00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - An 82-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with increasing shortness of breath...

    Incorrect

    • An 82-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with increasing shortness of breath on exertion and swelling of her ankles and lower legs. During examination, she appears alert and oriented, but has significant erythema of her malar area. Her cardiovascular system shows an irregular heart rate of 92-104 beats per minute with low volume, and a blood pressure of 145/90 mmHg lying and standing. Her jugular venous pressure is raised with a single waveform, and her apex beat is undisplaced and forceful in character. There is a soft mid-diastolic murmur heard during heart sounds 1 + 2. Bibasal crackles are present in her chest, and she has pitting peripheral edema to the mid-calf. Based on these findings, what is the most likely cause of her collapse?

      Your Answer: Mitral regurgitation

      Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Mitral Stenosis from Other Valvular Diseases: Exam Findings

      Mitral stenosis is a condition that presents with symptoms of left and right ventricular failure, atrial fibrillation, and its complications. When examining a patient suspected of having mitral stenosis, there are several significant signs to look out for. These include a low-volume pulse, atrial fibrillation, normal pulse pressure and blood pressure, loss of ‘a’ waves and large v waves in the jugular venous pressure, an undisplaced, discrete/forceful apex beat, and a mid-diastolic murmur heard best with the bell at the apex. Additionally, patients with mitral stenosis often have signs of right ventricular dilation and secondary tricuspid regurgitation.

      It is important to distinguish mitral stenosis from other valvular diseases, such as mixed mitral and aortic valve disease, aortic stenosis, aortic regurgitation, and mitral regurgitation. The examination findings for these conditions differ from those of mitral stenosis. For example, mixed mitral and aortic valve disease would not present with the same signs as mitral stenosis. Aortic stenosis presents with symptoms of left ventricular failure, angina, and an ejection systolic murmur radiating to the carotids. Aortic regurgitation causes an early diastolic murmur and a collapsing pulse on examination. Finally, mitral regurgitation causes a pan-systolic murmur radiating to the axilla. By understanding the unique examination findings for each valvular disease, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      127.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 60-year-old woman undergoes cardiac catheterisation. A catheter is inserted in her right...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman undergoes cardiac catheterisation. A catheter is inserted in her right femoral vein in the femoral triangle and advanced through the iliac veins and inferior vena cava to the right side of the heart so that right chamber pressures can be recorded.
      What two other structures pass within the femoral triangle?

      Your Answer: Inguinal lymph nodes, femoral artery

      Correct Answer: Femoral artery, femoral nerve

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Femoral Triangle

      The femoral triangle is a triangular area on the anterior aspect of the thigh, formed by the crossing of various muscles. Within this area, the femoral vein, femoral artery, and femoral nerve lie medial to lateral (VAN). It is important to note that the inguinal lymph nodes and saphenous vein are not part of the femoral triangle. Understanding the anatomy of the femoral triangle is crucial for medical professionals when performing procedures in this area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      93.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 58-year-old man experiences a myocardial infarction (MI) that results in necrosis of...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man experiences a myocardial infarction (MI) that results in necrosis of the anterior papillary muscle of the right ventricle. This has led to valve prolapse. Which structure is most likely responsible for the prolapse?

      Your Answer: Anterior and septal cusps of the tricuspid valve

      Correct Answer: Anterior and posterior cusps of the tricuspid valve

      Explanation:

      Cusps and Papillary Muscles of the Tricuspid and Mitral Valves

      The tricuspid and mitral valves are important structures in the heart that regulate blood flow between the atria and ventricles. These valves are composed of cusps and papillary muscles that work together to ensure proper function.

      The tricuspid valve has three cusps: anterior, posterior, and septal. The papillary muscles of the right ventricle attach to these cusps, with the anterior papillary muscle connecting to both the anterior and posterior cusps.

      The mitral valve, located between the left atrium and ventricle, has only two cusps: anterior and posterior.

      The posterior and septal cusps of the tricuspid valve attach to the posterior papillary muscle of the right ventricle, while the anterior and septal cusps attach to the septal papillary muscle.

      Understanding the anatomy and function of these cusps and papillary muscles is crucial in diagnosing and treating heart conditions such as mitral valve prolapse and tricuspid regurgitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      54.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old male smoker presents with a 6-hour history of gradual-onset central chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male smoker presents with a 6-hour history of gradual-onset central chest pain. The chest pain is worse on inspiration and relieved by leaning forward. He reports recently suffering a fever which he attributed to a viral illness. He has no significant past medical history; however, both his parents suffered from ischaemic heart disease in their early 60s. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals PR depression and concave ST-segment elevation in most leads. He is haemodynamically stable.
      What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Pleural aspiration

      Correct Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Acute Pericarditis: Understanding the Clinical Scenario

      Acute pericarditis can be caused by a variety of factors, including infection, inflammation, and metabolic issues. The condition is typically characterized by gradual-onset chest pain that worsens with inspiration and lying flat, but improves with leaning forward. ECG findings often show concave ST-segment elevation and PR depression in certain leads, along with reciprocal changes in others.

