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  • Question 1 - Which of these thyroid hormones is considered the most potent and most physiologically...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these thyroid hormones is considered the most potent and most physiologically active?

      Your Answer: T4

      Correct Answer: T3

      Explanation:

      Triiodothyronine (T3) is more potent than thyroxine (T4). It is able to bind to more receptors (90%) compared to T4 (10%), and the onset of action is more immediate (within 12 hours) than T4 (2 days).

      Ninety-three percent of thyroid hormones synthesized is T4, and the remaining 7% is T3. The half-life of T3 is shorter (1 day), and its affinity for thyroxine-binding globulin is lower than T4.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 46-year old man was taken to the emergency room due to slow,...

    Correct

    • A 46-year old man was taken to the emergency room due to slow, laboured breathing. A relative reported that he's maintained on codeine 60 mg, taken orally every 6 hours for severe pain from oesophageal cancer. His creatinine was elevated, and glomerular filtration rate was severely decreased at 27 ml/minute. Given the scenario above, which of the metabolites of codeine is the culprit for his clinical findings?

      Your Answer: Morphine-6-glucuronide

      Explanation:

      Accumulation of morphine-6-glucuronide is a risk factor for opioid toxicity during morphine treatment. Morphine is metabolized in the liver to morphine-6-glucuronide and morphine-3-glucuronide, both of which are excreted by the kidneys. In the setting of renal failure, these metabolites can accumulate, resulting in a lowering of the seizure threshold. However, it does not occur in all patients with renal insufficiency, which is the most common reason for accumulation of morphine-6-glucuronide; this suggests that other risk factors can contribute to morphine-6-glucuronide toxicity.

      The active metabolites of codeine are morphine and the morphine metabolite morphine-6-glucuronide. The enzyme systems responsible for this metabolism are: CYP2D for codeine and UGT2B7 for morphine, codeine-6-gluronide, and morphine-6-glucuronide. Both of these systems are subject to genetic variation. Some patients are ultrarapid metabolizers of codeine and produce higher levels of morphine and active metabolites in a very short period of time after administration. These increased levels will produce increased side effects, especially drowsiness and central nervous system depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      25.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A paediatric patient was referred to the surgery department after an initial assessment...

    Incorrect

    • A paediatric patient was referred to the surgery department after an initial assessment of acute gastroenteritis was proven otherwise to be a case acute appendicitis. History revealed multiple episodes of non-bloody emesis. In the paediatric ward, the patient had already undergone fluid resuscitation and replacement, and electrolytes were already corrected. Other pertinent laboratory studies were the following: Serum Na: 138 mmol/l, Blood glucose: 6.4 mmol/l. If the patient weighed 25 kg, which intravenous fluid maintenance regimen would be best for the child?

      Your Answer: 40 ml/hr 0.45% NaCl with 5% glucose

      Correct Answer: 65 ml/hr Hartmann's solution with 0% glucose

      Explanation:

      Maintenance therapy aims to replace water and electrolytes lost under ordinary conditions. In the perioperative period, maintenance fluid administration may not sufficiently account for the increased fluid requirements caused by third-space losses into the interstitium and gut. Specific recommendations vary with the patient, the procedure, and the type and amount of fluid administered during the operation. The fluid for maintenance therapy replaces deficits arising primarily from insensible losses and urinary or gastrointestinal (GI) losses.

      The maintenance fluid volume can be computed using the Holliday-Segar method.

      Body weight Fluid volume
      first 10 kg 4 ml/kg/hr
      next 10-20 kg 2 ml/kg/hr
      >20 kg 1 ml/kg/hr

      In the past few years, there has been growing recognition of the increased risk of hyponatremia in hospitalized children in intensive care and postoperative settings who receive hypotonic maintenance fluids. Several studies, including a randomized controlled trial and a Cochrane analysis, found that the use of isotonic fluids is associated with fewer electrolyte derangements and concluded that isotonic maintenance fluids are preferable to hypotonic solutions in hospitalized children.

      A European consensus statement suggests that an intraoperative fluid should have an osmolarity close to the physiologic range in children in order to avoid hyponatremia, an addition of 1-2.5% in order to avoid hypoglycaemia, lipolysis or hyperglycaemia and should also include metabolic anions as bicarbonate precursors to prevent hyperchloremic acidosis.

      A rate of 40 ml/hr is suboptimal.

      If 0.9% NaCl with 0% glucose is given at a rate of 65 ml/hr, despite of the correct infusion rate, large volumes can lead to hyperchloremic acidosis.

      If 0.18% NaCl with 4% glucose is given at a rate of 65 ml/hr, infusion of this fluid regimen can lead to hyponatremia because of its hypotonicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      43.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - When administered as an infusion, which of the following medicines causes a reflex...

