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  • Question 1 - Which of the following is an atypical characteristic of PANDAS? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is an atypical characteristic of PANDAS?

      Your Answer: Tics

      Correct Answer: Hallucinations

      Explanation:

      PANDAS: A Disorder Linked to Streptococcal Infections

      PANDAS, of Pediatric Autoimmune Neuropsychiatric Disorders Associated with Streptococcal Infections, is a condition that affects children who develop sudden onset of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) and/of tic disorders like Tourette’s Syndrome after contracting strep infections such as Strep throat of Scarlet Fever. The National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) has identified five criteria for diagnosing PANDAS, including the presence of OCD and/of tic disorder, pediatric onset of symptoms, episodic course of symptom severity, association with group A Beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection, and association with neurological abnormalities. The anti streptococcal DNAse B (Anti DNAse-B) titre is commonly used to determine if there is immunologic evidence of a previous strep infection. PANDAS is linked to basal ganglia dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 20-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a two-week history of...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a two-week history of feeling 'on top of the world'. His girlfriend reports him being unusually irritable for the same period of time. He has only been having two hours of sleep each night for the past three nights but despite this says he feels full of energy. On examination he is extremely talkative, and his mood is liable. His girlfriend is concerned as for the past 24 hours he has been buying expensive items which they can't afford and do not need. He is admitted to a psychiatric ward for observation and continues to exhibit these signs for a further two days before he attempts to take his own life. His only psychiatric history is that of a moderate depressive illness six months ago which lasted two months.
      Which of the following do you most suspect?

      Your Answer: Bipolar I disorder

      Explanation:

      The individual exhibits symptoms of heightened mood and increased physical activity, indicating a possible episode of mania or hypomania. This presentation persists for a minimum of two weeks and necessitates hospitalization, meeting the criteria for a manic episode and thus a diagnosis of bipolar I disorder.

      Bipolar Disorder Diagnosis

      Bipolar and related disorders are mood disorders characterized by manic, mixed, of hypomanic episodes alternating with depressive episodes. The lifetime risk of suicide in individuals with bipolar disorder is estimated to be at least 15 times that of the general population. Under the ICD-11, there are three subtypes of bipolar disorder: Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymic disorder.

      Bipolar I disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one manic of mixed episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and manic of mixed episodes. Onset of the first mood episode most often occurs during the late teen years, but onset of bipolar type I can occur at any time through the life cycle. The lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorder is estimated to be around 2.1%.

      Bipolar II disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one hypomanic episode and at least one depressive episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and hypomanic episodes. Onset of bipolar type II most often occurs during the mid-twenties. The number of lifetime episodes tends to be higher for bipolar II disorder than for major depressive disorder of bipolar I disorder.

      Cyclothymic disorder is diagnosed when an individual experiences mood instability over an extended period of time characterized by numerous hypomanic and depressive periods. The symptoms are present for more days than not, and there is no history of manic or mixed episodes. The course of cyclothymic disorder is often gradual and persistent, and onset commonly occurs during adolescence of early adulthood.

      Rapid cycling is not a subtype of bipolar disorder but instead is a qualifier. It is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode. Rapid cycling is associated with an increased risk of suicide and tends to be precipitated by stressors such as life events, alcohol abuse, use of antidepressants, and medical disorders.

      Overall, the diagnosis of bipolar disorder requires careful evaluation of an individual’s symptoms and history. Treatment typically involves a combination of medication and psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 3 - A middle-aged man is experiencing fluctuations in his levels of cognition. His wife...

    Correct

    • A middle-aged man is experiencing fluctuations in his levels of cognition. His wife has also noticed that he appears to be 'seeing things' and has become unable to turn himself over when in bed. What do you suspect could be the cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Lewy body dementia

      Explanation:

      Lewy body dementia is a type of dementia that is becoming more recognized and accounts for up to 20% of cases. It is characterized by the presence of alpha-synuclein cytoplasmic inclusions (Lewy bodies) in certain areas of the brain. The relationship between Parkinson’s disease and Lewy body dementia is complex, as dementia is often seen in Parkinson’s disease and up to 40% of Alzheimer’s patients have Lewy bodies. Neuroleptics should be avoided in Lewy body dementia, except in cases of psychosis of aggression. Cholinesterase inhibitors are the first line of treatment for psychosis with Lewy body dementia, and antipsychotics are the second line. Clozapine is the preferred antipsychotic for Lewy body dementia, but if it is not appropriate, quetiapine is a reasonable choice. The features of Lewy body dementia include progressive cognitive impairment, parkinsonism, visual hallucinations, and other symptoms such as delusions and non-visual hallucinations. Additional features that support the diagnosis include fluctuating cognition, repeated falls, syncope, and neuroleptic sensitivity. Diagnosis is usually clinical, but single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) is increasingly used with a sensitivity of around 90% and a specificity of 100%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      19.6
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  • Question 4 - How can depression manifest as a physical symptom in the body? ...

    Correct

    • How can depression manifest as a physical symptom in the body?

      Your Answer: Loss of emotional reactivity

      Explanation:

      Depression (Biological Symptoms)

      Depression can be classified into biological (physical) of psychological symptoms. The terms used to describe biological symptoms include somatic, vital, melancholic, and endogeno morphic. These terms are used interchangeably in exams, so it is important to be familiar with them.

