00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 68-year-old non-smoker complains of bone pain, constipation and malaise. Initial tests show...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old non-smoker complains of bone pain, constipation and malaise. Initial tests show an increased serum calcium level. The physical examination is unremarkable. What is the most beneficial tumour marker investigation for this patient? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer: Prostate specific antigen (PSA)

      Explanation:

      Tumour Markers and their Clinical Applications

      Monoclonal antibodies are utilized to detect serum antigens associated with specific malignancies. These tumour markers are most useful for monitoring response to therapy and detecting early relapse. However, with the exception of PSA, tumour markers do not have sufficient sensitivity or specificity for use in screening.

      PSA, or prostate specific antigen, is a useful marker for screening for prostate cancer, although population screening is controversial. It can also be used to detect recurrence of the malignancy and is useful in the investigation of adenocarcinoma of unknown primary. Hypercalcaemia and bone pain may suggest metastatic carcinoma, which is common in prostate cancer.

      CA 19-9, AFP, beta-HCG, and CEA are other tumour markers that are used for different types of cancer. CA 19-9 is helpful in establishing the nature of pancreatic masses, AFP is a marker for hepatocellular carcinoma, beta-HCG is used in the diagnosis and management of gestational trophoblastic disease and non-seminomatous germ-cell tumours of the testes, and CEA is used to detect relapse of colorectal cancer.

      In conclusion, tumour markers have various clinical applications in the diagnosis, treatment, and monitoring of cancer. However, their sensitivity and specificity may vary, and they should be used in conjunction with other diagnostic tools for accurate diagnosis and management of cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      33.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 26-year-old female who is obese visits her GP complaining of headaches and...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old female who is obese visits her GP complaining of headaches and blurred vision. Upon examination, the GP notes bilateral blurring of the optic discs but no other neurological signs. The patient's blood pressure is 130/74 and she has no fever. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Idiopathic intracranial hypertension

      Explanation:

      When presented with a young female who is obese and experiencing headaches and blurred vision, it is important to consider idiopathic intracranial hypertension as a potential diagnosis, especially if there is evidence of papilloedema but no other neurological abnormalities.

      Understanding Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension

      Idiopathic intracranial hypertension, also known as pseudotumour cerebri, is a medical condition that is commonly observed in young, overweight females. The condition is characterized by a range of symptoms, including headache, blurred vision, and papilloedema, which is usually present. Other symptoms may include an enlarged blind spot and sixth nerve palsy.

      There are several risk factors associated with idiopathic intracranial hypertension, including obesity, female sex, pregnancy, and certain drugs such as the combined oral contraceptive pill, steroids, tetracyclines, vitamin A, and lithium.

      Management of idiopathic intracranial hypertension may involve weight loss, diuretics such as acetazolamide, and topiramate, which can also cause weight loss in most patients. Repeated lumbar puncture may also be necessary, and surgery may be required to prevent damage to the optic nerve. This may involve optic nerve sheath decompression and fenestration, or a lumboperitoneal or ventriculoperitoneal shunt to reduce intracranial pressure.

      It is important to note that if intracranial hypertension is thought to occur secondary to a known cause, such as medication, it is not considered idiopathic. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms associated with idiopathic intracranial hypertension can help individuals seek appropriate medical attention and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 64-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of hip pain. He reports that...

    Correct

    • A 64-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of hip pain. He reports that the pain began a week ago while he was picking up a toy belonging to his grandchild. How can it be determined if the hip pain is actually referred from his lumbar spine?

      Your Answer: A positive femoral nerve stretch test

      Explanation:

      A potential indication of referred lumbar spine pain causing hip pain is a positive result on the femoral nerve stretch test. This is because compression of the femoral nerve may be the root cause of the pain, and stretching the nerve can reproduce the symptoms.

      Hip pain in adults can be caused by a variety of conditions. Osteoarthritis is a common cause, with pain that worsens with exercise and improves with rest. Reduced internal rotation is often the first sign, and risk factors include age, obesity, and previous joint problems. Inflammatory arthritis can cause pain in the morning, systemic symptoms, and elevated inflammatory markers. Referred lumbar spine pain may be caused by femoral nerve compression, which can be tested with a positive femoral nerve stretch test. Greater trochanteric pain syndrome, or trochanteric bursitis, is often seen in women aged 50-70 and is caused by repeated movement of the iliotibial band. Meralgia paraesthetica is caused by compression of the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh and results in a burning sensation over the antero-lateral aspect of the thigh. Avascular necrosis can have gradual or sudden onset and may follow high dose steroid therapy or previous hip fracture or dislocation. Pubic symphysis dysfunction is common in pregnancy and causes pain over the pubic symphysis with radiation to the groins and medial aspects of the thighs. Transient idiopathic osteoporosis is an uncommon condition sometimes seen in the third trimester of pregnancy, causing groin pain and limited range of movement in the hip, with elevated ESR.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      25.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You run a pediatric clinic in an area which has a high South...

    Incorrect

    • You run a pediatric clinic in an area which has a high South Asian Muslim population. Currently you operate clinic hours from 9 am-5 pm from Monday to Friday, with an extra clinic on a Saturday morning. The clinic manager comes to see you with a proposal to stop the clinic on a Thursday afternoon to allow for staff training.
      Which one of the following is true with respect to your obligations before changing the clinic hours?

      Your Answer: A formal impact assessment of the proposed surgery timing change is essential

      Correct Answer: You should meet informally to consider possible impact on ethnic and religious groups of your change

      Explanation:

      Importance of Considering Equality and Diversity in Policy Changes

      By law, it is mandatory to consider equality and diversity issues before implementing any changes in practice policy. For instance, if consulting time is removed from Thursday afternoons and reallocated to Fridays, it could significantly disadvantage Muslim patients who observe Friday as a holy day. Therefore, the NHS guide to equality and diversity recommends conducting a formal impact assessment of the change to ensure that it doesn’t discriminate against any group.

