00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 16-year-old female from Nigeria comes to the clinic with a swelling near...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old female from Nigeria comes to the clinic with a swelling near her earlobe. She had her ears pierced three months ago and has noticed a gradual development of an erythematous swelling. Upon examination, a keloid scar is observed. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Refer for intralesional diclofenac

      Correct Answer: Refer for intralesional triamcinolone

      Explanation:

      Understanding Keloid Scars

      Keloid scars are abnormal growths that develop from the connective tissue of a scar and extend beyond the boundaries of the original wound. They are more common in people with dark skin and tend to occur in young adults. Keloids are most frequently found on the sternum, shoulder, neck, face, extensor surface of limbs, and trunk.

      To prevent keloid scars, incisions should be made along relaxed skin tension lines. However, if keloids do develop, early treatment with intra-lesional steroids such as triamcinolone may be effective. In some cases, excision may be necessary, but this should be approached with caution as it can potentially lead to further keloid scarring.

      It is important to note that the historical use of Langer lines to determine optimal incision lines has been shown to produce worse cosmetic results than following skin tension lines. Understanding the predisposing factors and treatment options for keloid scars can help individuals make informed decisions about their care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 42-year-old female patient visits the GP clinic with two circular patches on...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old female patient visits the GP clinic with two circular patches on her scalp that have resulted in hair loss and scarring. She reports that she first noticed these patches 4 weeks after returning from a trip to Italy. Upon further inquiry, she also acknowledges experiencing persistent joint pain and stiffness. Could scarring alopecia be caused by any of the following?

      Your Answer: Alopecia areata

      Correct Answer: Lichen planus

      Explanation:

      Scarring alopecia can be caused by various factors such as trauma/burns, radiotherapy, discoid lupus, tinea capitis, and lichen planus. However, out of these options, lichen planus is the only cause that leads to scarring alopecia. The remaining causes, including alopecia areata, carbimazole, trichotillomania, and telogen effluvium, result in non-scarring alopecia.

      Input:
      Alopecia may be divided into scarring (destruction of hair follicle) and non-scarring (preservation of hair follicle). Scarring alopecia can be caused by trauma, burns, radiotherapy, lichen planus, discoid lupus, and untreated tinea capitis. Non-scarring alopecia can be caused by male-pattern baldness, drugs such as cytotoxic drugs, carbimazole, heparin, oral contraceptive pill, and colchicine, nutritional deficiencies such as iron and zinc deficiency, autoimmune conditions such as alopecia areata, telogen effluvium, hair loss following a stressful period such as surgery, and trichotillomania.

      Output:
      – Alopecia can be categorized into scarring and non-scarring types.
      – Scarring alopecia is caused by trauma, burns, radiotherapy, lichen planus, discoid lupus, and untreated tinea capitis.
      – Non-scarring alopecia is caused by male-pattern baldness, drugs such as cytotoxic drugs, carbimazole, heparin, oral contraceptive pill, and colchicine, nutritional deficiencies such as iron and zinc deficiency, autoimmune conditions such as alopecia areata, telogen effluvium, hair loss following a stressful period such as surgery, and trichotillomania.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old male presents to his GP with a complaint of rectal bleeding...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male presents to his GP with a complaint of rectal bleeding and black stool. He reports experiencing this issue more than six times in the past four months. The patient denies any other symptoms such as weight loss, abdominal pain, or changes in bowel habits. During the examination, no masses or apparent causes of bleeding are found in his abdomen or rectum. However, the GP notices some red spots on the patient's lips and tongue. When questioned about them, the patient dismisses them as insignificant and claims that everyone in his family has them. What is the most probable reason for the bleeding?

      Your Answer: Crohn's disease

      Correct Answer: Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia

      Explanation:

      Rectal bleeding can have various causes, and it is crucial to differentiate between them as the treatments and prognosis can differ significantly. By utilizing signs and examinations, one can eliminate possibilities. If there are no masses, weight loss, or changes in bowel habits, rectal or colon cancer is less probable. Similarly, if there are no changes in bowel habits, abdominal pain, or weight loss, Crohn’s disease is less likely. This narrows down the possibilities to Louis-Bar syndrome and hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia. Louis-Bar syndrome, also known as ataxia telangiectasia, is a rare neurodegenerative disorder that typically manifests in early childhood with severe ataxia and other neurological symptoms.