    Incorrect

    • When administered as an infusion, which of the following medicines causes a reflex tachycardia?

      Your Answer: Clonidine

      Correct Answer: Phentolamine

      Explanation:

      The α-2 adrenoceptor has three subtypes (2a, 2b and 2c). The receptors are generally presynaptic, meaning they prevent noradrenaline from being released at nerve endings. Both the central and peripheral nerve systems are affected by the α-2 agonists. α-2 agonists cause drowsiness, analgesia, and euphoria centrally in the locus coeruleus (in the brainstem), lower the MAC of volatile anaesthetic drugs, and are used to treat acute withdrawal symptoms in chronic opioid addicts.

      The most common impact of α-2 agonists on heart rate is bradycardia. The adrenoreceptors α-1 and α-2 are blocked by phenoxybenzamine.

      Clonidine is a selective agonist for the α -2 receptor, having a 200:1 affinity ratio for the α-2: α-1 receptors, respectively.

      Tizanidine is similar to clonidine but has a few key variances. It has the same sedative, anxiolytic, and analgesic characteristics as clonidine, although for a shorter period of time and with less effect on heart rate and blood pressure.

      Dexmedetomidine, like clonidine, is a highly selective α-2 adrenoreceptor agonist having a higher affinity for the α-2 receptor. In the case of α-2: α-1 receptors, the affinity ratio is 1620:1. It has a biphasic blood pressure impact and induces a brief rise in blood pressure and reflex bradycardia (activation of α-2b subtypes of receptors in vascular smooth muscles), followed by a reduction in sympathetic outflow from the brainstem and hypotension/bradycardia.

      A prodrug is methyldopa. It blocks the enzyme dopa-decarboxylase, which converts L-dopa to dopamine (a precursor of noradrenaline and adrenaline). It is also converted to alpha-methyl noradrenaline, a centrally active agonist of the α-2 adrenoreceptor. These two processes contribute to its blood pressure-lowering effect. Without a rise in heart rate, cardiac output is generally maintained. The heart rate of certain patients is slowed.

      Phentolamine is a short-acting antagonist of peripheral α-1 and α-2 receptors that causes peripheral vascular resistance to reduce and vasodilation to increase. It’s used to treat hypertensive situations that aren’t life threatening (e.g. hypertension from phaeochromocytoma).

      A baroreceptor reflex commonly causes reflex tachycardia when systemic vascular resistance drops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of doxycycline?

      Your Answer: Inhibit 30S subunit of ribosomes

      Explanation:

      Doxycycline belongs to the family of tetracyclines and inhibits protein synthesis through reversible binding to bacterial 30s ribosomal subunits, which prevent binding of new incoming amino acids (aminoacyl-tRNA) and thus interfere with peptide growth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - All of the following statements are false regarding salmeterol except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements are false regarding salmeterol except:

      Your Answer: Has a short onset time

      Correct Answer: Is more potent than salbutamol at the beta-2 receptor

      Explanation:

      Salmeterol is a long-acting Beta 2 selective agonist. Therefore it is only used for prophylaxis whereas salbutamol is a short-acting Beta 2 agonist and is thus used for the treatment of acute attacks of asthma.

      Salmeterol is 15 times more potent than salbutamol at the Beta 2 receptor but 4 times less potent at the Beta 1 receptor.

      Tachyphylaxis to the unwanted side effects commonly occurs, but not to bronchodilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      23.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A study designed to examine the benefits of adding a new antiplatelet to...

    Incorrect

    • A study designed to examine the benefits of adding a new antiplatelet to aspirin after a myocardial infraction. The recorded results give us the percentage of patients that reported myocardial infraction within a three month period. The percentage was 4% and 3% for aspirin and the combination of drugs respectively. How many further patients needed to be treated in order for one patient to avoid any more heart attacks during 3 months?

      Your Answer: Cannot calculate without more data

      Correct Answer: 100

      Explanation:

      Number needed to treat can be defined as the number of patients who need to be treated to prevent one additional bad outcome.

      It can be found as:

      NNT=1/Absolute Risk Reduction (rounded to the next integer since number of patients can be integer only).

      where ARR= (Risk factor associated with the new drug group) — (Risk factor associated with the currently available drug)

      So,

      ARR= (0.04-0.03)

      ARR= 0.01

      NNT= 1/0.01

      NNT=100

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      38.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - With regards to devices for temperature management, all of these are used EXCEPT:...