      While the fifth option may seem like a reasonable first step, it doesn’t fully meet the obligations of ensuring equality and diversity. It is crucial to take into account the needs and preferences of all patients, regardless of their race, religion, gender, or any other characteristic. By doing so, healthcare providers can ensure that their policies and practices are inclusive and accessible to everyone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      33.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old woman reports that she regularly needs to check items. She will...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman reports that she regularly needs to check items. She will return repeatedly to check a door is locked or an iron unplugged or an oven switched off etc. She has even occasionally returned to the house after leaving to check things.
      Select from the list the single most correct statement concerning obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) in this patient.

      Your Answer: Women are more commonly affected than men

      Correct Answer: Obsessions or compulsions must be a source of distress or interfere with functioning for the diagnosis to be made

      Explanation:

      Understanding and Treating Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a mental health condition characterized by obsessive thoughts and compulsive behaviors. While many people may exhibit some obsessive or compulsive tendencies, the key to diagnosing OCD is whether it causes distress or interferes with daily functioning.

      Cognitive behavioral therapy, specifically exposure and response prevention, is the first-line treatment for OCD. This type of therapy helps individuals confront their fears and learn to resist the urge to engage in compulsive behaviors. If a patient cannot participate in therapy or if it is not effective, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) may be prescribed. Clomipramine is an alternative medication to SSRIs.

      It is important to note that OCD can affect anyone, regardless of gender, and typically has an onset in adolescence or early adulthood. If you or someone you know is struggling with OCD, seeking professional help can lead to effective treatment and improved quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Hb 105 g/L (130-180)
    RBC 4.5 ×1012/L -
    Hct 0.353 (0.4-0.52)
    MCV 75 fL (80-96)
    MCH 32.5...

    Correct

    • Hb 105 g/L (130-180)
      RBC 4.5 ×1012/L -
      Hct 0.353 (0.4-0.52)
      MCV 75 fL (80-96)
      MCH 32.5 pg (28-32)
      Platelets 325 ×109/L (150-400)
      WBC 7.91 ×109/L (4-11)
      Neutrophils 6.15 ×109/L (1.5-7.0)
      Lymphocytes 1.54 ×109/L (1.5-4.0)
      Monocytes 0.33 ×109/L (0-0.8)
      Eosinophils 0.16 ×109/L (0.04-0.4)
      Basophils 0.08 ×109/L (0-0.1)
      Others 0.14 ×109/L -

      Which of the following investigations would be the most appropriate initial investigation for the above full blood count (FBC) result in a 60-year-old patient?

      Your Answer: Ferritin concentration

      Explanation:

      Interpretation of FBC Results

      When analyzing a full blood count (FBC), it is important to consider all the parameters to determine the underlying cause of any abnormalities. In this case, the FBC shows microcytosis, which is a low mean corpuscular volume (MCV), and anaemia, indicated by low hemoglobin levels. These findings are typical of iron deficiency anaemia.

      To confirm iron deficiency, a ferritin test should be requested. If the test confirms iron deficiency, the next step is to identify the source of blood loss. If the faecal occult blood test is positive, an endoscopy may be necessary.

      It is important to note that folate and B12 deficiencies cause macrocytic anaemia, which is characterized by elevated MCV. Hypothyroidism is also associated with elevated MCV. However, in this case, the low MCV indicates iron deficiency anaemia.

      While a bone marrow biopsy can confirm iron deficiency, it is an invasive procedure and is not necessary at this stage, particularly in a primary care setting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      34.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner, reporting changes in her skin over...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner, reporting changes in her skin over the past year. She has noticed several pale patches on her fingers and wrists of both hands, as well as similar areas on her abdomen.
      She had a history of mild acne in her teenage years, treated with topical creams and antibiotics.
      Upon examination, there are well-defined, white lesions on the dorsum of both hands over the fingers and on the palmar surface of both wrists. The borders are smooth. The lesions are flat and non-itchy.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tinea versicolor

      Correct Answer: Vitiligo

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Symmetrical Acquired Depigmentation

      Symmetrical acquired depigmentation is a common skin condition that can be caused by various factors. In this case, the history and examination findings suggest vitiligo as the most likely diagnosis. Vitiligo is an autoimmune disorder that results in the destruction of melanocytes in the skin, leading to smooth, well-demarcated, milky white lesions with no scale. It can occur alone or alongside other autoimmune disorders.

      Other possible differentials include lichen sclerosus, which is a chronic skin disorder that affects the genital and perianal areas, but is usually seen in women over the age of 50 and doesn’t affect the hands. Pityriasis alba, characterised by flaky pink patches and hypopigmentation on the skin, is generally asymptomatic and often found on the cheeks and upper arms, but is unlikely in this patient as there is no history of flaky pink patches and hypopigmentation. Tinea versicolor, a common yeast infection of the skin, appears as flaky discoloured patches on the chest and back, but there are no lesions on the trunk seen in this patient and no indication that the lesions are flaky.

      Lastly, steroid-induced skin depigmentation is unlikely in this patient as the steroid use was historical and ceased 13 years ago, and only involved mildly potent steroids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      33
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old man comes to your clinic exhibiting typical symptoms of seborrhoeic dermatitis....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man comes to your clinic exhibiting typical symptoms of seborrhoeic dermatitis. He also reports experiencing eye itchiness.

      What is the most probable diagnosis to accompany seborrhoeic dermatitis in this individual?

