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  • Question 1 - Which one of the following statements regarding the Delphi method is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the Delphi method is correct?

      Your Answer: The panel should meet after each round to discuss the findings

      Correct Answer: One of the key features is the anonymity of the participants

      Explanation:

      The panel’s size can be expanded without any restrictions, except for resource constraints. It has been proposed that a minimum of seven individuals should be included.

      The Delphi Process: A Method for Collecting Expert Knowledge

      The Delphi process, also known as the Delphi method or technique, is a structured approach to gathering and distilling knowledge from a group of experts. This method is often used for issues where there is little formal evidence available. The process involves several rounds of questionnaires, with the first round asking broad questions to the experts. The results of the first round are then analyzed and common themes are identified. This information is used to create a more specific questionnaire for the second round, which is sent back to the panel of experts. This iterative process is repeated two or three times.

      The Delphi method can be used in various fields, such as curriculum development, guideline development, and forecasting future health problems. For example, a group of expert stakeholders may be involved in determining what should be included in a curriculum. The expert panel for guideline development may include doctors, nurses, pharmacists, and patients. Anonymity is a key feature of the Delphi process, as it prevents individual participants from dominating the opinion-forming process. Overall, the Delphi process is a useful tool for collecting and synthesizing expert knowledge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 30-year-old woman has a history of recurrent moderately severe depression. She has...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman has a history of recurrent moderately severe depression. She has recently started citalopram and has found it effective. She prefers drug treatment to cognitive behavioural therapy, which she has had in the past. However, she has just become pregnant and is concerned about the risks of fetal malformation due to citalopram.
      Select from this list the option that seems most appropriate in these circumstances.

      Your Answer: Continue citalopram

      Explanation:

      Managing Depression During Pregnancy: Considerations for Antidepressant Use

      Depression affects up to 20% of pregnant women and can have negative impacts on both maternal and fetal health. While concerns about potential harm to the developing fetus may lead some women to discontinue antidepressant medication, doing so can increase the risk of relapse for those with a history of recurrent depression. Additionally, depressed women may engage in behaviors that contribute to poorer obstetric and neonatal outcomes.

      Decisions about treating depression during pregnancy should be made on an individual basis, taking into account the severity of depression, past history of affective disorder, and maternal preference. While there are no antidepressants licensed for use during pregnancy, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly prescribed. While the risks are thought to be low, some severe birth defects have been reported. Tricyclics are considered safer, but carry a greater risk of overdose.

      In cases where a woman wishes to discontinue antidepressant medication, a gradual reduction in dose is recommended. Alternative treatments, such as psychological therapy, may also be considered. St. John’s wort should be avoided due to insufficient data on its safety in pregnancy. Ultimately, the decision to continue or discontinue antidepressant medication during pregnancy should be made in consultation with a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old man comes in with weakness in his right upper limb. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes in with weakness in his right upper limb. Upon examination, there is weakness in the right triceps, brachioradialis, and extensor digitorum profundus. Sensation is normal. The right triceps jerk is absent, and there is some wasting of the dorsum of the forearm. What is the most probable location of the lesion?

      Your Answer: C7 radiculopathy

      Correct Answer: Right radial nerve

      Explanation:

      The radial nerve is responsible for supplying the back part of the upper limb and originates from the brachial plexus, carrying fibers from spinal nerves C5-8 and T1. It supplies the triceps, brachioradialis, and extensor digitorum profundus muscles, with the myotome of the triceps and extensor digitorum being C7 and that of the brachioradialis being C6. Both radial nerve palsy and C7 radiculopathy can result in an absent triceps jerk, and sensory loss in patients with radial nerve palsy is typically at the anatomical snuffbox, although sensation is usually normal. Trauma or entrapment, particularly between muscle heads, can damage the radial nerve, with the extent of muscle power loss depending on the lesion level. The brachioradialis muscle flexes the forearm at the elbow and tends to supinate when the forearm is pronated and pronate when the forearm is supinated. The extensor digitorum muscle extends the medial four digits of the hand. Brachial plexus injuries can cause weak triceps, wrist drop, and possibly median and ulnar nerve involvement. Radiculopathy is a mechanical compression of a nerve root, usually resulting in weakness of elbow flexion and wrist extension, decreased sensation in a dermatomal distribution, and pain in the neck, shoulder, and/or arm. The posterior interosseous nerve is a deep motor branch of the radial nerve that emerges above the elbow between the brachioradialis and brachialis muscles, and compression can result in finger drop, radial wrist deviation on extension, and proximal forearm pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      26.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Sophie is a 4-year-old girl who has been brought in by her father...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 4-year-old girl who has been brought in by her father with a 2 day history of cough and fever. Her father describes the cough sounds like a bark and today Sophie has appeared more breathless.

      On examination, Sophie appears alert with moist mucous membranes. You observe nasal flaring and moderate intercostal recession. You check Sophie's temperature which is 38.2°C and oxygen saturation is 97% in air. Her respiratory rate is 52 breaths per minute and heart rate is 138 beats per minute.

      What red flag symptoms have you observed in Sophie?

      Your Answer: Respiratory rate of 52 breaths per minute

      Correct Answer: Moderate intercostal recession

      Explanation:

      When a child has a fever, moderate or severe intercostal recession is a concerning symptom. This is considered a red flag according to NICE guidelines, which indicate a high risk of serious illness. Other red flag symptoms include those in the amber risk category, such as nasal flaring and a respiratory rate over 40 breaths per minute for children over 12 months old. A heart rate of 138 beats per minute is not a red flag symptom, but a heart rate over 140 beats per minute for children aged 2-5 years is considered an amber symptom. A temperature of 38°C or higher is only a red flag symptom for infants aged 0-3 months.

      The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013 to provide a ‘traffic light’ system for assessing the risk of febrile illness in children under 5 years old. The guidelines recommend recording the child’s temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time, as well as looking for signs of dehydration. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla for children under 4 weeks or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infra-red tympanic thermometer. The risk stratification table categorizes children as green (low risk), amber (intermediate risk), or red (high risk) based on their symptoms. Management recommendations vary depending on the risk level, with green children managed at home, amber children provided with a safety net or referred to a specialist, and red children urgently referred to a specialist. The guidelines also advise against prescribing oral antibiotics without an apparent source of fever and note that a chest x-ray is not necessary if a child with suspected pneumonia is not being referred to the hospital.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      43.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Sophie is a 25-year-old woman who presented to your clinic last week complaining...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 25-year-old woman who presented to your clinic last week complaining of fatigue, muscle aches, and swollen glands. She had gone on a camping trip to a wooded area recently but did not recall any insect bites. Upon examination, there was no visible rash. You ordered an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) test for Lyme disease, and the result came back as equivocal today.

      What would be the most suitable course of action now?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Perform an immunoblot test for Lyme disease

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, if a patient is suspected to have Lyme disease and doesn’t have erythema migrans, an ELISA test should be offered. If the ELISA test result is positive or equivocal, an immunoblot test should be performed. In the case of Jess, her ELISA test result was equivocal, so she requires an immunoblot test.

      NICE guidelines suggest that if there is a high clinical suspicion of Lyme disease, antibiotics should be started while waiting for the results of the immunoblot test. However, Jess’s symptoms are nonspecific, and her clinical suspicion of Lyme disease is not high. Additionally, NICE recommends a 21-day course of doxycycline as the first-line treatment for Lyme disease, not a 14-day course. Amoxicillin is only recommended if doxycycline is not suitable.

      There is no need to repeat the ELISA test at this time. NICE advises repeating the ELISA test 4-6 weeks after the initial test if the first test is negative and Lyme disease is still suspected within 4 weeks from symptom onset.

      Referral to a specialist is not currently necessary for Jess. NICE recommends referring patients with focal symptoms to the appropriate specialist or considering a discussion with a specialist. If the immunoblot test is negative but symptoms persist, a discussion with or referral to a specialist should be considered (regardless of the ELISA result) to review whether further tests are required or to consider alternative diagnoses.

