-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 52-year-old man has round erythematous scaly plaques on his limbs. Select from the list the single feature that would suggest a diagnosis of discoid eczema rather than psoriasis.
Your Answer: Marked pruritus
Explanation:Comparison of Discoid Eczema and Psoriasis
Discoid eczema is a skin condition characterized by coin-shaped plaques that are well-defined and often occur on the extremities, especially the legs. Lesions may also appear on the arms, trunk, hands, or feet, but not on the face or scalp. The plaques are intensely itchy and may clear in the center, resembling tinea corporis. An exudative form of the condition also exists, which is vesiculated.
On the other hand, psoriasis is a skin condition that often affects the extensor surfaces, particularly at the elbows and knees. The scalp is also commonly involved. The scale is thick and silvery, and there may be nail changes, such as pitting. Itching may occur, but it is less severe than in discoid eczema.
In summary, while both conditions may present with similar symptoms, such as itching and skin lesions, they have distinct differences in terms of their location, appearance, and severity of itching. It is important to consult a healthcare professional for an accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
You receive a clinic letter from psychiatry regarding a 65-year-old patient who you referred with severe depression. The psychiatrist would like you to switch from fluoxetine to venlafaxine (a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor).
What is the most appropriate way to make this change?Your Answer: Complete a gradual withdrawal of sertraline then start imipramine 7 days later
Correct Answer: Cross-taper sertraline and imipramine
Explanation:Cross-tapering is recommended when switching from an SSRI to a TCA to avoid interactions and the risk of serotonin syndrome. Completing withdrawal of sertraline without introducing imipramine is not advised. Direct switch and waiting periods are not appropriate. Waiting 7 days is only necessary when switching from fluoxetine to a TCA.
Guidelines for Switching Antidepressants
When switching antidepressants, it is important to follow specific guidelines to ensure a safe and effective transition. If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to another selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), the first SSRI should be gradually withdrawn before starting the alternative SSRI. However, if switching from fluoxetine to another SSRI, a gap of 4-7 days should be left after withdrawal due to its long half-life.
When switching from an SSRI to a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA), cross-tapering is recommended. This involves slowly reducing the current drug dose while slowly increasing the dose of the new drug. The exception to this is fluoxetine, which should be withdrawn before starting TCAs.
If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to venlafaxine, it is important to cross-taper cautiously. Starting with a low dose of venlafaxine (37.5 mg daily) and increasing very slowly is recommended. The same approach should be taken when switching from fluoxetine to venlafaxine.
Overall, following these guidelines can help minimize the risk of adverse effects and ensure a smooth transition when switching antidepressants.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old woman has been taking with citalopram 40 mg daily for 6 weeks for moderately severe depression. She doesn't feel there has been much improvement. She has had suicidal thoughts but these have been only transient. She does have a history of a previous drug overdose. She has refused psychological treatments.
Select from the list the single most appropriate management option.Your Answer: Continue citalopram
Correct Answer: Mirtazapine
Explanation:Managing Partial or No Response to Antidepressant Medication
When a patient shows partial or no response to antidepressant medication within 2-4 weeks, it is important to check for adherence to and side-effects from the drug. If these factors are not the issue, the doctor should consider increasing the dose. However, if the patient is already receiving the highest dose of a medication such as citalopram (40 mg daily), switching to an alternative antidepressant may be necessary. This could include another selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor or a newer, better-tolerated antidepressant like mirtazapine, moclobemide, or reboxetine. It is important to consult guidance regarding switching, particularly in regards to washout times. Tricyclic antidepressants or venlafaxine should be avoided if there is a risk of overdose.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
You are evaluating a 67-year-old patient during his chronic kidney disease follow-up. He has been undergoing haemodialysis for the past 6 years. What is the leading cause of mortality for this patient?
Your Answer: Ischaemic heart disease
Explanation:Causes of Chronic Kidney Disease
Chronic kidney disease is a condition that affects the kidneys and can lead to kidney failure if left untreated. There are several common causes of chronic kidney disease, including diabetic nephropathy, chronic glomerulonephritis, chronic pyelonephritis, hypertension, and adult polycystic kidney disease. Diabetic nephropathy is a complication of diabetes that affects the kidneys, while chronic glomerulonephritis is a condition that causes inflammation in the kidneys. Chronic pyelonephritis is a type of kidney infection that can lead to scarring and damage to the kidneys. Hypertension, or high blood pressure, can also cause damage to the kidneys over time. Finally, adult polycystic kidney disease is an inherited condition that causes cysts to form in the kidneys, leading to kidney damage and eventually kidney failure. It is important to identify the underlying cause of chronic kidney disease in order to properly manage and treat the condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old pregnant woman is undergoing screening for gestational diabetes. She has no significant medical history and this is her first pregnancy. During the screening, her fasting blood glucose level is measured at 7.2 mmol/L.
