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Question 1
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You are working at a prenatal care center. A couple comes in who are 28 weeks pregnant. They had difficulty getting pregnant naturally but were able to conceive through their second attempt at IVF. This is their first child. During their 14 week ultrasound, the sonographer expressed concern about the placement of the placenta and they have returned for a follow-up scan today, which confirms the initial finding. What is the probable anomaly?
Your Answer: Placenta praevia
Explanation:A study conducted in Norway in 2006 revealed that singleton pregnancies conceived through assisted fertilization had a six-fold higher risk of placenta praevia compared to naturally conceived pregnancies. The risk of placenta previa was also nearly three-fold higher in pregnancies following assisted fertilization for mothers who had conceived both naturally and through assisted fertilization. This abnormal placental placement is believed to be linked to the abnormal ovarian stimulation hormones that occur during IVF. Additionally, the incidence of placenta praevia is associated with previous caesarean sections, multiparity, and previous gynaecological surgeries, while the incidence of other options given increases with the number of previous caesarean sections.
Understanding Placenta Praevia
Placenta praevia is a condition where the placenta is located wholly or partially in the lower uterine segment. It is a relatively rare condition, with only 5% of women having a low-lying placenta when scanned at 16-20 weeks gestation. However, the incidence at delivery is only 0.5%, as most placentas tend to rise away from the cervix.
There are several factors associated with placenta praevia, including multiparity, multiple pregnancy, and embryos implanting on a lower segment scar from a previous caesarean section. Clinical features of placenta praevia include shock in proportion to visible loss, no pain, a non-tender uterus, abnormal lie and presentation, and a usually normal fetal heart. Coagulation problems are rare, and small bleeds may occur before larger ones.
Diagnosis of placenta praevia should not involve digital vaginal examination before an ultrasound, as this may provoke severe haemorrhage. The condition is often picked up on routine 20-week abdominal ultrasounds, but the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommends the use of transvaginal ultrasound for improved accuracy and safety. Placenta praevia is classified into four grades, with grade IV being the most severe, where the placenta completely covers the internal os.
In summary, placenta praevia is a rare condition that can have serious consequences if not diagnosed and managed appropriately. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the associated factors and clinical features, and to use appropriate diagnostic methods for accurate grading and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 2
Correct
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A 28-year-old pregnant woman with type 1 diabetes inquires about the frequency of blood glucose level testing during her pregnancy.
Your Answer: Daily fasting, pre-meal, 1-hour post-meal and bedtime tests.
Explanation:It is important for pregnant individuals with type 1 diabetes to closely monitor their blood glucose levels by testing multiple times throughout the day. This is recommended by NICE NG3.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 3
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman, who recently gave birth, visits her GP for a regular check-up. She expresses her worries about the medications she is taking for different health issues and their potential impact on her breastfeeding baby. Can you advise her on which medications are safe to continue taking?
Your Answer: Lamotrigine
Explanation:Breastfeeding is generally safe with most anti-epileptic drugs, including Lamotrigine which is commonly prescribed for seizures. It is a preferred option for women as it does not affect their ability to bear children. However, Carbimazole and Diazepam active metabolite can be passed on to the baby through breast milk and should be avoided. Isotretinoin effect on breastfed infants is not well studied, but oral retinoids should generally be avoided while breastfeeding.
Pregnancy and breastfeeding can be a concern for women with epilepsy. It is generally recommended that women continue taking their medication during pregnancy, as the risks of uncontrolled seizures outweigh the potential risks to the fetus. However, it is important for women to take folic acid before pregnancy to reduce the risk of neural tube defects. The use of antiepileptic medication during pregnancy can increase the risk of congenital defects, but this risk is still relatively low. It is recommended to aim for monotherapy and there is no need to monitor drug levels. Sodium valproate is associated with neural tube defects, while carbamazepine is considered the least teratogenic of the older antiepileptics. Phenytoin is associated with cleft palate, and lamotrigine may require a dose increase during pregnancy. Breastfeeding is generally safe for mothers taking antiepileptics, except for barbiturates. Pregnant women taking phenytoin should be given vitamin K in the last month of pregnancy to prevent clotting disorders in the newborn.
