-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old woman complains of epigastric pain, vomiting and weight loss. The surgeon suspects gastric cancer and sends her for endoscopy. Where is the cancer likely to be located?
Your Answer: Pylorus
Correct Answer: Cardia
Explanation:Location of Gastric Cancers: Changing Trends
Gastric cancers can arise from different parts of the stomach, including the cardia, body, fundus, antrum, and pylorus. In the past, the majority of gastric cancers used to originate from the antrum and pylorus. However, in recent years, there has been a shift in the location of gastric cancers, with the majority now arising from the cardia. This change in trend highlights the importance of ongoing research and surveillance in the field of gastric cancer.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A 23-year-old woman with a history of two episodes of pneumothorax over the last 12 months was found to have ectopia lentis, during a recent examination by an ophthalmologist. It is noted that she has pectus excavatum, pes planus, a high arched palate and a positive wrist and thumb sign.
What is the likely finding from her echocardiogram?Your Answer: Coarctation of the aorta
Correct Answer: Dilated aortic root
Explanation:Cardiovascular Conditions and Marfan Syndrome
Marfan syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the connective tissue and can lead to various cardiovascular conditions. One of the most common complications is aortic aneurysm, which occurs when the ascending aorta becomes dilated and can result in acute aortic dissection. Additionally, the stretching of the aortic valve annulus can cause aortic regurgitation. Marfan syndrome is caused by a mutation in the FBN1 gene and can be differentiated from other connective tissue disorders such as Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, pseudoxanthoma elasticum, and homocystinuria.
Aortic valve stenosis, on the other hand, is not associated with Marfan syndrome and is caused by either senile calcific degeneration or a congenital bicuspid aortic valve. Coarctation of the aorta is associated with Turner syndrome and presents with hypertension in the upper extremities and hypotension in the lower extremities. Ventricular septal defects and Ebstein’s anomaly are also not associated with Marfan syndrome.
In summary, Marfan syndrome can lead to various cardiovascular complications, and it is important to differentiate it from other connective tissue disorders and understand the associated conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A 25-year-old individual is undergoing testing for asthma. Prior to administering bronchodilators, their FEV1/FVC ratio is measured at 0.85, with the FVC at 90% of normal. What does this indicate?
Your Answer: Normal examination
Explanation:The FEV1/FVC ratio is a key measurement in lung function tests. In normal subjects, this ratio ranges from 0.75 to 0.85. If the ratio is less than 0.70, it suggests an obstructive problem that reduces the FEV1, which is the volume of air that can be expelled in one second. However, if the ratio is normal, it indicates that the individual has a healthy respiratory system.
In cases of restrictive lung disease, the FVC is reduced, which can also affect the FEV1/FVC ratio. In such cases, the ratio may be normal or even high. Therefore, it is important to interpret the FEV1/FVC ratio in conjunction with other lung function test results to accurately diagnose and manage respiratory conditions. This ratio can help healthcare professionals identify potential lung problems and provide appropriate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old pharmacist with a longstanding diagnosis of sarcoidosis presents to the Dermatology Clinic with an unsightly rash. The rash has been present for a number of years, but the area affected is becoming more prominent and is making her feel very self-conscious. She has been told previously that the rash is connected to her sarcoidosis; however, she would like to know if anything can be done to treat it.
Which one of the following dermatological conditions is diagnostic of chronic sarcoidosis?Your Answer: Erythema nodosum
Correct Answer: Lupus pernio
Explanation:Cutaneous Manifestations of Sarcoidosis
Sarcoidosis is a systemic disease that can affect multiple organs, including the skin. Cutaneous manifestations of sarcoidosis can vary and may present differently depending on the stage of the disease. Here are some common cutaneous manifestations of sarcoidosis:
Lupus pernio: This is a specific skin involvement that affects the bridge of the nose and the area beneath the eyes and cheeks. It is diagnostic for the chronic form of sarcoidosis. The lesions are typically large, bluish-red and dusky purple, infiltrated, plaque-like nodules.
Erythema nodosum: This is seen in the acute stage of sarcoidosis, but it is also seen in many other diseases.
Keloid formation: This is a classic cutaneous lesion of sarcoidosis, but it is not diagnostic of chronic sarcoidosis.
Subcutaneous nodules: These can also be seen in rheumatoid arthritis and are not diagnostic of sarcoidosis.
It is important to note that cutaneous manifestations of sarcoidosis can be nonspecific and may resemble other skin conditions. Therefore, a thorough evaluation by a healthcare provider is necessary for proper diagnosis and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A 47-year-old man is admitted with acute epigastric pain and a serum amylase of 1500 u/l. His IMRIE score confirms acute pancreatitis. On examination, a large ecchymosis is observed around the umbilicus.
What clinical sign does this examination finding demonstrate?Your Answer: Cullen’s sign
Explanation:Common Medical Signs and Their Meanings
Medical signs are physical indications of a disease or condition that can aid in diagnosis. Here are some common medical signs and their meanings:
1. Cullen’s sign: This is bruising around the umbilicus that can indicate acute pancreatitis or an ectopic pregnancy.
2. McBurney’s sign: Pain over McBurney’s point, which is located in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen, can indicate acute appendicitis.
