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  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old male presents to his GP with a widespread itchy rash 24-hours...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male presents to his GP with a widespread itchy rash 24-hours after a spa day with his wife. The rash is mainly on his trunk and consists of small red bumps with a few containing pus. He has a history of well-managed type 2 diabetes and takes metformin. The doctor suspects 'hot-tub' folliculitis. What is the most probable organism responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus epidermis

      Correct Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

      Explanation:

      The most common cause of hot tub folliculitis is Pseudomonas aeruginosa, not Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. While Staphylococcus aureus can be found in spa water, it typically causes other skin infections and is not as resistant to chlorinated water as Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Streptococcus pyogenes, on the other hand, usually causes cellulitis through wound entry or pharyngitis/tonsillitis and is not commonly associated with hot tub folliculitis. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is well-suited to thrive in warm, moist environments like spas and can be resistant to chlorinated water. Treatment with gentamicin cream may be necessary in severe cases, but it is not typically required. Streptococcus pneumoniae is not a common cause of hot tub folliculitis and is susceptible to chlorinated water.

      Pseudomonas aeruginosa: A Gram-negative Rod Causing Various Infections

      Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in the environment. It is a Gram-negative rod that can cause a range of infections in humans. Some of the infections it causes include chest infections, skin infections such as burns and wound infections, otitis externa, and urinary tract infections.

      In the laboratory, Pseudomonas aeruginosa is identified as a Gram-negative rod that does not ferment lactose and is oxidase positive. The bacteria produce both an endotoxin and exotoxin A. The endotoxin causes fever and shock, while exotoxin A inhibits protein synthesis by catalyzing ADP-ribosylation of elongation factor EF-2.

      Overall, Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a pathogenic bacteria that can cause a variety of infections in humans. Its ability to produce toxins makes it particularly dangerous and difficult to treat. Proper hygiene and infection control measures can help prevent the spread of this bacteria.

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  • Question 2 - A 54-year-old male on the gastroenterology ward has been experiencing recurrent episodes of...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old male on the gastroenterology ward has been experiencing recurrent episodes of diarrhoea following the completion of antibiotics for severe community-acquired pneumonia.

      There is no significant medical history to report.

      The patient has a known allergy to metronidazole.

      The consultant has requested that you initiate treatment with vancomycin and discuss potential side effects with the patient.

      What adverse effect should be highlighted during this discussion?

      Your Answer: Risk of gastrointestinal upset

      Correct Answer: Risk of nephrotoxicity

      Explanation:

      Vancomycin can cause nephrotoxicity as an adverse effect, along with Redman’s syndrome and blood dyscrasias such as thrombocytopenia and neutropenia. Erythromycin is often linked to gastrointestinal upset, while flucloxacillin and amoxicillin are associated with cholestasis. Tendonitis is a known adverse effect of ciprofloxacin, and patients with mononucleosis may experience a rash when taking amoxicillin.

      Vancomycin is an antibiotic that is effective in treating infections caused by Gram-positive bacteria, especially those that are resistant to methicillin, such as Staphylococcus aureus. Its mechanism of action involves inhibiting the formation of the bacterial cell wall by binding to D-Ala-D-Ala moieties, which prevents the polymerization of peptidoglycans. However, bacteria can develop resistance to vancomycin by altering the terminal amino acid residues of the NAM/NAG-peptide subunits, which are the sites where the antibiotic binds.

      Despite its effectiveness, vancomycin can cause adverse effects such as nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, and thrombophlebitis. Rapid infusion of vancomycin can also lead to a condition called red man syndrome, which is characterized by flushing and itching of the skin. Therefore, it is important to use vancomycin only when necessary and under the guidance of a healthcare professional.

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  • Question 3 - A 2-day-old neonate is examined by a paediatrician for lethargy. The infant seems...

    Correct

    • A 2-day-old neonate is examined by a paediatrician for lethargy. The infant seems sleepy, and their mucous membranes appear dry. Upon measuring their blood glucose, it is found to be 32 mmol/L. A deficiency of a glycolytic enzyme that phosphorylates glucose in the liver and beta cells of the pancreas is suspected as the cause of an inborn error of metabolism.