    Incorrect

    • With regards to devices for temperature management, all of these are used EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Platinum resistance thermometers use the principle that resistance in metals show a linear increase with temperature

      Correct Answer: Thermistors use the resistance of a semiconductor bead which increases exponentially as the temperature increases

      Explanation:

      There are different types of temperature measurement. These include:

      Thermistor – this is a type of semiconductor, meaning they have greater resistance than conducting materials, but lower resistance than insulating materials. There are small beads of semiconductor material (e.g. metal oxide) which are incorporated into a Wheatstone bridge circuit. As the temperature increases, the resistance of the bead decreases exponentially

      Thermocouple – Two different metals make up a thermocouple. Generally, in the form of two wires twisted, welded, or crimped together. Temperature is sensed by measuring the voltage. A potential difference is created that is proportional to the temperature at the junction (Seebeck effect)

      Platinum resistance thermometers (PTR) – uses platinum for determining the temperature. The principle used is that the resistance of platinum changes with the change of temperature. The thermometer measures the temperature over the range of 200°C to1200°C. Resistance in metals show a linear increase with temperature

      Tympanic thermometers – uses infrared radiation which is emitted by all living beings. It analyses the intensity and wavelength and then transduces the heat energy into a measurable electrical output

      Gauge/dial thermometers – Uses coils of different metals with different co-efficient of expansion. These either tighten or relax with changes in temperature, moving a lever on a calibrated dial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - In endurance athletes, which of the following physiological adaptations to exercise is the...

    Incorrect

    • In endurance athletes, which of the following physiological adaptations to exercise is the best predictor of performance?

      Your Answer: Reduction in heart rate for a given exercise intensity

      Correct Answer: Velocity of blood lactate accumulation

      Explanation:

      Multiple regression analysis revealed that velocity of lactate accumulation (VOBLA) accounted for 92 percent of the variation in marathon running velocity (VM), and VOBLA plus training volume prior to the marathon accounted for 96 percent of the variation. Percent ST muscle fibre distribution (r = 0.55-0.69) and capillary density (r = 052-0.63) were found to be positively correlated with all performance variables. As a result, marathon running performance was linked to VOBLA and the ability to run at a pace close to it during the race. The percent ST, capillary density, and training volume were all related to these properties.

      Another metabolic adaptation compared to normal people is the early selection of fat for oxidation by muscle, especially when glucose availability is limited during high-intensity exercise. This helps to delay the onset of muscle fatigue, but it does not prevent VOBLA.

      For a given level of exercise, training can also result in cardiovascular adaptation, such as increased heart size, increased contractility, and a slower heart rate. All of these factors contribute to an increase in maximal oxygen consumption (VO2 max), but genetic factors, despite intensive training, play a large role in an athlete’s performance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 26-year old male patient was admitted to the surgery department for appendectomy....

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year old male patient was admitted to the surgery department for appendectomy. Medical history revealed that he has major depressive disorder and was on Phenelzine. Aside from abdominal pain, initial assessment was unremarkable. However, thirty minutes after, the patient was referred to you for generalized seizures. He was given an analgesic and it was noted that, during the first 15 minutes of administration, he became anxious, with profuse sweating, which later developed into seizures. Upon physical examination, he was febrile at 38.3°C. Which of the following statements is the best explanation for the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Neurolept malignant syndrome

      Correct Answer: Drug interaction with pethidine

      Explanation:

      The clinical picture best describes a probable drug interaction with pethidine.

      Phenelzine, a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor, when given with pethidine, an opioid analgesic, may lead to episodes of hypertension, rigidity, excitation, hyperpyrexia, seizures, coma and death. Studies have shown that pethidine reacts more significantly with MAO inhibitors than morphine.

      When pethidine is metabolised to normeperidine, it acts as a serotonin reuptake inhibitor and cause an increase in serotonin levels in the brain. MAO inhibitors can also lead to elevated levels of serotonin because of its mechanism of action by inhibiting the enzyme monoamine oxidase that degrades serotonin.

      The excess serotonin levels may lead to serotonin syndrome, of which some of the common precipitating drugs are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, MAO inhibitors, tricyclic antidepressants, meperidine, and St. John’s Wort. Onset of symptoms is within hours, which includes fever, agitation, tremor, clonus, hyperreflexia and diaphoresis.

      Drug interaction between phenelzine and paracetamol do not commonly precipitate serotonin syndrome.

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is due to dopamine antagonism, precipitated commonly by antipsychotics. Its onset of symptoms occur in 1 to 3 days, and is characterized by fever, encephalopathy, unstable vitals signs, elevated CPK, and rigidity.

      Altered mental status is the most common manifestation of sepsis-associated encephalopathy. Patient also exhibit confusional states and inappropriate behaviour. In some cases, this may lead to coma and death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      30.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - You have always been curious about the effects of statins. While going through...

    Correct

    • You have always been curious about the effects of statins. While going through a study, something ticks you off and makes you think that they are way more common then the data suggests and are mostly under reported. In search of some concrete evidence, you decide to conduct a study of your own. While doing research, you come across a recent study that highlights the long term effects of statins. Which of the following types of study could that have been?

