in the treatment of haemodynamically stable bradycardias

      Correct Answer: It blocks the effects of the vagus nerve on both the SA and AV nodes

      Explanation:

      Atropine acts as an antagonist to the parasympathetic neurotransmitter acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors. This means that it blocks the effects of the vagus nerve on both the SA node and the AV node, resulting in increased sinus automaticity and improved AV node conduction.

      The side effects of atropine are dependent on the dosage and may include dry mouth, nausea and vomiting, blurred vision, urinary retention, and tachyarrhythmias. Elderly patients may also experience acute confusion and hallucinations.

      Atropine is recommended for use in cases of sinus, atrial, or nodal bradycardia or AV block when the patient’s hemodynamic condition is unstable due to the bradycardia. According to the ALS bradycardia algorithm, an initial dose of 500 mcg IV is suggested if any adverse features such as shock, syncope, myocardial ischemia, or heart failure are present. If this initial dose is unsuccessful, additional 500 mcg doses can be administered at 3-5 minute intervals, with a maximum dose of 3 mg. It is important to avoid doses exceeding 3 mg as they can paradoxically slow the heart rate.

      Asystole during cardiac arrest is typically caused by primary myocardial pathology rather than excessive vagal tone. Therefore, there is no evidence supporting the routine use of atropine in the treatment of asystole or PEA. Consequently, atropine is no longer included in the non-shockable part of the ALS algorithm.

      Aside from its use in cardiac conditions, atropine also has other applications. It can be used topically in the eyes as a cycloplegic and mydriatic, to reduce secretions during anesthesia, and in the treatment of organophosphate poisoning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      97.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 42-year-old woman presents with central chest pain that has been intermittent for...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with central chest pain that has been intermittent for the past few weeks. She reports that it tends to occur when she is climbing stairs or walking uphill but subsides quickly when she rests. Her medical history includes type 2 diabetes mellitus, which is managed with metformin, and gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), for which she takes lansoprazole. On examination, her heart sounds are normal, and her chest is clear.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux

      Correct Answer: Stable angina

      Explanation:

      Stable angina is characterized by chest pain in the center of the chest that is triggered by activities such as exercise and emotional stress. The pain may spread to the jaw or left arm and can be relieved by resting for a few minutes. Typically, the pain is brought on by a predictable amount of exertion.

      On the other hand, unstable angina is defined by the presence of one or more of the following: angina of effort occurring over a few days with increasing frequency, episodes of angina occurring recurrently and predictably without specific provocation, or an unprovoked and prolonged episode of cardiac chest pain. In unstable angina, the ECG may appear normal or show T wave / ST segment changes, and cardiac enzymes are usually normal.

      Prinzmetal angina is a rare form of angina that typically occurs at rest between midnight and early morning. These attacks can be severe and happen in clusters. It is caused by spasms in the coronary arteries, and patients with this condition often have normal coronary arteries.

      It is important to note that gastro-esophageal reflux (GORD) is not relevant to this question and is included in the patient’s history to distract the candidate. Typical symptoms of GORD include heartburn and acid regurgitation, and it can also present with non-cardiac chest pain, dyspepsia, and difficulty swallowing.

      Lastly, Ludwig’s angina is a serious and potentially life-threatening infection in the submandibular area. It most commonly occurs due to an infection in the floor of the mouth that spreads into the submandibular space.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      100.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 72 year old male presents to the emergency department with central chest...

    Correct

    • A 72 year old male presents to the emergency department with central chest pain. After evaluating the patient and reviewing the tests, your consultant determines that the patient has unstable angina. Your consultant instructs you to contact the bed manager and arrange for the patient's admission. What crucial finding is necessary to establish the diagnosis of unstable angina?

      Your Answer: Normal troponin assay

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing between unstable angina and other acute coronary syndromes can be determined by normal troponin results. Unstable angina is characterized by new onset angina or a sudden worsening of previously stable angina, often occurring at rest. This condition typically requires hospital admission. On the other hand, stable angina is predictable and occurs during physical exertion or emotional stress, lasting for a short duration of no more than 10 minutes and relieved within minutes of rest or sublingual nitrates.

      To diagnose unstable angina, it is crucial to consider the nature of the chest pain and negative cardiac enzyme testing. The presence or absence of chest pain at rest and the response to rest and treatment with GTN are the most useful descriptors in distinguishing between stable and unstable angina. It is important to note that patients with unstable angina may not exhibit any changes on an electrocardiogram (ECG).

      If troponin results are abnormal, it indicates a myocardial infarction rather than unstable angina.

      Further Reading:

      Acute Coronary Syndromes (ACS) is a term used to describe a group of conditions that involve the sudden reduction or blockage of blood flow to the heart. This can lead to a heart attack or unstable angina. ACS includes ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non-ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina (UA).

      The development of ACS is usually seen in patients who already have underlying coronary heart disease. This disease is characterized by the buildup of fatty plaques in the walls of the coronary arteries, which can gradually narrow the arteries and reduce blood flow to the heart. This can cause chest pain, known as angina, during physical exertion. In some cases, the fatty plaques can rupture, leading to a complete blockage of the artery and a heart attack.

      There are both non modifiable and modifiable risk factors for ACS. non modifiable risk factors include increasing age, male gender, and family history. Modifiable risk factors include smoking, diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and obesity.

      The symptoms of ACS typically include chest pain, which is often described as a heavy or constricting sensation in the central or left side of the chest. The pain may also radiate to the jaw or left arm. Other symptoms can include shortness of breath, sweating, and nausea/vomiting. However, it’s important to note that some patients, especially diabetics or the elderly, may not experience chest pain.