      Understanding Lyme Disease

      Lyme disease is an illness caused by a type of bacteria called Borrelia burgdorferi, which is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected ticks. The disease can cause a range of symptoms, which can be divided into early and later features.

      Early features of Lyme disease typically occur within 30 days of being bitten by an infected tick. These can include a distinctive rash known as erythema migrans, which often appears as a bulls-eye pattern around the site of the tick bite. Other early symptoms may include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.

      Later features of Lyme disease can occur after 30 days and may affect different parts of the body. These can include heart block or myocarditis, which affect the cardiovascular system, and facial nerve palsy or meningitis, which affect the nervous system.

      To diagnose Lyme disease, doctors may look for the presence of erythema migrans or use blood tests to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. Treatment typically involves antibiotics, such as doxycycline or amoxicillin, depending on the stage of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      0
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  • Question 6 - Primary biliary cirrhosis is most characteristically associated with: ...

    Incorrect

    • Primary biliary cirrhosis is most characteristically associated with:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-mitochondrial antibodies

      Explanation:

      The M rule for primary biliary cholangitis includes the presence of IgM and anti-Mitochondrial antibodies, specifically the M2 subtype, in middle-aged women.

      Primary biliary cholangitis is a chronic liver disorder that affects middle-aged women. It is thought to be an autoimmune condition that damages interlobular bile ducts, causing progressive cholestasis and potentially leading to cirrhosis. The classic presentation is itching in a middle-aged woman. It is associated with Sjogren’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic sclerosis, and thyroid disease. Diagnosis involves immunology and imaging tests. Management includes ursodeoxycholic acid, cholestyramine for pruritus, and liver transplantation in severe cases. Complications include cirrhosis, osteomalacia and osteoporosis, and an increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
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  • Question 7 - A 17-year-old girl collapses and dies during a track meet at school. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old girl collapses and dies during a track meet at school. She had no significant medical history. Upon post-mortem examination, it is discovered that she had asymmetric hypertrophy of the interventricular septum. What is the probability that her sister also has this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is a genetic disorder that affects muscle tissue and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is caused by mutations in genes that encode contractile proteins, with the most common defects involving the β-myosin heavy chain protein or myosin-binding protein C. HOCM is characterized by left ventricle hypertrophy, which leads to decreased compliance and cardiac output, resulting in predominantly diastolic dysfunction. Biopsy findings show myofibrillar hypertrophy with disorganized myocytes and fibrosis. HOCM is often asymptomatic, but exertional dyspnea, angina, syncope, and sudden death can occur. Jerky pulse, systolic murmurs, and double apex beat are also common features. HOCM is associated with Friedreich’s ataxia and Wolff-Parkinson White. ECG findings include left ventricular hypertrophy, nonspecific ST segment and T-wave abnormalities, and deep Q waves. Atrial fibrillation may occasionally be seen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The practice nurse comes to see you. In her consulting room a carer...

    Incorrect

    • The practice nurse comes to see you. In her consulting room a carer has brought in a 13-month-old boy for his routine immunisations.
      Which one of the following people doesn't have the right to consent to the immunisations?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Au pair

      Explanation:

      Parental Responsibility in England and Wales

      In England and Wales, parental responsibility is a legal term that refers to the rights and responsibilities that parents have towards their children. If the parents of a child are married or have jointly adopted a child, then they both have parental responsibility. However, if the parents are unmarried, the mother automatically has parental responsibility, while the father only has it if he meets certain criteria.

      To acquire parental responsibility, a father can either jointly register the birth of the child with the mother, enter into a parental responsibility agreement with the mother, or obtain a parental responsibility order from a court. Stepfathers, civil partners, and grandparents can also apply for parental responsibility through a court order.

      It is important to note that parents do not lose parental responsibility if they divorce, and this applies to both the resident and non-resident parent. Overall, parental responsibility is a crucial aspect of parenting in England and Wales, and it is important for parents to understand their rights and responsibilities towards their children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      0
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  • Question 9 - From which organization does a doctor need to obtain a license to prescribe...

    Incorrect

    • From which organization does a doctor need to obtain a license to prescribe diamorphine to an addict?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Magistrate's court

      Explanation:

      Prescription Guidelines for Medications and Controlled Drugs

      The prescription for medications is valid for 28 days from the date stated on the prescription. The quantity of medication prescribed should not exceed 30 days supply, unless there are exceptional circumstances, which should be clearly stated in the patient’s notes. Controlled drugs are subject to regulations regarding their prescription, storage, records, and disposal.

      Prescriptions for controlled drugs that are subject to prescription requirements must be indelible and must be signed by the prescriber, be dated, and specify the prescriber’s address. The prescription must always state the name and address of the patient, the form and strength of the preparation in the case of a preparation, either the total quantity or the number of dosage units to be supplied, the dose, and the total quantity of the controlled drug to be supplied.

      It is important to note that a pharmacist is not allowed to dispense a controlled drug unless all the information required by law is given on the prescription. By following these guidelines, patients can ensure that they receive the correct medication and that controlled drugs are handled safely and appropriately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      0
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  • Question 10 - In a trial of statin therapy in the secondary prevention of ischaemic heart...

    Incorrect

    • In a trial of statin therapy in the secondary prevention of ischaemic heart disease among elderly patients, therapy is shown to reduce cardiovascular mortality from 12% to 8% over the five years duration of the study.

      In comparison with standard therapy, what is the number of elderly patients that needs to be treated to prevent one death over five years?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 25

      Explanation:

      Reduction in Post-Myocardial Infarction Mortality

      The drug has been found to decrease the risk of death after a myocardial infarction by 4% over a period of five years. This means that if 100 individuals were treated with the drug, we could expect to prevent four deaths. In other words, for every 25 people treated with the drug, we could prevent one death. This reduction in mortality is significant and highlights the potential benefits of this drug in improving patient outcomes following a heart attack.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 11 - A 44-year-old woman has been released from the nearby stroke unit following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old woman has been released from the nearby stroke unit following a lacunar ischaemic stroke. She has a history of hypertension and is a smoker who is currently taking lisinopril. However, her discharge medications do not include a statin. What would be the most suitable prescription for initiating statin therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atorvastatin 80 mg

      Explanation:

      For primary prevention of cardiovascular disease, atorvastatin 20 mg is recommended, while for secondary prevention, the dose is increased to 80 mg. The patient was previously not on statin therapy for primary prevention despite being hypertensive. However, after experiencing a confirmed vascular event, the patient now requires the higher dose of atorvastatin for secondary prevention as per current guidelines. Simvastatin is not the preferred choice for secondary prevention and neither the 40 mg nor the 20 mg dose would be appropriate. Atorvastatin 10 mg is not recommended for secondary prevention, and the 20 mg dose is only licensed for primary prevention. High-intensity statin treatment is recommended for both primary and secondary prevention.

      Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 12 - Samantha, a 48-year-old woman, visits you for her annual medication review.

    Samantha has a...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha, a 48-year-old woman, visits you for her annual medication review.

      Samantha has a medical history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia. Her current medications include lisinopril 10 mg, hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg, and atorvastatin 40 mg. She has no known drug allergies.

      During the review, Samantha expresses her concern about her persistent headaches and occasional dizziness. Upon further questioning, she reveals that she has been experiencing stress at work and difficulty sleeping due to worrying about her job security.

      You diagnose mild anxiety and discuss starting an anxiolytic. Samantha agrees, and you prescribe lorazepam 0.5mg as needed.

      What other step is important in managing Samantha's condition at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe lansoprazole

      Explanation:

      When prescribing medication to a patient who is already taking an NSAID, such as aspirin, it is important to assess their risk for gastrointestinal bleeding. According to NICE guidelines, patients with 1-2 risk factors are considered moderate risk and should either be prescribed a COX-2 inhibitor alone or a PPI. One risk factor is taking a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), so in this case, the patient should be prescribed lansoprazole along with citalopram.