      Which enzyme is the most likely to be affected?

      Your Answer: Glucokinase

      Explanation:

      Glucose is phosphorylated to glucose-6-phosphate by the enzyme glucokinase. This enzyme is involved in glycolysis and is found in pancreatic beta cells and the liver. Mutations in glucokinase can lead to monogenic diabetes mellitus or neonatal diabetes mellitus. Enolase is another glycolytic enzyme that converts 2-phosphoglycerate into phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP). Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase is an enzyme in the pentose phosphate pathway that converts glucose-6-phosphate into 6-phosphogluconolactone. Hexokinase is also a glycolytic enzyme, but it phosphorylates glucose to form glucose-6-phosphate in all tissues except for the liver and beta cells of the pancreas. In these specific tissues, glucokinase is responsible for phosphorylating glucose.

      Glucokinase: An Enzyme Involved in Carbohydrate Metabolism

      Glucokinase is an enzyme that can be found in various parts of the body such as the liver, pancreas, small intestine, and brain. Its primary function is to convert glucose into glucose-6-phosphate through a process called phosphorylation. This enzyme plays a crucial role in carbohydrate metabolism, which is the process of breaking down carbohydrates into energy that the body can use. Without glucokinase, the body would not be able to properly regulate its blood sugar levels, which can lead to various health problems such as diabetes. Overall, glucokinase is an essential enzyme that helps the body maintain its energy balance and overall health.

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  • Question 4 - A 45-year-old man with a history of asthma visits his doctor due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man with a history of asthma visits his doctor due to persistent symptoms despite using his inhaler. The doctor decides to prescribe a medication called salmeterol, which has a prolonged effect and works by relaxing the smooth muscles in the airways.

      What specific receptor does salmeterol target?

      Your Answer: Muscarinic receptor

      Correct Answer: Beta-2 receptors

      Explanation:

      Formoterol acts on beta-2 receptors to cause smooth muscle relaxation and bronchodilation, while aclidinium is a muscarinic receptors antagonist which results in bronchodilation. Alpha-1 receptors cause vasoconstriction, increased peripheral resistance, increased blood pressure, and mydriasis, while beta-1 receptors lead to cardiac muscle contraction and can increase heart rate. Alpha-2 receptors cause vasoconstriction of certain blood vessels, suppression of norepinephrine release, and decreased motility of smooth muscle in the gastrointestinal tract.

      Adrenergic receptors are a type of G protein-coupled receptors that respond to the catecholamines epinephrine and norepinephrine. These receptors are primarily involved in the sympathetic nervous system. There are four types of adrenergic receptors: α1, α2, β1, and β2. Each receptor has a different potency order and primary action. The α1 receptor responds equally to norepinephrine and epinephrine, causing smooth muscle contraction. The α2 receptor has mixed effects and responds equally to both catecholamines. The β1 receptor responds equally to epinephrine and norepinephrine, causing cardiac muscle contraction. The β2 receptor responds much more strongly to epinephrine than norepinephrine, causing smooth muscle relaxation.

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  • Question 5 - A 56-year-old man comes to you with complaints of excessive thirst and urination....

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man comes to you with complaints of excessive thirst and urination. He has a BMI of 31 kg/m² and a random blood glucose level of 11.2 mmol/l, indicating diabetes mellitus. You plan to initiate treatment with metformin.

      What is the mode of action of metformin?

      Your Answer: SGLT2 Inhibitors

      Correct Answer: Activation of the AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK)

      Explanation:

      Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin does not cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.

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  • Question 6 - A group of researchers and physicians are working on a novel screening method...

    Incorrect

    • A group of researchers and physicians are working on a novel screening method for detecting pancreatic cancer at an early stage. The trial for this test is underway, and initial findings regarding its accuracy have been released:

      Condition present Condition absent
      Positive test 70 25
      Negative test 10 60

      What is the sensitivity of the new test, rounded to two decimal places?

      Your Answer: 0.72

      Correct Answer: 0.84

      Explanation:

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

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  • Question 7 - An 80-year-old man visits his GP with a persistent ulcer on his buccal...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man visits his GP with a persistent ulcer on his buccal mucosal. He is urgently referred for evaluation of potential oral cancer. During his visit to the oral surgery clinic, he is questioned about various risk factors, such as smoking, illicit drug use, and exposure to specific viruses. Which virus is a risk factor for the development of this condition?