      The diagnosis of ACS is typically made based on the patient’s history, electrocardiogram (ECG), and blood tests for cardiac enzymes, specifically troponin. The ECG can show changes consistent with a heart attack, such as ST segment elevation or depression, T wave inversion, or the presence of a new left bundle branch block. Elevated troponin levels confirm the diagnosis of a heart attack.

      The management of ACS depends on the specific condition and the patient’s risk factors. For STEMI, immediate coronary reperfusion therapy, either through primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) or fibrinolysis, is recommended. In addition to aspirin, a second antiplatelet agent is usually given. For NSTEMI or unstable angina, the treatment approach may involve reperfusion therapy or medical management, depending on the patient’s risk of future cardiovascular events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      34
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 70-year-old male smoker presents with intense chest discomfort. His electrocardiogram (ECG) indicates...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old male smoker presents with intense chest discomfort. His electrocardiogram (ECG) indicates an acute myocardial infarction, and he is immediately taken to the catheterization laboratory. Angiography reveals a blockage in the left anterior descending artery.
      Which area of the heart is most likely affected in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Anteroseptal

      Explanation:

      A summary of the vessels involved in different types of myocardial infarction, along with the corresponding ECG leads and the location of the infarction.

      For instance, an anteroseptal infarction involving the left anterior descending artery is indicated by ECG leads V1-V3. Similarly, an anterior infarction involving the left anterior descending artery is indicated by leads V3-V4.

      In cases of anterolateral infarctions, both the left anterior descending artery and the left circumflex artery are involved, and this is reflected in ECG leads V5-V6. An extensive anterior infarction involving the left anterior descending artery is indicated by leads V1-V6.

      Lateral infarcts involving the left circumflex artery are indicated by leads I, II, aVL, and V6. Inferior infarctions, on the other hand, involve either the right coronary artery (in 80% of cases) or the left circumflex artery (in 20% of cases), and this is shown by leads II, III, and aVF.

      In the case of a right ventricular infarction, the right coronary artery is involved, and this is indicated by leads V1 and V4R. Lastly, a posterior infarction involving the right coronary artery is shown by leads V7-V9.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      53.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 35-year-old Caucasian woman comes in with complaints of headaches, blurry vision, and...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old Caucasian woman comes in with complaints of headaches, blurry vision, and occasional chest pain over the past few weeks. During her fundoscopic examination, retinal hemorrhages and bilateral papilledema are observed. Her initial vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 89, blood pressure of 228/134, oxygen saturation of 98% on room air, blood glucose level of 8.2, and a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15/15.

      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Malignant hypertension

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis in this particular case is malignant (accelerated) hypertension. The patient’s blood pressure is greater than 220/110, and they also have retinal haemorrhages and papilloedema. During the examination, it is important to look for other features such as the presence of a 3rd heart sound, ankle oedema, bilateral basal crepitations, and any focal neurological deficit.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      34.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 72 year old male is brought to the emergency department by ambulance...

    Correct

    • A 72 year old male is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after experiencing severe chest pain while walking his dog. The patient complains of feeling nauseated and states that the pain spreads to his neck. An ECG is conducted, revealing ST elevation in leads I and AVL. Which coronary artery is most likely blocked?

      Your Answer: Left circumflex artery

      Explanation:

      Patients who have a STEMI caused by a blockage in the left circumflex artery (LCX) will usually show ST elevation in leads I and AVL. These leads correspond to the high lateral area of the heart, which is supplied by the LCX artery.

      Further Reading:

      Acute Coronary Syndromes (ACS) is a term used to describe a group of conditions that involve the sudden reduction or blockage of blood flow to the heart. This can lead to a heart attack or unstable angina. ACS includes ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non-ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina (UA).

      The development of ACS is usually seen in patients who already have underlying coronary heart disease. This disease is characterized by the buildup of fatty plaques in the walls of the coronary arteries, which can gradually narrow the arteries and reduce blood flow to the heart. This can cause chest pain, known as angina, during physical exertion. In some cases, the fatty plaques can rupture, leading to a complete blockage of the artery and a heart attack.

      There are both non modifiable and modifiable risk factors for ACS. non modifiable risk factors include increasing age, male gender, and family history. Modifiable risk factors include smoking, diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and obesity.

      The symptoms of ACS typically include chest pain, which is often described as a heavy or constricting sensation in the central or left side of the chest. The pain may also radiate to the jaw or left arm. Other symptoms can include shortness of breath, sweating, and nausea/vomiting. However, it’s important to note that some patients, especially diabetics or the elderly, may not experience chest pain.

      The diagnosis of ACS is typically made based on the patient’s history, electrocardiogram (ECG), and blood tests for cardiac enzymes, specifically troponin. The ECG can show changes consistent with a heart attack, such as ST segment elevation or depression, T wave inversion, or the presence of a new left bundle branch block. Elevated troponin levels confirm the diagnosis of a heart attack.

      The management of ACS depends on the specific condition and the patient’s risk factors. For STEMI, immediate coronary reperfusion therapy, either through primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) or fibrinolysis, is recommended. In addition to aspirin, a second antiplatelet agent is usually given. For NSTEMI or unstable angina, the treatment approach may involve reperfusion therapy or medical management, depending on the patient’s risk of future cardiovascular events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 32-year-old man presents with an episode of atrial fibrillation (AF) that began...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man presents with an episode of atrial fibrillation (AF) that began a few hours ago. This is his first-ever episode, and he has no significant medical history.
      Which of the following accurately characterizes the type of AF he has experienced?