      Understanding Treatment Options for Acute Pericarditis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      56.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - You are in pre-assessment clinic and request an electrocardiogram (ECG) on a 58-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • You are in pre-assessment clinic and request an electrocardiogram (ECG) on a 58-year-old man attending for a radical prostatectomy.
      What are the limits of the normal cardiac axis?

      Your Answer: -30 to 60 degrees

      Correct Answer: -30 to 90 degrees

      Explanation:

      Understanding ECG Analysis: The Normal Cardiac Axis

      ECG analysis is a fundamental concept that is essential to understand early on. One of the key components of ECG analysis is the normal cardiac axis, which ranges from −30 to 90 degrees. If the axis is greater than 90 degrees, it implies right axis deviation, while an axis less than −30 degrees indicates left axis deviation.

      To determine the axis, leads I, II, and III of the ECG are typically examined. A normal axis is characterized by upgoing waves in all three leads. In contrast, right axis deviation is indicated by a downgoing wave in lead I and an upgoing wave in leads II and III. Left axis deviation is indicated by an upgoing wave in lead I and a downgoing wave in leads II and III.

      While −30 to −90 degrees is considered left axis deviation and not a normal axis, −30 to 60 degrees is a normal axis, but it does not cover the full spectrum of a normal axis. Therefore, the correct answer is -30 to 90 degrees. Understanding the normal cardiac axis is crucial for accurate ECG interpretation and diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      20.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 62-year-old salesman is found to have a blood pressure (BP) of 141/91...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old salesman is found to have a blood pressure (BP) of 141/91 mmHg on a routine medical check. Two months later, his BP was 137/89 mmHg. He leads a physically active life, despite being a heavy smoker. He is not diabetic and his cholesterol levels are low. There is no past medical history of note.
      What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Lifestyle advice and reassess every year

      Explanation:

      Hypertension Management and Lifestyle Advice

      Managing hypertension requires careful consideration of various factors, including cardiovascular risk, age, and other risk factors. The 2011 NICE guidelines recommend further investigation and assessment for those with a BP of 140/90 mmHg or higher and for those at high risk. Once diagnosed, lifestyle advice and annual reassessment are recommended, with drug therapy considered based on the number of risk factors present.

      For patients with cardiovascular risk factors, lifestyle advice and education on reducing cardiovascular risk are crucial. This includes support for smoking cessation, as smoking is a significant risk factor for cardiovascular disease. Patients with high risk, such as the elderly or heavy smokers, should be monitored annually.

      While pharmacological treatment may be necessary, thiazide diuretics are no longer used first-line for hypertension management. For patients over 55, calcium channel blockers are recommended as first-line treatment. ACE inhibitors would not be used first-line in patients over 55.

      In summary, managing hypertension requires a comprehensive approach that considers various factors, including cardiovascular risk, age, and other risk factors. Lifestyle advice and annual reassessment are crucial for patients with hypertension, with drug therapy considered based on the number of risk factors present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      30.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - An ECG shows small T-waves, ST depression, and prominent U-waves in a patient...

    Incorrect

    • An ECG shows small T-waves, ST depression, and prominent U-waves in a patient who is likely to be experiencing what condition?

      Your Answer: Hyponatraemia

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Electrocardiogram Changes and Symptoms Associated with Electrolyte Imbalances

      Electrolyte imbalances can cause various changes in the electrocardiogram (ECG) and present with specific symptoms. Here are some of the common electrolyte imbalances and their associated ECG changes and symptoms:

      Hypokalaemia:
      – ECG changes: small T-waves, ST depression, prolonged QT interval, prominent U-waves
      – Symptoms: generalised weakness, lack of energy, muscle pain, constipation
      – Treatment: potassium replacement with iv infusion of potassium chloride (rate of infusion should not exceed 10 mmol of potassium an hour)

      Hyponatraemia:
      – ECG changes: ST elevation
      – Symptoms: headaches, nausea, vomiting, lethargy
      – Treatment: depends on the underlying cause

      Hypocalcaemia:
      – ECG changes: prolongation of the QT interval
      – Symptoms: paraesthesia, muscle cramps, tetany
      – Treatment: calcium replacement

      Hyperkalaemia:
      – ECG changes: tall tented T-waves, widened QRS, absent P-waves, sine wave appearance
      – Symptoms: weakness, fatigue
      – Treatment: depends on the severity of hyperkalaemia

      Hypercalcaemia:
      – ECG changes: shortening of the QT interval
      – Symptoms: moans (nausea, constipation), stones (kidney stones, flank pain), groans (confusion, depression), bones (bone pain)
      – Treatment: depends on the underlying cause

      It is important to recognise and treat electrolyte imbalances promptly to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 68-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with chest tightness. The...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with chest tightness. The tightness started about a day ago, however today it is worse and associated with shortness of breath and dizziness.
      Upon examination, there is a slow rising carotid pulse and systolic murmur which radiates to carotids 3/6. Examination is otherwise unremarkable without calf tenderness. The patient does not have any significant past medical history apart from type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension which are both well controlled.
      What is the best diagnostic investigation?