      It is important to note that taking both citalopram and amitriptyline can increase the risk of serotonin syndrome. While co-codamol may be helpful for the patient’s back pain, it would be best to assess the pain before prescribing pain relief.

      Gabapentin is not necessary in this situation, and Z drugs like zopiclone should not be the first choice for managing sleep difficulties associated with depression.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 13 - A father brings his 3-year-old home-schooled daughter to a pediatrician concerned about her...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 3-year-old home-schooled daughter to a pediatrician concerned about her developmental progress, particularly her physical abilities. He mentions that his friends' children her age are able to climb stairs, throw a ball, dress themselves partially, and ride a tricycle. However, his daughter is unable to do any of these things. During the examination, she is only able to stack four blocks and can draw a straight line. She speaks in 2-word phrases, with no being a common response, and imitates frequently. Based on her abilities, what is her developmental age?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2-years-old

      Explanation:

      The milestones of development are categorized into gross motor skills, fine motor skills, vision, speech and hearing, and social behavior and play. For children who are -years old, they should be able to run, climb stairs, construct a tower using 6 cubes, replicate a vertical line, use 2-word phrases, eat with a spoon, dress themselves with a hat and shoes, and engage in play activities with other children.

      Fine Motor and Vision Developmental Milestones

      Fine motor and vision developmental milestones are important indicators of a child’s growth and development. At three months, a baby can reach for objects and hold a rattle briefly if given to their hand. They are visually alert, particularly to human faces, and can fix and follow to 180 degrees. By six months, they can hold objects in a palmar grasp and pass them from one hand to another. They become visually insatiable, looking around in every direction. At nine months, they can point with their finger and develop an early pincer grip. By 12 months, they have a good pincer grip and can bang toys together.

      In terms of bricks, a 15-month-old can build a tower of two, while an 18-month-old can build a tower of three. A two-year-old can build a tower of six, and a three-year-old can build a tower of nine. When it comes to drawing, an 18-month-old can make circular scribbles, while a two-year-old can copy a vertical line. A three-year-old can copy a circle, a four-year-old can copy a cross, and a five-year-old can copy a square and triangle.

      It’s important to note that hand preference before 12 months is abnormal and may indicate cerebral palsy. These milestones serve as a guide for parents and caregivers to monitor a child’s development and ensure they are meeting their milestones appropriately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 14 - A 68-year-old man presents with metastatic prostate cancer. He has been visiting you...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents with metastatic prostate cancer. He has been visiting you frequently in recent months with various symptoms. He has a medical history of rheumatoid arthritis and heart failure. During this visit, he reports experiencing chest pains.

      Initially, you suspect a cardiac cause, but upon examination, you discover that he has gynaecomastia. You suspect that one of his medications may be the culprit.

      What is the most probable medication causing his gynaecomastia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Furosemide

      Explanation:

      Buserelin and its association with gynaecomastia

      Buserelin is a medication that is frequently used in the treatment of metastatic prostate cancer in men. It is also sometimes used in men with more localized cancer. However, one of the side effects of this medication is gynaecomastia, which is the enlargement of breast tissue in males. This can be a distressing side effect for men, and it is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients for this potential complication. Despite this side effect, buserelin remains an important medication in the treatment of prostate cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 15 - A middle-aged couple attend clinic after the birth of their first grandchild and...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged couple attend clinic after the birth of their first grandchild and are worried about cot death as friends of theirs suffered a cot death.

      Which of the following actions could you advise that would reduce the risk of cot death?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Avoid co-sleeping with the baby in their bed

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cot Death or Sudden Infant Death Syndrome

      Cot death or sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is a tragic occurrence that affects approximately 50 out of 100,000 live births. It is a condition that is associated with several risk factors, including parental smoking, teenage pregnancy, inadequate prenatal care, laying the infant to sleep on their stomach, excess bedding, and low birth weight. Co-sleeping is also regarded as a risk factor for SIDS.

      Contrary to popular belief, baby monitors do not reduce the incidence of cot death. However, Breastfeeding has been associated with a reduced incidence of SIDS. It is important for parents and caregivers to be aware of these risk factors and take necessary precautions to reduce the risk of SIDS. This includes placing the infant to sleep on their back, avoiding excess bedding, and ensuring a smoke-free environment. By understanding the risk factors and taking necessary precautions, we can work towards reducing the incidence of cot death and ensuring the safety of our infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 16 - A 54-year-old lady comes to your clinic for a new patient health check....

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old lady comes to your clinic for a new patient health check. While conducting the examination, you observe an 8 mm pigmented lesion on her back. She informs you that she had no knowledge of the lesion. The lesion has a uniform pigmentation and a regular outline. It is dry and inflamed, but appears distinct from all of her other moles on her back. She also mentions that her brother was recently diagnosed with melanoma.
      What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Monitor for eight weeks

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral Needed for Suspicious Lesion

      This lesion on the patient’s skin may be a melanoma, and there are several clinical concerns that warrant urgent referral. Firstly, the lesion appears to be new and is greater than 7 mm in diameter. Additionally, there is a family history of melanoma, and the lesion is inflamed. It is important to be aware of the ugly duckling sign, which refers to a pigmented lesion that looks different from the surrounding ones.

      Given the patient’s age and family history, she is at high risk of melanoma and should be referred urgently to a dermatologist. It is important to note that excision in primary care should be avoided, as the guidance for excising lesions in primary care may differ depending on the country. Prompt referral and evaluation by a specialist is crucial in cases like this to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 17 - A 70-year-old man contacts his primary care physician for advice. He lost his...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man contacts his primary care physician for advice. He lost his wife to cancer and has been a widower for 6 months. The patient has a supportive family and is not clinically depressed, but he was very emotional after his wife's passing. He sometimes feels indifferent and down, but this has improved significantly over time. However, he has been hearing his late wife's voice on several occasions for the past 2 weeks. He also believed he saw her once while shopping with a friend, but he knows this is impossible.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure and safety-net

      Explanation:

      It is possible for pseudo hallucinations to be a normal part of the grieving process. People who are grieving may experience hearing, seeing, or even smelling their deceased loved one. These occurrences are often associated with acute grief but can happen at any stage of bereavement. Therefore, the patient in question can be reassured.

      Since there is no evidence of an organic cause for the patient’s symptoms, it would be inappropriate to arrange blood tests and urinalysis.

      While antidepressants may be used to treat severe or atypical cases of grief, they are unlikely to provide significant benefits for a patient who is not clinically depressed. Additionally, they may cause harm due to their adverse effects.

      The patient is fully aware of the situation and has insight into their condition. Therefore, there is no need for urgent involvement from a psychiatrist or for the patient to be sectioned under the Mental Health Act 1983.

      Understanding Pseudohallucinations: A Controversial Topic in Mental Health

      Pseudohallucinations are a type of false sensory perception that occur in the absence of external stimuli. Unlike hallucinations, the affected person is aware that they are experiencing a false perception. However, there is no clear definition of pseudohallucinations in the ICD 10 or DSM-5, leading to controversy among mental health specialists.

      Some experts argue that it is more helpful to view hallucinations on a spectrum, ranging from mild sensory disturbances to full-blown hallucinations. This approach can prevent misdiagnosis or mistreatment of symptoms. For example, hypnagogic hallucinations, which occur during the transition from wakefulness to sleep, are a common type of pseudohallucination that many people experience. These hallucinations are fleeting and can be either auditory or visual.

      The relevance of pseudohallucinations in mental health practice is that patients may need reassurance that these experiences are normal and do not necessarily indicate the development of a mental illness. Pseudohallucinations are also commonly experienced by people who are grieving, which can add to the confusion and distress of the grieving process.