      Your Answer: Acute

      Explanation:

      In order to gain a comprehensive understanding of AF management, it is crucial to familiarize oneself with the terminology used to describe its various subtypes. These terms help categorize different episodes of AF based on their characteristics and outcomes.

      Acute AF refers to any episode that occurs within the previous 48 hours. It can manifest with or without symptoms and may or may not recur. On the other hand, paroxysmal AF describes episodes that spontaneously end within 7 days, typically within 48 hours. While these episodes are often recurrent, they can progress into a sustained form of AF.

      Recurrent AF is defined as experiencing two or more episodes of AF. If the episodes self-terminate, they are classified as paroxysmal AF. However, if the episodes do not self-terminate, they are categorized as persistent AF. Persistent AF lasts longer than 7 days or has occurred after a previous cardioversion. To terminate persistent AF, electrical or pharmacological intervention is required. In some cases, persistent AF can progress into permanent AF.

      Permanent AF, also known as Accepted AF, refers to episodes that cannot be successfully terminated, have relapsed after termination, or where cardioversion is not pursued. This subtype signifies a more chronic and ongoing form of AF.

      By understanding and utilizing these terms, healthcare professionals can effectively communicate and manage the different subtypes of AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      62.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 72 year old male comes to the emergency department complaining of central...

    Incorrect

    • A 72 year old male comes to the emergency department complaining of central chest pain. An ECG is performed to check for signs of ischemic changes. Which of the following results is most indicative of a non ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI)?

      Your Answer: ST elevation in lead V1

      Correct Answer: Q wave in lead V2

      Explanation:

      Q waves in V2 and V3 are typically abnormal and indicate a pathological condition. Q waves are negative deflections that occur before an R wave. They can be either normal or abnormal. Small normal Q waves, which are less than 1mm deep, may be present in most leads. Deeper normal Q waves are commonly seen in lead III, as long as they are not present in the adjacent leads II and AVF. On the other hand, pathological Q waves are usually deeper and wider. In particular, Q waves should not be observed in V2 and V3. The specific criteria for identifying pathological Q waves are as follows: any Q wave in leads V2-V3 that is greater than 0.02s in duration or a QS complex in leads V2-V3; a Q wave that is greater than 0.03s in duration and deeper than 1mm, or a QS complex, in leads I, II, aVL, aVF, or V4-V6 in any two leads of a contiguous lead grouping; an R wave that is greater than 0.04s in duration in V1-V2 and has an R/S ratio greater than 1, along with a concordant positive T wave, in the absence of a conduction defect. In healthy individuals, the T-wave is normally inverted in aVR and inverted or flat in V1. T-wave inversion in III is also considered a normal variation. If there is ST elevation in lead V1, it would suggest a ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) rather than a non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI).

      Further Reading:

      Acute Coronary Syndromes (ACS) is a term used to describe a group of conditions that involve the sudden reduction or blockage of blood flow to the heart. This can lead to a heart attack or unstable angina. ACS includes ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non-ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina (UA).

      The development of ACS is usually seen in patients who already have underlying coronary heart disease. This disease is characterized by the buildup of fatty plaques in the walls of the coronary arteries, which can gradually narrow the arteries and reduce blood flow to the heart. This can cause chest pain, known as angina, during physical exertion. In some cases, the fatty plaques can rupture, leading to a complete blockage of the artery and a heart attack.

      There are both non modifiable and modifiable risk factors for ACS. non modifiable risk factors include increasing age, male gender, and family history. Modifiable risk factors include smoking, diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and obesity.

      The symptoms of ACS typically include chest pain, which is often described as a heavy or constricting sensation in the central or left side of the chest. The pain may also radiate to the jaw or left arm. Other symptoms can include shortness of breath, sweating, and nausea/vomiting. However, it’s important to note that some patients, especially diabetics or the elderly, may not experience chest pain.

      The diagnosis of ACS is typically made based on the patient’s history, electrocardiogram (ECG), and blood tests for cardiac enzymes, specifically troponin. The ECG can show changes consistent with a heart attack, such as ST segment elevation or depression, T wave inversion, or the presence of a new left bundle branch block. Elevated troponin levels confirm the diagnosis of a heart attack.

      The management of ACS depends on the specific condition and the patient’s risk factors. For STEMI, immediate coronary reperfusion therapy, either through primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) or fibrinolysis, is recommended. In addition to aspirin, a second antiplatelet agent is usually given. For NSTEMI or unstable angina, the treatment approach may involve reperfusion therapy or medical management, depending on the patient’s risk of future cardiovascular events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 16 - You conduct a cardiovascular examination on a 62-year-old man who complains of shortness...

    Incorrect

    • You conduct a cardiovascular examination on a 62-year-old man who complains of shortness of breath. He informs you that he has a known heart valve issue. During auscultation, you observe a significantly split second heart sound (S2).
      What is the most probable cause of this finding?

      Your Answer: Aortic regurgitation

      Correct Answer: Mitral regurgitation

      Explanation:

      The second heart sound (S2) is created by vibrations produced when the aortic and pulmonary valves close. It marks the end of systole. It is normal to hear a split in the sound during inspiration.

      A loud S2 can be associated with certain conditions such as systemic hypertension (resulting in a loud A2), pulmonary hypertension (resulting in a loud P2), hyperdynamic states (like tachycardia, fever, or thyrotoxicosis), and atrial septal defect (which causes a loud P2).

      On the other hand, a soft S2 can be linked to decreased aortic diastolic pressure (as seen in aortic regurgitation), poorly mobile cusps (such as calcification of the aortic valve), aortic root dilatation, and pulmonary stenosis (which causes a soft P2).