      Your Answer: Epstein-barr virus

      Correct Answer: Human papillomavirus 16

      Explanation:

      Understanding Oncoviruses and Their Associated Cancers

      Oncoviruses are viruses that have the potential to cause cancer. These viruses can be detected through blood tests and prevented through vaccination. There are several types of oncoviruses, each associated with a specific type of cancer.

      The Epstein-Barr virus, for example, is linked to Burkitt’s lymphoma, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, post-transplant lymphoma, and nasopharyngeal carcinoma. Human papillomavirus 16/18 is associated with cervical cancer, anal cancer, penile cancer, vulval cancer, and oropharyngeal cancer. Human herpes virus 8 is linked to Kaposi’s sarcoma, while hepatitis B and C viruses are associated with hepatocellular carcinoma. Finally, human T-lymphotropic virus 1 is linked to tropical spastic paraparesis and adult T cell leukemia.

      It is important to understand the link between oncoviruses and cancer so that appropriate measures can be taken to prevent and treat these diseases. Vaccination against certain oncoviruses, such as HPV, can significantly reduce the risk of developing associated cancers. Regular screening and early detection can also improve outcomes for those who do develop cancer as a result of an oncovirus.

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  • Question 8 - A 26-year-old man from Sub Saharan Africa comes to the clinic with complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man from Sub Saharan Africa comes to the clinic with complaints of lymphadenopathy and weight loss. The doctor suspects tuberculosis and performs a lymph node biopsy. Which staining agent is most likely to aid in identifying the causative organism?

      Your Answer: Gram stain

      Correct Answer: Ziehl-Neelsen stain

      Explanation:

      Ziehl-Neelsen stain is used for mycobacteria, not Gram staining. Van Gieson and Masson trichrome are for connective tissues, while Von Kossa identifies tissue mineralisation.

      Understanding Tuberculosis: The Pathophysiology and Risk Factors

      Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The pathophysiology of tuberculosis involves the migration of macrophages to regional lymph nodes, forming a Ghon complex. This complex leads to the formation of a granuloma, which is a collection of epithelioid histiocytes with caseous necrosis in the center. The inflammatory response is mediated by a type 4 hypersensitivity reaction. While healthy individuals can contain the disease, immunocompromised individuals are at risk of developing disseminated (miliary) TB.

      Several risk factors increase the likelihood of developing tuberculosis. These include having lived in Asia, Latin America, Eastern Europe, or Africa for years, exposure to an infectious TB case, and being infected with HIV. Immunocompromised individuals, such as diabetics, patients on immunosuppressive therapy, malnourished individuals, or those with haematological malignancies, are also at risk. Additionally, silicosis and apical fibrosis increase the likelihood of developing tuberculosis. Understanding the pathophysiology and risk factors of tuberculosis is crucial in preventing and treating this infectious disease.

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  • Question 9 - A 32-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain and diarrhoea that has been ongoing for 2 days. He mentions that he recently came to the UK from Vietnam to visit his family and has been here for 4 days.

      Upon examination, there is no guarding or rebound tenderness, but an urticarial rash is visible on his abdomen. A slight wheeze is audible, and he has a fever. The patient also shows papulovesicular lesions on the soles of his feet.

      Which helminths are most likely responsible for causing this man's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Onchocerca volvulus

      Correct Answer: Strongyloides stercoralis

      Explanation:

      Strongyloides stercoralis is a type of intestinal nematode that can cause Strongyloidiasis. Symptoms of this condition include abdominal pain and diarrhea, as well as the appearance of papulovesicular lesions on the soles of the feet and an urticarial rash. This parasitic infection is commonly found in tropical and subtropical regions around the world.

      Pinworm, also known as Enterobius vermicularis, typically causes perianal itching that is particularly bothersome at night.

      Onchocerca volvulus is known to cause blindness and hyperpigmentation of the skin.

      Trichinella spiralis can lead to myositis, periorbital edema, and fever after consuming raw pork.

