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Question 1
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An 18-year-old girl is referred to the Endocrine Clinic with primary amenorrhoea. On examination, her height and weight are normal. She has moderate hirsutism and acne, small breast buds and an enlarged clitoris. Bimanual pelvic examination is normal. A male cousin was seen in the clinic at the age of nine years with precocious puberty.
Which is the most likely cause of her primary amenorrhoea?
Your Answer: Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Explanation:Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is a genetic disorder that affects cortisol production, leading to an increase in adrenocorticotrophic hormone and enlargement of the adrenal glands. There are different types, with classic/severe presenting at birth with ambiguous genitalia or in an acute salt-losing crisis, and milder forms causing hyperandrogenism. The patient and her cousin are likely to have the milder form. Imperforate hymen, hyperprolactinaemia, and Sheehan syndrome are unlikely causes of the patient’s primary amenorrhoea, while Turner syndrome is ruled out due to the absence of characteristic features.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman has been diagnosed with Parkinson's disease and is currently taking Sinemet (co-careldopa) prescribed by her neurologist. However, she is experiencing severe nausea as a side effect. What is the best anti-emetic medication to recommend?
Your Answer: Cyclizine
Correct Answer: Domperidone
Explanation:Understanding Parkinsonism and Its Causes
Parkinsonism is a term used to describe a group of neurological disorders that share similar symptoms with Parkinson’s disease. The causes of Parkinsonism can vary, with some cases being drug-induced, such as the use of antipsychotics or metoclopramide. Other causes include progressive supranuclear palsy, multiple system atrophy, Wilson’s disease, post-encephalitis, and dementia pugilistica, which is often seen in individuals who have suffered from chronic head trauma, such as boxers. Additionally, exposure to toxins like carbon monoxide or MPTP can also lead to Parkinsonism.
It is important to note that not all medications that cause extra-pyramidal side-effects will lead to Parkinsonism. For example, domperidone does not cross the blood-brain barrier and therefore does not cause these side-effects. Understanding the various causes of Parkinsonism can help with early diagnosis and treatment, as well as prevention in some cases. By identifying the underlying cause, healthcare professionals can tailor treatment plans to address the specific needs of each patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old patient visits the GP clinic complaining of painful burning sensations in her chest for the past week, particularly after eating. She also mentions feeling bloated, which is a new experience for her. During the examination, the GP observes some abdominal tenderness and decides to order an upper GI endoscopy. The patient is currently taking aspirin, metformin, and omeprazole. What guidance should the GP offer her regarding the procedure?
Your Answer: Continue all medications as normal
Correct Answer: Stop the omeprazole two weeks before the procedure
Explanation:To ensure proper identification of any pathology during the upper GI endoscopy, it is recommended that the patient discontinues the use of proton pump inhibitors, such as omeprazole, at least two weeks prior to the procedure.
Investigating Gastro-Oesophageal Reflux Disease
Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) can be difficult to diagnose as there is often a poor correlation between symptoms and the appearance of the oesophagus during endoscopy. However, there are certain indications for upper GI endoscopy, including age over 55 years, symptoms lasting more than four weeks or persistent symptoms despite treatment, dysphagia, relapsing symptoms, and weight loss. If endoscopy is negative, further investigation may be necessary. The gold standard test for diagnosis is 24-hour oesophageal pH monitoring. It is important to consider these investigations in order to accurately diagnose and treat GORD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 4
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A 63-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus complains of a 'rash' on their left shin. The rash has increased in size over the last two days and is now a painful, hot, red area on their anterior left shin that spreads around to the back of the leg. The patient is feeling well overall, and it is decided that oral treatment is the best course of action. The patient has a history of penicillin allergy. What is the best antibiotic to prescribe?
Your Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:Understanding Cellulitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Cellulitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues caused by bacterial infection, usually Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylcoccus aureus. It commonly occurs on the shins and is accompanied by symptoms such as erythema, pain, and swelling. In some cases, patients may also experience systemic upset, including fever.
The diagnosis of cellulitis is typically made based on clinical presentation, and no further investigations are required in primary care. However, blood tests and cultures may be requested if the patient is admitted to the hospital and sepsis is suspected.
To guide the management of patients with cellulitis, healthcare providers may use the Eron classification system. Patients with Eron Class III or IV cellulitis, severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, or certain risk factors such as immunocompromisation or significant lymphoedema should be admitted for intravenous antibiotics. Patients with Eron Class II cellulitis may not require admission if appropriate facilities and expertise are available in the community to administer intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient.
The first-line treatment for mild to moderate cellulitis is flucloxacillin, while clarithromycin, erythromycin (in pregnancy), or doxycycline may be used in patients allergic to penicillin. Patients with severe cellulitis should be offered co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, clindamycin, or ceftriaxone.
Overall, understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of cellulitis is crucial for effective management of this common bacterial infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 5
Correct
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Each of the following can cause a mydriatic pupil, except for what?
Your Answer: Argyll-Robertson pupil
Explanation:The Argyll-Robertson pupil is a well-known pupillary syndrome that can be observed in cases of neurosyphilis. This condition is characterized by pupils that are able to accommodate, but do not react to light. A helpful mnemonic for remembering this syndrome is Accommodation Reflex Present (ARP) but Pupillary Reflex Absent (PRA). Other features of the Argyll-Robertson pupil include small and irregular pupils. The condition can be caused by various factors, including diabetes mellitus and syphilis.
