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  • Question 1 - A 72-year-old man presents to the cardiology clinic with symptomatic aortic stenosis. Despite...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man presents to the cardiology clinic with symptomatic aortic stenosis. Despite his overall good health, he is eager for intervention. What intervention is most likely to be recommended for him?

      Your Answer: Bioprosthetic aortic valve replacement

      Explanation:

      Mechanical valves are typically preferred for younger patients as they have a longer lifespan compared to other types of prosthetic heart valves.

      Prosthetic Heart Valves: Options for Replacement

      Prosthetic heart valves are commonly used to replace damaged aortic and mitral valves. There are two main options for replacement: biological (bioprosthetic) or mechanical. Biological valves are usually sourced from bovine or porcine origins and are commonly used in older patients. However, they have a major disadvantage of structural deterioration and calcification over time. On the other hand, mechanical valves have a low failure rate but require long-term anticoagulation due to the increased risk of thrombosis. Warfarin is still the preferred anticoagulant for patients with mechanical heart valves, and the target INR varies depending on the valve type. Aspirin is only given in addition if there is an additional indication, such as ischaemic heart disease. Following the 2008 NICE guidelines, antibiotics are no longer recommended for common procedures such as dental work for prophylaxis of endocarditis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You have diagnosed a 68-year-old woman with chronic kidney disease stage G3b (estimated...

    Correct

    • You have diagnosed a 68-year-old woman with chronic kidney disease stage G3b (estimated glomerular filtration rate or eGFR = 32 ml/min per 1.73m2) with a lower urinary tract infection (UTI) confirmed on mid-stream urine culture and sensitivity:
      Escherichia coli: heavy growth
      resistant to trimethoprim
      sensitive to nitrofurantoin, amoxicillin, co-amoxiclav
      Which of the following antibiotics is it most appropriate to prescribe?

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Best Antibiotic for a UTI: A Case Study

      A patient presents with symptoms of a lower urinary tract infection (UTI) and a urine culture confirms the presence of bacteria. However, the causative organism is resistant to the first-line agents nitrofurantoin and trimethoprim, and the patient’s renal function contraindicates the use of nitrofurantoin.

      The next best option would be to use amoxicillin, as long as the organism is susceptible to it. Other suitable options include pivmecillinam and fosfomycin, if there is a high risk of resistance. Ciprofloxacin and co-amoxiclav are not appropriate for the treatment of a lower UTI.

      In summary, choosing the best antibiotic for a UTI requires consideration of the patient’s renal function and the susceptibility of the causative organism. Amoxicillin, pivmecillinam, and fosfomycin are suitable alternatives when first-line agents are not effective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 62-year-old man presents with several months of right knee pain. A radiograph...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old man presents with several months of right knee pain. A radiograph confirms mild osteoarthritis. What is the best initial treatment option?

      Your Answer: Topical ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Osteoarthritis: A Guide to Medications and Lifestyle Changes

      When it comes to managing osteoarthritis (OA), there are a variety of treatment options available. However, not all treatments are created equal. According to NICE guidelines, the first-line treatment for OA to hands and knees is with a topical non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) or oral paracetamol. Oral NSAIDs are considered the second-line treatment choice, to be used only after inadequate response to oral paracetamol or topical NSAIDs.

      It’s important to note that nutraceuticals, including oral glucosamine and chondroitin, should not be offered for OA management. Instead, other treatment options initially include weight loss and exercise encouragement.

      If medication is necessary, topical ibuprofen and paracetamol should be considered first line, ahead of oral NSAIDs or opioids. Oral NSAIDs, such as diclofenac with omeprazole, ibuprofen, and naproxen, are second line and should be given at the lowest effective dose for the shortest duration possible. Proton pump inhibitor (PPI) cover may be indicated for oral NSAIDs.