      Your Answer: Anterior uveitis

      Correct Answer: Blepharitis

      Explanation:

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis, dry eye syndrome, and acne rosacea are conditions that may be linked to blepharitis. To treat this, patients should clean their eyelids twice a day and apply a warm compress with their eyes closed for 5-10 minutes. There is no known reason for an elevated risk of the other conditions mentioned.

      Understanding Blepharitis

      Blepharitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the eyelid margins. It can be caused by dysfunction of the meibomian glands or seborrhoeic dermatitis/staphylococcal infection. Patients with rosacea are more prone to developing blepharitis. The meibomian glands secrete oil to prevent rapid evaporation of the tear film, and any problem affecting these glands can lead to dry eyes and irritation.

      Symptoms of blepharitis are usually bilateral and include grittiness and discomfort around the eyelid margins, sticky eyes in the morning, and redness of the eyelid margins. Staphylococcal blepharitis may cause swollen eyelids, styes, and chalazions. Secondary conjunctivitis may also occur.

      Management of blepharitis involves softening the lid margin using hot compresses twice a day and mechanical removal of debris from the lid margins through lid hygiene. A mixture of cooled boiled water and baby shampoo or sodium bicarbonate in cooled boiled water can be used for cleaning. Artificial tears may also be given for symptom relief in patients with dry eyes or an abnormal tear film.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Mrs Maple is an 80-year-old woman who takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation. You...

    Incorrect

    • Mrs Maple is an 80-year-old woman who takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation. You have prescribed a new medication for her as treatment for an infection. A repeat INR was taken 3 days after starting her treatment. The level was 6.5.

      Which of the following medications is most likely to have caused this?

      Your Answer: Nitrofurantoin

      Correct Answer: Fluconazole

      Explanation:

      When taking warfarin, it is important to monitor INR levels carefully when also taking fluconazole due to their interaction. Fluconazole can cause an increase in INR. However, medications such as amikacin, vancomycin, clindamycin, and nitrofurantoin do not affect INR levels.

      Interactions of Warfarin

      Warfarin is a commonly used anticoagulant medication that requires careful monitoring due to its interactions with other drugs and medical conditions. Some general factors that can potentiate warfarin include liver disease, drugs that inhibit platelet function such as NSAIDs, and cranberry juice. Additionally, drugs that either inhibit or induce the P450 system can affect the metabolism of warfarin and alter the International Normalized Ratio (INR), which measures the effectiveness of the medication.

      Drugs that induce the P450 system, such as antiepileptics and barbiturates, can decrease the INR, while drugs that inhibit the P450 system, such as antibiotics and SSRIs, can increase the INR. Other factors that can affect the metabolism of warfarin include chronic alcohol intake, smoking, and certain medical conditions. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these interactions and monitor patients closely to ensure safe and effective use of warfarin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      31.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 31-year-old woman presents to the surgery for review. She complains of feeling...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman presents to the surgery for review. She complains of feeling hungry all the time although, despite this, she has lost weight. She also complains of palpitations that have been present for the past three months.

      She has a past history of anxiety and has taken a course of SSRI four years ago for two years in total.

      Examination reveals a BP of 120/80 mmHg, pulse is 92 and regular. She has a fine tremor. There is a small, 1.5 cm nodule within the left lobe of the thyroid.

      Investigations reveal:

      Hb 125 g/L (115-160)

      WCC 6.4 ×109/L (4.5-10)

      PLT 281 ×109/L (150-450)

      Na 137 mmol/L (135-145)

      K 4.0 mmol/L (3.5-5.5)

      Cr 78 µmol/L (70-110)

      TSH 0.02 mU/L (0.4-4.5)

      FT4 62 pmol/L (10-24)

      You decide to refer this lady, but which of the following is likely to be the next step in her management without need to first consult a specialist colleague?

      Your Answer: Start carbimazole

      Correct Answer: Start propranolol

      Explanation:

      Management of Thyrotoxicosis in Primary Care

      In cases of suspected benign thyroid adenoma causing thyrotoxicosis, it is appropriate to prescribe a beta blocker such as propranolol to relieve adrenergic symptoms while awaiting specialist endocrinology assessment. According to Clinical Knowledge Summaries (CKS), further evaluation should include a thyroid uptake scan and ultrasound, with radioiodine being the intervention of choice for a solitary toxic nodule.

      If symptoms persist despite treatment with a beta blocker or if a beta blocker is not tolerated or contraindicated, or if the patient is at risk of complications from hyperthyroidism, specialist advice should be sought regarding other treatment options such as starting carbimazole. In cases where the patient is taking a drug such as amiodarone or lithium, liaison between the specialist prescribing the drug and an endocrinologist may be necessary.

      RET mutation testing is useful for evaluating familial medullary thyroid carcinoma or MEN-2B syndrome, but this is not an investigation that is typically carried out in primary care as these conditions are rare and unlikely to be the diagnosis in this case. Thyroid uptake scanning and ultrasound are useful in the evaluation of a nodule, but should not delay starting anti-thyroid drugs. Urgent referral for fine-needle aspiration is not necessary in this low-risk situation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 65-year-old man with a history of depression and lumbar spinal stenosis presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of depression and lumbar spinal stenosis presents with a swollen and painful left calf. He is seen in the DVT clinic and found to have a raised D-dimer. As a result, he undergoes a Doppler scan which reveals a proximal deep vein thrombosis. Despite being active and otherwise healthy, the patient has not had any recent surgeries or prolonged periods of immobility. He is initiated on a direct oral anticoagulant.

      What is the appropriate duration of treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 6 months

      Explanation:

      For provoked cases of venous thromboembolism, such as those following recent surgery, warfarin treatment is typically recommended for a duration of three months. However, for unprovoked cases, where the cause is unknown, a longer duration of six months is typically recommended.

      Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines in 2020, recommending the use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including as interim anticoagulants before a definite diagnosis is made. They also recommend the use of DOACs in patients with active cancer, as opposed to low-molecular weight heparin as was previously recommended. Routine cancer screening is no longer recommended following a VTE diagnosis.

      If a patient is suspected of having a DVT, a two-level DVT Wells score should be performed to assess the likelihood of the condition. If a DVT is ‘likely’ (2 points or more), a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan should be carried out within 4 hours. If the result is positive, then a diagnosis of DVT is made and anticoagulant treatment should start. If the result is negative, a D-dimer test should be arranged. If a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan cannot be carried out within 4 hours, a D-dimer test should be performed and interim therapeutic anticoagulation administered whilst waiting for the proximal leg vein ultrasound scan (which should be performed within 24 hours).

      The cornerstone of VTE management is anticoagulant therapy. The big change in the 2020 guidelines was the increased use of DOACs. Apixaban or rivaroxaban (both DOACs) should be offered first-line following the diagnosis of a DVT. Instead of using low-molecular weight heparin (LMWH) until the diagnosis is confirmed, NICE now advocate using a DOAC once a diagnosis is suspected, with this continued if the diagnosis is confirmed. If neither apixaban or rivaroxaban are suitable, then either LMWH followed by dabigatran or edoxaban OR LMWH followed by a vitamin K antagonist (VKA, i.e. warfarin) can be used.

      All patients should have anticoagulation for at least 3 months. Continuing anticoagulation after this period is partly determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked. If the VTE was provoked, the treatment is typically stopped after the initial 3 months (3 to 6 months for people with active cancer). If the VTE was

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 27-year-old woman contacts you seeking advice. She has been taking Microgynon 30...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman contacts you seeking advice. She has been taking Microgynon 30 for contraception for the past two years. However, she recently went on a weekend trip with her partner and forgot to take her pills, missing two in a row. She had regular intercourse with her partner during the weekend. Today, she is supposed to take the 19th pill of the packet and claims not to have missed any other pills. You advise her to take two pills as soon as possible. What further advice should you give her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Use condoms for the next 7 days + skip the 7 day break

      Explanation:

      The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their advice for women taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol. If one pill is missed at any time during the cycle, the woman should take the last pill, even if it means taking two pills in one day, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed. However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. She should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for seven days in a row. If pills are missed in week one, emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week one. If pills are missed in week two, after seven consecutive days of taking the COC, there is no need for emergency contraception. If pills are missed in week three, she should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of seven days on, seven days off.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 57-year-old man presents with a long-standing history of alternating episodes of diarrhoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man presents with a long-standing history of alternating episodes of diarrhoea and normal bowel habit. During his episodes, he experiences severe left-sided abdominal pain which usually resolves over a few days. He has always had to monitor his diet to avoid constipation but has not experienced any weight loss. On examination, there is tenderness in the left lower quadrant of his abdomen with no palpable masses. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diverticulitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Diverticulosis and Diverticulitis: Symptoms and Management

      Diverticulosis is a condition where small pouches called diverticula form in the lining of the colon. About 75% of people with diverticula have no symptoms. However, those with uncomplicated diverticulosis may experience lower abdominal pain, bloating, constipation, or rectal bleeding. These symptoms may be exacerbated by eating and relieved by defecation or flatus. Left lower quadrant tenderness and fullness may also be present, which can be mistaken for irritable bowel syndrome.

      On the other hand, diverticulitis is a more serious condition where the diverticula become inflamed or infected. Patients with diverticulitis may experience intermittent or constant left lower quadrant pain, accompanied by a change in bowel habits. Pyrexia and tachycardia are common, and examination usually reveals localised tenderness and sometimes a palpable mass. Mild cases of diverticulitis can be managed at home with paracetamol, clear fluids, and oral antibiotics. However, one third of patients may develop further complications such as perforation, abscess, fistula, or stricture/obstruction.

      It is important to differentiate diverticulitis from other conditions such as colonic cancer, Crohn’s disease, and ulcerative colitis. Colonic cancer may present with weight loss and a more definite change in bowel habit, while Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis usually present with diarrhoea at a younger age than diverticulitis. Barium enema or colonoscopy may be needed to confirm the diagnosis.

      In summary, understanding the symptoms and management of diverticulosis and diverticulitis is crucial for early detection and treatment. Patients with mild diverticulitis can be managed at home, but those with severe symptoms or complications require hospitalisation and possibly surgery. Regular screening and follow-up are recommended for those with diverticulosis to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 35-year-old man visits the General Practitioner with his partner for a check-up....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits the General Practitioner with his partner for a check-up. His partner is worried about the patient's alcohol consumption, stating that they can drink a few bottles of spirits over the weekend. What is the most probable finding in a patient who excessively uses alcohol?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Psychotic symptoms

      Explanation:

      Alcohol and its Effects on the Body

      Alcohol consumption can lead to a variety of physical and mental health issues. One such issue is alcohol-related psychosis, which can cause hallucinations and delusions. Another is Korsakoff syndrome, which is caused by a deficiency in thiamine and can result in amnesia. While an increase in carbohydrate-deficient transferrin (CDT) is a sign of excessive alcohol use, red blood cell macrocytosis is also a common finding. Additionally, alcohol use is strongly associated with violent crime. It is important to be aware of the potential risks and consequences of alcohol consumption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 16-year-old girl is seen with a two to three month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl is seen with a two to three month history of poor sleep, tiredness, reduced appetite and weight loss. She reports low mood and anxiety worse on waking in the mornings.

      She has a history of self harm and you can see evidence of recent deliberate self harm with several superficial cuts to her forearms. She admits to recent suicidal thoughts but has not acted on these and has no acute suicidal intent. She has no psychotic symptoms.

      Following your assessment you make a diagnosis of moderate depression.