      In conclusion, while the definition and role of pseudohallucinations in mental health treatment remain controversial, it is important for mental health professionals to be aware of this phenomenon and provide appropriate support and reassurance to those who experience it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 18 - A 55-year-old man is hospitalized for acute pancreatitis and has a weekly alcohol...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is hospitalized for acute pancreatitis and has a weekly alcohol intake of 90 units. What is the timeframe for the highest occurrence of delirium tremens after ceasing alcohol consumption?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 72 hours

      Explanation:

      Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal can occur within 6-12 hours, seizures may occur after 36 hours, and delirium tremens can also be a potential complication.

      Alcohol withdrawal occurs when an individual who has been consuming alcohol chronically suddenly stops or reduces their intake. This is due to the fact that chronic alcohol consumption enhances GABA-mediated inhibition in the central nervous system (CNS), similar to benzodiazepines, and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. When alcohol consumption is stopped, the opposite occurs, resulting in decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission.

      Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically start within 6-12 hours and include tremors, sweating, tachycardia, and anxiety. Seizures are most likely to occur at around 36 hours, while delirium tremens, which is characterized by coarse tremors, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, and tachycardia, is most likely to occur at around 48-72 hours.

      Patients with a history of complex withdrawals from alcohol, such as delirium tremens, seizures, or blackouts, should be admitted to the hospital for monitoring until their withdrawals stabilize. The first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal is long-acting benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam, which are typically given as part of a reducing dose protocol. Lorazepam may be preferable in patients with hepatic failure. Carbamazepine is also effective in treating alcohol withdrawal, while phenytoin is said not to be as effective in the treatment of alcohol withdrawal seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 19 - An 80-year-old man came in with a complaint of a 'gritty' left eye...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man came in with a complaint of a 'gritty' left eye that has been gradually worsening for the past three months. His vision was unaffected. Upon examination, it was found that he had a left lower eyelid entropion that was not corrected on blinking.

      What is the most suitable approach to managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer this patient to an ophthalmologist

      Explanation:

      Importance of Ophthalmologist Referral for Entropion

      This patient is experiencing symptoms due to entropion, which is the inward turning of the eyelid. If left untreated, this condition can lead to scarring of the cornea and a reduction in vision. Therefore, it is important to refer the patient to an ophthalmologist for proper management.

      While waiting for the ophthalmology review, ocular lubrication can be used to provide symptomatic relief. However, this alone is not sufficient for the appropriate management of entropion. It is crucial to address the underlying cause of the condition to prevent further complications and preserve the patient’s vision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 20 - Which of the following statements about the medical management of ophthalmic disease is...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about the medical management of ophthalmic disease is not correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patients with corneal abrasion should be given topical anaesthesia to use until the abrasion heals

      Explanation:

      Using topical corticosteroids for the treatment of open-angle glaucoma is not recommended as it can cause a rise in intraocular pressure through an open-angle mechanism. This can lead to optic nerve damage and other complications, especially in patients with pre-existing primary open-angle glaucoma, a family history of glaucoma, high myopia, diabetes mellitus, and a history of connective tissue disease. The risk is higher with topically applied drops and creams to the eyelids, as well as intravitreal injections. The intraocular pressure rise usually occurs within weeks of starting the treatment and can return to normal upon stopping. Therefore, patients should be monitored closely to avoid any potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 21 - A red swelling is observed in the lower lateral wall of the nostrils...

    Incorrect

    • A red swelling is observed in the lower lateral wall of the nostrils of a young patient during anterior rhinoscopy. The swelling is tender to the touch and appears to be blocking the airway. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior turbinate

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Inferior Turbinate: Causes of Enlargement and Treatment Options

      The inferior turbinate is a structure in the nasal cavity that is prone to enlargement, leading to nasal obstruction. This can be caused by various factors, including allergic rhinitis, inflammation, and the prolonged use of nasal sprays. If the obstruction is severe, treatment with nasal corticosteroids may be necessary.

      It is important to note that the inferior turbinate is often mistaken for other pathologies during examination. Nasal polyps, for example, are insensitive and light grey in color, while foreign bodies are usually unilateral and accompanied by a nasal discharge, and are more common in children. The middle turbinate is located higher up and further back in the nasal cavity than the inferior turbinate, while the superior turbinate is rarely visible on anterior rhinoscopy.

      Understanding the causes and symptoms of inferior turbinate enlargement can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment options for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 22 - Injectable depot-provera ...

    Incorrect

    • Injectable depot-provera

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Copper intrauterine device

      Explanation:

      Injectable progesterone contraceptives are not recommended for individuals with current breast cancer due to contraindications. This applies to all hormonal contraceptive options, including Depo-Provera, which are classified as UKMEC 4. As a result, the copper intrauterine device is the only suitable contraception option available.

      Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera

      Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150 mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucous thickening and endometrial thinning.

      However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.

      It is important to note that Noristerat, another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, is rarely used in clinical practice. It is given every 8 weeks. The BNF gives different advice regarding the interval between injections, stating that a pregnancy test should be done if the interval is greater than 12 weeks and 5 days. However, this is not commonly adhered to in the family planning community.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 23 - What is a contraindication for pregnant women receiving the pertussis vaccination to protect...

    Incorrect

    • What is a contraindication for pregnant women receiving the pertussis vaccination to protect their unborn infants?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anaphylactic reaction to neomycin

      Explanation:

      Pertussis Vaccine Information

      Most combined vaccine formulations for pertussis contain neomycin. However, the only reason an individual cannot receive the vaccine is if they have an anaphylactic reaction. Boostrix-IPV is an inactivated vaccine that will not be affected by anti-D treatment. Even if a pregnant woman has a feverish illness or suspected whooping cough, the pertussis vaccine should still be offered to provide optimal antibody levels for the baby. Evidence shows that immunization during pregnancy can increase pertussis antibodies in breast milk, potentially protecting the baby from the illness. However, this doesn’t replace the need for the infant to complete the recommended primary immunization schedule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 24 - A 7-year-old boy is seen with his father. The father reports that for...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy is seen with his father. The father reports that for the last few weeks, the child has been persistently scratching his bottom, particularly at night. The father has noticed some scratch marks around his anus, but nothing else. He is otherwise well and takes no regular medications.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Threadworm infestation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Threadworm Infestation: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis

      Threadworm infestation is a common parasitic infection in the United Kingdom, particularly among children. The threadworm, a small white worm that tapers at both ends, can cause itching around the anus and vulva due to the mucous accompanying the eggs it lays at night. Scratching can lead to skin infection and re-infection with the worms. While pre-pubertal girls with certain symptoms should also be investigated for threadworm, other conditions such as hookworm infestation, eczema, psychological pruritus, and tapeworm infestation should be ruled out through differential diagnosis. Understanding the symptoms and differential diagnosis of threadworm infestation can help healthcare providers provide appropriate treatment and care for affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 25 - A 68-year-old lady came to the clinic complaining of bilateral grittiness in both...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old lady came to the clinic complaining of bilateral grittiness in both eyes for the past two weeks. Her visual acuity was 6/6 in both eyes on Snellen chart. There was no ocular discharge and her eyes appeared white. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start this patient on an ocular lubricant

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Dry Eyes or Tear Film Dysfunction

      If you are experiencing symptoms such as burning, itching, or a gritty sensation in your eyes, but your vision is not affected and your eyes do not appear inflamed, you may be suffering from dry eyes or tear film dysfunction. Fortunately, this condition can be easily treated with ocular lubricants. Steroids and antibiotics are not appropriate for this type of condition.

      Only if your symptoms persist despite adequate lubrication should you consider referral to an ophthalmologist. In most cases, however, simple lubrication is enough to alleviate discomfort and restore normal eye function. So if you are experiencing dry eyes or tear film dysfunction, don’t hesitate to try ocular lubricants and see if they can help you feel better.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 26 - Which one of the following statements best describes a type II statistical error?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements best describes a type II statistical error?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The null hypothesis is accepted when it is false

      Explanation:

      Type II error – the false hypothesis is not rejected when it is true.

      Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 27 - A 22-year-old student has presented to you after being hospitalized with a seizure...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old student has presented to you after being hospitalized with a seizure a few days after completing her final exams. The discharge summary and follow-up letter from the neurologist both indicate that this was an alcohol-related seizure. Despite having normal CT and EEG results, the student admits to consuming a large amount of alcohol before the seizure. She denies any previous alcohol misuse and has normal liver function tests. She has not consumed alcohol since the episode and has been advised to inform the DVLA. As a motorcyclist, she is concerned about any potential restrictions. How long should she refrain from using her motorcycle after experiencing a single alcohol-induced seizure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: One year

      Explanation:

      DVLA Guidance on Fitness to Drive

      The DVLA provides guidance on fitness to drive, which takes into account different types of seizures, including those caused by alcohol. In this case scenario, the seizure is solitary and alcohol-induced, and the driver holds a Group one entitlement for cars and motorcycles.

      The DVLA distinguishes between different types of seizures, and provides specific conditions for the return or issue of a driving licence when there is a background of substance misuse or dependence. Independent medical assessment and consultant reports are usually necessary in these cases.

      It is important to note that the driving restrictions for Group one entitlement drivers, such as the student in this scenario, are the same as those for car drivers. However, if the student held a Group two entitlement for heavy goods vehicles and passenger vehicles, their licence would have been revoked for a minimum of five years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
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  • Question 28 - A 60-year-old man has had several cystoscopies for the transurethral resection of superficial...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man has had several cystoscopies for the transurethral resection of superficial bladder tumours and for regular surveillance. He complains of urinary frequency, a poor urinary stream, spraying of urine and dribbling at the end of micturition. These symptoms he has noticed for about a year. On digital rectal examination, his prostate is smooth, soft and normal in size. His prostate-specific antigen level is 2 ng/ml.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urethral stricture

      Explanation:

      Urethral Stricture: Causes, Complications, and Treatments

      Urethral strictures are commonly caused by injury, urethral instrumentation, and infections such as gonorrhoea or chlamydia. In this case, the repeated cystoscopies are a likely cause. This condition can lead to complications such as urinary retention and urinary infection.

      To treat urethral strictures, periodic dilation, internal urethrotomy, and external urethroplasty are common options. It is important to note that a normal feeling prostate, a normal prostate-specific antigen level, and regular bladder tumour surveillance make other diagnoses less likely in this case.

      In summary, understanding the causes, complications, and treatments of urethral strictures is crucial for proper management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 29 - A 70-year-old man is brought to surgery with confusion and pallor. His son...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man is brought to surgery with confusion and pallor. His son reports that he has been getting more confused and tired for the past two months. Blood tests are reported as follows:

      Hb 9.2 g/dl
      MCV 120 fl
      Plt 152 * 109/l
      WBC 4.8 * 109/l

      In light of the macrocytic anaemia some further tests are ordered:

      Intrinsic factor antibodies Negative
      Vitamin B12 90 ng/l (200-900 ng/l)
      Folic acid 1.3 nmol/l (> 3.0 nmol/l)

      What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intramuscular vitamin B12 + start oral folic acid when vitamin B12 levels are normal

      Explanation:

      To prevent subacute combined degeneration of the cord, it is crucial to address the B12 deficiency before treating the folic acid deficiency in a patient who is deficient in both. Additionally, referral to secondary care may be necessary to determine the root cause of the deficiency.

      Understanding Macrocytic Anaemia

      Macrocytic anaemia is a type of anaemia that can be classified into two categories: megaloblastic and normoblastic. Megaloblastic anaemia is caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12 or folate, which leads to the production of abnormally large red blood cells in the bone marrow. This type of anaemia can also be caused by certain medications, alcohol, liver disease, hypothyroidism, pregnancy, and myelodysplasia.

      On the other hand, normoblastic anaemia is caused by an increase in the number of immature red blood cells, known as reticulocytes, in the bone marrow. This can occur as a result of certain medications, such as methotrexate, or in response to other underlying medical conditions.

      It is important to identify the underlying cause of macrocytic anaemia in order to provide appropriate treatment. This may involve addressing any nutritional deficiencies, managing underlying medical conditions, or adjusting medications. With proper management, most cases of macrocytic anaemia can be successfully treated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 30 - A 39-year-old man returns for follow-up. You had previously provided him with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old man returns for follow-up. You had previously provided him with a Statement of Fitness for Work, indicating that he may be eligible for 'modified duties' and 'adjusted hours' due to a recent ankle fracture. However, his employer has informed him that they are unable to accommodate these changes and instructed him to return to you. What is the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Do not issue any further sick notes and inform him that the original should now be treated as a 'not fit for work' note

      Explanation:

      The DWP advises that if a patient is unable to return to work, the advice provided by their healthcare provider should aim to assist both the patient and their employer in finding ways to facilitate a return to work. However, if it is determined that a return to work is not possible, the patient will be treated as if their healthcare provider had advised that they were not fit for work. In this case, the patient will not need to obtain a new Statement from their healthcare provider, as the previously issued Statement will be considered equivalent to a statement of unfitness for work.

      Understanding the Statement of Fitness for Work

      The Statement of Fitness for Work, previously known as sick notes, was introduced in 2010 to reflect the fact that most patients do not need to be fully recovered before returning to work. This statement allows doctors to advise that a patient may be fit for work taking account of the following advice. It replaces the Med3 and Med5 forms and has resulted in the withdrawal of the Med4, Med6, and RM 7 forms due to the replacement of Incapacity Benefit with the Employment and Support Allowance.

      Telephone consultations are now an acceptable form of assessment, and there is no longer a box to indicate that a patient is fit for work. Instead, doctors can state if they need to reassess the patient’s fitness for work at the end of the statement period. The statement provides increased space for comments on the functional effects of the condition, including tick boxes for simple things that may help a patient return to work.

      The statement can be issued on the day of assessment or at a later date if it would have been reasonable to issue it on the day of assessment. It can also be issued after consideration of a written report from another doctor or registered healthcare professional.

      There are four tick boxes on the form that represent common approaches to aid a return to work, including a phased return to work, altered hours, amended duties, and workplace adaptations. Patients may self-certify for the first seven calendar days using the SC1 or SC2 form, depending on their eligibility to claim statutory sick pay.

      It is important to note that the advice on the statement is not binding on employers, and doctors can still advise patients that they are not fit for work. However, the Statement of Fitness for Work provides a more flexible approach to returning to work and recognizes that many patients can return to work with some adjustments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 31 - In a study comparing a drug aimed at reducing the risk of cardiovascular...

    Incorrect

    • In a study comparing a drug aimed at reducing the risk of cardiovascular events with a placebo, data was collected from two groups of 1000 individuals each. The placebo group had 150 cardiovascular events while the drug treatment group had 100. What is the correct percentage absolute risk reduction based on these results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5%

      Explanation:

      Calculation of Absolute Risk Reduction

      Absolute risk reduction (ARR) is a statistical measure used to determine the effectiveness of a drug or treatment. It is calculated by subtracting the percentage of events that occurred in the placebo group from the percentage of events that occurred in the group receiving the drug or treatment. For example, if the event rate in the placebo group is 15% and the event rate in the drug group is 10%, the ARR would be 5%. This measure provides valuable information about the actual benefit of a drug or treatment in reducing the risk of a particular event.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 32 - A 50-year-old woman presents with a large thyroid swelling, difficulty breathing on lying...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with a large thyroid swelling, difficulty breathing on lying flat and slight dysphagia. What is the most appropriate investigation to delineate the size and extent of the goitre?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Computed tomography (CT) scan

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Imaging Techniques for Thyroid Evaluation

      Thyroid evaluation involves the use of various diagnostic imaging techniques to determine the size, extent, and function of the thyroid gland. Computed tomography (CT) scanning is a precise method that provides a better assessment of the effect of the thyroid gland on nearby structures. Barium swallow is useful in assessing oesophageal obstruction, while chest X-ray can determine the extent of goitre and the presence of calcification. Ultrasound is commonly used to guide biopsy of the thyroid and detect and characterise thyroid nodules. Radionuclide uptake and scanning using technetium isotope are used to evaluate thyroid function and anatomy in hyperthyroidism, including the assessment of thyroid nodules. These diagnostic imaging techniques play a crucial role in the accurate diagnosis and management of thyroid disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 33 - What is the appropriate management for post-herpetic neuralgia in a 75-year-old man who...