      A widely split S2 can occur during deep inspiration, right bundle branch block, prolonged right ventricular systole (seen in conditions like pulmonary stenosis or pulmonary embolism), and severe mitral regurgitation. However, in the case of atrial septal defect, the splitting is fixed and does not vary with respiration.

      Reversed splitting of S2, where P2 occurs before A2 (paradoxical splitting), can occur during deep expiration, left bundle branch block, prolonged left ventricular systole (as seen in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy), severe aortic stenosis, and right ventricular pacing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 17 - You are treating a 68 year old male who has been brought into...

    Correct

    • You are treating a 68 year old male who has been brought into the resuscitation bay by the ambulance crew. The patient was at home when he suddenly experienced dizziness and difficulty breathing. The ambulance crew presents the patient's ECG to you. You plan on administering atropine to address the patient's bradyarrhythmia.

      According to the resuscitation council, what is the maximum recommended total dose of atropine that should be administered?

      Your Answer: 3mg

      Explanation:

      When treating adults with bradycardia, a maximum of 6 doses of atropine 500 mcg can be administered. Each dose is given intravenously every 3-5 minutes. The total dose should not exceed 3mg.

      Further Reading:

      Causes of Bradycardia:
      – Physiological: Athletes, sleeping
      – Cardiac conduction dysfunction: Atrioventricular block, sinus node disease
      – Vasovagal & autonomic mediated: Vasovagal episodes, carotid sinus hypersensitivity
      – Hypothermia
      – Metabolic & electrolyte disturbances: Hypothyroidism, hyperkalaemia, hypermagnesemia
      – Drugs: Beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, digoxin, amiodarone
      – Head injury: Cushing’s response
      – Infections: Endocarditis
      – Other: Sarcoidosis, amyloidosis

      Presenting symptoms of Bradycardia:
      – Presyncope (dizziness, lightheadedness)
      – Syncope
      – Breathlessness
      – Weakness
      – Chest pain
      – Nausea

      Management of Bradycardia:
      – Assess and monitor for adverse features (shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, heart failure)
      – Treat reversible causes of bradycardia
      – Pharmacological treatment: Atropine is first-line, adrenaline and isoprenaline are second-line
      – Transcutaneous pacing if atropine is ineffective
      – Other drugs that may be used: Aminophylline, dopamine, glucagon, glycopyrrolate

      Bradycardia Algorithm:
      – Follow the algorithm for management of bradycardia, which includes assessing and monitoring for adverse features, treating reversible causes, and using appropriate medications or pacing as needed.
      https://acls-algorithms.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/12/Website-Bradycardia-Algorithm-Diagram.pdf

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 18 - A 25-year-old is brought into the emergency department after being discovered unresponsive in...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old is brought into the emergency department after being discovered unresponsive in a neighbor's backyard. It is suspected that the patient had consumed alcohol at a nearby club and opted to walk home in the snowy conditions. The patient's temperature is documented as 27.8ºC. The nurse connects leads to conduct a 12-lead ECG. Which of the subsequent ECG alterations is most closely linked to hypothermia?

      Your Answer: Osborn waves

      Explanation:

      Hypothermia can cause various changes in an electrocardiogram (ECG). These changes include a slower heart rate (bradycardia), the presence of Osborn Waves (also known as J waves), a prolonged PR interval, a widened QRS complex, and a prolonged QT interval. Additionally, the ECG may show artifacts caused by shivering, as well as the presence of ventricular ectopics. In severe cases, hypothermia can lead to cardiac arrest, which may manifest as ventricular tachycardia (VT), ventricular fibrillation (VF), or asystole.

      Further Reading:

      Hypothermia is defined as a core temperature below 35ºC and can be graded as mild, moderate, severe, or profound based on the core temperature. When the core temperature drops, the basal metabolic rate decreases and cell signaling between neurons decreases, leading to reduced tissue perfusion. This can result in decreased myocardial contractility, vasoconstriction, ventilation-perfusion mismatch, and increased blood viscosity. Symptoms of hypothermia progress as the core temperature drops, starting with compensatory increases in heart rate and shivering, and eventually leading to bradyarrhythmias, prolonged PR, QRS, and QT intervals, and cardiac arrest.

      In the management of hypothermic cardiac arrest, ALS should be initiated with some modifications. The pulse check during CPR should be prolonged to 1 minute due to difficulty in obtaining a pulse. Rewarming the patient is important, and mechanical ventilation may be necessary due to stiffness of the chest wall. Drug metabolism is slowed in hypothermic patients, so dosing of drugs should be adjusted or withheld. Electrolyte disturbances are common in hypothermic patients and should be corrected.

      Frostbite refers to a freezing injury to human tissue and occurs when tissue temperature drops below 0ºC. It can be classified as superficial or deep, with superficial frostbite affecting the skin and subcutaneous tissues, and deep frostbite affecting bones, joints, and tendons. Frostbite can be classified from 1st to 4th degree based on the severity of the injury. Risk factors for frostbite include environmental factors such as cold weather exposure and medical factors such as peripheral vascular disease and diabetes.

      Signs and symptoms of frostbite include skin changes, cold sensation or firmness to the affected area, stinging, burning, or numbness, clumsiness of the affected extremity, and excessive sweating, hyperemia, and tissue gangrene. Frostbite is diagnosed clinically and imaging may be used in some cases to assess perfusion or visualize occluded vessels. Management involves moving the patient to a warm environment, removing wet clothing, and rapidly rewarming the affected tissue. Analgesia should be given as reperfusion is painful, and blisters should be de-roofed and aloe vera applied. Compartment syndrome is a risk and should be monitored for. Severe cases may require surgical debridement of amputation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 19 - Your hospital’s oncology department is currently evaluating the utility of a triple marker...