      What is the most appropriate approach in this instance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue with watchful waiting as no specific intervention is appropriate at this stage

      Explanation:

      Managing Depression in Children: A Tiered Approach

      In managing moderate to severe depression in children, the first step is to refer them for assessment to tier 2-3 CAMHS. The three tiers of CAMHS cover practitioners who are not mental health specialists and work in universal services (Tier 1), CAMHS specialists working in community and primary care (Tier 2), and multidisciplinary teams delivering specialist services in community mental health clinics (Tier 3).

      For mild depression, Tier 1 management is sufficient. However, for moderate to severe depression, specific psychological therapy in the form of individual CBT, interpersonal therapy, or shorter-term family therapy is the first-line treatment. If the depression is unresponsive to psychological therapy after four to six sessions, a multidisciplinary review should be conducted, and alternative or additional psychological therapies and medication should be considered.

      In summary, managing depression in children requires a tiered approach that involves referral to the appropriate CAMHS tier and the use of specific psychological therapies. It is essential to monitor the child’s response to treatment and adjust the management plan accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 43-year-old woman comes to the clinic seeking guidance on contraception. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old woman comes to the clinic seeking guidance on contraception. She has entered a new relationship but is uncertain if she needs contraception due to her suspicion of being in menopause. She is currently experiencing hot flashes and has not had a period in 9 months. What is the best course of action to recommend?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contraception is needed until 24 months after her last period

      Explanation:

      Contraception is still necessary after menopause. Women who are over 50 years old should use contraception for at least 12 months after their last period, while those under 50 years old should use it for at least 24 months after their last period.

      Understanding Menopause and Contraception

      Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It typically occurs when a woman reaches the age of 51 in the UK. However, prior to menopause, women may experience a period known as the climacteric. During this time, ovarian function starts to decline, and women may experience symptoms such as hot flashes, mood swings, and vaginal dryness.

      It is important for women to understand that they can still become pregnant during the climacteric period. Therefore, it is recommended to use effective contraception until a certain period of time has passed. Women over the age of 50 should use contraception for 12 months after their last period, while women under the age of 50 should use contraception for 24 months after their last period. By understanding menopause and the importance of contraception during the climacteric period, women can make informed decisions about their reproductive health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 62-year-old woman presents with a history of anorexia, weight loss, and abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman presents with a history of anorexia, weight loss, and abdominal discomfort for the past five weeks. On examination, she appears pale and cachectic with no significant abdominal findings. However, there is palpable adenopathy in the left supraclavicular fossa.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carcinoma of the stomach

      Explanation:

      Metastatic Lymph Nodes in the Neck: Causes and Symptoms

      Metastatic lymph nodes in the neck, particularly at the root of the neck, are often indicative of cancer in the abdomen, specifically gastric or pancreatic tumors. These types of cancers can remain asymptomatic while spreading to the lymph nodes, making early detection difficult. Virchow’s node is a term used to describe an enlarged left supraclavicular node, which can also be caused by lymphoma, breast cancer, or arm infection. On the other hand, an enlarged right supraclavicular lymph node is typically associated with thoracic malignancies such as lung and esophageal cancer, as well as Hodgkin’s lymphoma. It’s important to note that none of the other options are malignant disorders. If you notice any unusual swelling or lumps in your neck, it’s important to seek medical attention promptly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - You are reviewing a study that is comparing a new flu vaccine against...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing a study that is comparing a new flu vaccine against a regular vaccine currently prescribed. The study aims to determine if the new vaccine reduces the number of people getting the flu over a year. The results show 100 people got the flu out of 500 people on the regular vaccine and 50 people got the flu out of 500 people on the new vaccine.

      What is the relative risk reduction in this study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.6

      Explanation:

      The formula for relative risk reduction is (EER – CER) / CER, where EER is the experimental event rate and CER is the control event rate. To calculate the relative risk reduction, subtract the control event rate from the experimental event rate, then divide the result by the control event rate.

      For example, if the experimental event rate is 20 out of 100 and the control event rate is 50 out of 100, the relative risk reduction would be (20/100 – 50/100) / 50/100 = 0.6.

      Understanding Relative Risk in Clinical Trials

      Relative risk (RR) is a measure used in clinical trials to compare the risk of an event occurring in the experimental group to the risk in the control group. It is calculated by dividing the experimental event rate (EER) by the control event rate (CER). If the resulting ratio is greater than 1, it means that the event is more likely to occur in the experimental group than in the control group. Conversely, if the ratio is less than 1, the event is less likely to occur in the experimental group.

      To calculate the relative risk reduction (RRR) or relative risk increase (RRI), the absolute risk change is divided by the control event rate. This provides a percentage that indicates the magnitude of the difference between the two groups. Understanding relative risk is important in evaluating the effectiveness of interventions and treatments in clinical trials. By comparing the risk of an event in the experimental group to the control group, researchers can determine whether the intervention is beneficial or not.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 56-year-old man of Afro-Caribbean descent comes in for a routine check-up. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man of Afro-Caribbean descent comes in for a routine check-up. During a thorough skin examination, a darkly pigmented macule is observed on the palmar side of his left index finger. The lesion measures approximately 4 mm in size and displays poorly defined, irregular borders with an irregular pigment network on dermoscopy. No other pigmented lesions are detected on the patient. He has never noticed it before and is uncertain if it is evolving.

      What is the probable diagnosis in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acral lentiginous melanoma

      Explanation:

      The patient’s atypical lesion, with three of the five following characteristics, suggests a diagnosis of melanoma. The most common subtype in this patient population is acral lentiginous melanoma, which can occur in areas not exposed to the sun, such as the soles of the feet and palms.

      It is unlikely that the lesion is an acquired or congenital naevus. New-onset pigmented lesions in patients over 50 should always be referred to a dermatologist for assessment. Congenital naevi are present at birth and the patient would have a long history with them.