      Understanding Hereditary Haemorrhagic Telangiectasia

      Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia, also known as Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome, is a genetic condition that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is characterized by the presence of multiple telangiectasia on the skin and mucous membranes. While 80% of cases have a family history, 20% occur spontaneously without prior family history.

      There are four main diagnostic criteria for HHT. If a patient has two of these criteria, they are said to have a possible diagnosis of HHT. If they meet three or more of the criteria, they are said to have a definite diagnosis of HHT. These criteria include spontaneous, recurrent nosebleeds (epistaxis), multiple telangiectases at characteristic sites such as the lips, oral cavity, fingers, and nose, visceral lesions such as gastrointestinal telangiectasia (with or without bleeding), pulmonary arteriovenous malformations (AVM), hepatic AVM, cerebral AVM, and spinal AVM, and a first-degree relative with HHT.

      In summary, HHT is a genetic condition that is characterized by multiple telangiectasia on the skin and mucous membranes. It can be diagnosed based on the presence of certain criteria, including nosebleeds, telangiectases, visceral lesions, and family history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 70-year-old man presents to his GP with a nodular change on his...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man presents to his GP with a nodular change on his back. He complains that it has become itchy and bleeding over the past two months. On examination, it appears black and blue in colour with a slightly irregular border.
      Which of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Malignant melanoma

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Lesions and Malignancies: Types and Characteristics

      Skin lesions and malignancies are common conditions that affect people of all ages. Among the most prevalent types are malignant melanoma, actinic keratosis, guttate psoriasis, lentigo maligna, and seborrhoeic keratosis. Each of these conditions has distinct characteristics that can help in their diagnosis and management.

      Malignant Melanoma: This is a type of skin cancer that arises from melanocytes in the skin. It can present as a black or brown lesion with asymmetrical shape, irregular border, multiple colors, and diameter greater than 6mm. Any change in size, shape, color, or symptoms such as bleeding or itching should be evaluated promptly.

      Actinic Keratosis: This is a sun-induced lesion that can become malignant. It appears as a scaly or hyperkeratotic lesion with a brown or hyperpigmented base. It commonly occurs on the head, neck, forearms, and hands.

      Guttate Psoriasis: This is a skin condition that causes multiple lesions. It can present as scaly, hyperpigmented, or scaly lesions that are usually brown with a scaly base.

      Lentigo Maligna: This is an early form of melanoma that is confined to the epidermis. It presents as a slowly growing or changing patch of discolored skin that resembles freckles or brown marks. It can grow to several centimeters over several years or decades.

      Seborrhoeic Keratosis: This is a harmless, pigmented growth that commonly occurs with age. It appears as a raised, often pigmented lesion that rarely causes bleeding.

      In summary, skin lesions and malignancies can have various presentations and characteristics. It is important to be aware of their features and seek medical attention if any changes or symptoms occur. Regular skin checks and sun protection can help prevent and detect these conditions early.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      30.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 67-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of severe mucosal ulceration...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of severe mucosal ulceration and blistering lesions on her torso and arms. Upon examination, the blisters are flaccid and rupture easily upon contact. What is the most appropriate course of action for this likely diagnosis? Choose the BEST management option from the list below.

      Your Answer: Refer urgently to dermatology

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral to Dermatology for Pemphigus Vulgaris Treatment

      Pemphigus vulgaris requires urgent referral to the Dermatology Team for investigation and treatment. Supportive measures include wound care and antiseptic regimens to reduce the risk of secondary infection. Patients should also avoid activities that may traumatize the skin and mucous membranes during active phases. Topical steroids are used in milder cases, while systemic corticosteroids with topical treatments are preferred in advanced cases. Emollients and oral antihistamines are not first-line treatments. Topical clobetasone butyrate can be used in mild cases, but referral to Dermatology is still necessary. Topical clotrimazole is not a first-line treatment, and topical dapsone should not be started immediately without further investigation and treatment from Dermatology.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      37.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following characteristics is least commonly associated with rosacea? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following characteristics is least commonly associated with rosacea?