      Biological symptoms of depression include decreased appetite, weight loss, lack of emotional reactivity, anhedonia, early morning waking, depression worse in the mornings, psychomotor changes (retardation and agitation), fatigue, reduced libido, constipation, and insomnia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 5 - What is the increased likelihood of individuals with learning disabilities developing schizophrenia compared...

    Incorrect

    • What is the increased likelihood of individuals with learning disabilities developing schizophrenia compared to the general population?

      Your Answer: 2

      Correct Answer: 3

      Explanation:

      Learning Disability and comorbid Psychiatric Illness

      It is estimated that 30-50% of adults with learning disabilities also experience mental health problems, including problem behavior. Specific prevalence rates for various mental health disorders in this population have been identified through research. For example, psychotic disorders are present in 4% of adults with learning disabilities, while affective disorders are present in 6%. Autism is the most prevalent disorder, affecting 7.5% of this population.

      It is important to note that major depressive disorder can occur at all IQ levels in people with learning disabilities, but may be missed of misinterpreted as challenging behavior. Additionally, individuals with learning disabilities are more susceptible to the negative effects of life events and may develop adjustment disorder. Post-traumatic stress disorder is also common in this population.

      Stimulant drugs may be less effective in children with learning disabilities and should be used with caution in individuals with Tourette’s of autism, as they may trigger tics. Overall, it is crucial to recognize and address comorbid psychiatric illness in individuals with learning disabilities to ensure appropriate treatment and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Learning Disability
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  • Question 6 - Which concept of idea is closely associated with the use of estimated of...

    Correct

    • Which concept of idea is closely associated with the use of estimated of rough answers?

      Your Answer: Ganser's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Ganser’s syndrome is a disputed diagnosis that typically involves vague responses, confusion, physical symptoms without a clear medical explanation, false perceptions, and memory loss for the time when the symptoms were present. It is commonly observed in incarcerated individuals awaiting trial and seems to be a manifestation of their perception of what a mental illness entails. As a result, some experts argue that it is a type of feigning illness. Ganser’s syndrome is classified as a dissociative disorder.

      Somatoform and dissociative disorders are two groups of psychiatric disorders that are characterized by physical symptoms and disruptions in the normal integration of identity, sensations, perceptions, affects, thoughts, memories, control over bodily movements, of behavior. Somatoform disorders are characterized by physical symptoms that are presumed to have a psychiatric origin, while dissociative disorders are characterized by the loss of integration between memories, identity, immediate sensations, and control of bodily movements. The ICD-11 lists two main types of somatoform disorders: bodily distress disorder and body integrity dysphoria. Dissociative disorders include dissociative neurological symptom disorder, dissociative amnesia, trance disorder, possession trance disorder, dissociative identity disorder, partial dissociative identity disorder, depersonalization-derealization disorder, and other specified dissociative disorders. The symptoms of these disorders result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning. Diagnosis of these disorders involves a thorough evaluation of the individual’s symptoms and medical history, as well as ruling out other possible causes of the symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 7 - What is a fundamental characteristic of oneiroid psychosis? ...

    Correct

    • What is a fundamental characteristic of oneiroid psychosis?

      Your Answer: Dream-like state

      Explanation:

      Oneiroid psychosis is not considered a subtype of schizophrenia, but rather a condition where a patient is in a dream-like state, experiencing their own version of reality. Those in an oneiroid state often feel confused and disoriented in terms of time, location, and identity.

      – Schizophrenia and other primary psychotic disorders are characterized by impairments in reality testing and alterations in behavior.
      – Schizophrenia is a chronic mental health disorder with symptoms including delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech of behavior, and impaired cognitive ability.
      – The essential features of schizophrenia include persistent delusions, persistent hallucinations, disorganized thinking, experiences of influence, passivity of control, negative symptoms, grossly disorganized behavior, and psychomotor disturbances.
      – Schizoaffective disorder is diagnosed when all diagnostic requirements for schizophrenia are met concurrently with mood symptoms that meet the diagnostic requirements of a moderate or severe depressive episode, a manic episode, of a mixed episode.
      – Schizotypal disorder is an enduring pattern of unusual speech, perceptions, beliefs, and behaviors that are not of sufficient intensity of duration to meet the diagnostic requirements of schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, of delusional disorder.
      – Acute and transient psychotic disorder is characterized by an acute onset of psychotic symptoms, which can include delusions, hallucinations, disorganized thinking, of experiences of influence, passivity of control, that emerge without a prodrome, progressing from a non-psychotic state to a clearly psychotic state within 2 weeks.
      – Delusional disorder is diagnosed when there is a presence of a delusion of set of related delusions, typically persisting for at least 3 months and often much longer, in the absence of a depressive, manic, of mixed episode.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 8 - In the initial phases of Parkinson's disease, what type of hallucinations are more...

    Incorrect

    • In the initial phases of Parkinson's disease, what type of hallucinations are more commonly observed?

      Your Answer: Autoscopic hallucinations

      Correct Answer: Passage hallucinations

      Explanation:

      Parkinson’s Disease: Presentation, Aetiology, Medical Treatment, and Psychiatric Aspects

      Parkinson’s disease is a degenerative disease of the brain that is characterised by motor symptoms such as rigidity, bradykinesia, and tremor. It has a long prodromal phase and early symptoms generally present asymmetrically. The tremor associated with Parkinson’s disease is classically described as ‘pill rolling’. The principle abnormality is the degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the pars compacta of the substantia nigra, which leads to an accumulation of alpha-synuclein in these abnormal dopaminergic cells. The majority of cases of Parkinson’s disease are idiopathic, but single gene mutations occur in a minority of cases. Pesticide, herbicide, and heavy metal exposures are linked to an increased risk of Parkinson’s disease in some epidemiologic studies, whereas smoking and caffeine use are associated with decreased risks.