    Incorrect

    • Your hospital’s oncology department is currently evaluating the utility of a triple marker test for use in risk stratification of patients with suspected breast cancer. The test will use estrogen receptor (ER), progesterone receptor (PR), and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2).
      How long after tumor formation do ER levels start to increase?

      Your Answer: 6 hours

      Correct Answer: 1.5 hours

      Explanation:

      The timing of the initial rise, peak, and return to normality of various cardiac enzymes can serve as a helpful guide. Creatine kinase, the main cardiac isoenzyme, typically experiences an initial rise within 4-8 hours, reaches its peak at 18 hours, and returns to normal within 2-3 days. Myoglobin, which lacks specificity due to its association with skeletal muscle damage, shows an initial rise within 1-4 hours, peaks at 6-7 hours, and returns to normal within 24 hours. Troponin I, known for its sensitivity and specificity, exhibits an initial rise within 3-12 hours, reaches its peak at 24 hours, and returns to normal within 3-10 days. HFABP, or heart fatty acid binding protein, experiences an initial rise within 1.5 hours, peaks at 5-10 hours, and returns to normal within 24 hours. Lastly, LDH, predominantly found in cardiac muscle, shows an initial rise at 10 hours, peaks at 24-48 hours, and returns to normal within 14 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 20 - You are summoned to a cardiac arrest in the resuscitation area of your...

    Correct

    • You are summoned to a cardiac arrest in the resuscitation area of your Emergency Department.
      Which ONE statement about the utilization of amiodarone in cardiac arrest is accurate?

      Your Answer: It increases the duration of the action potential

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone is a medication that is recommended to be administered after the third shock in a shockable cardiac arrest (Vf/pVT) while chest compressions are being performed. The prescribed dose is 300 mg, given as an intravenous bolus that is diluted in 5% dextrose to a volume of 20 mL. It is important to note that amiodarone is not suitable for treating PEA or asystole.

      In cases where VF/pVT persists after five defibrillation attempts, an additional dose of 150 mg of amiodarone should be given. However, if amiodarone is not available, lidocaine can be used as an alternative. The recommended dose of lidocaine is 1 mg/kg. It is crucial to avoid administering lidocaine if amiodarone has already been given.

      Amiodarone is classified as a membrane-stabilizing antiarrhythmic drug. It works by prolonging the duration of the action potential and the refractory period in both the atrial and ventricular myocardium. This medication also slows down atrioventricular conduction and has a similar effect on accessory pathways.

      Additionally, amiodarone has a mild negative inotropic action, meaning it weakens the force of heart contractions. It also causes peripheral vasodilation through non-competitive alpha-blocking effects.

      It is important to note that while there is no evidence of long-term benefits from using amiodarone, it may improve short-term survival rates, which justifies its continued use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 21 - A 37 year old female presents to the emergency department complaining of shortness...

    Correct

    • A 37 year old female presents to the emergency department complaining of shortness of breath and chest pain in the center of her chest. Upon further questioning, the patient reveals that she experienced muscle pain, gastrointestinal issues, a mild fever, and fatigue for approximately three days about a week ago. She informs you that she is typically in good health and regularly runs 5-10km two to three times per week. The patient has no significant medical history, does not take any medications on a regular basis, has never smoked, and does not consume alcohol. Given the patient's symptoms, you suspect the possibility of myocarditis. Which of the following sets of blood test results would be expected in a patient with myocarditis?

      Your Answer: creatine kinase: elevated, troponin I: elevated, BNP: elevated

      Explanation:

      In cases of myocarditis, levels of cardiac muscle enzymes (CK-MB, Troponin I, and Troponin T) and B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) are usually elevated. It is important to note that CK-MB is a subtype of CK, so an increase in CK-MB will also result in an increase in total CK levels. This poses a challenge in differentiating myocarditis from coronary artery disease in the emergency department. Typically, a definitive diagnosis is not made until the patient undergoes additional tests such as angiography and possibly endomyocardial biopsy (EMB).

      Further Reading:

      Myocarditis is inflammation of the myocardium, the middle layer of the heart wall, that is not caused by a blockage in the coronary arteries. It can be caused by various factors, including infections (such as viruses, bacteria, parasites, and fungi), immune reactions, toxins, physical injury, and certain medications or vaccines. Coxsackie virus is the most common cause of myocarditis in Europe and the USA, while globally, Trypanosoma cruzi, which causes Chagas disease, is the most common cause.

      The symptoms of myocarditis can vary widely and often resemble those of heart failure or coronary heart disease. Common symptoms include chest pain, palpitations, breathlessness, fatigue, and swelling. The clinical presentation can also be influenced by the underlying cause of the inflammation. Diagnosis of myocarditis is challenging as there is no specific clinical presentation, and the gold standard test, endomyocardial biopsy, is not readily available in emergency departments.

      Various tests can be performed to aid in the diagnosis of myocarditis, including electrocardiogram (ECG), chest X-ray, cardiac enzymes (such as troponin or CK-MB), brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) levels, and echocardiogram. These tests may show non-specific abnormalities, such as ST-segment and T-wave abnormalities on ECG, bilateral pulmonary infiltrates on chest X-ray, elevated cardiac enzymes and BNP levels, and left ventricular motion abnormalities on echocardiogram.