Mydriasis, which is the enlargement of the pupil, can be caused by various factors. These include third nerve palsy, Holmes-Adie pupil, traumatic iridoplegia, pheochromocytoma, and congenital conditions. Additionally, certain drugs can also cause mydriasis, such as topical mydriatics like tropicamide and atropine, sympathomimetic drugs like amphetamines and cocaine, and anticholinergic drugs like tricyclic antidepressants. It’s important to note that anisocoria, which is when one pupil is larger than the other, can also result in the appearance of mydriasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 6
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A 35-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a history of recurrent episodes of dizziness characterized by a sensation of the entire room spinning around her. She reports feeling nauseous during these episodes but denies any hearing disturbance or tinnitus. The dizziness is not exacerbated by head movement and lasts for approximately 4-5 hours, with complete resolution in between episodes. She recalls having a viral illness the week prior to the onset of her symptoms. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Vestibular neuronitis
Explanation:Patients with vestibular neuronitis experience recurrent episodes of vertigo lasting for hours to days, often accompanied by nausea. Unlike other causes of vertigo, there is no hearing loss, tinnitus, or neurological symptoms. Meniere’s disease, on the other hand, presents with vertigo, hearing loss, and tinnitus. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo is characterized by brief episodes of vertigo triggered by head movement, while acoustic neuromas typically present with hearing loss, tinnitus, and facial nerve palsy. Vertebrobasilar insufficiency, which occurs in elderly patients, is associated with neck pain and symptoms triggered by head movement.
Understanding Vestibular Neuronitis
Vestibular neuronitis is a type of vertigo that typically occurs after a viral infection. It is characterized by recurrent episodes of vertigo that can last for hours or days, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Horizontal nystagmus, or involuntary eye movements, is a common symptom, but there is usually no hearing loss or tinnitus.
It is important to distinguish vestibular neuronitis from other conditions that can cause similar symptoms, such as viral labyrinthitis or posterior circulation stroke. The HiNTs exam can be used to differentiate between vestibular neuronitis and stroke.
Treatment for vestibular neuronitis may involve medications such as prochlorperazine or antihistamines to alleviate symptoms. However, vestibular rehabilitation exercises are often the preferred treatment for patients with chronic symptoms. These exercises can help to retrain the brain and improve balance and coordination. With proper management, most people with vestibular neuronitis can recover fully and resume their normal activities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 7
Correct
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You are on GP rotation and you assess a 22-year-old student who reports feeling consistently low for the past 6 months. You administer a PHQ-9 questionnaire which indicates persistent mild depression. What is the first line treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Psychological intervention
Explanation:The primary treatment for mild depression is psychological intervention, typically obtained through an IAPT referral. Although a patient may also be prescribed a Serotonin Specific Reuptake Inhibitor (SSRI) while waiting for their referral, it is important to note that the NICE guidelines prioritize the consideration of an IAPT referral as the first line of treatment. Therefore, an IAPT referral is the most appropriate answer in this scenario.
In 2022, NICE updated its guidelines on managing depression and now classifies it as either less severe or more severe based on a patient’s PHQ-9 score. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient’s preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy, group behavioral activation, individual CBT or BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy, SSRIs, counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy. For more severe depression, NICE recommends a shared decision-making approach and suggests a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant as the preferred treatment option. Other treatment options for more severe depression include individual CBT or BA, antidepressant medication, individual problem-solving, counseling, short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy, interpersonal psychotherapy, guided self-help, and group exercise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 8
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A 6-year-old girl is brought to her general practitioner by her mother, with a 3-day history of fever up to 37.8 °C. She had no history of lesions on the buccal mucosa but developed a maculopapular rash across the face and trunk. A few days before the appearance of the rash, she complained of some eye pain, sore throat and general body aches. On physical examination, she has a discrete rose-pink maculopapular rash on the face, neck and trunk, low-grade fever and enlarged posterior auricular and suboccipital lymph nodes.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Rubella
Explanation:Distinguishing Between Viral Diseases: Rubella, Mumps, Meningitis, Scarlet Fever, and Erythema Infectiosum
Rubella, also known as German measles, is a typically mild viral disease that often goes unnoticed, with almost half of those infected showing no symptoms. However, it can have severe consequences for pregnant women, especially in the early stages of pregnancy. Symptoms include eye pain, sore throat, low-grade fever, and a rose-pink rash that starts on the face and spreads to the trunk and extremities within 24 hours.
Mumps is another viral disease caused by rubulavirus. It typically presents with low-grade fever, malaise, headache, and myalgia, followed by painful swelling of the salivary glands and tender cervical lymphadenopathy. Mumps is highly contagious and has become less common in developing countries due to vaccination.
Meningitis is a serious condition characterized by inflammation of the meninges. Symptoms include fever, headache, and neck stiffness, and it requires urgent medical attention.
Scarlet fever is caused by group A β-hemolytic streptococci and presents with exudative pharyngitis, fever, and a bright red rash. It typically evolves from a tonsillar/pharyngeal focus and is uncommon without buccal lesions.
Erythema infectiosum, also known as fifth disease, is a mild childhood illness caused by parvovirus B19. It presents with a bright red rash on the cheeks and may have atypical rashes in adults.
It is important to distinguish between these viral diseases to ensure proper treatment and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 9
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A 50-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department via ambulance after experiencing a sudden onset of facial droop and speech impairment. Upon examination, she is conscious but displays both expressive and receptive aphasia. The patient's GP summary record indicates that she is only taking tamoxifen. Based on this information, what is the most probable medical condition in her past medical history?
Your Answer: Oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer
Explanation:Pre-menopausal women with oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer are managed using Tamoxifen.
Tamoxifen is ineffective in treating oestrogen receptor-negative breast cancer or ovarian cancer.
However, Tamoxifen may increase the risk of endometrial cancer.