    Incorrect

    • What is the appropriate management for post-herpetic neuralgia in a 75-year-old man who is still experiencing it three months after suffering an attack of thoracic herpes zoster?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amitriptyline is the first line treatment for neuropathic pain uncontrolled by simple analgesia

      Explanation:

      Managing Neuropathic Pain: NICE Guidelines and Recommended Treatments

      Neuropathic pain can be a challenging condition to manage, but the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines to help healthcare professionals choose the most effective treatments. According to NICE, the first-line treatments for neuropathic pain (excluding trigeminal neuralgia) are oral amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. These medications should be tried one at a time, and the dosage can be gradually increased until pain is controlled or side effects occur.

      It’s important to note that using amitriptyline for neuropathic pain is an unlicensed indication, but it has been shown to be effective. If the first-line treatments don’t work, another one should be tried. Tramadol is not recommended for regular use in a non-specialist setting, but it can be used as rescue therapy. Strong opioids like morphine should also be avoided.

      For people with localized neuropathic pain who cannot tolerate oral treatments, capsaicin cream may be a good option. However, the intense burning sensation may limit its use. Versatis® is licensed for post-herpetic neuralgia, but it should only be used for 12 hours a day, followed by a 12-hour plaster-free period. If there is no response after four weeks, it should be discontinued. While NICE doesn’t comment on its use, the Scottish Medicines Consortium accepts it as a treatment option when first-line therapies are ineffective or not tolerated.

      In summary, managing neuropathic pain requires a tailored approach, and healthcare professionals should work closely with their patients to find the most effective treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 34 - A 39-year-old man presents with gingival hypertrophy.

    Which of his cardiac medications is likely...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old man presents with gingival hypertrophy.

      Which of his cardiac medications is likely to be responsible?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atenolol

      Explanation:

      Gingival Hypertrophy and Medications

      Gingival hypertrophy, or an overgrowth of gum tissue, can be caused by certain medications. Calcium channel blockers, such as amlodipine, as well as drugs like phenytoin and cyclosporin, have been associated with this side effect. It is important for patients taking these medications to maintain good oral hygiene and regularly visit their dentist to monitor any changes in their gum tissue. If gingival hypertrophy does occur, treatment options may include scaling and root planing, gingivectomy, or medication adjustments. Awareness of this potential side effect can help patients and healthcare providers make informed decisions about medication management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 35 - A 42-year-old woman comes to your clinic complaining of an insect bite on...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman comes to your clinic complaining of an insect bite on her left ankle that has been getting increasingly itchy. Despite using over-the-counter creams, she has not seen any improvement. Her ankle is surrounded by a significant area of redness measuring approximately 12 cm in diameter. She reports no fever and has been in good health otherwise.

      What is the next course of action in managing her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral loratadine

      Explanation:

      Cream is a highly effective topical corticosteroid that can be utilized for the treatment of bite reactions. However, for milder cases, hydrocortisone 1 may be sufficient.

      Animal bites are a common occurrence in everyday practice, with dogs and cats being the most frequent culprits. These bites are usually caused by multiple types of bacteria, with Pasteurella multocida being the most commonly isolated organism. To manage these bites, it is important to cleanse the wound thoroughly. Puncture wounds should not be sutured unless there is a risk of cosmesis. The current recommendation is to use co-amoxiclav, but if the patient is allergic to penicillin, doxycycline and metronidazole are recommended.

      On the other hand, human bites can cause infections from a variety of bacteria, including both aerobic and anaerobic types. Common organisms include Streptococci spp., Staphylococcus aureus, Eikenella, Fusobacterium, and Prevotella. To manage these bites, co-amoxiclav is also recommended. It is important to consider the risk of viral infections such as HIV and hepatitis C when dealing with human bites.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 36 - A 20-year-old girl presents at the antenatal clinic.
    She is approximately six weeks pregnant...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old girl presents at the antenatal clinic.
      She is approximately six weeks pregnant and the pregnancy was unplanned. She has a two year history of grand mal epilepsy for which she takes carbamazepine. She has had no fits for approximately six months. She wants to continue with her pregnancy if it is safe to do so.
      She is worried about the anticonvulsant therapy and its effects on the baby. She asks how she should be managed.
      Which of the following management plans is the most appropriate in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop carbamazepine until the second trimester

      Explanation:

      Managing Epilepsy in Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, it is important to manage epilepsy carefully to ensure the safety of both the patient and fetus. Uncontrolled seizures pose a greater risk than any potential teratogenic effect of the therapy. However, total plasma concentrations of anticonvulsants may fall during pregnancy, so the dose may need to be increased. It is important to explain the potential teratogenic effects of carbamazepine, particularly neural tube defects, and provide the patient with folate supplements to reduce this risk. Screening with alpha fetoprotein (AFP) and second trimester ultrasound are also required. Prior to delivery, the mother should receive vitamin K. Switching therapies is not recommended as it could precipitate seizures in an otherwise stable patient. It is important to note that both phenytoin and valproate are also associated with teratogenic effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 37 - A 28-year-old heroin addict begins methadone treatment. What is the proper protocol for...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old heroin addict begins methadone treatment. What is the proper protocol for notification?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Notify National Drug Treatment Monitoring System if patient consent obtained

      Explanation:

      Reporting Drug Misuse Cases

      Doctors are required to notify their local or national drug misuse center about patients who are struggling with drug misuse, particularly with opioids, benzodiazepines, and CNS stimulants. The contact details of these centers can be found in the BNF. The National Drug Treatment Monitoring System (NDTMS) collects data that helps in planning drug services and evaluating the efficiency and effectiveness of drug treatment provision.

      However, before sending patient data to the NDTMS, doctors must obtain consent from the patient. This is to ensure that patient confidentiality is maintained and that their privacy is respected. By reporting drug misuse cases, doctors can help in the provision of better drug treatment services and contribute to the overall improvement of public health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 38 - A young adult with psoriasis manages his flare-ups at home using potent topical...

    Incorrect

    • A young adult with psoriasis manages his flare-ups at home using potent topical steroids. He is aware of the potential side effects of continuous topical steroid use and asked about the recommended duration of break between courses of treatment according to NICE guidelines.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aim for a break of 8 weeks

      Explanation:

      Managing Psoriasis with Topical Treatments

      Psoriasis patients are advised by NICE to take a break of at least 4 weeks between courses of treatment with potent or very potent corticosteroids. During this period, patients should consider using topical treatments that are not steroid-based, such as vitamin D or vitamin D analogues, or coal tar to maintain psoriasis disease control. These topical treatments can help manage psoriasis symptoms and prevent flare-ups. It is important for patients to work closely with their healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for their individual needs. By incorporating non-steroid topical treatments into their psoriasis management plan, patients can achieve better control of their symptoms and improve their overall quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 39 - A 60-year-old patient visits their doctor after experiencing an urticarial skin rash upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old patient visits their doctor after experiencing an urticarial skin rash upon starting a new medication. What is the most probable cause of the rash?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Urticaria is frequently observed as a result of aspirin, despite the fact that all medications have the potential to cause it.