      Helminths are a group of parasitic worms that can infect humans and cause various diseases. Nematodes, also known as roundworms, are one type of helminth. Strongyloides stercoralis is a type of roundworm that enters the body through the skin and can cause symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and skin lesions. Treatment for this infection typically involves the use of ivermectin or benzimidazoles. Enterobius vermicularis, also known as pinworm, is another type of roundworm that can cause perianal itching and other symptoms. Diagnosis is made by examining sticky tape applied to the perianal area. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Hookworms, such as Ancylostoma duodenale and Necator americanus, are another type of roundworm that can cause gastrointestinal infections and anemia. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles. Loa loa is a type of roundworm that is transmitted by deer fly and mango fly and can cause red, itchy swellings called Calabar swellings. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Trichinella spiralis is a type of roundworm that can develop after eating raw pork and can cause fever, periorbital edema, and myositis. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Onchocerca volvulus is a type of roundworm that causes river blindness and is spread by female blackflies. Treatment involves the use of ivermectin. Wuchereria bancrofti is another type of roundworm that is transmitted by female mosquitoes and can cause blockage of lymphatics and elephantiasis. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Toxocara canis, also known as dog roundworm, is transmitted through ingestion of infective eggs and can cause visceral larva migrans and retinal granulomas. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Ascaris lumbricoides, also known as giant roundworm, can cause intestinal obstruction and occasionally migrate to the lung. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Cestodes, also known as tapeworms, are another type of helminth. Echinococcus granulosus is a tapeworm that is transmitted through ingestion of eggs in dog feces and can cause liver cysts and anaphylaxis if the cyst ruptures

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  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old healthcare worker from Bangladesh, who migrated to the UK at the...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old healthcare worker from Bangladesh, who migrated to the UK at the age of six, is undergoing an occupational health assessment that includes an interferon-gamma release assay (IGRA). The worker has no knowledge of their vaccination history and has never experienced symptoms of tuberculosis infection. What is the primary physiological function of the cytokine used in this diagnostic test?

      Your Answer: Activation of macrophages

      Explanation:

      Macrophage activation is triggered by interferon-γ.

      Interferon-γ is a cytokine produced by Th1 cells that promotes inflammation and activates macrophages. In medical testing, measuring the release of interferon-gamma by leukocytes in response to Mycobacterium tuberculosis antigens can indicate the presence of active or latent TB infection. This test is preferred over the tuberculin skin test as it does not yield a false positive result in individuals who have received the BCG vaccine.

      Macrophages produce cytokines such as interleukin-8 and tumor necrosis factor-α, which attract neutrophils to the site of infection.

      Eosinophil production is stimulated by interleukin-5, GM-CSF, and IL-3, which promote granulocyte maturation.

      Interferon-γ does not directly cause fever. Pyrogenic cytokines such as interleukin-1 and interleukin-6, produced by macrophages and Th2 cells, induce fever.

      Interferon-γ is a Th1 cytokine that promotes the differentiation of Th0 cells into Th1 cells, creating a positive feedback loop.

      Overview of Cytokines and Their Functions

      Cytokines are signaling molecules that play a crucial role in the immune system. Interleukins are a type of cytokine that are produced by various immune cells and have specific functions. IL-1, produced by macrophages, induces acute inflammation and fever. IL-2, produced by Th1 cells, stimulates the growth and differentiation of T cell responses. IL-3, produced by activated T helper cells, stimulates the differentiation and proliferation of myeloid progenitor cells. IL-4, produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the proliferation and differentiation of B cells. IL-5, also produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the production of eosinophils. IL-6, produced by macrophages and Th2 cells, stimulates the differentiation of B cells and induces fever. IL-8, produced by macrophages, promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. IL-10, produced by Th2 cells, inhibits Th1 cytokine production and is known as an anti-inflammatory cytokine. IL-12, produced by dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells, activates NK cells and stimulates the differentiation of naive T cells into Th1 cells.

      In addition to interleukins, there are other cytokines with specific functions. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha, produced by macrophages, induces fever and promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. Interferon-gamma, produced by Th1 cells, activates macrophages. Understanding the functions of cytokines is important in developing treatments for various immune-related diseases.

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