What would be the most suitable course of action for managing this situation?Your Answer: Re-check glucose in 2 weeks' time
Correct Answer: Start insulin only
Explanation:The most appropriate course of action for gestational diabetes is to commence insulin immediately if the fasting glucose level is equal to or greater than 7 mmol/L at the time of diagnosis. While lifestyle changes and co-prescribing metformin should also be discussed, starting insulin is the priority. This is in line with NICE guidelines, which recommend immediate insulin initiation (with or without metformin) and lifestyle advice for glucose levels between 6 and 6.9 mmol/L, especially if there are complications such as macrosomia or hydramnios.
Re-checking the glucose level in two weeks is not appropriate as uncontrolled hyperglycaemia can be dangerous for both the mother and the unborn child.
Starting exenatide is not recommended during pregnancy as there is insufficient data on its safety. Studies in mice have shown adverse effects on fetal and neonatal growth and skeletal development.
Starting metformin alone is not sufficient if the fasting glucose level is greater than 7 mmol/L. However, metformin can be prescribed in combination with insulin.
A trial of lifestyle changes alone is not appropriate if the fasting glucose level is already above 7 mmol/L. If the level is below 7 mmol/L, lifestyle changes can be tried for 1-2 weeks, and if glucose targets are not met, metformin can be offered.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.
To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.
For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from preconception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.
Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
You are evaluating an elderly gentleman with metastatic prostate cancer. He has bony metastases affecting his pelvis and has been experiencing a persistent pain in his groin that he describes as a combination of burning and shooting. Despite taking paracetamol 1 g QDS and codeine 60mg QDS regularly, he has found that his current medication doesn't effectively alleviate this new pain. He has been struggling with this pain for the past few weeks and has sought advice due to its persistent nature and the failure of his current medication. What is the most appropriate medication to add to his treatment regimen for this symptom?
Your Answer: Amitriptyline 25 mg ON
Correct Answer: Ibuprofen 400 mg TDS
Explanation:Treatment Options for Neuropathic Pain
Neuropathic pain is often described as burning or shooting pain and can be difficult to manage with traditional painkillers. However, there are several treatment options available.
Tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline are commonly used and can be started at a low dose of 10-25 mg at night, with the option to increase up to 75 mg under specialist advice. Other nerve painkillers like gabapentin, pregabalin, and carbamazepine may also be effective.
If a tumour is compressing a nerve, dexamethasone may be useful to reduce tumour oedema. Nerve blocks can also be an option for localized pain. However, NSAIDs like ibuprofen are not effective for neuropathic pain.
Opioids like tramadol and oxycodone can be used with some success, but they only have a partial effect on neuropathic symptoms. Immediate release morphine is not preferable to amitriptyline, and regular medication is more appropriate.
Lidocaine plasters can be useful for post-herpetic neuralgia, but they are not a first-line therapy for neuropathic pain. Finally, oxybutinin can be helpful in treating bladder spasm.
In summary, there are several treatment options available for neuropathic pain, and it may take some trial and error to find the most effective one for each individual patient.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 10-year-old girl presents to the GP with fever, vomiting and dysuria. Upon examination, she has right renal angle and bladder tenderness and is pyrexial at 38.2°C. Co-amoxiclav is prescribed and urine microscopy and culture is arranged. The following investigations are conducted: Haemoglobin 120 g/L (115-165), White cell count 13.2 ×109/L (4-11), Platelets 140 ×109/L (150-400), Sodium 139 mmol/L (137-144), Potassium 5.1 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), Creatinine 130 µmol/L (60-110), and MSU: blood++, protein+, enterococcus faecalis isolated. What is the most appropriate imaging investigation for this patient?
Your Answer: Ultrasound during the acute infection
Explanation:Atypical Urinary Tract Infection in Children
According to NICE guidelines, an atypical urinary tract infection (UTI) in children is characterized by certain features such as a seriously ill child, poor urine flow, abdominal or bladder mass, raised creatinine, septicaemia, failure to respond to a suitable antibiotic within 48 hours, or infection with non-Escherichia coli organisms.
If a child experiences renal angle pain during the acute infection, an ultrasound should be performed. However, surgical intervention is generally avoided if possible. It is recommended that the child be referred to a paediatric urologist for further evaluation and management. Early detection and appropriate treatment of atypical UTIs can prevent complications and improve outcomes in children.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following is not a key principle of the 2010 Mental Capacity Act?
Your Answer: A person is not to be treated as unable to make a decision merely because he makes an unwise decision
Correct Answer: A person's ability to make decisions must be reviewed on an annual basis
Explanation:The Mental Capacity Act was introduced in 2007 and applies to adults over the age of 16. It outlines who can make decisions on behalf of a patient who becomes incapacitated, such as after a stroke. Mental capacity includes the ability to make decisions about daily life, healthcare, and finances. The Act is based on five key principles, including assuming a person has capacity unless proven otherwise, taking all possible steps to help a person make decisions, and making decisions in the person’s best interests.
To assess whether a person lacks capacity, the Act provides a clear test that is decision-specific and time-specific. A person can only be considered unable to make a particular decision if they have an impairment or disturbance in the functioning of the mind or brain and are unable to understand, retain, use, or communicate information relevant to the decision. The Act also emphasizes that no individual can be labeled incapable based on their age, appearance, or any medical condition.