      Nodular melanoma is less likely in this case, as it typically presents as dark papules on sun-exposed areas of skin in the Caucasian population.

      While superficial spreading melanoma is a possibility, a dark-skinned patient with a lesion on the palmar hand or soles of the feet is more likely to have acral lentiginous melanoma.

      Malignant melanoma is a type of skin cancer that has four main subtypes: superficial spreading, nodular, lentigo maligna, and acral lentiginous. Nodular melanoma is the most aggressive, while the other forms spread more slowly. Superficial spreading melanoma typically affects young people on sun-exposed areas such as the arms, legs, back, and chest. Nodular melanoma appears as a red or black lump that bleeds or oozes and affects middle-aged people. Lentigo maligna affects chronically sun-exposed skin in older people, while acral lentiginous melanoma appears on nails, palms, or soles in people with darker skin pigmentation. Other rare forms of melanoma include desmoplastic melanoma, amelanotic melanoma, and melanoma arising in other parts of the body such as ocular melanoma.

      The main diagnostic features of melanoma are changes in size, shape, and color. Secondary features include a diameter of 7mm or more, inflammation, oozing or bleeding, and altered sensation. Suspicious lesions should undergo excision biopsy, and the lesion should be completely removed to facilitate subsequent histopathological assessment. Once the diagnosis is confirmed, the pathology report should be reviewed to determine whether further re-excision of margins is required. The margins of excision are related to Breslow thickness, with lesions 0-1 mm thick requiring a margin of 1 cm, lesions 1-2 mm thick requiring a margin of 1-2 cm (depending on site and pathological features), lesions 2-4mm thick requiring a margin of 2-3 cm (depending on site and pathological features), and lesions over 4mm thick requiring a margin of 3 cm. Further treatments such as sentinel lymph node mapping, isolated limb perfusion, and block dissection of regional lymph node groups should be selectively applied.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 27-year-old woman comes to see you. She is 31 weeks pregnant and...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman comes to see you. She is 31 weeks pregnant and lives with her partner. The pregnancy has so far been uneventful.

      She says that over the past few days she has started to feel anxious and tearful, and is finding it hard to concentrate. She is not sure if this is just 'normal' at this stage of pregnancy. She denies any disturbance of sleep or appetite, and her PHQ-9 score is only five. She has had no thoughts of self-harm.

      Her parents, and her older sister have been treated for depression and she suffered a brief depressive episode in her early teens.

      Which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Only women at high risk for postnatal depression, like this lady, need active monitoring of their mood in the postnatal period

      Explanation:

      Managing Depression in Pregnancy and Postpartum

      This patient has a history of depressive illness and is at high risk for developing a depressive episode during pregnancy or postpartum. While her current symptoms are common in later pregnancy, close monitoring is necessary to detect any changes that may require treatment. If treatment is necessary, SSRIs such as Sertraline are now considered safe for use during pregnancy.

      Postpartum depression is a common concern, and all patients should be closely monitored by health visiting teams and community midwives. GPs should also have a low threshold for considering depression in mothers of young babies and should inquire about the mother’s mood at the six-week postnatal check. If a mother experiences tearfulness and difficulty sleeping at six weeks postpartum, this should be taken seriously, as the baby blues typically resolve by 10 days postpartum. Early detection and treatment can greatly improve outcomes for both mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 25-year-old crystal healer who lives alone says she doesn't have a best...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old crystal healer who lives alone says she doesn't have a best friend and thinks that people judge her unfairly. She says that the power of crystals will cure leukaemia and sometimes feels that her life story appears in magazine stories.
      Select from the list the single best description of her personality type.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Schizotypal

      Explanation:

      Understanding Personality Disorders: Clusters and Characteristics

      Personality disorders are not easy to diagnose, but they can be seen as extreme versions of normal behavior that affect an individual’s social functioning. Psychotherapy and cognitive behavior therapy can be helpful, and medication may be used in some cases. These disorders can be grouped into three clusters: odd, dramatic, and anxious. The odd PDs include paranoid, schizotypal, and schizoid. The dramatic PDs include histrionic, borderline, narcissistic, and antisocial. The anxious PDs include dependent, obsessive-compulsive, and avoidant. Borderline personality disorder is characterized by fear of abandonment, unstable relationships, and dangerous behavior. Histrionic personality disorder is characterized by excessive attention-seeking behavior and a need for approval.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - You are evaluating a 65-year-old new patient to the clinic who has a...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 65-year-old new patient to the clinic who has a history of established cardiovascular disease (CVD), having suffered a myocardial infarction 12 months ago.

      Previously, he declined taking a statin due to concerns about potential side effects, but he has since researched the topic and is now open to the idea.

      He currently takes aspirin 75 mg daily, ramipril 5 mg once daily, and bisoprolol 2.5 mg once daily. He has no other significant medical history. Recent blood tests indicate normal renal, liver, and thyroid function.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for management at this stage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer ezetimibe 10 mg daily

      Explanation:

      Statin Therapy for Those with Pre-existing CVD

      All individuals with a history of established cardiovascular disease (CVD) should be offered statin therapy, according to NICE guidelines. While diet and lifestyle modifications are important, they should not delay or withhold statin therapy.

      For those with pre-existing CVD (excluding chronic kidney disease), atorvastatin 80 mg daily is recommended. However, for individuals with chronic kidney disease and an eGFR of less than 60 mL/min/1.73m2, a lower dose of atorvastatin 20 mg daily is advised. Lower doses may also be considered for those at higher risk of side effects or due to individual preference.