Colorectal cancer is not treated with Tamoxifen.Anti-oestrogen drugs are used in the management of oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer. Selective oEstrogen Receptor Modulators (SERM) such as Tamoxifen act as an oestrogen receptor antagonist and partial agonist. However, Tamoxifen can cause adverse effects such as menstrual disturbance, hot flushes, venous thromboembolism, and endometrial cancer. On the other hand, aromatase inhibitors like Anastrozole and Letrozole reduce peripheral oestrogen synthesis, which is important in postmenopausal women. Anastrozole is used for ER +ve breast cancer in this group. However, aromatase inhibitors can cause adverse effects such as osteoporosis, hot flushes, arthralgia, myalgia, and insomnia. NICE recommends a DEXA scan when initiating a patient on aromatase inhibitors for breast cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 10
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A 32-year-old woman presents for follow-up regarding her frequent migraine attacks. Despite taking a combination of paracetamol and ibuprofen, she has not experienced significant relief. Her current medications include as-needed paracetamol and ibuprofen, as well as Cerazette, a progestogen-only pill. What is the most suitable medication to consider for reducing the frequency of her migraines?
Your Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:For women of childbearing age who suffer from migraines, propranolol is a better option than topiramate. This is because NICE recommends both drugs for migraine prophylaxis, but the combined oral contraceptive pill cannot be used due to the patient’s migraine history. While zolmitriptan can be used to stop attacks, it is not effective for prophylaxis.
Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options
Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, acute treatment for migraines involves a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective, non-oral preparations of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be considered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.
Prophylaxis should be given if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity for some people. For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be recommended as a type of mini-prophylaxis.
Specialists may consider other treatment options, such as candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, like erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects like weight gain and drowsiness. It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering various treatment options, migraines can be effectively managed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 11
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A 45-year-old woman had an anterior myocardial infarction. She has a body mass index (BMI) of 30 kg/m2, smokes 10 cigarettes per day and admits to a high-sugar diet and minimal exercise.
Which of the following non-pharmacological interventions will be most helpful in reducing her risk for a future ischaemic event?
Your Answer: Stopping smoking
Explanation:Reducing the Risk of Vascular Events: Lifestyle Interventions
Smoking, high salt intake, poor diet, lack of exercise, and obesity are all risk factors for vascular events such as heart attacks and strokes. However, making lifestyle changes can significantly reduce the risk of these events.
Stopping smoking is the most effective non-pharmacological intervention, as it reduces the risk of heart disease by 2-3 times compared to those who continue to smoke.
Reducing salt intake to 3-6 g/day can also help, as both high and low salt intake can increase the risk of vascular events.
Improving diet by controlling calorie intake can lead to weight loss, improved blood sugar control, and better lipid profiles.
Regular exercise, such as 30 minutes of activity five times a week, can lower the risk of vascular events by 30%.
Finally, weight reduction is important, as obesity increases the risk of heart attacks and strokes at a younger age and can lead to higher mortality rates.
Overall, making these lifestyle changes can significantly reduce the risk of vascular events and improve overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 12
Correct
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A 25-year-old student is brought to the clinic by his companions as he appears confused. They mention that he has been experiencing headaches for the past few weeks. During the examination, he has a low-grade fever and his mucosa is unusually pink. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Carbon monoxide poisoning
Explanation:Typical symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning include confusion and pink mucosae, with a low-grade fever being present in only a small number of cases.
Understanding Carbon Monoxide Poisoning
Carbon monoxide poisoning occurs when carbon monoxide, a toxic gas, is inhaled and binds to haemoglobin and myoglobin in the body, resulting in tissue hypoxia. This leads to a left-shift of the oxygen dissociation curve, causing a decrease in oxygen saturation of haemoglobin. In the UK, there are approximately 50 deaths per year from accidental carbon monoxide poisoning.
Symptoms of carbon monoxide toxicity include headache, nausea and vomiting, vertigo, confusion, and subjective weakness. Severe toxicity can result in pink skin and mucosae, hyperpyrexia, arrhythmias, extrapyramidal features, coma, and even death.
To diagnose carbon monoxide poisoning, pulse oximetry may not be reliable due to similarities between oxyhaemoglobin and carboxyhaemoglobin. Therefore, a venous or arterial blood gas should be taken to measure carboxyhaemoglobin levels. Non-smokers typically have levels below 3%, while smokers have levels below 10%. Symptomatic patients have levels between 10-30%, and severe toxicity is indicated by levels above 30%. An ECG may also be useful to check for cardiac ischaemia.
In the emergency department, patients with suspected carbon monoxide poisoning should receive 100% high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask. This decreases the half-life of carboxyhemoglobin and should be administered as soon as possible, with treatment continuing for a minimum of six hours. Target oxygen saturations are 100%, and treatment is generally continued until all symptoms have resolved. For more severe cases, hyperbaric oxygen therapy may be considered, as it has been shown to have better long-term outcomes than standard oxygen therapy. Indications for hyperbaric oxygen therapy include loss of consciousness, neurological signs other than headache, myocardial ischaemia or arrhythmia, and pregnancy.
Overall, understanding the pathophysiology, symptoms, and management of carbon monoxide poisoning is crucial in preventing and treating this potentially deadly condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 13
Correct
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A 26-year-old female patient arrives with a sudden onset of pain at the back of her ankle while jogging, accompanied by a cracking sound. Which medication from the following list could have played a role in causing this injury?
Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:The patient is displaying typical symptoms of a ruptured Achilles tendon, which can be caused by ciprofloxacin. Tendon damage is a known potential side effect of quinolone antibiotics, and it seems to be a rare reaction that can occur after just 8 days of treatment.