      Your Answer: Clinical trial, Phase 4

      Explanation:

      In general practice, majority of phase 3 trials and some of the trials conducted in phase 2 are randomized. Because phase 4 trials require a huge sample size, they are not randomized as much. The primal reason behind conducting phase 3 trials is to test the efficiency and safety in a significant sample population. At this point it is assumed that the drug is effective up to a certain extent.

      During a case-control study, subjects that exhibit outcomes of interest are compared with those who don’t show the expected outcome. The extent of exposure to a particular risk factor is then matched between cases and controls. If the exposure among cases surpasses controls, it becomes a risk factor for the outcome that is being studied.

      Pilot studies are conducted on a lower and much smaller level, to assess if a randomized controlled trial of the crucial components of a study will be plausible.

      Phase 4 trials are the ones that are conducted after its established that the drug is effective and is approved by the regulating authority for use. These trials are concerned with the side effects and potential risks associated with the long term usage of the drug.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      297.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following does Lidocaine 1% solution equate to? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following does Lidocaine 1% solution equate to?

      Your Answer: 1 g per 1000 ml

      Correct Answer: 1000 mg per 100 ml

      Explanation:

      Lidocaine 1% is formulated either as 1000 mg/100 mL or 100 mg/1mL.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      61.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 72-year-old woman with a medical history of ischaemic heart disease, hypertension, and...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old woman with a medical history of ischaemic heart disease, hypertension, and hypothyroidism was brought to ER with a change in her mental state over the past few hours. Medications used by her were hydrochlorothiazide, aspirin, ramipril, and levothyroxine. On physical examination, decreased skin turgor, orthostatic hypotension, and disorientation of time and place were found. There were no significant neurological signs. Initial biochemical tests are as follows: Na: 111 mmol/L (135-145), K: 4.1 mmol/L (3.5-5.1), Cl: 105 mmol/L (99-101), Bic: 29 mmol/L (22-29), Urea: 16.4 mmol/L (1.7-8.3), Creatinine: 320µmol/L (44-80), Glucose: 13.5mmol/L (3.5-5.5), Plasma osmolality: 278mOsm/kg, Urinary osmolality: 450mOsm/kg, TSH: 6.2 miu/L (0.1-6.0), Free T4: 10.1 pmol/L (10-25), Free T3: 1.4nm/L (1.0-2.5), Which of the following is most likely cause for this condition of the patient?

      Your Answer: Drug idiosyncrasy

      Explanation:

      Based on the laboratory reports, the patient is suffering from significant hyponatremia. The symptoms of hyponatremia are mainly neurological and depend on the severity and rapidity of onset of hyponatremia.

      Patient symptom according to the hyponatremia level is correlated below:

      125 – 130mmol/L – Nausea and malaise
      115 – 125mmol/L – Headache, lethargy, seizures, and coma
      <120mmol/L – Up to 11% present with coma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A human's resting oxygen consumption (VO2) is typically 3.5 ml/kg/minute (one metabolic equivalent...

    Incorrect

    • A human's resting oxygen consumption (VO2) is typically 3.5 ml/kg/minute (one metabolic equivalent or 1 MET). Which of the following options is linked to the highest VO2 when a person is at rest?

      Your Answer: Dobutamine infusion in a fit adult

      Correct Answer: Neonate

      Explanation:

      The oxygen consumption rate (VO2) at rest is 3.5 ml/kg/minute (one metabolic equivalent or 1 MET).
      3.86 ml/kg/minute thyrotoxicosis

      Young children consume a lot of oxygen: around 7 ml/kg/min when they are born. The metabolic cost of breathing is higher in children than in adults, and it can account for up to 15% of total oxygen consumption. Similarly, an infant’s metabolic rate is nearly twice that of an adult, resulting in a larger alveolar minute volume and a lower FRC.

      At term, oxygen consumption at rest can increase by as much as 40% (5 ml/kg/minute) and can rise to 60% during labour.

      When compared to normal basal metabolism, sepsis syndrome increases VO2 and resting metabolic rate by 30% (4.55 ml/kg/minute). In septicaemic shock, VO2 decreases.

      Dobutamine hydrochloride was infused into 12 healthy male volunteers at a rate of 2 micrograms per minute per kilogramme, gradually increasing to 4 and 6 micrograms per minute per kilogramme. Dobutamine was infused for 20 minutes for each dose. VO2 increased by 10% to 15%. (3.85-4.0 ml/kg/min).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      23.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 50-year-old female, known case of diabetes, has come in for a check-up...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female, known case of diabetes, has come in for a check-up at the diabetic foot clinic. The pulses of her feet are examined. The posterior tibial pulse and dorsalis pedis pulses are palpated. Which of the following artery continues as the dorsalis pedis artery?