      In summary, managing OA requires a multifaceted approach that includes lifestyle changes and medication when necessary. By following NICE guidelines and working closely with a healthcare provider, individuals with OA can find relief and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department worried about potential exposure to...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department worried about potential exposure to chickenpox. Earlier today, she had contact with a child who had a fever, sore throat, and itchy blisters on their face. The patient is currently 20 weeks pregnant and is uncertain if she has ever had chickenpox or received the vaccine.
      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Check maternal blood for varicella zoster antibodies

      Explanation:

      Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral aciclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - An 80-year-old man with terminal lung cancer is evaluated by the palliative care...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man with terminal lung cancer is evaluated by the palliative care team to determine his analgesic requirements. He is currently on a regimen of 30 mg slow-release morphine twice daily, which effectively manages his pain. However, he is experiencing difficulty swallowing both tablet and liquid forms of the medication. The palliative team suggests transitioning him to subcutaneous morphine. What is the appropriate daily dosage for him?

      Your Answer: 30mg

      Explanation:

      Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

      Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      25.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 30-year-old medical student noticed that he had a murmur when he tested...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old medical student noticed that he had a murmur when he tested his new stethoscope. On assessment in the Cardiology Clinic, he was found to have a harsh systolic murmur over his precordium, which did not change with inspiration. His electrocardiogram (ECG) showed features of biventricular hypertrophy.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)

      Correct Answer: Ventricular septal defect (VSD)

      Explanation:

      Common Heart Murmurs and their Characteristics

      Heart murmurs are abnormal sounds heard during a heartbeat and can indicate underlying heart conditions. Here are some common heart murmurs and their characteristics:

      1. Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD): This has a pansystolic murmur, heard loudest at the lower left sternal edge and causing biventricular hypertrophy due to increased strain on both the right and left ventricles.

      2. Mitral Regurgitation: This has a pansystolic murmur which is heard loudest at the apex and radiates to the axilla; it is louder on expiration. The ECG can show left ventricular and left atrial enlargement.

      3. Aortic Stenosis: This causes a crescendo-decrescendo murmur, heard loudest in the aortic area and radiating to the carotids. It (and all other left-sided murmurs) is louder on expiration.

      4. Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM): HCM has an early peaking systolic murmur which is worse on Valsalva and reduced on squatting. It is also associated with a jerky pulse. The ECG would show left ventricular hypertrophy.

      5. Tricuspid Regurgitation: This has a pansystolic murmur and a brief rumbling diastolic murmur; these are louder on inspiration. The ECG may show right ventricular enlargement.

      It is important to note that right-sided murmurs increase with inspiration (e.g. tricuspid regurgitation or TR), whereas left-sided murmurs show no change. The clue to diagnosis is in the ECG finding. Aortic stenosis and mitral regurgitation produce left ventricular hypertrophy; TR produces right ventricular hypertrophy and a VSD produces biventricular hypertrophy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      59.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 67-year-old man presents to the memory clinic with a history of cognitive...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents to the memory clinic with a history of cognitive decline over the past 10 months. His wife reports that he is struggling with basic tasks and becoming increasingly forgetful and confused. She has also noticed a change in his personality, including more frequent swearing and inappropriate behavior such as answering the door naked. Interestingly, his mother had a similar reputation in her later years. The patient reports smoking 20 cigarettes per day and drinking one glass of wine each evening. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vascular dementia

      Correct Answer: Frontotemporal dementia

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely suffering from frontotemporal dementia, which is also known as Pick’s disease. This type of dementia is characterized by a change in personality and social disinhibition, and it often has a positive family history. In contrast, Alzheimer’s disease typically presents with a decline in episodic memory and visuospatial awareness, while Lewy body dementia is characterized by fluctuating confusion and hallucinations. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is a rare condition that causes rapid neurodegeneration and may present with cognitive decline and personality changes, as well as additional symptoms such as abnormal movements and loss of coordination.