      Management of myocarditis is primarily supportive, focusing on treating cardiac failure and addressing the underlying cause. Supportive care and conventional heart failure therapy, such as ACE inhibitors or angiotensin II receptor blockers, vasodilators, beta-blockers, and diuretics, may be used to improve cardiac function and reduce symptoms. Treatment of the underlying cause, such as antiparasitic agents for Chagas disease or antibiotics for bacterial infections, may also be necessary. In severe cases leading to cardiogenic shock, more aggressive treatment with invasive monitoring, inotropes, vasopressors, and potentially heart transplantation may be required.

      In summary, myocarditis is inflammation of the myocardium that can be caused by various factors. It presents with a wide range of symptoms and can be challenging to diagnose. Management involves supportive care, treatment of cardiac failure, and addressing the underlying cause. Severe cases may require more aggressive treatment and potentially heart transplantation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 22 - A 72-year-old woman presents with worsening abdominal distension and discomfort. During the examination,...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old woman presents with worsening abdominal distension and discomfort. During the examination, she exhibits significant dependent edema and an elevated JVP. Cardiac auscultation reveals a pansystolic murmur. The abdomen is distended and tender, with the presence of shifting dullness.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation

      Explanation:

      Tricuspid regurgitation is commonly caused by right ventricular dilatation, often as a result of heart failure. Other factors that can contribute to this condition include right ventricular infarction and cor pulmonale. The clinical signs of right-sided heart failure are frequently observed, such as an elevated jugular venous pressure, peripheral edema, hepatomegaly, and ascites.

      The murmur associated with tricuspid regurgitation is a pansystolic murmur that is most audible at the tricuspid area during inspiration. A thrill may also be felt at the left sternal edge. Reverse splitting of the second heart sound can occur due to the early closure of the pulmonary valve. Additionally, a third heart sound may be present due to rapid filling of the right ventricle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 23 - A 35 year old male presents to the emergency department with complaints of...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old male presents to the emergency department with complaints of palpitations. An ECG is conducted, revealing a regular narrow complex supraventricular tachycardia with a rate of around 160 bpm. There are no signs of ST elevation or depression. The patient's vital signs are as follows:

      Blood pressure: 128/76 mmHg
      Pulse rate: 166
      Respiration rate: 19
      Oxygen saturations: 97% on room air

      What would be the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Vagal manoeuvres

      Explanation:

      In stable patients with SVT, it is recommended to first try vagal manoeuvres before resorting to drug treatment. This approach is particularly applicable to patients who do not exhibit any adverse features, as mentioned in the case above.

      Further Reading:

      Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is a type of tachyarrhythmia that originates from the atria or above the bundle of His in the heart. It includes all atrial and junctional tachycardias, although atrial fibrillation is often considered separately. SVT typically produces a narrow QRS complex tachycardia on an electrocardiogram (ECG), unless there is an underlying conduction abnormality below the atrioventricular (AV) node. Narrow complex tachycardias are considered SVTs, while some broad complex tachycardias can also be SVTs with co-existent conduction delays.

      SVT can be classified into three main subtypes based on where it arises: re-entrant accessory circuits (the most common type), atrial tachycardias, and junctional tachycardias. The most common SVTs are AVNRT (AV nodal re-entry tachycardia) and AVRT (AV re-entry tachycardia), which arise from accessory circuits within the heart. AVNRT involves an accessory circuit within the AV node itself, while AVRT involves an accessory pathway between the atria and ventricles that allows additional electrical signals to trigger the AV node.

      Atrial tachycardias originate from abnormal foci within the atria, except for the SA node, AV node, or accessory pathway. Junctional tachycardias arise in the AV junction. The ECG features of SVTs vary depending on the type. Atrial tachycardias may have abnormal P wave morphology, an isoelectric baseline between P waves (in atrial flutter), and inverted P waves in certain leads. AVNRT may show pseudo R waves in V1 or pseudo S waves in certain leads, with an RP interval shorter than the PR interval. AVRT (WPW) may exhibit a delta wave on a resting ECG and retrograde P waves in the ST segment, with an RP interval shorter than the PR interval. Junctional tachycardias may have retrograde P waves before, during, or after the QRS complex, with inverted P waves in certain leads and upright P waves in others.

      Treatment of SVT follows the 2021 resuscitation council algorithm for tachycardia with a pulse. The algorithm provides guidelines for managing stable patients with SVT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 24 - A 55-year-old woman comes in with severe chest pain in the center of...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman comes in with severe chest pain in the center of her chest. Her ECG reveals the following findings:
      ST elevation in leads I, II, aVF, and V6
      Reciprocal ST depression in leads V1-V4 and aVR
      Prominent tall R waves in leads V2-V3
      Upright T waves in leads V2-V3
      Based on these findings, which blood vessel is most likely affected in this case?

      Your Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      This ECG indicates changes that are consistent with an acute inferoposterior myocardial infarction (MI). There is ST elevation in leads I, II, aVF, and V6, along with reciprocal ST depression in leads V1-V4 and aVR. Additionally, there are tall dominant R waves in leads V2-V3 and upright T waves in leads V2-V3. Based on these findings, the most likely vessel involved in this case is the right coronary artery.

      To summarize the vessels involved in different types of myocardial infarction see below:
      ECG Leads – Location of MI | Vessel involved
      V1-V3 – Anteroseptal | Left anterior descending
      V3-V4 – Anterior | Left anterior descending
      V5-V6 – Anterolateral | Left anterior descending / left circumflex artery
      V1-V6 – Extensive anterior | Left anterior descending
      I, II, aVL, V6 – Lateral | Left circumflex artery
      II, III, aVF – Inferior | Right coronary artery (80%), Left circumflex artery (20%)
      V1, V4R – Right ventricle | Right coronary artery
      V7-V9 – Posterior | Right coronary artery

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 25 - You are requested to evaluate a 60-year-old male in the emergency department who...