      Urticaria, also known as hives, can be caused by various drugs. Some of the most common drugs that can trigger urticaria include aspirin, penicillins, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), and opiates. These medications can cause an allergic reaction in some individuals, leading to the development of hives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 40 - You observe a 35-year-old librarian who has been living with Crohn's disease for...

    Incorrect

    • You observe a 35-year-old librarian who has been living with Crohn's disease for 18 years. She has been in remission for the past six years, but has been experiencing abdominal pain and passing bloody stools for the past week. She is seeking treatment.

      She is generally healthy and takes the combined contraceptive pill and ibuprofen as needed for back pain. She smokes five cigarettes daily but doesn't consume alcohol.

      What is the accurate statement regarding her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Smoking increases the risk of Crohn's disease relapse

      Explanation:

      Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines for managing this condition. Patients are advised to quit smoking, as it can worsen Crohn’s disease. While some studies suggest that NSAIDs and the combined oral contraceptive pill may increase the risk of relapse, the evidence is not conclusive.

      To induce remission, glucocorticoids are typically used, but budesonide may be an alternative for some patients. Enteral feeding with an elemental diet may also be used, especially in young children or when there are concerns about steroid side effects. Second-line options include 5-ASA drugs, such as mesalazine, and add-on medications like azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Infliximab is useful for refractory disease and fistulating Crohn’s, and metronidazole is often used for isolated peri-anal disease.

      Maintaining remission involves stopping smoking and using azathioprine or mercaptopurine as first-line options. Methotrexate is a second-line option. Surgery is eventually required for around 80% of patients with Crohn’s disease, depending on the location and severity of the disease. Complications of Crohn’s disease include small bowel cancer, colorectal cancer, and osteoporosis. Before offering azathioprine or mercaptopurine, it is important to assess thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 41 - A 65-year-old man presents with symptoms of intermittent claudication and is referred to...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with symptoms of intermittent claudication and is referred to the local vascular unit. Peripheral arterial disease is diagnosed and his blood pressure is measured at 130/80 mmHg with a fasting cholesterol level of 3.9 mmol/l. According to the latest NICE guidelines, what medication should be prescribed for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clopidogrel + statin

      Explanation:

      Managing Peripheral Arterial Disease

      Peripheral arterial disease (PAD) is closely associated with smoking, and patients who still smoke should be provided with assistance to quit. Comorbidities such as hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and obesity should also be treated. All patients with established cardiovascular disease, including PAD, should be taking a statin, with atorvastatin 80 mg currently recommended. In 2010, NICE recommended clopidogrel as the first-line treatment for PAD patients over aspirin.

      Exercise training has been shown to have significant benefits, and NICE recommends a supervised exercise program for all PAD patients before other interventions. Severe PAD or critical limb ischaemia may be treated with endovascular or surgical revascularization, with endovascular techniques typically used for short segment stenosis, aortic iliac disease, and high-risk patients. Surgical techniques are typically used for long segment lesions, multifocal lesions, lesions of the common femoral artery, and purely infrapopliteal disease. Amputation should be reserved for patients with critical limb ischaemia who are not suitable for other interventions such as angioplasty or bypass surgery.

      Drugs licensed for use in PAD include naftidrofuryl oxalate, a vasodilator sometimes used for patients with a poor quality of life, and cilostazol, a phosphodiesterase III inhibitor with both antiplatelet and vasodilator effects, which is not recommended by NICE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 42 - A 56-year-old man presents with dyspepsia and is found to have a gastric...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents with dyspepsia and is found to have a gastric ulcer and H. pylori infection on endoscopy. He undergoes H. pylori eradication therapy but continues to experience symptoms six weeks later. What is the best test to confirm eradication of H. pylori?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urea breath test

      Explanation:

      The sole recommended test for H. pylori after eradication therapy is the urea breath test. It should be noted that H. pylori serology will still show positive results even after eradication. A stool antigen test, rather than culture, may be a suitable substitute.

      Tests for Helicobacter pylori

      There are several tests available to diagnose Helicobacter pylori infection. One of the most common tests is the urea breath test, where patients consume a drink containing carbon isotope 13 enriched urea. The urea is broken down by H. pylori urease, and after 30 minutes, the patient exhales into a glass tube. Mass spectrometry analysis calculates the amount of 13C CO2, which determines the presence of H. pylori. However, this test should not be performed within four weeks of treatment with an antibacterial or within two weeks of an antisecretory drug.

      Another test is the rapid urease test, also known as the CLO test. This test involves mixing a biopsy sample with urea and pH indicator, and a color change indicates H. pylori urease activity. Serum antibody tests remain positive even after eradication, and the sensitivity and specificity are 85% and 80%, respectively. Culture of gastric biopsy provides information on antibiotic sensitivity, with a sensitivity of 70% and specificity of 100%. Gastric biopsy with histological evaluation alone has a sensitivity and specificity of 95-99%. Lastly, the stool antigen test has a sensitivity of 90% and specificity of 95%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 43 - An 80-year-old woman trips and falls, landing on her outstretched hand and resulting...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman trips and falls, landing on her outstretched hand and resulting in a distal radius fracture (Colles' fracture). She has a history of depression and osteoarthritis but no other significant medical conditions. What is the best course of action to address her risk of future fractures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start alendronate 70mg once weekly

      Explanation:

      Patients aged 75 years or older who have experienced a fragility fracture should be initiated on oral alendronate 70mg once weekly without the need for a DEXA scan, as they are presumed to have osteoporosis.

      Osteoporosis is a condition that weakens bones, making them more prone to fractures. When a patient experiences a fragility fracture, which is a fracture that occurs from a low-impact injury or fall, it is important to assess their risk for osteoporosis and subsequent fractures. The management of patients following a fragility fracture depends on their age.

      For patients who are 75 years of age or older, they are presumed to have underlying osteoporosis and should be started on first-line therapy, such as an oral bisphosphonate, without the need for a DEXA scan. However, the 2014 NOGG guidelines suggest that treatment should be started in all women over the age of 50 years who’ve had a fragility fracture, although BMD measurement may sometimes be appropriate, particularly in younger postmenopausal women.

      For patients who are under the age of 75 years, a DEXA scan should be arranged to assess their bone mineral density. These results can then be entered into a FRAX assessment, along with the fact that they’ve had a fracture, to determine their ongoing fracture risk. Based on this assessment, appropriate treatment can be initiated to prevent future fractures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 44 - A 12-year-old girl has not been attending school.
    Select from the list of options...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl has not been attending school.
      Select from the list of options the single feature that would suggest school refusal rather than truancy.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting on the way to school

      Explanation:

      Understanding School Refusal: Symptoms, Causes, and Consequences

      School refusal is a common problem affecting 1-5% of school-aged children, with similar rates in both boys and girls. It typically occurs in children aged 5, 6, 10, and 11, and may be triggered by stressful events at home or school, or after a holiday or illness. Symptoms include fear, panic, crying, temper tantrums, threats of self-harm, and somatic complaints such as dizziness, headaches, and nausea.

      Short-term consequences of school refusal include poor academic performance, family difficulties, and problems with peer relationships. Long-term consequences may include academic underachievement, employment difficulties, and increased risk for psychiatric illness. Children with school refusal may suffer from significant emotional distress, particularly anxiety and depression.

      School avoidance may serve different functions depending on the child, such as avoidance of specific fears, escape from aversive social situations, separation anxiety, or attention-seeking behaviors. It is important to address school refusal early on, as the longer the child stays out of school, the more difficult it is to return.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms, causes, and consequences of school refusal can help parents and caregivers provide appropriate support and intervention for their child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 45 - Samantha is a 26-year-old trans female who wants to discuss contraception options with...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 26-year-old trans female who wants to discuss contraception options with you. She is in a committed relationship with another woman and they have regular unprotected intercourse. Samantha has no medical history and is currently undergoing gender reassignment using oestrogen and antiandrogen therapy, but has not had any surgical interventions yet.