      It is not necessary to use the QRISK2 risk assessment tool for those with pre-existing CVD, as they are automatically considered at high risk of CVD and should be treated accordingly. Overall, statin therapy is an important component of managing CVD and should be considered for all individuals with a history of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - The School Principal is worried that the school is not fully compliant with...

    Incorrect

    • The School Principal is worried that the school is not fully compliant with the Child Protection Act. Which organization must the school register with?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Information Commissioner's Office

      Explanation:

      Registration with the Information Commissioner’s Office is mandatory for all entities, such as a GP surgery, that handle personal information, in accordance with the Data Protection Act of 1998.

      Understanding the Data Protection Act

      The Data Protection Act is a crucial piece of legislation that governs the protection of personal data in the UK. It applies to both manual and computerised records and outlines eight main principles that entities must follow. These principles include using data for its intended purpose, obtaining consent before disclosing data to other parties, allowing individuals access to their personal information, keeping data up-to-date and secure, and correcting any factual errors.

      In 2018, the Data Protection Act was updated to include new provisions such as the right to erasure, exemptions, and regulation in conjunction with the GDPR. It is important for all entities that process personal information to register with the Information Commissioner’s Office and implement adequate security measures to protect sensitive data. By following the principles outlined in the Data Protection Act, entities can ensure that they are handling personal information in a responsible and ethical manner.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 32-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of low mood. He reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of low mood. He reports experiencing anhedonia, fatigue, weight loss, insomnia, and agitation. His PHQ-9 score is 20.

      What is the optimal course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start citalopram and refer for CBT

      Explanation:

      Based on the patient’s PHQ-9 score and varied symptoms, it appears that he is suffering from severe depression. According to NICE guidelines, the recommended treatment for severe depression is a combination of an antidepressant and psychological intervention, with an SSRI being the first-line antidepressant of choice. Therefore, in this case, citalopram with CBT would be the appropriate treatment.

      While venlafaxine may be considered as a later option if other antidepressants are ineffective, it is not the first choice. Additionally, a referral to psychiatry is not necessary based on the symptoms presented.

      Fluoxetine is a suitable first-line antidepressant, but for severe depression, it should be used in combination with psychological intervention.

      CBT alone may be appropriate for mild to moderate depression, but for severe depression, the guidelines recommend using an antidepressant in combination.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Depression

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines for managing depression in 2022. The new guidelines classify depression severity as less severe and more severe based on a PHQ-9 score of <16 and ≥16, respectively. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and least resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient's preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), group behavioral activation (BA), individual CBT, individual BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT), selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy (STPP). For more severe depression, a shared decision should be made between the patient and healthcare provider. Treatment options for more severe depression include a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant, individual CBT, individual BA, antidepressant medication (SSRI, SNRI, or another antidepressant if indicated based on previous clinical and treatment history), individual problem-solving, counseling, STPP, IPT, guided self-help, and group exercise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which one of the following about managing thyroid issues during pregnancy is inaccurate?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following about managing thyroid issues during pregnancy is inaccurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Block-and-replace is preferable in pregnancy compared to antithyroid drug titration

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, there is an increase in the levels of thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG), which causes an increase in the levels of total thyroxine. However, this doesn’t affect the free thyroxine level. If left untreated, thyrotoxicosis can increase the risk of fetal loss, maternal heart failure, and premature labor. Graves’ disease is the most common cause of thyrotoxicosis during pregnancy, but transient gestational hyperthyroidism can also occur due to the activation of the TSH receptor by HCG. Propylthiouracil has traditionally been the antithyroid drug of choice, but it is associated with an increased risk of severe hepatic injury. Therefore, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend using propylthiouracil in the first trimester and switching to carbimazole in the second trimester. Maternal free thyroxine levels should be kept in the upper third of the normal reference range to avoid fetal hypothyroidism. Thyrotrophin receptor stimulating antibodies should be checked at 30-36 weeks gestation to determine the risk of neonatal thyroid problems. Block-and-replace regimens should not be used in pregnancy, and radioiodine therapy is contraindicated.

      On the other hand, thyroxine is safe during pregnancy, and serum thyroid-stimulating hormone should be measured in each trimester and 6-8 weeks postpartum. Women require an increased dose of thyroxine during pregnancy, up to 50% as early as 4-6 weeks of pregnancy. Breastfeeding is safe while on thyroxine. It is important to manage thyroid problems during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 28-year-old woman complains of sudden pain in her left elbow and right...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman complains of sudden pain in her left elbow and right ankle. She also reports experiencing dysuria, conjunctivitis, and fever. She returned from a trip to South America 4 weeks ago where she had unprotected sex. She has developed hard tender papules, scaly plaques, and pustules on her hands.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Between Arthritis Types: A Brief Overview

      Arthritis can present in various forms, making it crucial to differentiate between them for proper diagnosis and treatment. Here are some key features to look out for:

      Reactive Arthritis: This type is characterized by a triad of nonspecific urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis. It may follow bacterial dysentery or exposure to sexually transmitted infections. Patients may also have Achilles tendonitis or plantar fasciitis, as well as circinate balanitis, keratoderma blenorrhagica, and skin lesions on the hands and feet.

      Gonococcal Arthritis: This is a rare type of arthritis caused by disseminated gonococcal infection. It presents with asymmetric migratory arthralgia, which tends to involve the upper extremities more than the lower extremities. Symptoms may resolve spontaneously or evolve into septic arthritis.

      HIV-Associated Psoriasis and Psoriatic Arthritis: Patients with HIV may experience more severe symptoms of psoriasis and psoriatic arthritis than non-HIV-infected patients. Reactive arthritis can also be severe in HIV-infected patients.

      Psoriatic Arthritis: Patients with psoriatic arthritis share many features with those with reactive arthritis, including histologically identical skin lesions. However, patients with psoriasis have fewer constitutional symptoms but may have an asymmetric pattern, sausage digits, and distal interphalangeal joint involvement.