    Correct

    • You are requested to evaluate a 60-year-old male in the emergency department who has arrived with complaints of dizziness and difficulty breathing. Following an ECG examination, the patient is diagnosed with Torsades de pointes. What are the two electrolyte imbalances most frequently linked to this cardiac rhythm disorder?

      Your Answer: Hypokalaemia and hypomagnesaemia

      Explanation:

      Torsades de pointes is a condition that is linked to low levels of potassium (hypokalaemia) and magnesium (hypomagnesaemia). When potassium and magnesium levels are low, it can cause the QT interval to become prolonged, which increases the risk of developing Torsades de pointes.

      Further Reading:

      Torsades de pointes is an irregular broad-complex tachycardia that can be life-threatening. It is a polymorphic ventricular tachycardia that can lead to sudden cardiac death. It is characterized by distinct features on the electrocardiogram (ECG).

      The causes of irregular broad-complex tachycardia include atrial fibrillation with bundle branch block, atrial fibrillation with ventricular pre-excitation (in patients with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome), and polymorphic ventricular tachycardia such as torsades de pointes. However, sustained polymorphic ventricular tachycardia is unlikely to be present without adverse features, so it is important to seek expert help for the assessment and treatment of this condition.

      Torsades de pointes can be caused by drug-induced QT prolongation, diarrhea, hypomagnesemia, hypokalemia, and congenital long QT syndrome. It may also be seen in malnourished individuals due to low potassium and/or low magnesium levels. Additionally, it can occur in individuals taking drugs that prolong the QT interval or inhibit their metabolism.

      The management of torsades de pointes involves immediate action. All drugs known to prolong the QT interval should be stopped. Amiodarone should not be given for definite torsades de pointes. Electrolyte abnormalities, especially hypokalemia, should be corrected. Magnesium sulfate should be administered intravenously. If adverse features are present, immediate synchronized cardioversion should be arranged. sought, as other treatments such as overdrive pacing may be necessary to prevent relapse once the arrhythmia has been corrected. If the patient becomes pulseless, defibrillation should be attempted immediately.

      In summary, torsades de pointes is a dangerous arrhythmia that requires prompt management. It is important to identify and address the underlying causes, correct electrolyte abnormalities, and seek expert help for appropriate treatment.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 26 - You are requested to evaluate a teenager who is in resus with a...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to evaluate a teenager who is in resus with a supraventricular tachycardia. The patient is stable hemodynamically but has already received 3 doses of IV adenosine and vagal maneuvers. However, there has been no improvement in their condition.
      Based on the current APLS guidelines, what would be the most suitable next course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: 4 J/kg DC unsynchronised shock

      Correct Answer: Give IV amiodarone 5-10 mg/kg

      Explanation:

      Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is the most common arrhythmia that occurs in children and infants, causing cardiovascular instability. According to the current APLS guidelines, if a patient with SVT shows no signs of shock and remains stable, initial attempts should be made to use vagal maneuvers. If these maneuvers are unsuccessful, the following steps are recommended:

      – Administer an initial dose of 100 mcg/kg of adenosine.
      – After two minutes, if the child is still in stable SVT, administer another dose of 200 mcg/kg of adenosine.
      – After an additional two minutes, if the child remains in stable SVT, administer another dose of 300 mcg/kg of adenosine.

      If these measures do not resolve the SVT, the guidelines suggest considering the following options:

      – Administer adenosine at a dose of 400-500 mcg/kg.
      – Perform a synchronous DC shock.
      – Administer amiodarone.

      When using amiodarone, the initial dose should be 5-10 mg/kg given over a period of 20 minutes to 2 hours. This should be followed by a continuous infusion of 300 mcg/kg/hour, with adjustments made based on the response, increasing by 1.5 mg/kg/hour. The total infusion rate should not exceed 1.2 g in a 24-hour period.

      If defibrillation is necessary for the treatment of SVT in children, it should be performed as a DC synchronous shock at a dosage of 1-2 J/kg.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 27 - While examining a 68-year-old man, you detect an ejection systolic murmur. The murmur...

    Incorrect

    • While examining a 68-year-old man, you detect an ejection systolic murmur. The murmur does not radiate, and his pulse character is normal.
      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Correct Answer: Aortic sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Aortic sclerosis is a condition that occurs when the aortic valve undergoes senile degeneration. Unlike aortic stenosis, it does not result in any obstruction of the left ventricular outflow tract. To differentiate between aortic stenosis and aortic sclerosis, the following can be used:

      Feature: Aortic stenosis
      – Symptoms: Can be asymptomatic, but may cause angina, breathlessness, and syncope if severe.
      – Pulse: Slow rising, low volume pulse.
      – Apex beat: Sustained, heaving apex beat.
      – Thrill: Palpable thrill in the aortic area can be felt.
      – Murmur: Ejection systolic murmur loudest in the aortic area.
      – Radiation: Radiates to carotids.

      Feature: Aortic sclerosis
      – Symptoms: Always asymptomatic.
      – Pulse: Normal pulse character.
      – Apex beat: Normal apex beat.
      – Thrill: No thrill.
      – Murmur: Ejection systolic murmur loudest in the aortic area.
      – Radiation: No radiation.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 28 - A 68 year old is brought to the emergency department by his son....

    Correct

    • A 68 year old is brought to the emergency department by his son. The patient complained of feeling sick. On checking the patient's medication the son believes he may have taken an excessive amount of digoxin tablets over the past few days. You are worried about digoxin toxicity. What ECG characteristics are linked to digoxin toxicity?