      Understanding Frontotemporal Lobar Degeneration

      Frontotemporal lobar degeneration (FTLD) is a type of cortical dementia that is the third most common after Alzheimer’s and Lewy body dementia. There are three recognized types of FTLD: Frontotemporal dementia (Pick’s disease), Progressive non-fluent aphasia (chronic progressive aphasia, CPA), and Semantic dementia. Common features of frontotemporal lobar dementias include onset before 65, insidious onset, relatively preserved memory and visuospatial skills, personality change, and social conduct problems.

      Pick’s disease is the most common type of FTLD and is characterized by personality change and impaired social conduct. Other common features include hyperorality, disinhibition, increased appetite, and perseveration behaviors. Focal gyral atrophy with a knife-blade appearance is characteristic of Pick’s disease. Macroscopic changes seen in Pick’s disease include atrophy of the frontal and temporal lobes. Microscopic changes include Pick bodies, spherical aggregations of tau protein (silver-staining), gliosis, neurofibrillary tangles, and senile plaques.

      In contrast, CPA is characterized by non-fluent speech, with short utterances that are agrammatic. Comprehension is relatively preserved. Semantic dementia, on the other hand, is characterized by fluent progressive aphasia. The speech is fluent but empty and conveys little meaning. Unlike in Alzheimer’s, memory is better for recent rather than remote events.

      In terms of management, NICE does not recommend the use of AChE inhibitors or memantine in people with frontotemporal dementia. Understanding the different types of FTLD and their characteristics can aid in early diagnosis and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      42.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 26-year-old man complains of rectal bleeding and a sharp, stinging pain during...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old man complains of rectal bleeding and a sharp, stinging pain during bowel movements. He has been experiencing these symptoms for the past two weeks. The patient reports a history of constipation and notes fresh blood on the toilet paper when wiping. Although rectal examination is challenging due to pain, no external abnormalities are observed. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anal fissure

      Explanation:

      Anal fissures are typically identified by the presence of both pain and bleeding. While thrombosed external hemorrhoids can also cause pain, internal hemorrhoids usually do not. It can be challenging to detect superficial anal fissures during an examination.

      Understanding Anal Fissures: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Anal fissures are tears in the lining of the distal anal canal that can be either acute or chronic. Acute fissures last for less than six weeks, while chronic fissures persist for more than six weeks. The most common risk factors for anal fissures include constipation, inflammatory bowel disease, and sexually transmitted infections such as HIV, syphilis, and herpes.

      Symptoms of anal fissures include painful, bright red rectal bleeding, with around 90% of fissures occurring on the posterior midline. If fissures are found in other locations, underlying causes such as Crohn’s disease should be considered.

      Management of acute anal fissures involves softening stool, dietary advice, bulk-forming laxatives, lubricants, topical anaesthetics, and analgesia. For chronic anal fissures, the same techniques should be continued, and topical glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) is the first-line treatment. If GTN is not effective after eight weeks, surgery (sphincterotomy) or botulinum toxin may be considered, and referral to secondary care is recommended.

      In summary, anal fissures can be a painful and uncomfortable condition, but with proper management, they can be effectively treated. It is important to identify and address underlying risk factors to prevent the development of chronic fissures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      18.7
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  • Question 9 - A 21-year-old woman presents with a rash on her trunk that developed a...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old woman presents with a rash on her trunk that developed a few weeks after a sore throat. On examination, small, drop-shaped, salmon-pink plaques are observed. What is the most probable cause of this rash?

      Your Answer: Guttate psoriasis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Skin Conditions: Guttate Psoriasis, Dermatitis, Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease, Pityriasis Rosea, and Pustular Psoriasis

      Skin conditions can be uncomfortable and sometimes even painful. Here are some common skin conditions and their characteristics:

      Guttate psoriasis is a type of psoriasis that causes small, drop-shaped plaques on the chest, arms, legs, and scalp. It is usually caused by a streptococcal infection and can last for up to three months. Topical agents, such as steroids or calcipotriol, can be used to treat it.