3. Grey–Turner’s sign: Discoloration of the flanks can indicate retroperitoneal hemorrhage.
4. Troisier’s sign: The presence of Virchow’s node in the left supraclavicular fossa can indicate gastric cancer.
5. Tinel’s sign: Tingling in the median nerve distribution when tapping over the median nerve can indicate carpal tunnel syndrome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
What is the diagnostic tool for beta thalassaemia?
Your Answer: Haemoglobin electrophoresis
Explanation:Diagnosis of Beta Thalassaemia
Beta thalassaemia can be diagnosed through the presence of mild microcytic anaemia, target cells on the peripheral blood smear, and a normal red blood cell count. However, the diagnosis is confirmed through the elevation of Hb A2, which is demonstrated by electrophoresis. In beta thalassaemia patients, the Hb A2 level is typically around 4-6%.
It is important to note that in rare cases where there is severe iron deficiency, the increased Hb A2 level may not be observed. However, it becomes evident with iron repletion. Additionally, patients with the rare delta-beta thalassaemia trait do not exhibit an increased Hb A2 level.
In summary, the diagnosis of beta thalassaemia can be suggested through certain symptoms and blood tests, but it is confirmed through the measurement of Hb A2 levels.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A hospital trust is comparing the incidence of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in patients admitted to various departments in the hospital over the past five years.
In which one of the following age groups is the risk of developing a DVT at its highest?Your Answer: Patients undergoing total hip replacements on orthopaedic wards
Explanation:Reducing the Risk of Deep Vein Thrombosis in Hospitalized Patients
Hospitalized patients, particularly those undergoing major orthopaedic and lower limb surgery, are at a high risk of developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Patients with additional risk factors such as cancer and immobility are also at an increased risk. To prevent DVT, all admitted patients should undergo a risk assessment and receive necessary prophylaxis such as thromboembolic deterrent stockings (TEDS) and/or prophylactic low-molecular-weight heparin. While patients undergoing gynaecological surgery are at risk of DVT, they are not the highest risk category. Patients who have suffered from an acute stroke are also at risk, albeit less so than those undergoing major surgery. Strategies to reduce the risk of DVT should be employed for all hospitalized patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A 23-year-old woman student presents to her general practitioner (GP) with menstrual irregularity. Her last menstrual period was 5 months ago. On examination, the GP notes an increased body mass index (BMI) and coarse dark hair over her stomach. There are no other relevant findings. The GP makes a referral to a gynaecologist.
What is the most probable reason for this patient's menstrual irregularity?Your Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)
Explanation:Possible Causes of Amenorrhea and Hirsutism in Women
Amenorrhea, the absence of menstrual periods, and hirsutism, excessive hair growth, are symptoms that can be caused by various conditions. Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a common cause of anovulatory infertility and is diagnosed by the presence of two out of three criteria: ultrasound appearance of enlarged ovaries with multiple cysts, infrequent ovulation or anovulation, and clinical or biochemical evidence of hyperandrogenism. Turner syndrome, characterized by short stature, webbed neck, and absence of periods, is a genetic disorder that would not cause primary amenorrhea. Hyperprolactinemia, a syndrome of high prolactin levels, can cause cessation of ovulation and lactation but not an increase in BMI or hair growth. Premature ovarian failure has symptoms similar to menopause, such as flushing and vaginal dryness. Virilizing ovarian tumor can also cause amenorrhea and hirsutism, but PCOS is more likely and should be ruled out first.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A 12-year-old girl is diagnosed with rheumatic fever after presenting with a 3-day history of fever and polyarthralgia. The patient’s mother is concerned about any potential lasting damage to the heart.
What is the most common cardiac sequelae of rheumatic fever?Your Answer: Mitral stenosis
Explanation:Rheumatic Fever and its Effects on Cardiac Valves
Rheumatic fever is a condition caused by group A β-haemolytic streptococcal infection. To diagnose it, the revised Duckett-Jones criteria are used, which require evidence of streptococcal infection and the presence of certain criteria. While all four cardiac valves may be damaged as a result of rheumatic fever, the mitral valve is the most commonly affected, with major criteria including carditis, subcutaneous nodule, migratory polyarthritis, erythema marginatum, and Sydenham’s chorea. Minor criteria include arthralgia, fever, raised CRP or ESR, raised WCC, heart block, and previous rheumatic fever. Mitral stenosis is the most common result of rheumatic fever, but it is becoming less frequently seen in clinical practice. Pulmonary regurgitation, aortic sclerosis, and tricuspid regurgitation are also possible effects, but they are less common than mitral valve damage. Ventricular septal defect is not commonly associated with rheumatic fever.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old woman came in with an acute myocardial infarction. The ECG revealed ST segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which coronary artery is the most probable to be blocked?
Your Answer: Left anterior descending artery
Correct Answer: Right coronary artery
Explanation:Localisation of Myocardial Infarction
Myocardial infarction (MI) is a medical emergency that occurs when there is a blockage in the blood flow to the heart muscle. The location of the blockage determines the type of MI and the treatment required. An inferior MI is caused by the occlusion of the right coronary artery, which supplies blood to the bottom of the heart. This type of MI can cause symptoms such as chest pain, shortness of breath, and nausea. It is important to identify the location of the MI quickly to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further damage to the heart muscle. Proper diagnosis and management can improve the patient’s chances of survival and reduce the risk of complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)