      Treatment for Parkinson’s disease predominantly focuses on symptomatic relief with drugs aiming to either restore the level of dopamine in the striatum of to act on striatal postsynaptic dopamine receptors. However, as dopamine is not the only neurotransmitter involved in Parkinson’s disease, many other drugs are also being used to target specific symptoms, such as depression of dementia. Psychiatric symptoms are common in Parkinson’s disease and range from mild to severe. Factors associated with severe symptoms include age, sleep disturbance, dementia, and disease severity. Hallucinations are common in Parkinson’s disease and tend to be visual but can be auditory of tactile. In the majority of patients, psychotic symptoms are thought to be secondary to dopaminergic medication rather than due to the Parkinson’s disease itself. Anticholinergics and dopamine agonists seem to be associated with a higher risk of inducing psychosis than levodopa of catechol-O-methyltransferase inhibitors. Medications used for psychotic symptoms may worsen movement problems. Risperidone and the typicals should be avoided completely. Low dose quetiapine is the best tolerated. Clozapine is the most effective antipsychotic drug for treating psychosis in Parkinson’s disease but its use in clinical practice is limited by the need for monitoring and the additional physical risks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 9 - What term is commonly used in reference to the type of therapy offered...

    Correct

    • What term is commonly used in reference to the type of therapy offered to dysfunctional families known as strategic family therapy?

      Your Answer: Task setting

      Explanation:

      Family Therapy Models

      Family therapy emerged in the 1950s, shifting the focus from individual problems to the context of the environment. There are five main models of family therapy: structural, strategic, systemic, transgenerational, and solution-focused.

      Structural therapy, developed by Salvador Minuchin, assumes that the family’s structure is wrong and aims to establish clear boundaries and no coalitions. Dysfunctional families are marked by impaired boundaries, inappropriate alignments, and power imbalances.

      Strategic therapy, associated with Jay Haley and Cloe Madanes, claims that difficulties in families arise due to distorted hierarchies. Dysfunctional families communicate in problematic repetitive patterns that kept them dysfunctional. Key terms include task setting and goal setting.

      Systemic therapy, associated with Mara Selvini-Palazzoli, sees the family as a self-regulating system that controls itself according to rules formed over time. The focus is on exploring differences between family members’ behaviors, emotional responses, and beliefs at different points in time. Key terms include hypothesizing, neutrality, positive connotation, paradox and counterparadox, circular and interventive questioning, and the use of reflecting teams.

      Transgenerational family therapy aims to understand how families, across generations, develop patterns of behaving and responding to stress in ways that prevent health development and lead to problems. Seven interlocking concepts make up the theory.

      Solution-focused therapy emphasizes solutions over problems and collaborates with the family through in-depth questioning to focus on the solutions already being used by the clients. The therapist is non-interventionist, and the focus is on the present and the future. Blame, shame, and conflict are seen as issues that impede people from realizing these solutions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following signs of symptoms would indicate hypoactive delirium? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following signs of symptoms would indicate hypoactive delirium?

      Your Answer: Hallucinations

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      The only symptom that indicates hypoactive delirium is facial inexpression, while the rest of the symptoms suggest hyperactive delirium.

      Delirium (also known as acute confusional state) is a condition characterized by a sudden decline in consciousness and cognition, with a particular impairment in attention. It often involves perceptual disturbances, abnormal psychomotor activity, and sleep-wake cycle impairment. Delirium typically develops over a few days and has a fluctuating course. The causes of delirium are varied, ranging from metabolic disturbances to medications. It is important to differentiate delirium from dementia, as delirium has a brief onset, early disorientation, clouding of consciousness, fluctuating course, and early psychomotor changes. Delirium can be classified into three subtypes: hypoactive, hyperactive, and mixed. Patients with hyperactive delirium demonstrate restlessness, agitation, and hyper vigilance, while those with hypoactive delirium present with lethargy and sedation. Mixed delirium demonstrates both hyperactive and hypoactive features. The hypoactive form is most common in elderly patients and is often misdiagnosed as depression of dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      34.8
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  • Question 11 - Which intervention has the strongest evidence for its effectiveness in managing non-cognitive symptoms...

    Correct

    • Which intervention has the strongest evidence for its effectiveness in managing non-cognitive symptoms of dementia?

      Your Answer: Music therapy

      Explanation:

      Out of the given options, music therapy has the most compelling evidence to back up its effectiveness (Maudsley 14th). The remaining choices have either not demonstrated any positive outcomes of lack sufficient evidence to support their use.