      Your Answer: Peroneal artery

      Correct Answer: Anterior tibial artery

      Explanation:

      At the ankle joint, midway between the malleoli, the anterior tibial artery changes names, becoming the dorsalis pedis artery (dorsal artery of the foot).

      The dorsalis pedis artery is palpated against the underlying tarsals, immediately lateral to the tendon of extensor hallucis longus, from the midpoint between the malleoli to the proximal end of the first intermetatarsal space.

      The popliteal artery forms the anterior tibial artery.
      The tibioperoneal trunk is a branch of the popliteal artery.
      The peroneal artery (also known as the fibular artery) supplies the lateral compartment of the leg.
      The external iliac artery is formed from the common iliac artery at the level of the pelvis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      9854.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of these statements is false relating to the posterior cerebral artery? ...

    Correct

    • Which of these statements is false relating to the posterior cerebral artery?

      Your Answer: It is connected to the circle of Willis via the superior cerebellar artery

      Explanation:

      The posterior cerebral arteries are the terminal branches of the basilar artery and are connected to the circle of Willis via the posterior communicating artery. The posterior cerebral artery supplies the visual areas of the cerebral cortex and other structures in the visual pathway.

      The posterior cerebral artery is separated from the superior cerebellar artery near its origin by the oculomotor nerve (3rd cranial nerve) and, lateral to the midbrain, by the trochlear nerve.

      PCA strokes will primarily cause a visual field loss or homonymous hemianopia to the opposite side. This large occipital or PCA stroke causes people to be €œblind€� on one side of the visual field. This is the most common symptom of a large occipital lesion or PCA stroke.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following options will best reflect the adequacy of preoxygenation prior...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following options will best reflect the adequacy of preoxygenation prior to rapid sequence induction of a patient?

      Your Answer: Expired partial pressure of carbon dioxide (EtCO2)

      Correct Answer: Expired fraction of oxygen (FEO2)

      Explanation:

      The most important determinant of preoxygenation adequacy is expired fraction of oxygen. Denitrogenating of the functional residual capacity is the purpose of preoxygenation. This is dependent on three vital factors: (1) respiratory rate; (2) inspired volume, and; (3) inspired oxygen concentration (FiO2).

      Arterial oxygen saturation does not efficiently determine adequacy of preoxygenation because of its inability to measure tissue reserves. Arterial partial pressure of oxygen is also unsuitable for determining preoxygenation adequacy. Moreover, the absence of central cyanosis is a very crude sign of low tissue oxygenation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following may indicate an inadequate reversal of non-depolarising neuromuscular blockade?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following may indicate an inadequate reversal of non-depolarising neuromuscular blockade?

      Your Answer: Post tetanic count of 5

      Explanation:

      A post-tetanic count of 5 denotes a deep neuromuscular blockade.

      Post tetanic count (PTC) is a well-established method of evaluating neuromuscular recovery during intense neuromuscular blockade. It cam ne used when there is no response to single twitch, tetanic, or train-of-four (TOF) stimulation to assess the intensity of neuromuscular blockade and to estimate the duration after which the first twitch in the TOF (T1) is likely to reappear.

      During a nondepolarizing block, the high frequency of tetanic stimulation will induce a transient increase in the amount of acetylcholine released from the presynaptic nerve ending, such that the intensity of subsequent muscle contractions will be increased (potentiated) briefly (period of post-tetanic potentiation, which may last 2 to 5€‰min. The neuromuscular response to stimulation during post tetanic potentiation can be used to gauge the depth of block when TOF stimulation otherwise evokes no responses. The number of post tetanic responses is inversely proportional to the depth of block: fewer post tetanic contractions denote a deeper block. When the post tetanic count (PTC) is 6 to 8, recovery to TOF count = 1 is likely imminent from an intermediate-duration blocking agent; when the PTC is 0, the depth of block is profound, and no additional NMBA should be administered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      1393.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Of the following statements, which is true about the measurements of cardiac output...

    Correct

    • Of the following statements, which is true about the measurements of cardiac output using thermodilution?

      Your Answer: Cardiac output should be measured during the end-expiratory pause

      Explanation:

      Thermodilution is the most common dilution method used to measure cardiac output (CO) in a hospital setting.

      During the procedure, a Swan-Ganz catheter, which is a specialized catheter with a thermistor-tip, is inserted into the pulmonary artery via the peripheral vein. 5-10mL of a cold saline solution with a known temperature and volume is injected into the right atrium via a proximal catheter port. The solution is cooled as it mixes with the blood during its travel to the pulmonary artery. The temperature of the blood is the measured by the catheter and is profiled using a computer.

      The computer also uses the profile to measure cardiac output from the right ventricle, over several measurements until an average is selected.

      Cardiac output changes at each point of respiration, therefore to get an accurate measurement, the same point during respiration must be used at each procedure, this is usually the end of expiration, that is the end-expiratory pause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The diaphragm is a muscle that is relatively resistant to non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockade's...