When assessing what is in someone’s best interests, the Act considers factors such as the likelihood of regaining capacity, the person’s wishes and beliefs, and the views of other relevant people. The Act also allows for the appointment of an attorney through a Lasting Power of Attorney (LPA) to act on behalf of a person who loses capacity. The LPA can cover property and financial affairs as well as health and welfare decisions, including life-sustaining treatment. Advance decisions can also be made by individuals with capacity to specify treatments they would not want if they lost capacity. These decisions must be written, signed, and witnessed if they refuse life-sustaining treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
In a patient with atrial fibrillation, which option warrants hospital admission or referral for urgent assessment and intervention the most?
Your Answer: Prolonged QT interval on the electrocardiogram
Correct Answer: Apex beat 155 bpm
Explanation:Urgent Admission Criteria for Patients with Atrial Fibrillation
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence has provided guidelines for urgent admission of patients with atrial fibrillation. These guidelines recommend urgent admission for patients who exhibit a rapid pulse greater than 150 bpm and/or low blood pressure with systolic blood pressure less than 90 mmHg. Additionally, urgent admission is recommended for patients who experience loss of consciousness, severe dizziness, ongoing chest pain, or increasing breathlessness. Patients who have experienced a complication of atrial fibrillation, such as stroke, transient ischaemic attack, or acute heart failure, should also be urgently admitted. While other symptoms may warrant a referral, these criteria indicate the need for immediate medical attention.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old man undergoes renal function testing and obtains an eGFR result of 54 ml/min. What is the most probable factor that accounts for this lower-than-expected outcome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Large muscle mass secondary to body building
Explanation:Individuals with extreme muscle mass, such as body builders, may frequently receive an inaccurate eGFR result, which may indicate a lower than expected value.
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition where the kidneys are not functioning properly. To estimate renal function, serum creatinine levels are often used, but this may not be accurate due to differences in muscle. Therefore, formulas such as the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation are used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). The MDRD equation takes into account serum creatinine, age, gender, and ethnicity. However, factors such as pregnancy, muscle mass, and recent red meat consumption may affect the accuracy of the result.
CKD can be classified based on the eGFR. Stage 1 CKD is when the eGFR is greater than 90 ml/min, but there are signs of kidney damage on other tests. If all kidney tests are normal, there is no CKD. Stage 2 CKD is when the eGFR is between 60-90 ml/min with some sign of kidney damage. Stage 3a and 3b CKD are when the eGFR is between 45-59 ml/min and 30-44 ml/min, respectively, indicating a moderate reduction in kidney function. Stage 4 CKD is when the eGFR is between 15-29 ml/min, indicating a severe reduction in kidney function. Stage 5 CKD is when the eGFR is less than 15 ml/min, indicating established kidney failure, and dialysis or a kidney transplant may be necessary. It is important to note that normal U&Es and no proteinuria are required for a diagnosis of CKD.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 20-year-old woman is surprised to find out she has Chlamydia despite not experiencing any symptoms. You comfort her by explaining that it is typical for Chlamydia to be asymptomatic, which is why screening is recommended. What proportion of women with Chlamydia do not show symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 70%
Explanation:Opportunistic chlamydia screening is crucial due to the significant number of men who carry the infection without showing any symptoms.
Chlamydia is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the UK caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is often asymptomatic but can cause cervicitis and dysuria in women and urethral discharge and dysuria in men. Complications include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility. Testing is done through nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) on urine or swab samples. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years. Doxycycline is the first-line treatment, but azithromycin may be used if contraindicated. Partners should be notified and treated.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 56-year-old woman with a history of hypertension visits the surgery with a complaint of hoarseness that has been present for 3 weeks. The hoarseness started after she had an upper respiratory tract infection 7 weeks ago. She is in good health and doesn't smoke. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent referral to ear, nose and throat
Explanation:Hoarseness can be caused by various factors such as overusing the voice, smoking, viral infections, hypothyroidism, gastro-oesophageal reflux, laryngeal cancer, and lung cancer. It is important to investigate the underlying cause of hoarseness, and a chest x-ray may be necessary to rule out any apical lung lesions.
If laryngeal cancer is suspected, it is recommended to refer the patient to an ENT specialist through a suspected cancer pathway. This referral should be considered for individuals who are 45 years old and above and have persistent unexplained hoarseness or an unexplained lump in the neck. Early detection and treatment of laryngeal cancer can significantly improve the patient’s prognosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A 36-year-old woman has been receiving treatment for the past three weeks for otitis externa with flumetasone/clioquinol 0.02%/1%, followed by gentamicin 0.3% w/v and hydrocortisone acetate 1% ear drops. She acquired the condition while on vacation in Spain. She is now experiencing increasing itchiness in her ears. During examination, her ears have abundant discharge with black spots on a white background. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clotrimazole solution
Explanation:Treatment Options for Fungal Otitis Externa
Fungal otitis externa is a common ear infection that can be difficult to diagnose and treat. Patients who have had prolonged courses of steroid and antibiotic drops are particularly susceptible to this type of infection. Symptoms include pruritus and discharge, which may not respond to antibiotics. The most common fungal agents are Aspergillus and Candida, which can be treated with topical clotrimazole. Topical ciprofloxacin is not effective against fungal infections, and co-amoxiclav tablets should not be used. Sofradex® ear drops, which contain steroids, may exacerbate symptoms. If initial treatment with antifungal medication is unsuccessful, referral to an Ear, Nose and Throat specialist may be necessary for further evaluation and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
You are discussing coronary heart disease risk with a patient who has a 15% 10-year risk of cardiovascular disease. The patient wants to know if he should take a statin.