      Management of Non-Cognitive Symptoms in Dementia

      Non-cognitive symptoms of dementia can include agitation, aggression, distress, psychosis, depression, anxiety, sleep problems, wandering, hoarding, sexual disinhibition, apathy, and shouting. Non-pharmacological measures, such as music therapy, should be considered before prescribing medication. Pain may cause agitation, so a trial of analgesics is recommended. Antipsychotics, such as risperidone, olanzapine, and aripiprazole, may be used for severe distress of serious risk to others, but their use is controversial due to issues of tolerability and an association with increased mortality. Cognitive enhancers, such as AChE-Is and memantine, may have a modest benefit on BPSD, but their effects may take 3-6 months to take effect. Benzodiazepines should be avoided except in emergencies, and antidepressants, such as citalopram and trazodone, may have mixed evidence for BPSD. Mood stabilizers, such as valproate and carbamazepine, have limited evidence to support their use. Sedating antihistamines, such as promethazine, may cause cognitive impairment and should only be used short-term. Melatonin has limited evidence to support its use but is safe to use and may be justified in some cases where benefits are seen. For Lewy Body dementia, clozapine is favored over risperidone, and quetiapine may be a reasonable choice if clozapine is not appropriate. Overall, medication should only be used when non-pharmacological measures are ineffective, and the need is balanced with the increased risk of adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What is the active ingredient in subutex? ...

    Correct

    • What is the active ingredient in subutex?

      Your Answer: Buprenorphine

      Explanation:

      Suboxone vs. Subutex: What’s the Difference?

      Suboxone and Subutex are both medications used to treat opioid addiction. However, there are some key differences between the two.

      Suboxone is a combination of buprenorphine and naloxone. The naloxone is added to prevent people from injecting the medication, as this was a common problem with pure buprenorphine tablets. If someone tries to inject Suboxone, the naloxone will cause intense withdrawal symptoms. However, if the tablet is swallowed as directed, the naloxone is not absorbed by the gut and does not cause any problems.

      Subutex, on the other hand, contains only buprenorphine and does not include naloxone. This means that it may be more likely to be abused by injection, as there is no deterrent to prevent people from doing so.

      Overall, both Suboxone and Subutex can be effective treatments for opioid addiction, but Suboxone may be a safer choice due to the addition of naloxone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 13 - What is the most frequently diagnosed condition in cases of arson? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most frequently diagnosed condition in cases of arson?

      Your Answer: Alcohol use disorder

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of alcohol use disorder encompasses both alcohol misuse and dependence, and is a wide-ranging classification.

      Arson and Mental Health: Prevalence and Characteristics

      The National Epidemiologic Survey on Alcohol and Related Conditions (NESARC) conducted a study to determine the extent of intentional firesetting in the general adult population. This study is the first of its kind worldwide. The results of the study revealed that alcohol use disorder was the most common diagnosis among fire setters. Additionally, the study found that there were high rates of antisocial personality disorder among fire setters.

      The findings of the NESARC study shed light on the prevalence and characteristics of arson as a mental disorder. The study highlights the need for further research and understanding of the relationship between mental health and firesetting behavior. By gaining a better understanding of the underlying causes of arson, mental health professionals can develop more effective prevention and treatment strategies for individuals who struggle with this disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
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  • Question 14 - What is the term used to describe the rate at which new cases...

    Correct

    • What is the term used to describe the rate at which new cases of a disease are appearing, calculated by dividing the number of new cases by the total time that disease-free individuals are observed during a study period?

      Your Answer: Incidence rate

      Explanation:

      Measures of Disease Frequency: Incidence and Prevalence

      Incidence and prevalence are two important measures of disease frequency. Incidence measures the speed at which new cases of a disease are emerging, while prevalence measures the burden of disease within a population. Cumulative incidence and incidence rate are two types of incidence measures, while point prevalence and period prevalence are two types of prevalence measures.

      Cumulative incidence is the average risk of getting a disease over a certain period of time, while incidence rate is a measure of the speed at which new cases are emerging. Prevalence is a proportion and is a measure of the burden of disease within a population. Point prevalence measures the number of cases in a defined population at a specific point in time, while period prevalence measures the number of identified cases during a specified period of time.

      It is important to note that prevalence is equal to incidence multiplied by the duration of the condition. In chronic diseases, the prevalence is much greater than the incidence. The incidence rate is stated in units of person-time, while cumulative incidence is always a proportion. When describing cumulative incidence, it is necessary to give the follow-up period over which the risk is estimated. In acute diseases, the prevalence and incidence may be similar, while for conditions such as the common cold, the incidence may be greater than the prevalence.

      Incidence is a useful measure to study disease etiology and risk factors, while prevalence is useful for health resource planning. Understanding these measures of disease frequency is important for public health professionals and researchers in order to effectively monitor and address the burden of disease within populations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      18.5
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  • Question 15 - What antidepressant is considered effective and well-tolerated in elderly patients, but has a...

    Incorrect

    • What antidepressant is considered effective and well-tolerated in elderly patients, but has a notable risk of liver injury and therefore necessitates frequent monitoring of liver function?

      Your Answer: Trazodone

      Correct Answer: Agomelatine

      Explanation:

      Agomelatine should be taken orally at bedtime, with a recommended starting dose of 25 mg once daily. The dose may be increased to 50 mg once daily. However, it is important to note that cases of liver injury, including hepatic failure, have been reported in patients taking agomelatine, particularly in those with pre-existing liver conditions. Liver function tests should be performed before starting treatment, and treatment should not be initiated if transaminases exceed 3 times the upper limit of normal. During treatment, transaminases should be monitored periodically at three weeks, six weeks (end of acute phase), twelve weeks, and twenty-four weeks (end of maintenance phase), and thereafter when clinically indicated. If transaminases exceed 3 times the upper limit of normal, treatment should be discontinued. When increasing the dosage, liver function tests should be performed at the same frequency as when initiating treatment.