    Incorrect

    • The diaphragm is a muscle that is relatively resistant to non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockade's effects. When these muscle relaxants are used, which of the following peripheral nerve stimulator twitch patterns is best for monitoring the return of diaphragmatic function?

      Your Answer: Single-twitch stimulation

      Correct Answer: Post-tetanic count stimulation

      Explanation:

      Certain skeletal muscles are more resistant to the effects of neuromuscular blocking agents, both non-depolarizing and depolarizing. The diaphragm is the most resistant. The muscles of the larynx and the corrugator supercilii are less resistant. The abdominal, orbicularis oris, and limb peripheral muscles are the most sensitive muscles.

      Twitch stimulation patterns:

      Supramaximal single stimulus:

      The frequency ranges from 1 Hz to 0.1 Hz (one every second to one every 10 seconds)
      The response is proportional to the frequency of the event.
      It has limited clinical utility because it only tells you whether or not a patient is paralysed (no information on degree of paralysis).

      Over the course of 0.5 seconds (2 Hz), four supramaximal stimulate were applied:

      It is possible to see ‘fade’ and use it as a basis for evaluation.
      This stimulation pattern is used to determine the degree of blockade (1-2 twitches is appropriate for abdominal surgery)
      If the train of four (TOF) count is 1-2, reversal agents can be used in conjunction with medium-acting neuromuscular blocking agents.

      Ratio of TOF:

      This is the ratio of the 4th twitch amplitude to the 1st twitch amplitude.
      The ratio decreases with non-depolarising block and is inversely proportional to the degree of block, allowing objective measurement of residual neuromuscular blockade.
      To achieve adequate reversal, the ratio (as measured by accelerography) must be between 0.7 and 0.9.

      Count of twitches after a tetanic experience(PTC):

      50 Hz for 5 seconds, then a 3 second pause, followed by a single 1 Hz twitch stimulus.
      When the TOF count is zero, this stimulation pattern is used to assess deep blockade (that is, in neurosurgery, microsurgery or ophthalmic surgery when even small movements of a patient will disturb the surgical field)
      It gives an estimate of how long it will take for the response to return to single twitches, allowing assessment of blocks that are too deep for any other technique.
      A palpable post-tetanic count (PTC) of 2 indicates no twitch response for about 20-30 minutes, and a PTC of 5 indicates no twitch response for about 10-15 minutes.

      This is without a doubt the best way to keep track of paralysis in patients who need to avoid diaphragmatic movement. It’s best to use drug infusions and aim for a PTC of 2. After a tetanic stimulus, acetylcholine is mobilised, causing post-tetanic potentiation.

      Stimulation in Two Bursts:

      750 milliseconds between two short bursts of 50 Hz
      This stimulation pattern is used to assess small amounts of residual blockade manually (tactile).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 40-year old gentleman has palpitations and has gone to the emergency department....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year old gentleman has palpitations and has gone to the emergency department. He is found to have monomorphic ventricular tachycardia. The resting potential of ventricular monocytes is maintained by which electrolyte?

      Your Answer: Phosphate

      Correct Answer: Potassium

      Explanation:

      Potassium maintains the resting potential of cardiac myocytes, with depolarization triggered by a rapid influx of sodium ions, and repolarization due to efflux of potassium. A slow influx of calcium is responsible for the longer duration of a cardiac action potential compared with skeletal muscle.

      The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:

      Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
      These channels automatically deactivate after a few ms.

      Phase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.

      Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium.

      Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium.

      Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
      There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potential

      Of note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.

      Different sites have different conduction velocities:
      1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec

      2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec

      3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which one of the following causes vasoconstriction? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following causes vasoconstriction?

      Your Answer: Atrial natriuretic peptide

      Correct Answer: Angiotensin II

      Explanation:

      Prostacyclin is a strong vasodilator. It is administered as an intravenous infusion for critical ischemia. Commercially, it is available as sodium epoprodtenol.

      Atrial Natriuretic peptide (ANP) hormone secreted from the atria, kidney, and neural tissues. It primarily acts on renal vessel to maintain normal blood pressure and reduce plasma volume by: increasing the renal excretion of salt and water, glomerular filtration rate, vasodilation, and by increasing the vascular permeability. It also inhibits the release of renin and aldosterone.

      Indoramin is an alpha-adrenoceptor blocking agent. which act selectively on post-synaptic-alpha adrenoreceptor, leading to decease in peripheral resistance.

      Angiotensin II is a vasoconstrictor, causing high sodium retention. It also increases the secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and aldosterone level.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      29.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - The fluids with the highest osmolarity is? ...

    Incorrect

    • The fluids with the highest osmolarity is?