Understanding Quinolones: Antibiotics that Inhibit DNA Synthesis
Quinolones are a type of antibiotics that are known for their bactericidal properties. They work by inhibiting DNA synthesis, which makes them effective in treating bacterial infections. Some examples of quinolones include ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin.
The mechanism of action of quinolones involves inhibiting topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase) and topoisomerase IV. However, bacteria can develop resistance to quinolones through mutations to DNA gyrase or by using efflux pumps that reduce the concentration of quinolones inside the cell.
While quinolones are generally safe, they can have adverse effects. For instance, they can lower the seizure threshold in patients with epilepsy and cause tendon damage, including rupture, especially in patients taking steroids. Additionally, animal models have shown that quinolones can damage cartilage, which is why they are generally avoided in children. Quinolones can also lengthen the QT interval, which can be dangerous for patients with heart conditions.
Quinolones should be avoided in pregnant or breastfeeding women and in patients with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency. Overall, understanding the mechanism of action, mechanism of resistance, adverse effects, and contraindications of quinolones is important for their safe and effective use in treating bacterial infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 14
Correct
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A 65-year-old female presents to her GP with a 4-week history of bilateral shoulder pain. She also experiences stiffness in her shoulders in the morning which improves throughout the day. She reports feeling generally fatigued. No other joints are affected. The patient has a history of osteoarthritis in her left knee.
During examination, the patient's observations are normal. There is no swelling or redness in the shoulders, and she has a full range of motion bilaterally. Upper limb power is 5/5 bilaterally with normal sensation.
Based on the patient's history and examination, what is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms are suggestive of polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR), which is a common inflammatory condition in older adults. The sudden onset of pain and stiffness in the shoulders and hips, along with systemic symptoms such as fatigue and anorexia, are typical of PMR. Osteoarthritis, fibromyalgia, hypothyroidism, and adhesive capsulitis are less likely diagnoses, as they do not typically present with acute onset of symptoms or systemic involvement. However, it is important to rule out hypothyroidism by checking thyroid function. Frozen shoulder may cause shoulder pain and stiffness, but it is usually associated with restricted range of motion and does not typically cause systemic symptoms.
Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Muscle Stiffness in Older People
Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common condition that affects older people. It is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arteritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects patients over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, usually within a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.
To diagnose PMR, doctors look for raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR of over 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are normal. Treatment for PMR involves prednisolone, usually at a dose of 15mg/od. Patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 15
Correct
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Sarah, 35, has come to her doctor complaining of weakness on the left side of her face, which is confirmed upon examination. Sarah also reports experiencing ear pain and an otoscopy reveals vesicles on her tympanic membrane. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ramsay Hunt syndrome
Explanation:The correct diagnosis for this case is Ramsay Hunt syndrome. This syndrome occurs when the Varicella Zoster virus reactivates in the geniculate ganglion, leading to the appearance of vesicles on the tympanic membrane, as well as other symptoms such as facial paralysis, taste loss, dry eyes, tinnitus, vertigo, and hearing loss. While Bell’s palsy could explain the facial weakness, the presence of tympanic vesicles and ear pain make this diagnosis less likely. Trigeminal neuralgia is unlikely to cause facial weakness, although it could explain the pain. An acoustic neuroma could explain both the facial weakness and ear pain, but the absence of tympanic vesicles makes this diagnosis less probable.
Understanding Ramsay Hunt Syndrome
Ramsay Hunt syndrome, also known as herpes zoster oticus, is a condition that occurs when the varicella zoster virus reactivates in the geniculate ganglion of the seventh cranial nerve. The first symptom of this condition is often auricular pain, followed by facial nerve palsy and a vesicular rash around the ear. Other symptoms may include vertigo and tinnitus.
To manage Ramsay Hunt syndrome, doctors typically prescribe oral aciclovir and corticosteroids. These medications can help reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 16
Correct
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A 32-year-old female patient comes in seeking emergency contraception after having unprotected sex with her ex-partner four days ago. She is determined to prevent a pregnancy. The patient has a history of ectopic pregnancy four years ago, which led to a salpingectomy. She is currently on day 14 of a 28-day cycle. What is the best course of action among the available options?
Your Answer: Insert an intrauterine device
Explanation:Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 17
Correct
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A 56-year-old woman visits the emergency GP service with a red and painful eye that has been bothering her for a few hours. Upon examination, the doctor notices a dilated pupil and a significant decrease in vision.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Acute angle-closure glaucoma
Explanation:Common Eye Conditions: Symptoms and Characteristics
Acute angle-closure glaucoma, Conjunctivitis, Foreign body, Optic neuritis, and Uveitis are some of the most common eye conditions that individuals may experience. Each condition has its own set of symptoms and characteristics that can help in identifying the underlying cause.
Acute angle-closure glaucoma is characterized by sudden onset symptoms such as blurred vision, seeing haloes around lights, red eye, pain, headache, and nausea and vomiting. It is an ophthalmic emergency that requires urgent specialist assessment to prevent blindness.
Conjunctivitis is one of the most common non-traumatic eye complaints resulting in presentation to A&E. It is characterized by redness, profuse discharge, irritation, and rarely photophobia. Most causes are benign, with a self-limited process.
Foreign body in the cornea is characterized by pain, foreign body sensation, photophobia, tearing, and red eye. A visible foreign body may be present on physical examination.
Optic neuritis is characterized by rapidly developing impairment of vision in one eye, dyschromatopsia, retro-orbital or ocular pain, Uhthoff’s phenomenon, and Pulfrich’s phenomenon. It often occurs in association with multiple sclerosis (MS) and neuromyelitis optica (NMO).