      Antidepressants in the Elderly: Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition Summary

      Antidepressants have a similar response rate in the elderly as in younger adults, but factors such as physical illness, anxiety, and reduced executive functioning can affect prognosis. SSRIs and TCAs are equally effective, but TCAs have higher withdrawal rates in the elderly. NICE recommends starting with an SSRI, then trying another SSRI of a newer generation antidepressant if there is no response. If this fails, an antidepressant from a different class can be considered, but caution is needed with TCAs and MAOIs due to adverse effects and drug interactions. There is no ideal antidepressant for elderly patients, and choice should be based on individual cases. SSRIs are generally better tolerated than TCAs, but increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeds, hyponatremia, and falls. Agomelatine is effective and well-tolerated in older patients, but requires frequent liver function tests. Fish oils are probably not effective, and highly anticholinergic medicines increase the risk of dementia. Elderly patients may take longer to respond to antidepressants, and it is recommended that they continue taking them for at least 2 years following remission.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 16 - A 48 year old man with a long history of alcohol dependence presents...

    Correct

    • A 48 year old man with a long history of alcohol dependence presents to A&E with confusion and ataxia. Further enquiry reveals several weeks of diarrhoea and low mood. On examination you note a symmetrical rash limited to sun-exposed sites.

      What vitamin deficiency is suggested by these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Vitamin B3

      Explanation:

      The symptoms indicate a possible case of pellagra, a condition caused by a deficiency in vitamin B3 (niacin). Pellagra can also cause ataxia. It is important to note that vitamin B1 is thiamine, and vitamin B2 is riboflavin.

      Pellagra: A Vitamin B3 Deficiency Disease

      Pellagra is a disease caused by a lack of vitamin B3 (niacin) in the body. The name pellagra comes from the Italian words pelle agra, which means rough of sour skin. This disease is common in developing countries where corn is a major food source, of during prolonged disasters like famine of war. In developed countries, pellagra is rare because many foods are fortified with niacin. However, alcoholism is a common cause of pellagra in developed countries. Alcohol dependence can worsen pellagra by causing malnutrition, gastrointestinal problems, and B vitamin deficiencies. It can also inhibit the conversion of tryptophan to niacin and promote the accumulation of 5-ALA and porphyrins.

      Pellagra affects a wide range of organs and tissues in the body, so its symptoms can vary. The classic symptoms of pellagra are known as the three Ds: diarrhea, dermatitis, and dementia. Niacin deficiency can cause dementia, depression, mania, and psychosis, which is called pellagra psychosis. The most noticeable symptom of pellagra is dermatitis, which is a hyperpigmented rash that appears on sun-exposed areas of the skin. This rash is usually symmetrical and bilateral, and it is often described as Casal’s necklace when it appears on the neck.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 17 - What is a known factor that can lead to inaccurate positive results for...

    Incorrect

    • What is a known factor that can lead to inaccurate positive results for amphetamine on drug screening tests?

      Your Answer: Naltrexone

      Correct Answer: Atomoxetine

      Explanation:

      Drug Screening

      Drug testing can be conducted through various methods, but urinalysis is the most common. Urine drug tests can be either screening of confirmatory. Screening tests use enzymatic immunoassays to detect drug metabolites of classes of drug metabolites in the urine. However, these tests have limitations, such as false positives due to cross-reactivity. Therefore, any positive test should be confirmed through gas chromatography of mass spectrometry.

      People may try to manipulate drug testing procedures by adulterating the sample. Normal urine parameters, such as temperature, specific gravity, and pH, can assist in detecting adulterated samples. Adulterants include household items like vinegar, detergent, and ammonia, as well as commercially available products. Diluted urine may also yield false negatives.

      Detection times vary from person to person, and the approximate drug detection time in urine can be found in a table provided by Nelson (2016). False positives can occur due to cross-reactivity, as illustrated by Moeller (2017). Clinicians should be aware of the limitations of urine drug tests and the potential for manipulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 18 - What is the duration of time that LSD can be detected in urine...

    Correct

    • What is the duration of time that LSD can be detected in urine based on the presence of its metabolite (2-oxo-3-hydroxy-LSD)?

      Your Answer: 5 days

      Explanation:

      The latest LSD immunoassays are created to detect 2-oxo-3-hydroxy-LSD, the main metabolite that can be found in higher concentrations in urine, potentially enhancing the accuracy of detection.

      Drug Screening

      Drug testing can be conducted through various methods, but urinalysis is the most common. Urine drug tests can be either screening of confirmatory. Screening tests use enzymatic immunoassays to detect drug metabolites of classes of drug metabolites in the urine. However, these tests have limitations, such as false positives due to cross-reactivity. Therefore, any positive test should be confirmed through gas chromatography of mass spectrometry.

      People may try to manipulate drug testing procedures by adulterating the sample. Normal urine parameters, such as temperature, specific gravity, and pH, can assist in detecting adulterated samples. Adulterants include household items like vinegar, detergent, and ammonia, as well as commercially available products. Diluted urine may also yield false negatives.