Using the NICE patient decision aid on lipid modification you explain to him that if there were 100 people like him and none of them took a statin, on average 15 of these people would develop coronary heart disease (CHD) or have stroke over a 10 year period. If all 100 took a statin then over the same time period, on average nine people would develop CHD or have a stroke.
Which of the following is correct with regards the use of a statin for cardiovascular disease prevention in this patient population?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The number needed to treat is 25
Explanation:Understanding Statistical Concepts in Medical Practice
Having a solid understanding of statistical concepts and terminology is crucial when informing patients about the risks and benefits of treatment. One important concept is the absolute risk (AR), which is the number of events in a group of patients divided by the total number of patients in that group. Another important concept is the absolute risk reduction (ARR), which is the difference between the AR in a control group (ARC) and in a treatment group (ART).
To calculate the ARR, we subtract the ART from the ARC. For example, if the ARC is 10/100 and the ART is 6/100, then the ARR is 0.04 or 4%. The relative risk (RR) is another important concept, which is calculated by dividing the ART by the ARC. In this example, the RR is 0.6. The relative risk reduction (RRR) is calculated by subtracting the RR from 1. In this case, the RRR is 0.4. Finally, the number needed to treat (NNT) is calculated by dividing 1 by the ARR. In this example, the NNT is 25.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old male presents with fatigue and widespread pain. He has been experiencing these symptoms for the past six months, and they tend to worsen when he is stressed or exposed to cold temperatures. Physical examination reveals numerous tender points throughout his body, but no other significant findings. Despite undergoing various blood tests, including an autoimmune screen, inflammatory markers, and thyroid function, all results are within normal limits. Considering the probable diagnosis, which of the following is not useful in managing this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trigger point injections
Explanation:According to a study published in JAMA, the use of antidepressants has been found to be effective in treating fibromyalgia. The meta-analysis, conducted in 2009, supports the use of these medications for managing the symptoms of the condition.
Fibromyalgia is a condition that causes widespread pain throughout the body, along with tender points at specific anatomical sites. It is more common in women and typically presents between the ages of 30 and 50. Other symptoms include lethargy, cognitive impairment (known as fibro fog), sleep disturbance, headaches, and dizziness. Diagnosis is made through clinical evaluation and the presence of tender points. Management of fibromyalgia is challenging and requires an individualized, multidisciplinary approach. Aerobic exercise is the most effective treatment, along with cognitive behavioral therapy and medication such as pregabalin, duloxetine, and amitriptyline. However, there is a lack of evidence and guidelines to guide treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
What is the accurate statement about the utilization of long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) in individuals suffering from chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Patients receiving LTOT should breathe supplemental oxygen for at least 15 hours a day
Explanation:Long-Term Oxygen Therapy for COPD Patients
Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) is recommended for patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who have severe or very severe airflow obstruction, cyanosis, polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, or oxygen saturations less than or equal to 92% on room air. LTOT involves breathing supplementary oxygen for at least 15 hours a day using oxygen concentrators.
To assess patients for LTOT, arterial blood gases are measured on two occasions at least three weeks apart in patients with stable COPD on optimal management. Patients with a pO2 of less than 7.3 kPa or those with a pO2 of 7.3-8 kPa and secondary polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, or pulmonary hypertension should be offered LTOT. However, LTOT should not be offered to people who continue to smoke despite being offered smoking cessation advice and treatment, and referral to specialist stop smoking services.
Before offering LTOT, a structured risk assessment should be carried out to evaluate the risks of falls from tripping over the equipment, the risks of burns and fires, and the increased risk of these for people who live in homes where someone smokes (including e-cigarettes).