Uveitis is characterized by inflammation of the uveal tract or adjacent ocular structures. It is often autoimmune in nature, and the aetiology remains elusive in most cases. Symptoms vary depending on the location of the inflammation, with acute anterior uveitis being the most common form of intraocular inflammation, causing a painful red eye.
Understanding the symptoms and characteristics of these common eye conditions can help in identifying the underlying cause and seeking appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 18
Correct
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A mother brings in her 3-day-old female baby to the pediatrician's office. She noticed a small cyst on the roof of the baby's mouth. Upon examination, a small white cystic vesicle measuring approximately 2 mm in diameter is found on the hard palate near the midline. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Epstein's pearl
Explanation:Epstein’s pearl, a type of congenital cyst found in the mouth, typically does not require any treatment. These cysts are commonly found on the hard palate, but can also be mistaken for a tooth eruption when located on the gums. They usually resolve on their own within a few weeks. Neonatal teeth, on the other hand, are rare and not typically found on the hard palate. Bohn’s nodules are mucous gland cysts that are usually located on the buccal or lingual aspects of the alveolar ridges, and rarely on the palate. A congenital ranula is a papule or nodule that is firm and translucent, and is typically found on the anterior floor of the mouth, lateral to the lingual frenulum.
Understanding Epstein’s Pearl
Epstein’s pearl is a type of cyst that is present in the mouth from birth. It is commonly found on the hard palate, but can also be seen on the gums, which may be mistaken for a tooth eruption. The good news is that no treatment is usually required as these cysts tend to disappear on their own within a few weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the Genitourinary Medicine Clinic with an 8-day history of dysuria and lower abdominal pain. She has had two sexual partners over the last three months and uses the combined oral contraceptive pill as contraception. She has noticed some spotting and post-coital bleeding since her last period and a foul-smelling vaginal discharge for the last few days. There is no past medical history of note and no known allergies.
On examination, she has lower abdominal tenderness but no guarding or palpable organomegaly. On examination, there is a thick yellow vaginal discharge and mildly tender palpable inguinal lymphadenopathy.
Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate management from the list below.
Select ONE option only.Your Answer: Metronidazole
Correct Answer: Doxycycline
Explanation:Treatment Options for Sexually Transmitted Diseases
Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) can present with a variety of symptoms and signs. The most common STD is Chlamydia trachomatis, which can be asymptomatic or present with dysuria, abdominal pain, and vaginal discharge. Endocervical and high vaginal swabs should be taken, and a urinalysis and pregnancy test should be completed. The first-line treatment for C. trachomatis is doxycycline.
Ceftriaxone is indicated for Neisseria gonorrhoeae infections, which can present similarly to chlamydia with discharge and dysuria. However, the most likely diagnosis for this patient is C. trachomatis, making doxycycline the correct answer.
Benzylpenicillin is used in patients with suspected syphilis infection secondary to the spirochaete Treponema pallidum. Syphilis has primary, secondary, and tertiary stages with primary syphilis presenting as a painless chancre with local, non-tender lymphadenopathy prior to secondary disease with fever and a rash. This is not seen here, making syphilis a less likely diagnosis.
Metronidazole is the recommended treatment for bacterial vaginosis and Trichomonas vaginalis. However, it is not used in the treatment of C. trachomatis.
Trimethoprim would be the recommended treatment if this patient was diagnosed with a urinary-tract infection (UTI). While the history of lower abdominal pain and dysuria are suggestive of a UTI, a foul-smelling vaginal discharge points towards an alternative diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 37-year-old woman has a Mirena inserted for birth control on day 12 of her menstrual cycle. What is the duration before it becomes a dependable contraceptive method?
Your Answer: Immediately
Correct Answer: 7 days
Explanation:Contraceptives – Time to become effective (if not used on the first day of period):
Immediate: IUD
2 days: Progestin-only pill (POP)
7 days: Combined oral contraceptive (COC), injection, implant, intrauterine system (IUS)Intrauterine contraceptive devices include copper IUDs and levonorgestrel-releasing IUS. Both are over 99% effective. The IUD prevents fertilization by decreasing sperm motility, while the IUS prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucus. Potential problems include heavier periods with IUDs and initial bleeding with the IUS. There is a small risk of uterine perforation, ectopic pregnancy, and infection. New IUS systems, such as Jaydess® and Kyleena®, have smaller frames and less levonorgestrel, resulting in lower serum levels and different rates of amenorrhea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 21
Correct
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A 48-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner complaining of feeling dizzy and experiencing shortness of breath during physical activity. He has a bicuspid aortic valve and is waiting for valve replacement surgery.
Which of the following murmurs would be the most likely to occur in this patient?Your Answer: Ejection systolic murmur loudest over the 2nd intercostal space, right sternal edge
Explanation:Differentiating Heart Murmurs Based on Location and Type
Heart murmurs are abnormal sounds heard during a heartbeat and can indicate various cardiac conditions. The location and type of murmur can help differentiate between different conditions.
Ejection systolic murmur loudest over the 2nd intercostal space, right sternal edge: This is typical for aortic stenosis, which is more likely to occur in a bicuspid aortic valve. The murmur may radiate to the carotids. Pulmonary stenosis, hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy, and atrial septal defect can also cause this type of murmur, but the location would be different.
Ejection systolic murmur loudest over the 2nd intercostal space, left sternal edge: This location is typical for pulmonary stenosis, not aortic stenosis. The patient’s history indicates symptomatic aortic stenosis, making this finding inconsistent.