      Detection times vary from person to person, and the approximate drug detection time in urine can be found in a table provided by Nelson (2016). False positives can occur due to cross-reactivity, as illustrated by Moeller (2017). Clinicians should be aware of the limitations of urine drug tests and the potential for manipulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 19 - What is true about the treatment of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is true about the treatment of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder?

      Your Answer: Lisdexamfetamine is not considered first-line treatment for a 10-year-old child with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder

      Correct Answer: Stimulant medications should be discontinued in those with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder who develop symptoms of mania

      Explanation:

      ADHD (Diagnosis and Management in Children)

      ADHD is a behavioural syndrome characterised by symptoms of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 provide diagnostic criteria for the condition, with both recognising three subtypes: predominantly inattentive, predominantly hyperactive-impulsive, and combined.

      Treatment for children under 5 involves offering an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme as a first-line option. Medication should only be considered after obtaining advice from a specialist ADHD service. For children and young people aged 5-18, advice and support should be given, along with an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme. Medication should only be offered if ADHD symptoms persist after environmental modifications have been implemented and reviewed. Cognitive behavioural therapy may also be considered for those who have benefited from medication but still experience significant impairment.

      NICE advises against elimination diets, dietary fatty acid supplementation, and the use of the ‘few foods diet’. Methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine is the first-line medication option, with dexamphetamine considered for those who respond to lisdexamfetamine but cannot tolerate the longer effect profile. Atomoxetine of guanfacine may be offered for those who cannot tolerate methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine. Clonidine and atypical antipsychotics should only be used with advice from a tertiary ADHD service.

      Drug holidays may be considered for children and young people who have not met the expected height for their age due to medication. However, NICE advises that withdrawal from treatment is associated with a risk of symptom exacerbation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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  • Question 20 - What is the definition of a condition that involves a decline in memory...

    Correct

    • What is the definition of a condition that involves a decline in memory and at least one other cognitive domain, leading to interference with social and occupational function in an alert individual?

      Your Answer: Dementia

      Explanation:

      Dementia: An Overview

      Dementia is a syndrome that results in a decline in memory and at least one other cognitive domain, such as language, visuospatial of executive functioning. This decline is significant enough to interfere with social and occupational function in an alert person. The diagnosis of dementia is based on evidence of neurocognitive impairment, which is demonstrated by standardized neuropsychological of cognitive testing. Behavioural changes may also be present, and the symptoms result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning.

      Epidemiology

      The total population prevalence of dementia among over 65s is 7.1%, which equals 1.3% of the entire UK population. Alzheimer’s disease is the most common cause of dementia in the UK, followed by vascular and Lewy body dementia. These conditions may coexist. The proportions of dementia severity among people with late-onset dementia are as follows: 55.4% have mild dementia, 32.1% have moderate dementia, and 12.5% have severe dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 21 - You have been tasked with examining the potential advantage of establishing a program...

    Correct

    • You have been tasked with examining the potential advantage of establishing a program to assist elderly patients with panic disorder in the nearby region. What is the primary consideration in determining the amount of resources needed?

      Your Answer: Prevalence

      Explanation:

      Measures of Disease Frequency: Incidence and Prevalence

      Incidence and prevalence are two important measures of disease frequency. Incidence measures the speed at which new cases of a disease are emerging, while prevalence measures the burden of disease within a population. Cumulative incidence and incidence rate are two types of incidence measures, while point prevalence and period prevalence are two types of prevalence measures.

      Cumulative incidence is the average risk of getting a disease over a certain period of time, while incidence rate is a measure of the speed at which new cases are emerging. Prevalence is a proportion and is a measure of the burden of disease within a population. Point prevalence measures the number of cases in a defined population at a specific point in time, while period prevalence measures the number of identified cases during a specified period of time.

      It is important to note that prevalence is equal to incidence multiplied by the duration of the condition. In chronic diseases, the prevalence is much greater than the incidence. The incidence rate is stated in units of person-time, while cumulative incidence is always a proportion. When describing cumulative incidence, it is necessary to give the follow-up period over which the risk is estimated. In acute diseases, the prevalence and incidence may be similar, while for conditions such as the common cold, the incidence may be greater than the prevalence.

      Incidence is a useful measure to study disease etiology and risk factors, while prevalence is useful for health resource planning. Understanding these measures of disease frequency is important for public health professionals and researchers in order to effectively monitor and address the burden of disease within populations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 22 - What is the likelihood of spina bifida occurring in a fetus if a...

    Correct

    • What is the likelihood of spina bifida occurring in a fetus if a pregnant woman is prescribed Epilim?

      Your Answer: 1 in 100

      Explanation:

      Valproate Use During Pregnancy Can Cause Birth Defects and Developmental Problems in Children

      Valproate is a medication that is commonly used to treat epilepsy and bipolar disorder. However, when taken by pregnant women, it can cause serious birth defects in their babies. Studies have shown that around 1 in 10 babies born to women who took valproate during pregnancy will have a birth defect. These defects can include malformations of the spine, face, skull, limbs, heart, kidney, urinary tract, and sexual organs.

      In addition to birth defects, children exposed to valproate in the womb may also experience developmental problems. About 3-4 children in every 10 may have issues with learning to walk and talk, lower intelligence than their peers, poor speech and language skills, and memory problems. There is also evidence to suggest that these children may be at a higher risk of developing autism or autistic spectrum disorders, as well as symptoms of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).