A warning has been issued about the use of sodium valproate during pregnancy and in women of childbearing age. New evidence suggests a significant risk of neurodevelopmental delay in children following maternal use of this medication. Therefore, it should only be used if clearly necessary and under specialist neurological or psychiatric advice. It is important for women with epilepsy to discuss their options with their healthcare provider and make informed decisions about their treatment during pregnancy and breastfeeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 4
Correct
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Which of the following presentations has the highest morbidity and mortality rate?
Your Answer: Footling presentation at delivery
Explanation:During the term of pregnancy, there is ample space for the fetus to reposition itself and move towards the head-down position. However, in cases of occipitoposterior presentation, the posterior fontanelle is located in the back quadrant of the pelvis, which requires more rotation and often results in a longer labor. Additionally, there is a higher likelihood of medical intervention, with a rate of 22.
Breech presentation occurs when the caudal end of the fetus is in the lower segment, and it is more common at 28 weeks than near term. Risk factors include uterine malformations, placenta praevia, and fetal abnormalities. Management options include spontaneous turning, external cephalic version (ECV), planned caesarean section, or vaginal delivery. The RCOG recommends informing women that planned caesarean section reduces perinatal mortality and early neonatal morbidity, but there is no evidence that the long-term health of babies is influenced by how they are born. ECV is contraindicated in certain cases, such as where caesarean delivery is required or there is an abnormal cardiotocography.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman gives birth vaginally to a healthy baby girl after a normal pregnancy. What is a third-degree tear of the perineum?
Your Answer: Injury to the perineum involving the anal sphincter complex and anal epithelium
Correct Answer: Injury to the perineum involving the anal sphincter complex
Explanation:Perineal tears are a common occurrence during childbirth, and the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has developed guidelines to classify them based on their severity. First-degree tears are superficial and do not require any repair, while second-degree tears involve the perineal muscle and require suturing by a midwife or clinician. Third-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and require repair in theatre by a trained clinician, with subcategories based on the extent of the tear. Fourth-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and rectal mucosa and also require repair in theatre by a trained clinician.
There are several risk factors for perineal tears, including being a first-time mother, having a large baby, experiencing a precipitate labour, and having a shoulder dystocia or forceps delivery. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and to provide appropriate care and management during childbirth to minimize the risk of perineal tears. By following the RCOG guidelines and providing timely and effective treatment, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 6
Correct
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A 22-year-old woman who is 26 weeks pregnant comes to the emergency department complaining of severe headache and epigastric pain that has been worsening for the past 48 hours. Upon examination, she has a heart rate of 110 beats/min, a respiratory rate of 21 /min, a temperature of 36.8ºC, mild pitting oedema of the ankles, and brisk tendon reflexes. As pre-eclampsia is the likely diagnosis, what is the most crucial sign to look for?
Your Answer: Brisk tendon reflexes
Explanation:Brisk reflexes are a specific clinical sign commonly linked to pre-eclampsia, unlike the other answers which are more general.
Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, and age over 40. Aspirin may be recommended for women with high or moderate risk factors. Treatment involves emergency assessment, admission for observation, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old para 1+0 has arrived at term in labor. During a vaginal examination, the occiput is palpable posteriorly (near the sacrum). What is the appropriate course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer: Mothers will generally experience a later urge to push than if position was OA
Correct Answer: The fetal head may rotate spontaneously to an OA position
Explanation:1: The occiput posterior (OP) position during delivery is feasible, but it may result in a longer and more painful labor.
2: If labor progress is slow, augmentation should be considered.
3: The use of Kielland’s forceps is linked to the most favorable outcomes, but it requires specialized skills.
4: Typically, women in the OP position will feel the urge to push earlier than those in the occiput anterior (OA) position.Labour is divided into three stages, with stage 2 being from full dilation to delivery of the fetus. This stage can be further divided into two categories: passive second stage, which occurs without pushing, and active second stage, which involves the process of maternal pushing. The active second stage is less painful than the first stage, as pushing can mask the pain. This stage typically lasts around one hour, but if it lasts longer than that, medical interventions such as Ventouse extraction, forceps delivery, or caesarean section may be necessary. Episiotomy, a surgical cut made in the perineum to widen the vaginal opening, may also be required during crowning. However, this stage is associated with transient fetal bradycardia, which is a temporary decrease in the fetal heart rate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman comes in with a positive urine pregnancy test. Lifestyle advice is given and blood tests are ordered. She has no notable medical history. During the examination, the following are observed:
- Heart rate: 92 beats per minute
- Blood pressure: 126/78 mmHg
- Oxygen saturation: 98% on room air
- Temperature: 36.6ºC
- Respiratory rate: 16 breaths per minute
- BMI: 30 kg/m²
What supplementation would you recommend for this patient?Your Answer: Folic acid 0.4mg daily
Correct Answer: Folic acid 5mg daily
Explanation:Pregnant women with a BMI greater than 30 kg/m2, regardless of their medical history, should receive a high dose of 5mg folic acid to prevent neural tube defects. Iron supplementation may be necessary for those with iron-deficiency anemia, but it is not currently indicated for this patient. Low-dose folic acid supplementation may be appropriate for non-obese pregnant women. Vitamin B12 supplementation is necessary for those with a deficiency, but it is not currently indicated for this patient. Vitamin D supplementation may be necessary for those with a deficiency, but it is not currently indicated for this patient unless she has risk factors such as dark skin and modest clothing.
Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention
Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.
To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.
In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 9
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman has given birth to her second child at 38 weeks gestation. She experienced a natural third stage of labor without any medication. Suddenly, 5 minutes after delivery, she had a massive blood loss of around 750 mL. Despite this, her vital signs remain stable. What is the initial management plan for her?
Your Answer: Syntometrine
Explanation:Postpartum haemorrhage caused by uterine atony can be treated with various medical options such as oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol.
The most common reason for primary postpartum haemorrhage is an atonic uterus. To prevent excessive blood loss, the patient should be advised to receive Syntometrine or oxytocin to stimulate uterine contractions. During the third stage of labour, cord traction should be performed, and the uterus should be massaged after the placenta is delivered. If these measures are ineffective, additional interventions such as blood transfusion and manual removal of the placenta may be necessary. Although breastfeeding can cause uterine contractions, it is not recommended in this case due to the severity of the bleeding.
Understanding Postpartum Haemorrhage
Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a condition where a woman experiences blood loss of more than 500 ml after giving birth vaginally. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours after delivery and is caused by the 4 Ts: tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin. The most common cause is uterine atony. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, pre-eclampsia, increased maternal age, emergency Caesarean section, and placenta praevia.
In managing PPH, it is important to involve senior staff immediately and follow the ABC approach. This includes two peripheral cannulae, lying the woman flat, blood tests, and commencing a warmed crystalloid infusion. Mechanical interventions such as rubbing up the fundus and catheterisation are also done. Medical interventions include IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options such as intrauterine balloon tamponade, B-Lynch suture, ligation of uterine arteries, and hysterectomy may be considered if medical options fail to control the bleeding.
Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis. It is important to understand the causes and risk factors of PPH to prevent and manage this life-threatening emergency effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 10
Correct
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Which of these is a contraindication for using epidural anaesthesia during delivery?
Your Answer: Coagulopathy
Explanation:Epidural anaesthesia is contraindicated in labour only if the patient has coagulopathy. Other than that, epidural anaesthesia is a highly effective method for pain management during labour. In fact, it is one of the regional anaesthetic techniques available, with non-regional techniques being more commonly used. Non-regional techniques include inhaled nitrous oxide and systemic analgesics like pethidine. However, epidural anaesthesia has been associated with longer labour and increased operative vaginal delivery. There is no evidence to suggest that epidural analgesia increases the risk of Caesarean delivery or post-partum backache. For more information, refer to the Epidural Analgesia in Labour guideline.
Understanding Labour and its Stages
Labour is the process of giving birth, which is characterized by the onset of regular and painful contractions that are associated with cervical dilation and descent of the presenting part. Signs of labour include regular and painful uterine contractions, a show (shedding of mucous plug), rupture of the membranes (not always), and shortening and dilation of the cervix.
Labour can be divided into three stages. The first stage starts from the onset of true labour to when the cervix is fully dilated. The second stage is from full dilation to delivery of the fetus, while the third stage is from delivery of the fetus to when the placenta and membranes have been completely delivered.
Monitoring is an essential aspect of labour. Fetal heart rate (FHR) should be monitored every 15 minutes (or continuously via CTG), contractions should be assessed every 30 minutes, maternal pulse rate should be assessed every 60 minutes, and maternal blood pressure and temperature should be checked every 4 hours. Vaginal examination (VE) should be offered every 4 hours to check the progression of labour, and maternal urine should be checked for ketones and protein every 4 hours.
In summary, understanding the stages of labour and the importance of monitoring can help ensure a safe and successful delivery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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