Early diastolic murmur loudest over the 3rd intercostal space, left sternal edge: This type and location of murmur is typical for aortic regurgitation, not aortic stenosis. The location is Erb’s point, where S1 and S2 should both be heard.
Mid-diastolic murmur loudest over the apex: This type and location of murmur is typical for mitral stenosis, not aortic stenosis. The apex is the mitral area, located at the 5th intercostal space in the midclavicular line.
Pansystolic murmur loudest over the apex: This type and location of murmur is typical for mitral regurgitation, not aortic stenosis. The apex is the mitral area, located at the 5th intercostal space in the midclavicular line.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 22
Correct
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A 32-year-old female patient comes to the clinic with a chief complaint of headaches. During the examination, it is observed that when a light is shone in her right eye, both pupils constrict, but when the light is immediately moved to the left eye, both pupils appear to dilate. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Left optic neuritis
Explanation:The ‘swinging light test’ can detect a relative afferent pupillary defect, which is indicated by less constriction of the pupils on one side. In this case, the left side is affected, suggesting an underlying condition such as multiple sclerosis causing optic neuritis. Symptoms of optic neuritis may include a dull ache around the eye that worsens with movement, which is common in patients of this age group.
Understanding Relative Afferent Pupillary Defect
A relative afferent pupillary defect, also known as the Marcus-Gunn pupil, is a condition that can be identified through the swinging light test. This condition is caused by a lesion that is located anterior to the optic chiasm, which can be found in the optic nerve or retina.
When conducting the swinging light test, the affected eye will appear to dilate when light is shone on it, while the normal eye will not. This is due to the fact that the afferent pathway of the pupillary light reflex is disrupted. The pathway starts from the retina, then goes through the optic nerve, lateral geniculate body, and midbrain. The efferent pathway, on the other hand, starts from the Edinger-Westphal nucleus in the midbrain and goes through the oculomotor nerve.
There are various causes of relative afferent pupillary defect, such as retina detachment and optic neuritis, which is commonly associated with multiple sclerosis. Understanding this condition is important in diagnosing and treating patients who may be experiencing vision problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 49-year-old man presents to his GP with a newly discovered lump in his scrotum. He noticed it a week ago while performing self-examination in the shower. He reports no recent injuries and is in good health otherwise. He has no significant medical or surgical history and is in a committed relationship. His vital signs are normal, and his abdomen is soft and nontender without any signs of an inguinal hernia. On examination, a small, painless mass is palpable just behind and separate from the right testicle. The left testicle appears normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Epididymal cyst
Explanation:Scrotal swelling that is separate from the body of the testicle is likely caused by an epididymal cyst. This condition is common in middle-aged men and is typically benign. An ultrasound can confirm the diagnosis, and treatment is usually conservative.
If the swelling is accompanied by pain, redness, and fever, it may be epididymitis. This condition is caused by an infection and can also involve the testes, resulting in unilateral testicular pain and swelling. Treatment typically involves a single IM dose of ceftriaxone 500mg and oral doxycycline 100mg BD for 10-14 days.
A firm and painless lump on the testicle may indicate a germ-cell tumor, which is the most common malignancy in younger males. Other risk factors include infertility, cryptorchidism, mumps orchitis, and Klinefelter syndrome. Hydrocele, on the other hand, is a collection of fluid within the membrane that surrounds the testes. It is common in neonates and can occur in adults due to recent testicular trauma or orchitis. Treatment for hydrocele is generally conservative.
Epididymal cysts are a prevalent reason for scrotal swellings that are frequently encountered in primary care. These cysts are typically found at the back of the testicle and are separate from the body of the testicle. They are often associated with other medical conditions such as polycystic kidney disease, cystic fibrosis, and von Hippel-Lindau syndrome. To confirm the diagnosis, an ultrasound may be performed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 55-year-old man is admitted to Resus with a suspected anterior myocardial infarction. An ECG on arrival confirms the diagnosis and thrombolysis is prepared. The patient is stable and his pain is well controlled with intravenous morphine. Clinical examination shows a blood pressure of 140/84 mmHg, pulse 90 bpm and oxygen saturations on room air of 97%. What is the most appropriate management with regards to oxygen therapy?
Your Answer: No oxygen therapy
Explanation:There are now specific guidelines regarding the use of oxygen during emergency situations. Please refer to the provided link for more information.
Managing Acute Coronary Syndrome: A Summary of NICE Guidelines
Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a common and serious medical condition that requires prompt management. The management of ACS has evolved over the years, with the development of new drugs and procedures such as percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of ACS in 2020.
ACS can be classified into three subtypes: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. The management of ACS depends on the subtype. However, there are common initial drug therapies for all patients with ACS, such as aspirin and nitrates. Oxygen should only be given if the patient has oxygen saturations below 94%, and morphine should only be given for severe pain.
For patients with STEMI, the first step is to assess eligibility for coronary reperfusion therapy, which can be either PCI or fibrinolysis. Patients with NSTEMI/unstable angina require a risk assessment using the Global Registry of Acute Coronary Events (GRACE) tool to determine whether they need coronary angiography (with follow-on PCI if necessary) or conservative management.
This summary provides an overview of the NICE guidelines for managing ACS. The guidelines are complex and depend on individual patient factors, so healthcare professionals should review the full guidelines for further details. Proper management of ACS can improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 25
Correct
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A 45-year-old man complains of pain and redness around his first metatarsophalangeal joint. Which medication is most likely responsible for this symptom?
Your Answer: Furosemide
Explanation:Causes of Gout: Medications and Other Factors
Gout is a type of joint inflammation that occurs due to the accumulation of monosodium urate monohydrate crystals in the synovium. This condition is caused by chronic hyperuricemia, which is characterized by high levels of uric acid in the blood (above 0.45 mmol/l).