      It is important for women who are pregnant of planning to become pregnant to discuss the risks and benefits of taking valproate with their healthcare provider. Alternative medications of treatment options may be available that are safer for both the mother and the developing baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 23 - Out of the options provided, which technique is the least commonly utilized in...

    Incorrect

    • Out of the options provided, which technique is the least commonly utilized in cognitive behavioural therapy?

      Your Answer: Socratic questioning

      Correct Answer: Paradoxical Injunction

      Explanation:

      The paradoxical injunction is a technique utilized to deter undesired actions by encouraging the individual to engage in the behavior in question. This method can be highly successful, but it also carries potential hazards and should only be employed in specific, well-considered situations. An example of this approach would be to suggest that an individual who frequently engages in self-harm should do so.

      Cognitive Behavioural Therapy (CBT): Basic Principles

      CBT is a form of psychotherapy that focuses on the relationship between thoughts, feelings, and behaviours. The central elements of CBT include collaborative empiricism, problem-orientated focus, short-term treatment for uncomplicated disorders, structured methods, psychoeducation, and homework.

      Collaborative empiricism involves the therapist and client working together to identify and test the client’s beliefs and assumptions. The problem-orientated focus means that therapy is focused on specific problems of symptoms that the client is experiencing. CBT is typically a short-term treatment for uncomplicated disorders, with a focus on achieving measurable goals within a limited number of sessions.

      Structured methods are used in CBT to help clients identify and challenge negative thoughts and behaviours. Psychoeducation involves teaching clients about the relationship between thoughts, feelings, and behaviours. Homework is often assigned to help clients practice new skills and reinforce what they have learned in therapy.

      Cognitive methods used in CBT include Socratic questioning, guided discovery, examining the evidence, identifying cognitive errors, thought change records, generating rational alternatives, imagery, role play, and rehearsal. Behavioural methods used in CBT include activity and pleasant event scheduling, graded task assignments, exposure and response prevention, relaxation training, breathing training, and coping cards.

      In summary, CBT is a structured, problem-focused, and collaborative approach to therapy that aims to help clients identify and challenge negative thoughts and behaviours. It is a short-term treatment that uses a range of cognitive and behavioural methods to achieve measurable goals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
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  • Question 24 - What condition has been linked to a more affluent social status? ...

    Correct

    • What condition has been linked to a more affluent social status?

      Your Answer: Anorexia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Social Status and Psychiatric Disorders

      Research has shown that certain psychiatric disorders are more prevalent in lower social classes. These disorders include schizophrenia, personality disorder, alcohol dependence, and major depression. On the other hand, anorexia nervosa has been found to be more common in higher social classes. These findings suggest a relationship between social status and mental health, with individuals from lower social classes being at a higher risk for certain psychiatric disorders. This information can be useful in developing targeted interventions and support for individuals from lower social classes who may be struggling with mental health issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
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  • Question 25 - Within what timeframe after giving birth should women requiring inpatient treatment for a...

    Incorrect

    • Within what timeframe after giving birth should women requiring inpatient treatment for a mental disorder be admitted to a specialized mother and baby unit, as per the guidelines of NICE?

      Your Answer: 0 - 6 weeks

      Correct Answer: 0 - 12 months

      Explanation:

      Mothers who require hospitalization for a mental illness within a year of delivering a baby should be admitted to a dedicated facility that specializes in caring for both the mother and her infant.

      Paroxetine Use During Pregnancy: Is it Safe?

      Prescribing medication during pregnancy and breastfeeding is challenging due to the potential risks to the fetus of baby. No psychotropic medication has a UK marketing authorization specifically for pregnant of breastfeeding women. Women are encouraged to breastfeed unless they are taking carbamazepine, clozapine, of lithium. The risk of spontaneous major malformation is 2-3%, with drugs accounting for approximately 5% of all abnormalities. Valproate and carbamazepine are associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects, and lithium is associated with cardiac malformations. Benzodiazepines are associated with oral clefts and floppy baby syndrome. Antidepressants have been linked to preterm delivery and congenital malformation, but most findings have been inconsistent. TCAs have been used widely without apparent detriment to the fetus, but their use in the third trimester is known to produce neonatal withdrawal effects. Sertraline appears to result in the least placental exposure among SSRIs. MAOIs should be avoided in pregnancy due to a suspected increased risk of congenital malformations and hypertensive crisis. If a pregnant woman is stable on an antipsychotic and likely to relapse without medication, she should continue the antipsychotic. Depot antipsychotics should not be offered to pregnant of breastfeeding women unless they have a history of non-adherence with oral medication. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest specific drugs for use during pregnancy and breastfeeding. NICE CG192 recommends high-intensity psychological interventions for moderate to severe depression and anxiety disorders. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with mania of psychosis who are not taking psychotropic medication. Promethazine is recommended for insomnia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 26 - A 65-year-old individual on clozapine develops neutropenia. Despite trying all other antipsychotics without...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old individual on clozapine develops neutropenia. Despite trying all other antipsychotics without success, they had a positive response to clozapine. Is there a known medication that, when used in combination with clozapine, has been shown to increase the white cell count and allow for continued treatment?

      Your Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 27 - A study reports that 76 percent of the subjects receiving fluvoxamine versus 29...

    Correct

    • A study reports that 76 percent of the subjects receiving fluvoxamine versus 29 percent of the placebo group were treatment responders. Based on this data, what is the number needed to treat?