Overall, LTOT is an important treatment option for COPD patients with severe or very severe airflow obstruction or other related symptoms.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
What are the correct steps to take when completing the DWP ESA113 medical report for a patient who has applied for employment and support allowance and for whom you have been providing Med3 'fit notes'?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There is a contractual obligation for you to provide this medical report
Explanation:GP Obligations for DWP Medical Reports
GPs have a contractual obligation to complete medical reports for the Department for Work and Pensions (DWP) free of charge. This obligation is covered by the contractual arrangements between GPs and the relevant Primary Care Trust. The reports are required for Universal Credit or Employment and Support Allowance on an ESA113 or FRR2 form. The DWP obtains consent from the patient to approach the GP for the report, so there is no need for the GP to seek first-hand consent or a copy of the consent from the patient. The forms should be returned within 5 working days of receipt. It is acceptable for a practice nurse to complete the report, but the GP must authorise it by signing it at the end.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Leadership And Management
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
At what age is ulcerative colitis commonly diagnosed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bimodal: 15-25 years + 55-65 years
Explanation:Understanding Ulcerative Colitis
Ulcerative colitis is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that causes inflammation in the rectum and spreads continuously without going beyond the ileocaecal valve. It is most commonly seen in people aged 15-25 years and 55-65 years. The symptoms of ulcerative colitis are insidious and intermittent, including bloody diarrhea, urgency, tenesmus, abdominal pain, and extra-intestinal features. Diagnosis is done through colonoscopy and biopsy, but in severe cases, a flexible sigmoidoscopy is preferred to avoid the risk of perforation. The typical findings include red, raw mucosa that bleeds easily, widespread ulceration with preservation of adjacent mucosa, and inflammatory cell infiltrate in lamina propria. Extra-intestinal features of inflammatory bowel disease include arthritis, erythema nodosum, episcleritis, osteoporosis, uveitis, pyoderma gangrenosum, clubbing, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. Ulcerative colitis is linked with sacroiliitis, and a barium enema can show the whole colon affected by an irregular mucosa with loss of normal haustral markings.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 94-year-old woman is receiving visits from district nurses. She has recently developed a grade 2 pressure ulcer on her left buttock which is causing her discomfort. Upon examination, her temperature is 36.5ºC, there are no indications of cellulitis, and there is no discharge. The skin surrounding the ulcer is red but not hot to the touch.
What is the best course of action for managing this patient based on her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wound dressing, Analgesia, Nutritional assessment
Explanation:When treating pressure ulcers, antibiotics should only be used if there are signs of infection, rather than being routinely prescribed. This is important to consider for an elderly patient with a grade 2 pressure ulcer on their right buttock. Management of pressure ulcers should include wound dressings, appropriate pain relief, and a nutritional assessment. NICE recommends that all patients with pressure ulcers receive a nutritional assessment from a healthcare professional with the necessary skills. Antibiotics should only be used in cases where there is evidence of systemic sepsis, spreading cellulitis, or underlying osteomyelitis. As this patient has a normal temperature and no signs of infection in the wound, oral or IV antibiotics are not necessary.
Understanding Pressure Ulcers and Their Management
Pressure ulcers are a common problem among patients who are unable to move parts of their body due to illness, paralysis, or advancing age. These ulcers typically develop over bony prominences such as the sacrum or heel. Malnourishment, incontinence, lack of mobility, and pain are some of the factors that predispose patients to the development of pressure ulcers. To screen for patients who are at risk of developing pressure areas, the Waterlow score is widely used. This score includes factors such as body mass index, nutritional status, skin type, mobility, and continence.
The European Pressure Ulcer Advisory Panel classification system grades pressure ulcers based on their severity. Grade 1 ulcers are non-blanchable erythema of intact skin, while grade 2 ulcers involve partial thickness skin loss. Grade 3 ulcers involve full thickness skin loss, while grade 4 ulcers involve extensive destruction, tissue necrosis, or damage to muscle, bone, or supporting structures with or without full thickness skin loss.
To manage pressure ulcers, a moist wound environment is encouraged to facilitate ulcer healing. Hydrocolloid dressings and hydrogels may help with this. The use of soap should be discouraged to avoid drying the wound. Routine wound swabs should not be done as the vast majority of pressure ulcers are colonized with bacteria. The decision to use systemic antibiotics should be taken on a clinical basis, such as evidence of surrounding cellulitis. Referral to a tissue viability nurse may be considered, and surgical debridement may be beneficial for selected wounds.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old male presents with fever, productive cough, and difficulty breathing. During his workup, a urine pneumococcal antigen test is performed. According to a study, this test has a sensitivity of 68% and a specificity of 99%. What does the specificity value of 99% refer to?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The proportion of patients without the condition who have a negative test result
Explanation:Specificity refers to the percentage of patients who do not have the disease but test negative. A highly specific test would yield a high number of true negative results and a low rate of false positives. Sensitivity, on the other hand, refers to the percentage of patients with the disease who test positive. The negative predictive value represents the likelihood of patients without the condition receiving a negative test result, while the positive predictive value represents the opposite.
Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 6-year-old with Down's syndrome presents to your clinic for a routine check-up. His parents have noticed that he has been having difficulty hearing for the past few weeks. Upon otoscopy, you observe indrawn tympanic membranes with fluid levels and loss of light reflexes in both ears. There are no signs of inflammation, and examinations of the nose and throat are normal.
What would be the most suitable course of action for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to ENT
Explanation:Children who have glue ear and also have Down’s syndrome or cleft palate should be referred to an ENT specialist. While most children with otitis media with effusion (OME) can be observed for 6-12 weeks, those with Down’s syndrome or cleft palate are less likely to recover on their own. It is important to follow up with all patients with OME, even if they do not meet the criteria for referral to ENT.