      Syphilitic Arthritis: This is a rare late feature of syphilis and presents as monoarthritis.

      By understanding the unique features of each type of arthritis, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care and management for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What is a possible truth about idiopathic adolescent scoliosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a possible truth about idiopathic adolescent scoliosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Has no other anatomical clues

      Explanation:

      Understanding Scoliosis Examination

      During scoliosis examination, it is important to take note of certain anatomical clues such as waist asymmetry, uneven shoulders, and humps in the lumbar or thoracic area. Non-structural scoliosis is often caused by unequal leg length, while idiopathic adolescent scoliosis is of the structural type and is usually noticed during the early adolescent growth spurt, particularly in girls. When bending, the structural type is exaggerated while the non-structural type is improved. Proper identification of these factors is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan for scoliosis patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A new blood test is developed to detect pulmonary embolisms (PEs) in elderly...

    Incorrect

    • A new blood test is developed to detect pulmonary embolisms (PEs) in elderly patients with covid-19. A study compares its performance with the current gold standard for diagnosis, CT pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) scanning. A total of 250 elderly patients with covid-19 undergo CTPA scanning. Amongst those, 50 patients are identified as having PEs on CTPA scans and are subsequently tested using the new blood test. Of these, 40 have a positive test, and 10 have a negative test. Of the 200 covid-19 patients who did not have a PE demonstrated on CTPA scanning, 180 have a negative blood test, and 20 have a positive blood test. What is the sensitivity of the new test based on the given results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 80%

      Explanation:

      To determine the sensitivity of the new blood test for detecting pulmonary embolisms (PEs), we need to calculate the proportion of true positive results among all actual positive cases identified by the CTPA scans.

      Definitions

      • Sensitivity: The probability that the test correctly identifies patients with the disease (true positives) among all patients who actually have the disease.

        Sensitivity=True Positives/(True Positives+False Negatives)

      Data from the Study

      • Total patients with PE on CTPA (True Condition Positive): 50 patients
      • True Positives (TP): Patients with PE who tested positive on the blood test: 40
      • False Negatives (FN): Patients with PE who tested negative on the blood test: 10

      Calculation of Sensitivity

      Using the formula for sensitivity:

      Sensitivity=True Positives/(True Positives+False Negatives)

      Sensitivity=40/(40+10)

      Sensitivity=40/50

      Sensitivity=0.8

      Sensitivity=0.8×100=80%

      Conclusion

      The sensitivity of the new blood test for detecting pulmonary embolisms in elderly patients with covid-19 is 80%. This means that the test correctly identifies 80% of patients who have a pulmonary embolism, according to the CTPA results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 54-year-old man contacts his GP reporting visual alterations in his left eye....

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man contacts his GP reporting visual alterations in his left eye. He has been observing flashes/floaters and spider webs for the last 48 hours, and now there is some darkening on the periphery of vision. Additionally, he has noticed that straight lines appear somewhat jagged. There is no associated pain or injury. The patient is in good health and has no chronic medical conditions.

      What is the probable diagnosis for the aforementioned symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Retinal detachment

      Explanation:

      If you experience peripheral vision loss accompanied by spider webs and flashing lights, it could be a sign of retinal detachment. This condition is often described as a curtain coming down over your vision and requires immediate attention from an ophthalmologist. Additionally, you may notice floaters or string-like shapes, and straight lines may appear distorted due to the retina detaching from the choroid.

      Sudden loss of vision can be a scary symptom for patients, but it can be caused by a variety of factors. Transient monocular visual loss (TMVL) is a term used to describe a sudden, temporary loss of vision that lasts less than 24 hours. The most common causes of sudden painless loss of vision include ischaemic/vascular issues, vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment, and retinal migraine.

      Ischaemic/vascular issues, also known as ‘amaurosis fugax’, can be caused by a wide range of factors such as thrombosis, embolism, temporal arteritis, and hypoperfusion. It may also represent a form of transient ischaemic attack (TIA) and should be treated similarly with aspirin 300 mg. Altitudinal field defects are often seen, and ischaemic optic neuropathy can occur due to occlusion of the short posterior ciliary arteries.

      Central retinal vein occlusion is more common than arterial occlusion and can be caused by glaucoma, polycythaemia, and hypertension. Severe retinal haemorrhages are usually seen on fundoscopy. Central retinal artery occlusion, on the other hand, is due to thromboembolism or arteritis and features include afferent pupillary defect and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina.

      Vitreous haemorrhage can be caused by diabetes, bleeding disorders, and anticoagulants. Features may include sudden visual loss and dark spots. Retinal detachment may be preceded by flashes of light or floaters, which are also symptoms of posterior vitreous detachment. Differentiating between these conditions can be done by observing the specific symptoms such as a veil or curtain over the field of vision, straight lines appearing curved, and central visual loss. Large bleeds can cause sudden visual loss, while small bleeds may cause floaters.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - What immunizations are advised for a child between the ages of 14 and...

    Incorrect

    • What immunizations are advised for a child between the ages of 14 and 16?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenza B

      Explanation:

      Recommended Vaccinations for Adolescents

      A booster vaccination for tetanus and diphtheria is required for adolescents between the ages of 14 and 16. It is recommended that these boosters be administered every 10 years thereafter. In some countries, a second dose of the MMR vaccine is given at age 12. The BCG vaccine is not routinely given, but is offered to individuals who are at risk. It is important for adolescents to stay up-to-date on their vaccinations to protect themselves and those around them from preventable diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (1/2) 50%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal Health (1/1) 100%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (0/1) 0%
Mental Health (0/1) 0%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Allergy And Immunology (0/1) 0%
Eyes And Vision (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular Health (0/1) 0%
Passmed