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  • Question 1 - A 40-year-old school teacher who enjoys running long distances comes to the clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old school teacher who enjoys running long distances comes to the clinic complaining of cramp-like pain in the forefoot that has been bothering them for the past week. During the examination, tenderness was noted over the dorsal distal portion of the second metatarsal. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lisfranc injury

      Correct Answer: March fracture

      Explanation:

      Common Foot Injuries and Their Causes

      March fracture, Lisfranc injury, Hallux Rigidus, Jones fracture, and proximal fifth metatarsal avulsion fracture are all common foot injuries that can cause significant pain and discomfort. A March fracture is a stress fracture of one of the metatarsal bones caused by repetitive stress, often seen in soldiers and hikers. Lisfranc injury occurs when one or more metatarsal bones are displaced from the tarsus due to excessive kinetic energy, such as in a traffic collision. Hallux Rigidus is degenerative arthritis that causes bone spurs at the metatarsophalangeal joint of the big toe, resulting in stiffness and pain. Jones fracture is a fracture in the fifth metatarsal of the foot, while proximal fifth metatarsal avulsion fracture is caused by forcible inversion of the foot in plantar flexion.

      Based on the onset of symptoms and tenderness over the distal portion of the second metatarsal, a March fracture is the most likely diagnosis. It is important to seek medical attention for any foot injury to prevent further damage and ensure proper healing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 2 - A 68-year-old woman presents with a one-month history of non-specific malaise. She experiences...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman presents with a one-month history of non-specific malaise. She experiences stiffness, particularly in the mornings, and has difficulty lifting her arms to comb her hair. She also has constant pain in her arms, shoulders, and jaw when chewing. She has lost 4 kg in weight and has a persistent headache. She smokes 10 cigarettes a day and drinks 10 units of alcohol per week. On examination, she has tenderness with reduced mobility in the proximal muscles of her arms and legs. Her investigations reveal a low Hb, high WCC, and elevated ESR. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica

      Explanation:

      Polymyalgia Rheumatica/Temporal arthritis: Symptoms and Treatment

      Polymyalgia rheumatica/temporal arthritis is a condition that can cause a variety of symptoms. It may present with predominantly polymyalgia symptoms such as muscle pain and stiffness, or arthritis symptoms such as headaches, scalp tenderness, and jaw claudication. Systemic features like fever, malaise, and weight loss may also be present. Weakness is not a typical feature, but it may be apparent due to pain or stiffness with weight loss. The ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate) is usually very high in this condition.

      Temporal arthritis is a serious complication of this condition that can result in blindness. It is important to note that temporal arthritis is a vasculitis that affects medium and large-sized arteries throughout the body, not just the temporal artery. The superficial temporal artery supplies the orbit of the eye and is a branch of the external carotid artery, while the ophthalmic artery supplies the majority of the blood to the eye itself and is a branch of the internal carotid artery. Inflammation and narrowing of the temporal artery can cause blindness.

      If temporal arthritis is suspected, it must be treated with high-dose steroids. This condition is a reminder that prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 3 - A 27-year-old semi-professional rugby player presents with a red, hot, swollen left knee....

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old semi-professional rugby player presents with a red, hot, swollen left knee. There has been no history of trauma. He recently had a negative sexual health check and has not had any new partners since. Upon examination, the left knee is unable to fully extend and there is a large effusion. The clinical suspicion is septic arthritis. What is the most probable organism responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Septic Arthritis: Causes and Treatment

      Septic arthritis is a rheumatological emergency that requires urgent attention. A red, hot, swollen joint may indicate septic arthritis, which can be caused by a variety of pathogens. The most common pathogen is Staphylococcus aureus, and joint destruction can occur within 24 hours if left untreated. It is important to consider and treat septic arthritis urgently or until firmly excluded by joint aspiration. The empirical antibiotic regime should be consulted in local health authority guidelines or with a microbiologist. Intravenous drugs should be used for 2 weeks and a total course of 6 weeks completed. Other pathogens that can cause septic arthritis include Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Streptococcus viridans, and Salmonella typhi. It is important to consider the patient’s medical history and risk factors when determining the cause of septic arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 4 - A 30-year-old white man comes to his general practitioner complaining of progressive low...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old white man comes to his general practitioner complaining of progressive low back pain over the past four years. The pain is worse at night when he lies down and improves as he moves around during the day, but it does not go away with rest. Upon further questioning, he reports having experienced three episodes of acute eye pain with sensitivity to light and blurry vision in the past two years. He sought treatment from an ophthalmologist, and the symptoms resolved with steroids and eye drops. X-rays reveal some inflammatory and arthritic changes in the sacroiliac joints. Despite treatment, the disease has continued to progress, and ten years later, x-rays show calcification of the anterior spinal ligament. What is the most likely positive finding in this patient?