      Your Answer: Flushing

      Correct Answer: Pruritus

      Explanation:

      It is uncommon for pruritus to be present in cases of acne rosacea.

      Understanding Rosacea: Symptoms and Management

      Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a chronic skin condition that has no known cause. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Over time, telangiectasia (visible blood vessels) may appear, followed by persistent redness with papules and pustules. In some cases, rhinophyma (enlarged nose) may develop, and there may be ocular involvement, such as blepharitis. Sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.

      Mild cases of rosacea may be treated with topical metronidazole, while topical brimonidine gel may be used for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics like oxytetracycline. Patients are advised to apply high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for those with prominent telangiectasia, and patients with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and management of rosacea can help individuals manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 16-year-old male presents to the dermatology clinic for follow-up. He has a...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old male presents to the dermatology clinic for follow-up. He has a previous medical history of acne and is currently taking oral lymecycline. Despite treatment, there has been no improvement and upon examination, scarring is evident on his face. What is the most appropriate course of treatment?

      Your Answer: Oral retinoin

      Explanation:

      Referral for oral retinoin is recommended for patients with scarring.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that typically affects adolescents, with the face, neck, and upper trunk being the most commonly affected areas. It is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, leading to the formation of comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the presence and extent of inflammatory lesions, papules, and pustules.

      The management of acne vulgaris typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy such as topical retinoids or benzoyl peroxide. If this is not effective, topical combination therapy may be used, which includes a topical antibiotic, benzoyl peroxide, and topical retinoid. Oral antibiotics such as tetracyclines may also be prescribed, but they should be avoided in pregnant or breastfeeding women and children under 12 years of age. Erythromycin may be used in pregnancy, while minocycline is now considered less appropriate due to the possibility of irreversible pigmentation. Oral antibiotics should be used for a maximum of three months and always co-prescribed with a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance.

      Combined oral contraceptives (COCP) are an alternative to oral antibiotics in women, and Dianette (co-cyrindiol) may be used as it has anti-androgen properties. However, it has an increased risk of venous thromboembolism compared to other COCPs, so it should generally be used second-line and for only three months. Oral isotretinoin is a potent medication that should only be used under specialist supervision, and it is contraindicated in pregnancy. Finally, there is no evidence to support dietary modification in the management of acne vulgaris.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      85.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - As a junior doctor in a general practice, you come across a patient...

    Incorrect

    • As a junior doctor in a general practice, you come across a patient with severe hay fever. The patient is in her early 20s and expresses her desire to take antihistamines but is worried about feeling drowsy. What would be the best medication option for her?

      Your Answer: Chlorphenamine

      Correct Answer: Loratadine

      Explanation:

      Loratadine and cetirizine are antihistamines that are not likely to cause sedation, unlike chlorpheniramine which is known to be more sedating.

      While loratadine may still cause sedation, it is less likely to do so compared to other antihistamines such as chlorphenamine and promethazine. Buclizine, on the other hand, is primarily used as an anti-emetic for migraines but also has antihistamine properties. Mirtazapine, although it has antihistamine properties, is mainly used as an antidepressant and appetite stimulant.

      Antihistamines for Allergic Rhinitis and Urticaria

      Antihistamines, specifically H1 inhibitors, are effective in treating allergic rhinitis and urticaria. Sedating antihistamines such as chlorpheniramine have antimuscarinic properties that can cause side effects like urinary retention and dry mouth. On the other hand, non-sedating antihistamines like loratidine and cetirizine are less likely to cause drowsiness. However, there is some evidence that cetirizine may still cause more drowsiness compared to other non-sedating antihistamines. Overall, antihistamines are a valuable treatment option for those suffering from allergic rhinitis and urticaria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 33-year-old man is brought to the regional burns unit with mixed thickness...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old man is brought to the regional burns unit with mixed thickness burns affecting 45% of his body surface area. On the fourth day of his admission, he experiences severe epigastric pain accompanied by haematemesis, melaena, and haemodynamic instability. What is the probable cause of these new symptoms?