Antibiotics, antihistamines, and corticosteroids should not be prescribed for OME as there is no evidence to support their use. If the patient did not have Down’s syndrome, it would be appropriate to recheck their ears after 6-12 weeks and refer to ENT if the OME had not resolved. During this observation period, normal activities including swimming (except for diving) should be encouraged.
Understanding Glue Ear
Glue ear, also known as serous otitis media, is a common condition among children, with most experiencing at least one episode during their childhood. It is characterized by the accumulation of fluid in the middle ear, leading to hearing loss, speech and language delay, and behavioral or balance problems. The risk factors for glue ear include male sex, siblings with the condition, bottle feeding, day care attendance, and parental smoking. It is more prevalent during the winter and spring seasons.
The condition typically peaks at two years of age and is the most common cause of conductive hearing loss and elective surgery in childhood. Treatment options include grommet insertion, which allows air to pass through into the middle ear, and adenoidectomy. However, grommets usually stop functioning after about ten months. It is important to understand the symptoms and risk factors of glue ear to seek appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 12-year-old girl has a sore throat.
Select from the list the single feature that would make it LESS likely that this is a streptococcal infection.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cough
Explanation:Differentiating between Viral Sore Throat and Group A β-haemolytic Streptococcus
It can be challenging to distinguish between a viral sore throat and one caused by Group A β-haemolytic streptococcus (GABS) through examination alone. However, the Centor criteria can be useful in making this differentiation. These criteria include the presence of tonsillar exudate, tender anterior cervical lymph nodes, absence of cough, and a history of fever. If a patient has three of these signs, there is a 40-60% chance that they have GABS. Conversely, if a patient doesn’t have three of these signs, there is an 80% chance that they have a viral infection. Additionally, the presence of a scarlet fever-like rash, a flushed face, circumoral pallor, and a white or red strawberry tongue may also suggest the possibility of a streptococcal infection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 40-year-old police officer attends his General Practitioner to request screening for hepatitis B. He was exposed to blood from a person possibly infected with hepatitis B virus around three weeks ago. He has never been vaccinated against this and requests blood screening. He feels well and has no comorbidities.
What is the most important test to perform at this stage?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg)
Explanation:Hepatitis B Markers: Understanding the Different Types
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that affects the liver. It is important to detect and monitor the different markers associated with the disease to determine the stage of infection and the appropriate treatment. Here are the different types of hepatitis B markers and their significance:
1. Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) – This is the first marker to appear in the serum after infection. It indicates the presence of the viral envelope and can be detected between one to nine weeks after infection. Its persistence indicates chronic hepatitis B.
2. Anti-hepatitis B envelope antigen (anti-HBeAg) – This antibody appears after the clearance of the e antigen, signifying the resolution of the acute phase.
3. Hepatitis B envelope antigen (HBeAg) – This marker develops during the early phases of the acute infection and can persist in chronic infections. It is associated with high levels of viral replication and infectivity.
4. Immunoglobulin G (IgG) anti-hepatitis B core antigen (anti-HBc) – This antibody stays positive for life following infection with hepatitis B, even once cleared.
5. Immunoglobulin M (IgM) anti-hepatitis B core antigen (anti-HBc) – This antibody confirms the diagnosis of acute infection but is detectable later than HBsAg.
Understanding these markers is crucial in the diagnosis and management of hepatitis B. Regular monitoring of these markers can help determine the progression of the disease and the effectiveness of treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A general practitioner wants to audit dermatology care at her practice. She decides to look at viral wart treatment in adults at the practice. At present, viral warts on hands or toes are initially treated in the practice using topical agents of various types. Patients are followed up at three months by some doctors. Others advise patients to return only if their warts have not resolved after three months of treatment.
When carrying out her audit, which of the following is the most appropriate step to follow?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Define ideal practice and compare this with current performance at her surgery
Explanation:The Process of Conducting a Healthcare Audit
To conduct a healthcare audit, the auditor must first choose a specific topic within the healthcare industry and establish criteria for ideal practice in that area. These criteria serve as standards that represent the best possible outcomes that can be achieved.
Next, the actual performance of healthcare providers in the chosen topic area is measured and compared to the established standards. Any discrepancies between the measured performance and the set standards are reported.
The goal is to identify areas where actual performance falls short of ideal practice and take steps to reduce or eliminate poor practice. This may involve implementing new policies or procedures, providing additional training to healthcare providers, or making changes to existing systems.
Finally, the performance in the chosen topic area is re-audited at a later date to assess whether the changes made have resulted in improvements. This ongoing process of auditing and improving healthcare practices helps to ensure that patients receive the best possible care.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A father is worried that his 7-year-old daughter has a food allergy. She has been experiencing occasional itchy rashes. He decided to eliminate all nuts from her diet and the rashes have disappeared. However, she recently had an episode of vomiting, so he also removed milk from her diet. He has been giving her antihistamines regularly. He is curious if she can undergo a blood test for allergies.