      Your Answer: HLA-B27

      Explanation:

      Understanding HLA and Autoimmune Diseases

      HLA-B27 is a genetic marker associated with ankylosing spondylitis, an autoimmune disease that primarily affects the spine. This disease is more common in males and typically presents in the 20s and 30s. Other autoimmune manifestations, such as anterior uveitis, can also occur in individuals with HLA-B27. Additionally, young men with this genetic marker may be prone to reactive arthritis after chlamydia or gonorrhoeal urethritis.

      Rheumatoid factor, on the other hand, is not associated with HLA-B27 or ankylosing spondylitis. While stiffness that improves with exercise may be seen in rheumatoid arthritis, this disease typically affects peripheral joints and does not lead to calcification of the anterior spinal ligament.

      Other HLA markers are associated with different autoimmune diseases. HLA-DR3 is linked to type 1 diabetes mellitus, HLA-DR5 is associated with pernicious anaemia and Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, and HLA-B8 is linked to Graves’ disease. Understanding these genetic markers can aid in the diagnosis and management of autoimmune diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 5 - A 65-year-old woman complains of discomfort at the base of her left thumb....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman complains of discomfort at the base of her left thumb. The right first carpometacarpal joint is swollen and tender.
      What could be the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid

      Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Explanation:

      Common Hand and Wrist Pathologies

      The hand and wrist are common sites of pathology, particularly in postmenopausal women. Osteoarthritis frequently affects the first carpometacarpal joint, causing tenderness, stiffness, crepitus, swelling, and pain on thumb abduction. This can lead to squaring of the hand, radial subluxation of the metacarpal, and atrophy of the thenar muscles.

      Scaphoid fractures are also relatively common, often resulting from a fall onto an outstretched hand. The proximal portion of the scaphoid lacks its own blood supply, which can lead to avascular necrosis if a fracture isolates it from the rest of the bone. This produces pain and tenderness on the radial side of the wrist, typically in the anatomical snuffbox, worsened by wrist movement.

      De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is another common pathology, characterized by stenosing tenosynovitis of the first dorsal compartment of the wrist. It presents with pain, swelling, and tenderness on the radial aspect of the wrist. Treatment typically involves splinting, with or without corticosteroid injection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 6 - A 65-year-old woman complains of bilateral knee pain that has persisted for 4...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman complains of bilateral knee pain that has persisted for 4 months, despite taking paracetamol PRN. Her recent knee X-rays reveal moderate degenerative changes, and she has requested physiotherapy. What additional treatment should be initiated while waiting for physiotherapy?

      Your Answer: Topical non-steroidal anti-inflammatories (NSAIDs)

      Explanation:

      Topical non-steroidal anti-inflammatories (NSAIDs) are a good option for patients experiencing knee or hand symptoms. Regular paracetamol or oral NSAIDs are not provided as choices. Co-codamol is effective for moderate-to-severe pain, but should only be used after trying regular paracetamol and NSAIDs due to potential side-effects. Acupuncture is not recommended for osteoarthritis treatment as studies have shown little to no effectiveness. Capsaicin cream can be used if other treatments are ineffective. Glucosamine and chondroitin are not recommended by NICE for osteoarthritis treatment due to inconsistent research outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 7 - A 32-year-old woman fell off her horse while horse-riding and is now experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman fell off her horse while horse-riding and is now experiencing severe foot pain. Her foot was trapped in the stirrup during the fall. An x-ray revealed displacement of her second and third metatarsal from the tarsus. What is the name of this injury?

      Your Answer: March Fracture

      Correct Answer: Lisfranc Injury

      Explanation:

      Common Foot Injuries and Their Characteristics

      Lisfranc injury is a type of foot injury that occurs when one or more metatarsal bones are displaced from the tarsus. This injury is usually caused by excessive kinetic energy being placed on the midfoot, such as in a traffic collision. There are two types of Lisfranc injuries: direct and indirect. A direct injury occurs when the foot is crushed by a heavy object, while an indirect injury occurs when there is sudden rotational force on a plantar flexed foot.

      March fracture is another common foot injury that is caused by repetitive stress on the distal third of one of the metatarsal bones. This injury is often seen in soldiers and hikers who walk long distances. The onset of foot pain is gradual and progressive, and there is often trauma associated with it.