      What would be the most suitable form of contraception to recommend for Samantha?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Barrier methods such as condoms

      Explanation:

      If a patient was assigned male at birth and is undergoing treatment with oestradiol, GNRH analogs, finasteride or cyproterone, there may be a decrease or cessation of sperm production. However, this cannot be considered a reliable method of contraception. In the case of a trans female patient, who was assigned male at birth, hormonal treatments cannot be relied upon for contraception. There is a possibility of her female partner becoming pregnant, and therefore, barrier methods are recommended. Hormonal contraceptives are not suitable for this patient, and the copper IUD is not an option as she doesn’t have a uterus.

      Contraceptive and Sexual Health Guidance for Transgender and Non-Binary Individuals

      The Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare has released guidance on contraceptive choices and sexual health for transgender and non-binary individuals. The guidance emphasizes the importance of sensitive communication and offering options that consider personal preferences, co-morbidities, and current medications or therapies. For those engaging in vaginal sex, condoms and dental dams are recommended to prevent sexually transmitted infections. Cervical screening and HPV vaccinations should also be offered. Those at risk of HIV transmission should be advised of pre-exposure prophylaxis and post-exposure prophylaxis.

      For individuals assigned female at birth with a uterus, testosterone therapy doesn’t provide protection against pregnancy, and oestrogen-containing regimens are not recommended as they can antagonize the effect of testosterone therapy. Progesterone-only contraceptives are considered safe, and non-hormonal intrauterine devices may also suspend menstruation. Emergency contraception may be required following unprotected vaginal intercourse, and either oral formulation or the non-hormonal intrauterine device may be considered.

      In patients assigned male at birth, hormone therapy may reduce or cease sperm production, but the variability of its effects means it cannot be relied upon as a method of contraception. Condoms are recommended for those engaging in vaginal sex to avoid the risk of pregnancy. The guidance stresses the importance of offering individuals options that take into account their personal circumstances and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 46 - Which one of the following statements regarding hyperemesis gravidarum is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding hyperemesis gravidarum is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wernicke's encephalopathy is a recognised complication

      Explanation:

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that affects around 1% of pregnancies. It is usually experienced between 8 and 12 weeks of pregnancy but can persist up to 20 weeks. The condition is thought to be related to raised beta hCG levels and is more common in women who are obese, nulliparous, or have multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, or hyperthyroidism. Smoking is associated with a decreased incidence of hyperemesis.

      The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommend that a woman must have a 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance before a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum can be made. Validated scoring systems such as the Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE) score can be used to classify the severity of NVP.

      Management of hyperemesis gravidarum involves using antihistamines as a first-line treatment, with oral cyclizine or oral promethazine being recommended by Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Oral prochlorperazine is an alternative, while ondansetron and metoclopramide may be used as second-line treatments. Ginger and P6 (wrist) acupressure can be tried, but there is little evidence of benefit. Admission may be needed for IV hydration.

      Complications of hyperemesis gravidarum can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth restriction, preterm birth, and cleft lip/palate (if ondansetron is used during the first trimester). The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend considering admission if a woman is unable to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics, has ketonuria and/or weight loss (greater than 5% of body weight), or has a confirmed or suspected comorbidity that may be adversely affected by nausea and vomiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 47 - What is meant by the term 'power of the study' in the design...

    Incorrect

    • What is meant by the term 'power of the study' in the design of a randomised controlled trial?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The probability of a statistically significant treatment effect if the true treatment difference is at a prespecified level

      Explanation:

      Understanding Power Analysis in Statistical Studies

      Power analysis is a statistical tool used to determine the sample size required in a study to detect a significant difference at a predetermined level of significance and size of effect. It is an essential step in planning a study and helps researchers to avoid underpowered or overpowered studies.

      The predetermined level of significance is usually set at 0.05, which means that there is a 5% chance of obtaining a significant result by chance alone. The size of effect is the difference between the treatment and control groups that is considered clinically significant.

      It is important to note that the size of effect used in power analysis may not necessarily correspond to a clinically significant difference. Therefore, it is crucial to consult with experts in the field to determine an appropriate size of effect.

      In summary, power analysis is a crucial step in planning a study and helps researchers to determine the appropriate sample size needed to detect a significant difference at a predetermined level of significance and size of effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 48 - A 17-year-old girl is brought to the General Practitioner by her mother because...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old girl is brought to the General Practitioner by her mother because she has been drinking alcohol. Her mother disapproves of her daughter's decision, but is having difficulty justifying her stance to her daughter. She asks the General Practitioner to explain to her daughter some of the problems associated with alcohol use.
      From which of the following complications is she most at risk?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      The Risks and Benefits of Cannabis Use: Psychiatric Complications and Medicinal Benefits

      Cannabis use can have both negative and positive effects on an individual’s health. When it comes to psychiatric complications, the age of onset of cannabis smoking, duration of exposure, and individual risk factors play a significant role. Panic attacks are the most common complication, but early cannabis use (before the age of 15) carries a greater risk for schizophrenia than use starting later in life. In fact, one study found that 1 in 10 people who used cannabis before the age of 15 developed a schizophrenic-like disorder by age 26, compared to only 3% of older cannabis users. It’s important to note that the risk of schizophrenia is specific to cannabis and not other drugs.

      On the other hand, medicinal cannabis has been shown to have benefits for certain health conditions. It has been advocated for pain and spasticity in multiple sclerosis, pain control in sensory neuropathies, seizure control in epilepsy, and in the treatment of Crohn’s disease. As with any medication, it’s important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 49 - A 5-year-old girl presents with a three-day history of paroxysms of colicky central...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl presents with a three-day history of paroxysms of colicky central abdominal pain and bile-stained vomiting. The abdomen feels full and tender. Some red mucous has been passed from the rectum.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intussusception

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Abdominal Pain in Children: Intussusception as the Most Likely Diagnosis

      Intussusception is a common cause of intestinal obstruction in young children. It occurs when a section of bowel invaginates into the section next to it, leading to the sloughing off of ischaemic bowel mucosa and the characteristic redcurrant jelly stool. In most cases, the cause of intussusception is unclear, but in some cases, a pathological lead-point may be present. Meckel’s diverticulum is the most common lead-point, but an enlarged Peyer patch caused by a viral infection may also be a factor.

      Other potential causes of abdominal pain in children include intestinal duplication, appendicitis, and Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP). Intestinal duplication is a rare congenital malformation that may present as a solid or cystic tumor, intussusception, perforation, or bleeding. Appendicitis is most common in older children and typically presents with central abdominal pain that localizes to the right iliac fossa. HSP may cause abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and bloody diarrhea, but it is typically accompanied by a purpuric rash, which is absent in this scenario.

      Overall, given the age of the patient and the presence of a tender mass in the upper abdomen and emptiness in the right lower quadrant, intussusception is the most likely diagnosis. A lead-point may be present, making non-operative reduction unlikely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 50 - A disease is discovered to have a standard mortality ratio of 140 in...

    Incorrect

    • A disease is discovered to have a standard mortality ratio of 140 in a surveyed population. Is it accurate to say that the disease is more fatal in this age group?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There were 40% more fatalities from the disease in this population compared to the reference population

      Explanation:

      There were a higher number of deaths in the sample population than what was anticipated.

      Understanding the Standardised Mortality Ratio

      The standardised mortality ratio (SMR) is a useful tool for comparing mortality rates across different populations. It takes into account confounding factors such as age and sex, which can affect mortality rates. The SMR is calculated by dividing the observed deaths by the expected deaths, sometimes multiplied by 100.

      An SMR of 100 or 1 indicates that the mortality rate in the population being studied is the same as the standard population. If the SMR is greater than 100, it suggests a higher than expected mortality rate. The SMR is a valuable tool for researchers and policymakers to identify populations with higher mortality rates and to develop interventions to address the underlying causes. By understanding the SMR, we can better understand mortality rates and work towards improving health outcomes for all populations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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