      Your Answer: Echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Investigations for Cardiac Conditions

      When a patient presents with signs and symptoms of a cardiac condition, various diagnostic investigations may be performed to determine the underlying cause. In the case of a patient with chest tightness, the first-line investigation is usually an electrocardiogram (ECG) to rule out acute coronary syndrome. However, if the patient is suspected of having aortic stenosis (AS), the best diagnostic investigation is an echocardiogram and Doppler to measure the size of the aortic valve. A normal aortic valve area is more than 2 cm2, while severe AS is defined as less than 1 cm2.

      Other diagnostic investigations for cardiac conditions include a coronary angiogram to assess the patency of the coronary arteries and potentially perform an angioplasty to insert a stent if any narrowing is found. Exercise tolerance tests can also be useful in monitoring patients with a cardiac history and heart failure classification. However, a D-dimer test, which is used to diagnose pulmonary embolism, would not be indicated in a patient with suspected AS unless there were additional features suggestive of a pulmonary embolism, such as calf tenderness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      74.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 57-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with sudden onset of palpitations...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with sudden onset of palpitations and shortness of breath. She is speaking in broken sentences and appears distressed, with visible sweating. Her vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 70/30, heart rate 180 bpm, respiratory rate 28, and sats 98% on air. Upon auscultation, there are crepitations at both lung bases. The patient reports experiencing crushing chest pain during the assessment. A 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals a regular broad complex tachycardia. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Sedation and synchronised direct current (DC) shock

      Explanation:

      Management of Ventricular Tachycardia with a Pulse: Choosing the Right Intervention

      When faced with a patient in ventricular tachycardia (VT) with a pulse, the presence of adverse signs is a crucial factor in determining the appropriate intervention. Adverse signs such as syncope, chest pain, heart failure, and altered consciousness indicate imminent risk of deterioration and potential cardiac arrest. In such cases, prompt direct current (DC) cardioversion is necessary, and sedation may be required if the patient is conscious.

      While drug therapy may be an option in the absence of adverse signs, it is unlikely to work quickly enough in the presence of such signs. For instance, an amiodarone loading dose may not be effective in a patient with heart failure and shock. Similarly, beta blockers like iv metoprolol are not indicated in the acute management of VT with a pulse.

      In contrast, immediate precordial thump has limited utility and is only indicated in a witnessed monitored cardiac arrest. A fluid challenge may be given, but it is unlikely to address the underlying problem. Therefore, in the presence of adverse signs, DC shock is the best option for managing VT with a pulse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      46
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You are fast-bleeped to the ward where you find a 46-year-old woman in...

    Correct

    • You are fast-bleeped to the ward where you find a 46-year-old woman in ventricular tachycardia. She had a witnessed syncopal episode while walking to the toilet with nursing staff and currently has a blood pressure of 85/56 mmHg. She is orientated to time, place and person but is complaining of feeling light-headed.
      How would you manage this patient’s ventricular tachycardia?

      Your Answer: Synchronised direct current (DC) cardioversion

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Ventricular Tachycardia: Synchronised Cardioversion and Amiodarone

      Ventricular tachycardia is a serious condition that requires immediate treatment. The Resuscitation Council tachycardia guideline recommends synchronised electrical cardioversion as the first-line treatment for unstable patients with ventricular tachycardia who exhibit adverse features such as shock, myocardial ischaemia, syncope, or heart failure. Synchronised cardioversion is timed to coincide with the R or S wave of the QRS complex, reducing the risk of ventricular fibrillation or cardiac arrest.

      Administering an unsynchronised shock could coincide with the T wave, triggering fibrillation of the ventricles and leading to a cardiac arrest. If three attempts of synchronised cardioversion fail to restore sinus rhythm, a loading dose of amiodarone 300 mg iv should be given over 10–20 minutes, followed by another attempt of cardioversion.

      Amiodarone is the first-line treatment for uncompromised patients with tachycardia. A loading dose of 300 mg is given iv, followed by an infusion of 900 mg over 24 hours. Digoxin and metoprolol are not recommended for the treatment of ventricular tachycardia. Digoxin is used for atrial fibrillation, while metoprolol should be avoided in patients with significant hypotension, as it can further compromise the patient’s condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      3.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiology (4/10) 40%
Passmed