      Your Answer: 2.12

      Explanation:

      To determine the number needed to treat (NNT), we first calculated the absolute risk reduction (ARR) using the formula ARR = CER – EER, where CER is the control event rate and EER is the experimental event rate. In this case, the ARR was 0.47, which is the reciprocal of the NNT. Therefore, the NNT was calculated as 2.12. This means that for every two patients treated with the active medication, at least one patient will have a better outcome compared to those treated with a placebo.

      Measures of Effect in Clinical Studies

      When conducting clinical studies, we often want to know the effect of treatments of exposures on health outcomes. Measures of effect are used in randomized controlled trials (RCTs) and include the odds ratio (of), risk ratio (RR), risk difference (RD), and number needed to treat (NNT). Dichotomous (binary) outcome data are common in clinical trials, where the outcome for each participant is one of two possibilities, such as dead of alive, of clinical improvement of no improvement.

      To understand the difference between of and RR, it’s important to know the difference between risks and odds. Risk is a proportion that describes the probability of a health outcome occurring, while odds is a ratio that compares the probability of an event occurring to the probability of it not occurring. Absolute risk is the basic risk, while risk difference is the difference between the absolute risk of an event in the intervention group and the absolute risk in the control group. Relative risk is the ratio of risk in the intervention group to the risk in the control group.

      The number needed to treat (NNT) is the number of patients who need to be treated for one to benefit. Odds are calculated by dividing the number of times an event happens by the number of times it does not happen. The odds ratio is the odds of an outcome given a particular exposure versus the odds of an outcome in the absence of the exposure. It is commonly used in case-control studies and can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs. An odds ratio of 1 indicates no difference in risk between the two groups, while an odds ratio >1 indicates an increased risk and an odds ratio <1 indicates a reduced risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 28 - The terms anima and animus are linked to which of the following post-Freudian...

    Correct

    • The terms anima and animus are linked to which of the following post-Freudian psychologists?

      Your Answer: Carl Jung

      Explanation:

      Neo-Freudians were therapists who developed their own theories while still retaining core Freudian components. Some important neo-Freudians include Alfred Adler, Carl Jung, Erik Erickson, Harry Stack Sullivan, Wilfred Bion, John Bowlby, Anna Freud, Otto Kernberg, Margaret Mahler, and Donald Winnicott. Each of these individuals contributed unique ideas to the field of psychology. For example, Carl Jung introduced the concept of the persona and differentiated between the personal and collective unconscious, while Erik Erickson is known for his stages of psychosocial development. Margaret Mahler developed theories on child development, including the three main phases of autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. Donald Winnicott introduced the concept of the transitional object and the good enough mother. Overall, neo-Freudians expanded upon Freud’s ideas and helped to shape modern psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
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  • Question 29 - You are part of a team creating a community program for adolescents with...

    Incorrect

    • You are part of a team creating a community program for adolescents with Conduct Disorder, aimed at reducing their likelihood of re-offending. The program will offer both individual and group-based psychological interventions.
      Which psychological treatment would be most suitable to provide?

      Your Answer: Accredited group programmes

      Correct Answer: Mentalisation based therapy

      Explanation:

      Mentalisation based therapy (MBT) has shown effectiveness in treating patients with Personality Disorders by helping them understand their own and others’ actions based on intentional mental states such as desires, feelings, and beliefs. While psychoanalytically oriented, it is fully manualised and may be a helpful underlying theory for the service. However, individual psychoanalytic therapy may not be the first line of treatment due to its long delivery time and patient tolerance issues. Individual behavioural therapy and accredited group programmes are easier to run but may not address the complexities of this client group. Other evidence-based psychological treatments for personality disorders include CBT, DBT, schema therapy, CAT, transference-focused psychotherapy, and therapeutic communities (non-forensic).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
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  • Question 30 - What is the visual assessment that must be conducted before starting therapy and...

    Incorrect

    • What is the visual assessment that must be conducted before starting therapy and every 3 months thereafter until treatment is stopped?

      Your Answer: Lamotrigine

      Correct Answer: Vigabatrin

      Explanation:

      The use of Vigabatrin may lead to permanent visual field constriction in both eyes, causing tunnel vision and potential disability. Additionally, it may harm the central retina and result in reduced visual acuity.

      Antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) are commonly used for the treatment of epilepsy, but many of them also have mood stabilizing properties and are used for the prophylaxis and treatment of bipolar disorder. However, some AEDs carry product warnings for serious side effects such as hepatic failure, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia, and skin reactions. Additionally, some AEDs have been associated with an increased risk of suicidal behavior and ideation.

      Behavioral side-effects associated with AEDs include depression, aberrant behaviors, and the development of worsening of irritability, impulsivity, anger, hostility, and aggression. Aggression can occur before, after, of in between seizures. Some AEDs are considered to carry a higher risk of aggression, including levetiracetam, perampanel, and topiramate. However, data on the specific risk of aggression for other AEDs is lacking of mixed. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of AEDs when prescribing them for patients with epilepsy of bipolar disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Child And Adolescent Psychiatry (0/2) 0%
General Adult Psychiatry (6/8) 75%
Old Age Psychiatry (3/6) 50%
Learning Disability (0/1) 0%
Psychotherapy (3/5) 60%
Substance Misuse/Addictions (3/4) 75%
Forensic Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice (3/3) 100%
Passmed