What is the most suitable advice you can provide him?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is indicated for a child who has a suspected allergic reaction after consuming peanuts
Explanation:Understanding IgE Immunoassay Testing for Peanut Allergies
IgE immunoassay testing is a diagnostic tool used to evaluate hypersensitivity to various allergens, including peanuts. This test is particularly useful for children who have a suspected allergic reaction after consuming peanuts. IgE produced by B cells in response to specific antigens binds to receptors on mast cells, triggering an immediate (type I) response that can lead to anaphylaxis, urticaria, bronchospasm, and other symptoms.
Compared to skin-prick testing, IgE immunoassay testing is more sensitive and doesn’t carry the risk of anaphylaxis. However, it can give false-negative results in patients who have true IgE-mediated disease, as confirmed by skin testing or allergen challenge. Therefore, it should be used in conjunction with the patient’s clinical history and not for screening purposes.
A positive IgE immunoassay test indicates past sensitization to an allergen, but it doesn’t necessarily mean that the patient has clinically relevant disease. Some patients may show positive results but no symptoms associated with that allergen. Therefore, the history is more important in making a diagnosis.
It is important to note that IgE immunoassay testing cannot be used if a patient is taking antihistamines. However, it is a useful diagnostic tool for patients on long-term corticosteroids, although data are conflicting.
In summary, IgE immunoassay testing is a valuable diagnostic tool for peanut allergies, but it should be used in conjunction with the patient’s clinical history and not for screening purposes. A positive test supports the diagnosis of peanut allergy, but the history is more important.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old nurse had a needlestick injury six months ago. She did not present immediately to Occupational Health but eventually came because she began to feel tired and lethargic. She has a raised alanine aminotransferase (ALT) level, anti-hepatitis B surface antibodies and anti-hepatitis C virus (HCV) antibodies. Low levels of HCV ribonucleic acid (RNA) are detected. A liver biopsy reveals early inflammatory changes.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic hepatitis C infection
Explanation:Explanation of Hepatitis C Infection and Differential Diagnosis
Hepatitis C virus (HCV) ribonucleic acid (RNA) is detected in a patient, indicating active hepatitis C infection. The presence of anti-HCV antibodies and an 8-month history since exposure confirms that the infection is now chronic. Liver biopsy may show varying degrees of inflammation, fibrosis, and cirrhosis, with this patient exhibiting early inflammatory changes.
Autoimmune hepatitis, which is associated with antinuclear antibodies (ANA) and/or anti-smooth muscle antibodies (SMA), is not consistent with the presence of anti-HCV antibodies and HCV RNA. Chronic hepatitis B infection is also ruled out, as the patient’s anti-hepatitis B antibodies are likely due to vaccination. Functional symptoms may cause tiredness and lethargy, but the patient’s deranged liver function tests and positive hepatitis C antibodies indicate an underlying diagnosis of hepatitis C.
Understanding Hepatitis C Infection and Differential Diagnosis
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old woman presents to you with dizziness, fatigue and shortness of breath. She has a history of asthma for which she takes salmeterol/fluticasone inhaler and salbutamol PRN. Most recently she was started on allopurinol tablets for gout. You also increased her hypertension medication at her last appointment.
On examination her BP is 140/80 mmHg, she is tachycardic with a heart rate of around 110.
Investigations show:
Hb 110 g/L (120 - 160)
WCC 6.2 ×109/L (4 - 11)
PLT 200 ×109/L (150 - 400)
Na 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K 3.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Cr 140 µmol/L (60 - 110)
ECG shows sinus tachycardia, no acute changes.
Which of the following medications is most likely to have caused her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Allopurinol
Explanation:Theophylline Toxicity and Drug Interactions
The scenario presented here is typical of theophylline toxicity, with symptoms such as headaches, nausea and vomiting, palpitations, and hypokalaemia. However, the cause of this toxicity is due to an increase in theophylline levels caused by allopurinol. Other drugs that can increase theophylline levels include carbimazole, cimetidine, erythromycin, and many others. It is important to note that calcium channel blockers may also increase theophylline levels, but not as much as allopurinol. Therefore, it is crucial to reduce theophylline dose when starting allopurinol. Questions about drug safety and significant interactions are common in the AKT exam, so it is essential to stay updated on important drug safety notifications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A study is conducted to determine the normal range of IgE levels in elderly individuals. Assuming that IgE levels are normally distributed, what proportion of elderly individuals will have an IgE level greater than 2 standard deviations from the mean?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2.30%
Explanation:The normal distribution, also known as the Gaussian distribution or ‘bell-shaped’ distribution, is commonly used to describe the spread of biological and clinical measurements. It is symmetrical, meaning that the mean, mode, and median are all equal. Additionally, a large percentage of values fall within a certain range of the mean. For example, 68.3% of values lie within 1 standard deviation (SD) of the mean, 95.4% lie within 2 SD, and 99.7% lie within 3 SD. This is often reversed, so that 95% of sample values lie within 1.96 SD of the mean. The range of the mean plus or minus 1.96 SD is called the 95% confidence interval, meaning that if a repeat sample of 100 observations were taken from the same group, 95 of them would be expected to fall within that range. The standard deviation is a measure of how much dispersion exists from the mean, and is calculated as the square root of the variance.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old lady calls for telephone advice. She is 20 days postpartum and had unprotected sexual intercourse 72 hours ago. She has no significant medical history and doesn't take any regular medication. She is bottle-feeding her baby. She is uncertain if there is a possibility of pregnancy and if emergency contraception is necessary.