      Your Answer: Gelofusine

      Correct Answer: 0.45% N. Saline with 5% glucose

      Explanation:

      The concentration of solute particles per litre (mosm/L) = the osmolarity of a solution. Changes in water content, ambient temperature, and pressure affects osmolarity. The osmolarity of any solution can be calculated by adding the concentration of key solutes in it.

      Individual manufacturers of crystalloids and colloids may have different absolute values but they are similar to these.

      0.45% N. Saline with 5% glucose:
      Tonicity – hypertonic
      Osmolarity – 405 mosm/L
      Kilocalories (kCal) – 107

      0.9% N. Saline:
      Tonicity – isotonic
      Osmolarity – 308 mosm/L
      Kilocalories (kCal) – 0

      5% Dextrose:
      Tonicity – isotonic
      Osmolarity – 253 mosm/L
      Kilocalories (kCal) – 170

      Gelofusine (154 mmol/L Na, 120 mmol/L Cl):
      Tonicity – isotonic
      Osmolarity – 274 mosm/L
      Kilocalories (kCal) – 0

      Hartmann’s solution:
      Tonicity – isotonic
      Osmolarity – 273 mosm/L
      Kilocalories (kCal) – 9

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      52.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - The Medical Admissions unit receives a 71-year-old woman. She has type 2 diabetes,...

    Incorrect

    • The Medical Admissions unit receives a 71-year-old woman. She has type 2 diabetes, which she manages with diet, but she has been feeling ill for the past 48 hours. Her pulse rate is 110 beats per minute, her blood pressure is 90/50 mmHg, and she is clinically dehydrated. Her respiratory rate is 20 breaths per minute, and chest auscultation reveals no focal signs. The following are the lab results: Glucose 27.4 mmol/L (3.5-5.5), Ketones 2.5 mmol/L (<0.1), Urinary glucose is zero (dipstick) with ketones. A random blood glucose of 15.3 mmol/L was measured during a visit to the diabetic clinic one month prior to admission, according to her notes, and a urinary dipstick registered a high glucose and ketones++. The discrepancy between plasma and urinary glucose measurements is best explained by which of the following physiological mechanisms?

      Your Answer: The renal plasma glucose threshold is abnormally low

      Correct Answer: The glomerular filtration rate is abnormally low

      Explanation:

      The glucose molecule enters the Bowman’s capsule freely and becomes part of the filtrate.

      All glucose is reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule when blood glucose concentrations are below a certain threshold (approximately 11 mmol/L) (PCT). Active transportation makes this possible. In the proximal tubular cells, sodium/glucose cotransporters (SGLT1 and SGLT2) are the proteins responsible.

      Glucose does not normally appear in the urine below the renal threshold.

      The renal glucose threshold is not set in stone and is affected by a variety of factors, including GFR, TmG, and the quantity of splay.

      The different absorptive and filtering capacities of individual nephrons cause splay, which is the rounding of a glucose reabsorption curve.

      The SGLT proteins have a high affinity for glucose, but not an infinite affinity. As a result, some glucose may escape reabsorption before the TmG. A decrease in renal threshold may be caused by an increase in splay.

      Because the filtered glucose load is reduced and the PCT can reabsorb all of the filtered glucose despite hyperglycaemia, a low GFR causes an increase in TmG. In contrast, lowering the TmG lowers the threshold because the tubules’ ability to reabsorb glucose is reduced.

      A reduction in GFR caused by severe dehydration and reduced perfusion pressure is the most obvious cause of the discrepancy between plasma and urinary glucose in this scenario.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Regarding metal wires, which of the following is the most important determinant of...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding metal wires, which of the following is the most important determinant of their resistance?

      Your Answer: Temperature

      Correct Answer: Resistivity

      Explanation:

      Electrical resistivity is a measure of a material’s property to oppose the flow of electric current. This is expressed in Ohm-meters (Ω‹…m). The symbol of resistivity is usually the Greek letter Ï� (rho). A high resistivity means that a material does not conduct electric charge well.

      Electrical resistivity is defined as the relation between the electric field inside a material, and the electric current through it as a consequence:

      � = E/J

      in which Ï� is the resistivity of the material (Ω‹…m),
      E is the magnitude of the electrical field in the material (V/m),
      J is the magnitude of the electric current density in the material (A/m2)

      If the electric field (E) through a material is very large and the flow of current (J) is very small, it means that the material has a high resistivity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Substitution at different positions of the barbituric ring give rise to different pharmacologic...

    Incorrect

    • Substitution at different positions of the barbituric ring give rise to different pharmacologic properties. Substitution with and at which specific site of the ring affects lipid solubility the most?

      Your Answer: Length of carbon chain at position 5

      Correct Answer: Sulphur atom at position 2

      Explanation:

      Barbiturates are derived from barbituric acid, which itself is nondepressant, but appropriate side-chain substitutions result in CNS depressant activity that varies in potency and duration with carbon chain length, branching, and saturation.