Several medications and other factors can contribute to the development of gout. Diuretics such as thiazides and furosemide, as well as immunosuppressant drugs like ciclosporin, can increase the risk of gout. Alcohol consumption, cytotoxic agents, and pyrazinamide are also known to be associated with gout.
In addition, low-dose aspirin has been found to increase the risk of gout attacks, according to a systematic review. However, this risk needs to be weighed against the cardiovascular benefits of aspirin. Patients who are prescribed allopurinol, a medication used to treat gout, are not at an increased risk of gout attacks when taking low-dose aspirin.
Overall, it is important to be aware of the potential causes of gout, including medications and lifestyle factors, in order to prevent and manage this condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 26
Correct
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A 49-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of difficulty walking. He describes experiencing pain in both calves and feet after walking around 400m, which gradually worsens and eventually causes his legs to give out. The pain disappears completely after sitting and resting for a few minutes, and he has found that leaning forward helps him walk further before the pain returns. The patient has no prior medical history, and a physical examination of his lower limbs reveals no abnormalities. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Lumbar spinal stenosis
Explanation:Lumbar spinal canal stenosis is often indicated by a history of progressive painful neurological deficit that improves when resting or leaning forward. This condition causes nerve root ischaemia due to inadequate microvascular blood flow to the spinal nerve roots, resulting in bilateral neuropathic pain and progressive deficit affecting the dermatomes and myotomes below the affected level. Leaning forward widens the canal, providing relief, while resting reduces the oxygen requirement of the nerve roots, allowing the ischaemia to slowly resolve. Neurological examination of the legs usually shows no abnormal findings as the symptoms are only brought on by consistent use of the nerve roots.
Osteoarthritis, on the other hand, is a degenerative arthropathy that typically affects large weight-bearing joints in the lower limbs, causing pain that rarely improves with rest and is not associated with a neurological deficit. It is usually unilateral and does not cause symmetrical symptoms.
Peripheral neuropathy can produce similar symptoms to spinal stenosis, but the pathology is not related to nerve use, and a deficit (usually sensory) would be detected on examination. The absence of such findings indicates that peripheral neuropathy is not the cause.
Peripheral vascular disease is the most likely differential for patients with spinal stenosis and symptoms of progressive leg pain that is relieved by rest. However, evidence of vascular insufficiency, such as absent distal pulses, ulceration or skin changes, would be present on examination if the condition were severe enough to cause symptoms after relatively short distances of walking. Additionally, leaning forward does not improve symptoms in peripheral vascular disease, only rest does.
Lumbar spinal stenosis is a condition where the central canal in the lower back is narrowed due to degenerative changes, such as a tumor or disk prolapse. Patients may experience back pain, neuropathic pain, and symptoms similar to claudication. However, one distinguishing factor is that the pain is positional, with sitting being more comfortable than standing, and walking uphill being easier than downhill. Degenerative disease is the most common cause, starting with changes in the intervertebral disk that lead to disk bulging and collapse. This puts stress on the facet joints, causing cartilage degeneration, hypertrophy, and osteophyte formation, which narrows the spinal canal and compresses the nerve roots of the cauda equina. MRI scanning is the best way to diagnose lumbar spinal stenosis, and treatment may involve a laminectomy.
Overall, lumbar spinal stenosis is a condition that affects the lower back and can cause a range of symptoms, including pain and discomfort. It is often caused by degenerative changes in the intervertebral disk, which can lead to narrowing of the spinal canal and compression of the nerve roots. Diagnosis is typically done through MRI scanning, and treatment may involve a laminectomy. It is important to note that the pain associated with lumbar spinal stenosis is positional, with sitting being more comfortable than standing, and walking uphill being easier than downhill.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 27
Correct
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A 40-year-old woman presents to your clinic with concerns about her heavy periods. She has been trying to conceive for the past 10 months without success. She has noticed that her periods have been getting progressively heavier over the past year, and she has experienced episodes of flooding. She initially attributed this to getting older, but now it has become unmanageable. During the examination, you palpate a supra-pubic mass. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Fibroids
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms of menorrhagia, subfertility, and an abdominal mass strongly suggest the presence of fibroids. While ectopic pregnancy should be ruled out, it is less likely due to the absence of severe pain. Endometriosis and endometrial cancer are also unlikely causes of an abdominal mass. Although ovarian cancer cannot be completely ruled out, it is not the most probable diagnosis. Fibroids are benign tumors that commonly occur in the myometrium. Symptoms include heavy menstrual bleeding, pain (if the fibroid twists), and subfertility. As fibroids grow larger, they can cause additional symptoms such as dysuria, hydronephrosis, constipation, and sciatica. Initial treatment typically involves medications such as tranexamic acid, NSAIDs, or progesterones to manage menorrhagia, but surgery is often necessary for persistent fibroids.
Understanding Uterine Fibroids
Uterine fibroids are non-cancerous growths that develop in the uterus. They are more common in black women and are thought to occur in around 20% of white women in their later reproductive years. Fibroids are usually asymptomatic, but they can cause menorrhagia, which can lead to iron-deficiency anaemia. Other symptoms include lower abdominal pain, bloating, and urinary symptoms. Fibroids may also cause subfertility.
Diagnosis is usually made through transvaginal ultrasound. Asymptomatic fibroids do not require treatment, but periodic monitoring is recommended. Menorrhagia secondary to fibroids can be managed with various treatments, including the levonorgestrel intrauterine system, NSAIDs, tranexamic acid, and hormonal therapies.