      Hallux Rigidus is a degenerative arthritis that causes bone spurs at the metatarsophalangeal joint of the big toe, making it painful and stiff. Jones fracture is a fracture in the meta-diaphyseal junction of the fifth metatarsal of the foot. Proximal fifth metatarsal avulsion fracture is caused by forcible inversion of the foot in plantar flexion, such as when stepping on a kerb or climbing steps.

      These different foot injuries have their own unique characteristics and causes. these injuries can help individuals take preventative measures to avoid them and seek appropriate treatment if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 8 - A 40-year-old teacher presents with complaints of lethargy and widespread aches and pains,...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old teacher presents with complaints of lethargy and widespread aches and pains, particularly in the shoulders and hands. She has been absent from work for the past 5 months due to her symptoms. Her medical history includes a diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome. Despite a brief course of steroids and anti-inflammatory medication, she has not experienced any improvement. Physical examination reveals multiple tender points in different muscle groups, but no evidence of joint disease. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polymyalgia

      Correct Answer: Fibromyalgia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Fibromyalgia and Differential Diagnosis

      Fibromyalgia is a functional condition that affects voluntary muscles, commonly presenting in females aged 20-40 years. It is characterized by multiple trigger points over soft tissues in the neck, intrascapular region, and spine, along with poor sleep patterns and fatigue. While there is no known cure, patients are encouraged to establish a regular sleep pattern and participate in a graded exercise program. Differential diagnosis is important to exclude other rheumatological conditions that may present similarly but have different treatment options. Polymyalgia rheumatica, polymyositis, hypothyroidism, and systemic lupus erythematosus are some of the conditions that need to be ruled out. Steroids are the mainstay of treatment for polymyalgia rheumatica, while hypothyroidism presents with different symptoms such as constipation, dry hair, and weight gain. Systemic lupus erythematosus typically presents with a butterfly rash over the face and other symptoms such as anaemia, pleuritic chest pain, and haematuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 9 - A 38-year-old woman presents to the clinic with symmetrical polyarthritis affecting her fingers,...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman presents to the clinic with symmetrical polyarthritis affecting her fingers, wrists and elbows. She also reports significant morning stiffness which lasts for up to 90 minutes and is finding it very difficult to get up for work in the morning. There is a history of deep vein thrombosis during her second pregnancy, but no other significant past medical history. Her only medication of note is the oral contraceptive pill.
      On examination, she has evidence of active synovitis affecting her wrists and the small joints of her fingers.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 121 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 8.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 193 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 110 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Rheumatoid factor Positive
      Anti-nuclear factor Weakly positive
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Rheumatoid Arthritis: Differential Diagnosis

      Rheumatoid arthritis is a common autoimmune disorder that affects the joints, causing morning stiffness and small joint polyarthritis. A positive rheumatoid factor is present in 70% of patients, while anti-CCP antibodies are highly specific for rheumatoid arthritis and can be useful in rheumatoid factor-negative cases.

      Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), antiphospholipid antibody syndrome, seronegative arthritis, and polymyalgia rheumatica. However, in this case, there are no other features to suggest SLE, one episode of deep vein thrombosis during pregnancy is insufficient to suggest antiphospholipid antibody syndrome, the patient is seropositive for rheumatoid factor ruling out seronegative arthritis, and there is no story of proximal muscle pain which could be suggestive of polymyalgia rheumatica. Therefore, the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis is most likely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 10 - A 52-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a severely painful, swollen,...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a severely painful, swollen, and red left big toe. He states that it started yesterday and has become so excruciating that he cannot put on shoes. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and was diagnosed with a stomach ulcer last year. The diagnosis is a first episode of acute gout. What would be the most suitable initial treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colchicine

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Acute Gout Flare in a Patient with Peptic Ulcer Disease

      When managing an acute gout flare in a patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease, it is important to consider the potential risks and benefits of different treatment options. Colchicine and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are both effective first-line treatments, but NSAIDs should be used with caution in patients with a history of peptic ulcer disease. If NSAIDs are used, proton-pump cover should be provided for gastric protection. Allopurinol should not be started until after the acute attack has been resolved, and paracetamol may be used as an adjunct for pain relief but would not treat the underlying cause of pain. Prednisolone may be used in patients unable to tolerate NSAIDs or colchicine, but there is no contraindication to a trial of oral colchicine in this patient. Overall, the choice of treatment should be individualized based on the patient’s medical history and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Rheumatology (5/9) 56%
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