      Oxybarbiturates retain an oxygen atom on number 2-carbon atom of the barbituric acid ring.

      Thiobarbiturates replace this oxygen atom with a sulphur atom, which confers greater lipid solubility. Generally speaking, a substitution such as sulphuration that increases lipid solubility is associated with greater hypnotic potency and more rapid onset, but shorter duration of action.

      Addition of a methyl group to the nitrogen atom of the barbituric acid ring, as with oxybarbiturate methohexital, also results in a compound with a short duration of action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      40.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What is the mechanism of the pupillary reflex arc? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mechanism of the pupillary reflex arc?

      Your Answer: Sympathetic nerve fibres from the superior cervical ganglion

      Correct Answer: Oculomotor nerve fibres from the Edinger-Westphal nuclei

      Explanation:

      Pupil size is reduced by the pupillary light reflex and during accommodation for near vision. In the pupillary light reflex, light that strikes the retina is processed by retinal circuits that excite W-type retinal ganglion cells. These cells respond to diffuse illumination. The axons of some of the W-type cells project through the optic nerve and tract to the pretectal area, where they synapse in the olivary pretectal nucleus. This nucleus contains neurons that also respond to diffuse illumination. Activity of neurons of the olivary pretectal nucleus causes pupillary constriction by means of bilateral connections with parasympathetic preganglionic neurons in the Edinger-Westphal nuclei. The reflex results in contraction of the pupillary sphincter muscles in both eyes, even when light is shone into only one eye.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      57.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - You performed pelvic ultrasound of Mrs Aciman as she had pelvic bloating and...

    Incorrect

    • You performed pelvic ultrasound of Mrs Aciman as she had pelvic bloating and intermittent pain. The ultrasound shows a complex ovarian cyst and the radiologist who reported the results has advised urgent consultation with a gynaecologist. Upon breaking the news to Mrs Aciman you learn that she recently had a blood test done that was normal. You explain it to her that the test performed (Ca-125) is not always perfect and is only able to detect 80% of the cancer cases while the remaining 20% go undetected. Which statistical term appropriately explains the 80% in this example.

      Your Answer: Absolute risk ratio

      Correct Answer: Sensitivity

      Explanation:

      Tests are used to confirm the presence of a particular disease. However the results can be misleading at times since most of the tests have some limitations associated with them.
      Sensitivity is the correct term that refers to the probability of a positive test. The others are explained below:

      False Positive rates refer to the proportion of the patients who don’t have the condition being detected as positive.

      False Negative rates refer to the proportion of the patients who have the condition being detected as negative (like the 20% of the patients that went undetected by the Ca-125 test).

      Specificity describes the ability of a test to detect and pick up people without the disease. Absolute risk ratio compares the rate of two separate outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - What is the name of the space between the vocal cords? ...

    Correct

    • What is the name of the space between the vocal cords?

      Your Answer: Rima glottidis

      Explanation:

      The rima glottidis is a narrow, triangle-shaped opening between the true vocal cords.

      The vocal folds (true vocal cords) control sound production. The apex of each fold projects medially into the laryngeal cavity.

      Each vocal fold includes these vocal ligaments:

      Vocalis muscle (most medial part of thyroarytenoid muscle)

      The glottis is composed of the vocal folds, processes and rima glottidis.

      The rima glottidis is the narrowest potential site within the larynx, as the vocal cords may be completely opposed, forming a complete barrier.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      71.3
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Provided below is an abstract of a study conducted recently. A consensus was...

    Incorrect

    • Provided below is an abstract of a study conducted recently. A consensus was developed among international experts. A total of 27 experts were invited. 91% of them decided to show up. A systematic review was performed. This comprised of open ended questions and the participants were encouraged to provide suggestions by e-mail. In the second phase google forms were used. Participants were asked to rate survey items on a scale of 5 points. Items that were rated critical by no less than 80% of the experts were included. Items that were rendered important by 65-79% of experts were inducted in the next survey for re rating. Items that were rated below 65% were rejected. Which of the following methods was used in the study from which the abstract has been taken?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The Delphi method

      Explanation:

      The process used in the study is Delphi method. This method kicks off with an open ended questionnaire and uses its responses as a survey instrument for the next round in which each of the participants is asked to rate the items that the investigators have summarized on the basis of the data collected in the first round.

      Any disagreement is further discussed in phases to come on the basis of information obtained from previous phases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pathophysiology (3/7) 43%
Pharmacology (3/8) 38%
Physiology And Biochemistry (0/2) 0%
Statistical Methods (2/3) 67%
Clinical Measurement (0/3) 0%
Physiology (1/2) 50%
Anatomy (1/3) 33%
Basic Physics (0/1) 0%
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