      Your Answer: Malory-Weiss tear

      Correct Answer: Curling's ulcer

      Explanation:

      Curling’s ulcer is a type of stress ulcer that may develop following severe burns. It is characterized by the necrosis of the gastric mucosa, which is often caused by hypovolemia. Curling’s ulcers are associated with a high risk of bleeding and mortality. In contrast, a Cushing’s ulcer is a stress ulcer that can occur after severe head trauma. While acute pancreatitis may develop after severe burns, it is not typically associated with significant gastrointestinal bleeding. Similarly, a Mallory-Weiss tear is an unlikely cause of the observed bleeding, as there is no history of vomiting and the volume of bleeding is too high.

      Pathology of Extensive Burns

      Extensive burns can cause a range of pathological effects on the body. The heat and microangiopathy can damage erythrocytes, leading to haemolysis. Additionally, the loss of capillary membrane integrity can cause plasma leakage into the interstitial space, resulting in protein loss and hypovolaemic shock. This shock can occur up to 48 hours after the injury and is characterized by decreased blood volume and increased haematocrit. Furthermore, the extravasation of fluids from the burn site can lead to secondary infections, such as Staphylococcus aureus, and increase the risk of acute peptic stress ulcers.

      In addition to these effects, extensive burns can also lead to ARDS and compartment syndrome in extremities with full-thickness circumferential burns. However, the healing process can vary depending on the severity of the burn. Superficial burns can be healed by the migration of keratinocytes to form a new layer over the burn site. On the other hand, full-thickness burns can result in dermal scarring, which may require skin grafts to provide optimal coverage.

      In summary, extensive burns can have a range of pathological effects on the body, including haemolysis, plasma leakage, protein loss, hypovolaemic shock, secondary infections, ARDS, and compartment syndrome. However, the healing process can vary depending on the severity of the burn, with superficial burns being healed by keratinocyte migration and full-thickness burns requiring skin grafts for optimal coverage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      34.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A father brings his 4-year-old daughter to see her General Practitioner with a...

    Correct

    • A father brings his 4-year-old daughter to see her General Practitioner with a rash covering her face, trunk, arms and legs. She had a fever for a couple of days with a runny nose before the rash appears but is now well and afebrile. The rash is mainly vesicular with small fluid-filled blisters and there are a few scabbed lesions. Her father is concerned as she is scratching the lesions, especially at night. She is otherwise fit and well and is up-to-date with her vaccinations.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Chlorphenamine

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for chickenpox in Children

      chickenpox is a common viral infection in children that presents with a characteristic vesicular rash. While there is no specific treatment for chickenpox, symptomatic relief can be provided to alleviate itching and fever. Here are some treatment options for chickenpox in children:

      1. Chlorphenamine: This sedating antihistamine can be used at night-time to help with itching.

      2. Aciclovir: This antiviral medication is recommended for patients who are immunosuppressed or have risk factors for developing complications from infection, such as adults or newborns.

      3. Flucloxacillin: This antibiotic is used to treat secondary bacterial infections that can occur with chickenpox. However, it is not necessary for a child who is well and afebrile.

      4. Ibuprofen: While ibuprofen and paracetamol are both used as antipyretics in children with febrile illnesses, the use of ibuprofen in children with chickenpox is linked to an increased risk of severe skin infection. Paracetamol is recommended instead.

      5. Malathion: This treatment is for scabies, not chickenpox. Scabies presents with a different type of rash and does not have a prodromal illness.

      In summary, treatment for chickenpox in children is mainly symptomatic. Antihistamines and calamine lotion can help with itching, while paracetamol can be used for fever. Antibiotics and antivirals are only necessary in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      25.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Dermatology (4/10) 40%
Passmed