      Dermatitis, also known as eczema, results in rough patches of skin that are dry and itchy, particularly with exposure to irritants. In children and adults with long-standing disease, eczema is often localised to the flexure of the limbs.

      Hand, foot and mouth disease (HFMD) is an acute viral illness characterised by vesicular eruptions in the mouth and papulovesicular lesions of the distal limbs. It should not be confused with foot and mouth disease of animals, which is caused by a different virus.

      Pityriasis rosea is a skin rash that is characterised by distinctive, scaly, erythematous lesions. It is thought to be a reaction to exposure to infection.

      Pustular psoriasis is a rarer type of psoriasis that causes pus-filled blisters (pustules) to appear on your skin. Different types of pustular psoriasis affect different parts of the body.

      It is important to consult a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment of any skin condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 6-month-old is brought in by a concerned mother. She reports her baby...

    Correct

    • A 6-month-old is brought in by a concerned mother. She reports her baby crying after feeds and drawing his legs to his chest for several weeks. His growth is good and examination unremarkable.
      Which of the following is the best treatment option?

      Your Answer: Supportive advice and reassurance

      Explanation:

      Managing Infantile Colic: Supportive Advice and Reassurance

      Infantile colic can be a challenging condition for both parents and babies. While there is little evidence for treating colic, there are some strategies that can help manage the symptoms. Nursing the baby upright after feeds, bathing the infant in warm water, using white noise, gentle movement of baby, eg rocking the crib, holding baby during an episode, winding well and offering reassurance when needed can all be helpful.

      However, it’s important to note that medications such as Infacol, Colief, Gaviscon, and Ranitidine are not recommended as first-line treatments due to lack of evidence. Maternal diet modification, probiotic supplements, herbal supplements, and manipulative strategies are also not recommended.

      If your baby is experiencing colic, know that you are not alone and that supportive advice and reassurance can go a long way in managing the symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 35-year-old woman is recommended varenicline to aid in her smoking cessation. What...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman is recommended varenicline to aid in her smoking cessation. What is the mechanism of action of varenicline?

      Your Answer: Nicotinic receptor partial agonist

      Explanation:

      NICE guidance recommends offering nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline, or bupropion to patients for smoking cessation, with no preference for one medication over another. NRT should be offered in combination for those with high nicotine dependence or inadequate response to single forms. Varenicline should be started a week before the target stop date and monitored for adverse effects, including nausea and suicidal behavior. Bupropion should also be started before the target stop date and is contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy, and breastfeeding. Pregnant women should be tested for smoking and referred to NHS Stop Smoking Services, with first-line interventions being cognitive behavior therapy, motivational interviewing, or structured self-help and support. NRT may be used if other measures fail, but varenicline and bupropion are contraindicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - You are advising a 26-year-old woman who has recently discovered she is expecting...

    Incorrect

    • You are advising a 26-year-old woman who has recently discovered she is expecting a baby. She is a smoker and consumes 20 cigarettes per day. What is the primary risk factor linked to smoking while pregnant?

      Your Answer: Pre-eclampsia

      Correct Answer: Increased risk of pre-term labour

      Explanation:

      Risks of Smoking, Alcohol, and Illegal Drugs During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, drug use can have serious consequences for both the mother and the developing fetus. Smoking during pregnancy increases the risk of miscarriage, pre-term labor, stillbirth, and sudden unexpected death in infancy. Alcohol consumption can lead to fetal alcohol syndrome, which can cause learning difficulties, characteristic facial features, and growth restrictions. Binge drinking is a major risk factor for fetal alcohol syndrome. Cannabis use poses similar risks to smoking due to the tobacco content. Cocaine use can lead to hypertension in pregnancy, including pre-eclampsia, and placental abruption. Fetal risks include prematurity and neonatal abstinence syndrome. Heroin use can result in neonatal abstinence syndrome. It is important for pregnant women to avoid drug use to ensure the health and well-being of both themselves and their unborn child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following relating to St John's Wort is not true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following relating to St John's Wort is not true?