Medical treatment to shrink or remove fibroids may include GnRH agonists or ulipristal acetate, although the latter is not currently recommended due to concerns about liver toxicity. Surgical options include myomectomy, hysteroscopic endometrial ablation, hysterectomy, and uterine artery embolization.
Fibroids generally regress after menopause, but complications such as subfertility and iron-deficiency anaemia can occur. Red degeneration, which is haemorrhage into the tumour, is a common complication during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 28
Correct
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A 43-year-old male accountant visits the clinic with a persistent hoarseness that has been bothering him for the past 4 weeks. He reports that this is affecting his work performance. He denies experiencing any sore throat, difficulty swallowing, or cough. He has been smoking 20 cigarettes daily for the last 25 years and drinks a glass of beer every day. Apart from this, he is in good health. What is the best course of action for managing his condition?
Your Answer: 2-week rule referral to ENT specialist
Explanation:If a patient aged over 45 years old has persistent and unexplained hoarseness, it is recommended by NICE to urgently refer them to an ENT specialist under the 2-week wait rule. This is because they may have laryngeal cancer. While a chest radiograph is important, it is more appropriate to prioritize the referral to ENT if cancer is suspected. It is not appropriate to delay the referral or provide false reassurance. While advice on smoking cessation and alcohol should be given, specialist referral is the most important aspect of management in this situation.
Understanding Hoarseness and its Causes
Hoarseness is a condition that can be caused by various factors. One of the most common causes is voice overuse, which can strain the vocal cords and lead to hoarseness. Smoking is another factor that can contribute to hoarseness, as it can irritate the throat and vocal cords. Viral illnesses, hypothyroidism, and gastro-oesophageal reflux are also known to cause hoarseness. In some cases, hoarseness can be a symptom of laryngeal or lung cancer.
When investigating patients with hoarseness, it is important to consider a chest x-ray to rule out any apical lung lesions. If laryngeal cancer is suspected, referral guidelines recommend a suspected cancer pathway referral to an ENT specialist for individuals aged 45 and over with persistent unexplained hoarseness or an unexplained lump in the neck. By understanding the causes of hoarseness and seeking appropriate medical attention, individuals can receive the necessary treatment and improve their vocal health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 29
Correct
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An ambulance brings a 70-year-old man to the emergency department with suspected stroke. Upon examination, the man's speech is non-fluent, but his comprehension is intact. He experiences difficulty repeating a phrase. What is the most probable location of the lesion?
Your Answer: Frontal lobe
Explanation:The patient in the scenario has non-fluent speech, normal comprehension, and impaired repetition, which is indicative of Broca’s dysphasia. This type of speech abnormality is associated with a lesion in the frontal lobe affecting Broca’s area. When responding to a conversation, the signal travels from the ear to Wernicke’s area for comprehension, then along the arcuate fasciculus to Broca’s area for speech coordination. A lesion in the cerebellum, occipital lobe, parietal lobe, or temporal lobe would not be associated with Broca’s dysphasia.
Understanding the Different Types of Aphasia
Aphasia is a language disorder that affects a person’s ability to communicate effectively. There are different types of aphasia, each with its own set of symptoms and causes. Wernicke’s aphasia is caused by a lesion in the superior temporal gyrus, which is responsible for forming speech before sending it to Broca’s area. This type of aphasia results in sentences that make no sense, word substitution, and neologisms, but speech remains fluent. On the other hand, Broca’s aphasia is caused by a lesion in the inferior frontal gyrus, resulting in non-fluent, laboured, and halting speech. Repetition is impaired, but comprehension is normal.
Conduction aphasia is caused by a stroke affecting the arcuate fasiculus, the connection between Wernicke’s and Broca’s area. Speech is fluent, but repetition is poor, and the person is aware of the errors they are making. Comprehension is normal. Global aphasia is the most severe type, affecting all three areas and resulting in severe expressive and receptive aphasia. However, the person may still be able to communicate using gestures.
Understanding the different types of aphasia is crucial in providing appropriate treatment and support for individuals with this language disorder. It is important to note that dysarthria is different from aphasia and refers to a motor speech disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 61-year-old man with a known history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, atrial fibrillation and epilepsy presents with a complaint of feeling generally unwell. He reports a blue tinge to his vision. Which medication is most likely responsible for this symptom?
Your Answer: Sildenafil
Explanation:Drug-induced visual alterations
Viagra, also known as ‘the blue pill’, can cause blue-tinted vision. Digoxin, on the other hand, may result in yellow-green vision.Understanding Phosphodiesterase Type V Inhibitors
Phosphodiesterase type V (PDE5) inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. These drugs work by increasing the levels of cGMP, which leads to the relaxation of smooth muscles in the blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which was the first drug of its kind. It is a short-acting medication that is usually taken one hour before sexual activity.
Other PDE5 inhibitors include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra). Tadalafil is longer-acting than sildenafil and can be taken on a regular basis, while vardenafil has a similar duration of action to sildenafil. However, these drugs are not suitable for everyone. Patients taking nitrates or related drugs, those with hypotension, and those who have had a recent stroke or myocardial infarction should not take PDE5 inhibitors.
Like all medications, PDE5 inhibitors can cause side effects. These may include visual disturbances, blue discolouration, non-arteritic anterior ischaemic neuropathy, nasal congestion, flushing, gastrointestinal side-effects, headache, and priapism. It is important to speak to a healthcare professional before taking any medication to ensure that it is safe and appropriate for you.
Overall, PDE5 inhibitors are an effective treatment for erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. However, they should only be used under the guidance of a healthcare professional and with careful consideration of the potential risks and benefits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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