      Your Answer: Downsloping ST depression

      Explanation:

      One way to assess for digoxin toxicity is by examining the patient’s electrocardiogram (ECG) for specific characteristics. In the case of digoxin toxicity, ECG findings may include downsloping ST depression, prolonged QT interval, tall tented T-waves, and possibly delta waves. However, a short PR interval (< 120ms) is not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Further Reading: Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, digoxin toxicity can occur, and plasma concentration alone does not determine if a patient has developed toxicity. Symptoms of digoxin toxicity include feeling generally unwell, lethargy, nausea and vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia. ECG changes seen in digoxin toxicity include downsloping ST depression with a characteristic Salvador Dali sagging appearance, flattened, inverted, or biphasic T waves, shortened QT interval, mild PR interval prolongation, and prominent U waves. There are several precipitating factors for digoxin toxicity, including hypokalaemia, increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, verapamil, and diltiazem. Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of digoxin specific antibody fragments, also known as Digibind or digifab. Arrhythmias should be treated, and electrolyte disturbances should be corrected with close monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to note that digoxin toxicity can be precipitated by hypokalaemia, and toxicity can then lead to hyperkalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 29 - A 72-year-old woman presents with severe central chest pain. An ECG is performed,...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old woman presents with severe central chest pain. An ECG is performed, which shows ST elevation in the anterolateral leads. She was given aspirin and morphine upon arrival. Her observations are as follows: SaO2 99% on air, HR 89 bpm, and BP 149/87 mmHg. Upon discussion with the cardiology team, a decision is made to perform an urgent percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI).
      Which of the following medications could you also consider administering to this patient?

      Your Answer: Bivalirudin

      Explanation:

      This patient is displaying symptoms consistent with a diagnosis of an acute myocardial infarction. It is important to provide pain relief as soon as possible. One option for pain relief is GTN, which can be taken sublingually or buccally. However, if there is suspicion of an acute myocardial infarction, it is recommended to offer intravenous opioids such as morphine.

      Aspirin should be offered to all patients with unstable angina or NSTEMI as soon as possible and should be continued indefinitely, unless there are contraindications such as a bleeding risk or aspirin hypersensitivity. A loading dose of 300 mg should be administered promptly after presentation.

      For patients without a high bleeding risk who do not have coronary angiography planned within 24 hours of admission, fondaparinux should be administered. However, for patients who are likely to undergo coronary angiography within 24 hours, unfractionated heparin can be offered as an alternative to fondaparinux. In cases of significant renal impairment (creatinine above 265 micromoles per litre), unfractionated heparin with dose adjustment guided by clotting function monitoring can also be considered as an alternative to fondaparinux.

      Routine administration of oxygen is no longer recommended, but it is important to monitor oxygen saturation using pulse oximetry as soon as possible, preferably before hospital admission. Supplemental oxygen should only be offered to individuals with an oxygen saturation (SpO2) of less than 94% who are not at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure, with a target SpO2 range of 94-98%. For individuals with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease who are at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure, a target SpO2 range of 88-92% should be aimed for until blood gas analysis is available.

      Bivalirudin, a specific and reversible direct thrombin inhibitor (DTI), is recommended by NICE as a possible treatment for adults with STEMI who are undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention.

      For more information, please refer to the NICE guidelines on the assessment and diagnosis of chest pain of recent onset.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 30 - A 62 year old male arrives at the emergency department complaining of abrupt...

    Correct

    • A 62 year old male arrives at the emergency department complaining of abrupt tearing chest pain that extends to the throat and back. The possibility of aortic dissection is being considered. What is the primary location for dissection?

      Your Answer: Ascending aorta

      Explanation:

      The primary location for aortic dissection, which is being considered in this case, is the ascending aorta.

      Aortic dissection is a life-threatening condition in which blood flows through a tear in the innermost layer of the aorta, creating a false lumen. Prompt treatment is necessary as the mortality rate increases by 1-2% per hour. There are different classifications of aortic dissection, with the majority of cases being proximal. Risk factors for aortic dissection include hypertension, atherosclerosis, connective tissue disorders, family history, and certain medical procedures.

      The presentation of aortic dissection typically includes sudden onset sharp chest pain, often described as tearing or ripping. Back pain and abdominal pain are also common, and the pain may radiate to the neck and arms. The clinical picture can vary depending on which aortic branches are affected, and complications such as organ ischemia, limb ischemia, stroke, myocardial infarction, and cardiac tamponade may occur. Common signs and symptoms include a blood pressure differential between limbs, pulse deficit, and a diastolic murmur.

      Various investigations can be done to diagnose aortic dissection, including ECG, CXR, and CT with arterial contrast enhancement (CTA). CT is the investigation of choice due to its accuracy in diagnosis and classification. Other imaging techniques such as transoesophageal echocardiography (TOE), magnetic resonance imaging/angiography (MRI/MRA), and digital subtraction angiography (DSA) are less commonly used.

      Management of aortic dissection involves pain relief, resuscitation measures, blood pressure control, and referral to a vascular or cardiothoracic team. Opioid analgesia should be given for pain relief, and resuscitation measures such as high flow oxygen and large bore IV access should be performed. Blood pressure control is crucial, and medications such as labetalol may be used to reduce systolic blood pressure. Hypotension carries a poor prognosis and may require careful fluid resuscitation. Treatment options depend on the type of dissection, with type A dissections typically requiring urgent surgery and type B dissections managed by thoracic endovascular aortic repair (TEVAR) and blood pressure control optimization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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