      Your Answer: Adverse effects in trials is similar to placebo

      Correct Answer: Causes inhibition of the P450 system

      Explanation:

      The P450 system is known to be induced by St John’s Wort.

      St John’s Wort: An Alternative Treatment for Mild-Moderate Depression

      St John’s Wort has been found to be as effective as tricyclic antidepressants in treating mild-moderate depression. Its mechanism of action is thought to be similar to SSRIs, although it has also been shown to inhibit noradrenaline uptake. However, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) advises against its use due to uncertainty about appropriate doses, variation in the nature of preparations, and potential serious interactions with other drugs.

      In clinical trials, the adverse effects of St John’s Wort were similar to those of a placebo. However, it can cause serotonin syndrome and is an inducer of the P450 system, which can lead to decreased levels of drugs such as warfarin and ciclosporin. Additionally, the effectiveness of the combined oral contraceptive pill may be reduced.

      Overall, St John’s Wort may be a viable alternative treatment for those with mild-moderate depression. However, caution should be exercised due to potential interactions with other medications and the lack of standardization in dosing and preparation. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional before starting any new treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 54-year-old man presents to your clinic after a routine blood test showed...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old man presents to your clinic after a routine blood test showed abnormal liver function tests. He denies any alcohol consumption and his hepatitis screen is negative. His cholesterol level is 4.2 and his HBA1c is 38ml/mol. He has a body mass index of 31 kg/m² and an ultrasound reveals non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. What is the most suitable approach to manage this condition?

      Your Answer: Diet and exercise

      Explanation:

      The primary management approach for NAFLD is weight loss, achieved through diet and exercise. Medications have not shown to be effective in improving the condition’s outcome.

      Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease: Causes, Features, and Management

      Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a prevalent liver disease in developed countries, primarily caused by obesity. It encompasses a range of conditions, from simple steatosis (fat accumulation in the liver) to steatohepatitis (fat with inflammation) and may progress to fibrosis and liver cirrhosis. Insulin resistance is believed to be the primary mechanism leading to steatosis, making NAFLD a hepatic manifestation of metabolic syndrome. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a type of liver damage similar to alcoholic hepatitis but occurs in the absence of alcohol abuse. It affects around 3-4% of the general population and may be responsible for some cases of cryptogenic cirrhosis.

      NAFLD is usually asymptomatic, but hepatomegaly, increased echogenicity on ultrasound, and elevated ALT levels are common features. The enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) blood test is recommended by NICE to check for advanced fibrosis in patients with incidental NAFLD. If the ELF blood test is not available, non-invasive tests such as the FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score, in combination with a FibroScan, may be used to assess the severity of fibrosis. Patients with advanced fibrosis should be referred to a liver specialist for further evaluation, which may include a liver biopsy to stage the disease more accurately.

      The mainstay of NAFLD treatment is lifestyle changes, particularly weight loss, and monitoring. Research is ongoing into the role of gastric banding and insulin-sensitizing drugs such as metformin and pioglitazone. While there is no evidence to support screening for NAFLD in adults, NICE guidelines recommend the management of incidental NAFLD findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      29.6
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  • Question 15 - An 80-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a history of vomiting...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a history of vomiting blood earlier in the day. What is the most significant factor indicating an upper gastrointestinal bleed?

      Your Answer: Urea = 15.4 mmol/l on a background of normal renal function

      Explanation:

      A temporary and disproportionate increase in blood urea can be caused by an upper gastrointestinal bleed, which can function as a source of protein.

      Acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding is a common and significant medical issue that can be caused by various conditions, with oesophageal varices and peptic ulcer disease being the most common. The clinical features of this condition include haematemesis, melena, and a raised urea level due to the protein meal of the blood. The differential diagnosis for acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding includes oesophageal, gastric, and duodenal causes.

      The management of acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding involves risk assessment using the Glasgow-Blatchford score, which helps clinicians decide whether patients can be managed as outpatients or not. Resuscitation is also necessary, including ABC, wide-bore intravenous access, and platelet transfusion if actively bleeding platelet count is less than 50 x 10*9/litre. Endoscopy should be offered immediately after resuscitation in patients with a severe bleed, and all patients should have endoscopy within 24 hours.

      For non-variceal bleeding, proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) should not be given before endoscopy to patients with suspected non-variceal upper gastrointestinal bleeding. However, PPIs should be given to patients with non-variceal upper gastrointestinal bleeding and stigmata of recent haemorrhage shown at endoscopy. If further bleeding occurs, options include repeat endoscopy, interventional radiology, and surgery. For variceal bleeding, terlipressin and prophylactic antibiotics should be given to patients at presentation, and band ligation should be used for oesophageal varices and injections of N-butyl-2-cyanoacrylate for patients with gastric varices. Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunts (TIPS) should be offered if bleeding from varices is not controlled with the above measures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      14.2
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  • Question 16 - A 50-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. Her mother was recently released...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. Her mother was recently released from the hospital after fracturing her hip. The patient is worried that she may have inherited osteoporosis and wants to know what steps she should take. She has no significant medical history, does not take any regular medications, and has never experienced any fractures. She is a smoker, consuming approximately 20 cigarettes per day, and drinks 3-4 units of alcohol daily.

      What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Use the FRAX tool

      Explanation:

      Due to her positive family history, smoking, and excess alcohol intake, this woman is at a higher risk of developing osteoporosis. Therefore, it is recommended that she undergo a FRAX assessment without delay, rather than waiting until the age of 65 as typically recommended for women without such risk factors.

      Assessing the Risk of Osteoporosis

      Osteoporosis is a concern due to the increased risk of fragility fractures. To determine which patients require further investigation, NICE produced guidelines in 2012 for assessing the risk of fragility fracture. Women aged 65 years and older and men aged 75 years and older should be assessed, while younger patients should be assessed in the presence of risk factors such as previous fragility fracture, history of falls, and low body mass index.

      NICE recommends using a clinical prediction tool such as FRAX or QFracture to assess a patient’s 10-year risk of developing a fracture. FRAX estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and is valid for patients aged 40-90 years. QFracture estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and includes a larger group of risk factors.

      If the FRAX assessment was done without a bone mineral density (BMD) measurement, the results will be categorised into low, intermediate, or high risk. If the FRAX assessment was done with a BMD measurement, the results will be categorised into reassurance, consider treatment, or strongly recommend treatment. Patients assessed using QFracture are not automatically categorised into low, intermediate, or high risk.

      NICE recommends reassessing a patient’s risk if the original calculated risk was in the region of the intervention threshold for a proposed treatment and only after a minimum of 2 years or when there has been a change in the person’s risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      24.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 25-year-old male comes to the emergency department complaining of cough, fever and...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male comes to the emergency department complaining of cough, fever and difficulty breathing. During the examination, he is found to be hypoxic and chest x-ray reveals pulmonary infiltrates. He has been experiencing anaemia, jaundice and weakness since he was 6 months old, and also suffers from severe pain when exposed to cold temperatures. What is the probable underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Sickle cell disease

      Explanation:

      When a patient with sickle cell disease experiences dyspnoea, chest pain, cough, hypoxia, and new pulmonary infiltrates on chest x-ray, it is likely that they are suffering from acute chest syndrome. This is a complication specific to sickle cell anaemia, and is characterized by the presence of these symptoms along with the aforementioned pulmonary infiltrates.

      Sickle cell anaemia is a condition that involves periods of good health with intermittent crises. There are several types of crises that can occur, including thrombotic or painful crises, sequestration, acute chest syndrome, aplastic, and haemolytic. Thrombotic crises, also known as painful crises or vaso-occlusive crises, are triggered by factors such as infection, dehydration, and deoxygenation. These crises are diagnosed clinically and can result in infarcts in various organs, including the bones, lungs, spleen, and brain.

      Sequestration crises occur when sickling occurs within organs such as the spleen or lungs, leading to pooling of blood and worsening of anaemia. This type of crisis is associated with an increased reticulocyte count. Acute chest syndrome is caused by vaso-occlusion within the pulmonary microvasculature, resulting in infarction in the lung parenchyma. Symptoms include dyspnoea, chest pain, pulmonary infiltrates on chest x-ray, and low pO2. Management involves pain relief, respiratory support, antibiotics, and transfusion.

      Aplastic crises are caused by infection with parvovirus and result in a sudden fall in haemoglobin. Bone marrow suppression leads to a reduced reticulocyte count. Haemolytic crises are rare and involve a fall in haemoglobin due to an increased rate of haemolysis. It is important to recognise and manage these crises promptly, as they can lead to serious complications and even death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      33.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 65-year-old man is brought to the emergency department due to self-neglect and...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man is brought to the emergency department due to self-neglect and suspected neurological event causing motor function loss. Upon examination, he presents with hypothermia and weakness on the right side. The patient reports discontinuing his regular medications and experiencing dizziness, restlessness, and electric shock sensations throughout his body. Which medication cessation is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Paroxetine

      Explanation:

      Discontinuation syndrome, characterized by dizziness, electric shock sensations, and anxiety, is a common occurrence when SSRIs are abruptly stopped. This is why it is recommended to gradually taper off the medication. The patient in this scenario stopped their medication abruptly due to a suspected neurological event, leading to the onset of discontinuation syndrome. Atorvastatin, bisoprolol, and gabapentin are not typically associated with these symptoms when stopped abruptly.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      13.2
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  • Question 19 - A 25-year-old student presents with four days of right otalgia, discharge and reduced...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old student presents with four days of right otalgia, discharge and reduced hearing. There is no significant past medical history, and she is systemically well. She never had any similar symptoms before.
      On examination, there is an inflamed auditory canal and a small amount of debris, the tympanic membrane appears to be normal.
      What is the best initial management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Start topical acetic acid 2% spray

      Correct Answer: Start topical antibiotic and steroid

      Explanation:

      Management of Otitis Externa: Recommended Actions and Guidelines

      Otitis externa is a common condition that affects the outer ear canal. The management of this condition depends on the severity of the inflammation and the presence of other symptoms. Here are some recommended actions and guidelines for managing otitis externa:

      1. Start topical antibiotic and steroid: This is recommended for patients with acute otitis externa who present with more severe inflammation. The treatment should last for seven days.

      2. Start topical acetic acid 2% spray: This is recommended for patients with mild otitis externa who do not have hearing loss or discharge.

      3. Refer to ENT urgently: This is not part of initial management but should be considered for patients with chronic diffuse otitis externa when treatment is prolonged beyond two to three months.

      4. Start oral amoxicillin: Oral antibiotics are rarely indicated for otitis externa. They should only be considered for patients with severe infection or at high risk of severe infection.

      5. Take an ear swab and start topical antibiotic: Ear swab is not recommended as first-line management. It should only be done if there is no response to initial treatment or in recurrent infections.

      In summary, the management of otitis externa depends on the severity of the inflammation and the presence of other symptoms. Following these recommended actions and guidelines can help improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      36.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which one of the following is not an example of an atypical antipsychotic...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following is not an example of an atypical antipsychotic medication?

      Your Answer: Flupentixol

      Explanation:

      Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.

      Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      13.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (2/3) 67%
Musculoskeletal (2/2) 100%
Reproductive Medicine (1/2) 50%
Respiratory Medicine (1/1) 100%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (3/3) 100%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
Haematology/Oncology (1/1) 100%
Psychiatry (2/2) 100%
ENT (0/1) 0%
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