Which of the following would be the most suitable recommendation to provide in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Emergency contraception is advised and oral ulipristal acetate 30 mg is the only safe treatment option
Explanation:Emergency Contraception Options After Childbirth
Oral levonorgestrel 1.5 mg and ulipristal acetate 30 mg are safe to use 21 days after childbirth, while the copper intrauterine device can be used for emergency contraception from day 28 postpartum. Among the three options, the copper intrauterine device is the most effective, with a pregnancy rate of approximately 1 in 1000.
It is important to note that the copper intrauterine device carries the same contraindications as when used for standard contraception. It can be retained until the next period then removed or kept in situ for ongoing long-term contraception. With these options available, women can make informed decisions about their reproductive health after childbirth.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old woman with squamous cell lung cancer presents with confusion.
Her family reports that she has become slowly more confused over the last two weeks. She is also complaining of generalised aches and pains, lethargy and thirst. Further enquiry reveals that she has been having increasing problems with constipation.
What is the underlying cause of this presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ectopic parathyroid hormone production
Explanation:Paraneoplastic Syndromes Associated with Lung Cancer
Lung cancer can be associated with various paraneoplastic syndromes, which are caused by substances produced by the tumor that affect other parts of the body. One such syndrome is hypercalcemia, which can cause confusion, lethargy, aches and pains, thirst, and constipation. Squamous cell lung carcinoma is particularly associated with ectopic parathyroid hormone production, leading to increased calcium levels.
Other paraneoplastic syndromes associated with lung cancer include Cushing’s syndrome, which can occur with small cell lung cancer due to ectopic ACTH production; Horner’s syndrome, which can occur with apical lung tumors that invade sympathetic nerve fibers, causing ptosis, miosis, and anhydrosis; and Lambert-Eaton syndrome, an autoimmune process associated with small cell lung cancer that causes muscle weakness and hyporeflexia.
Another condition associated with lung cancer is SIADH, which causes hyponatremia and can lead to confusion, seizures, cardiac failure, edema, and muscle weakness. Causes of SIADH include small cell lung cancer, as well as other malignancies, stroke, subarachnoid hemorrhage, vasculitis, TB, and certain drugs like opiates. Understanding these paraneoplastic syndromes can help clinicians identify and manage symptoms in patients with lung cancer.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 31
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old male presents with lower back pain and painful feet which feel as though he is walking on pebbles. He has been generally very well and the only thing that he can recall was that he returned from holiday in Corfu about 3 weeks ago and had a diarrhoeal illness whilst there.
He takes no medication but admits to taking ecstasy infrequently.
On examination he has some painful limitation of movement at the sacroiliac joints and has painful soreness over the soles of the feet on deep palpation.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Understanding Sacroiliitis and Plantar Fasciitis
Sacroiliitis is a condition that affects the sacroiliac joint, which connects the spine to the pelvis. It causes inflammation and pain in the lower back, buttocks, and legs. Plantar fasciitis, on the other hand, is a condition that affects the plantar fascia, a thick band of tissue that runs along the bottom of the foot. It causes pain in the heel and arch of the foot.
After experiencing a diarrhoeal illness, the most likely diagnosis for these conditions is reactive arthritis. This is a type of arthritis that occurs as a reaction to an infection in another part of the body, such as the gut. It can cause joint pain, swelling, and stiffness, as well as other symptoms like fever and fatigue.
It is important to note that reactive arthritis is less likely to be associated with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) in this case, as the individual only experienced one acute episode of diarrhoea.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
-
-
Question 32
Incorrect
-
What is the fundamental nature of the Personal Medical Services agreement?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Local contract which reflects local patient needs
Explanation:A standard agreement for healthcare providers who have not met the requirements outlined in the General Medical Services (GMS) contract.
The PMS contract is a contract that is agreed and managed locally. Its original objectives were to provide greater freedom for GPs to address the needs of their patients, encourage innovative and flexible ways of working, and address under-doctored areas. The contract includes core and additional services, similar to the GMS contract, but with additional services that may include community endoscopy. SPMS contracts can be customized to meet the needs of specific communities, such as refugees. Historically, GPs working under the PMS contract have earned more than those under the GMS contract, but this may change in the near future.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
-
-
Question 33
Incorrect
-
A 5-year-old boy presents with his first febrile convulsion.
Which of the following is appropriate information for his parents?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Most cases happen between 6 months and 3 years of age
Explanation:Febrile Convulsions: A Common Occurrence in Young Children
Febrile convulsions are a relatively common occurrence in young children, with a prevalence of 5% between the ages of 6 months and 5 years. Clinical experience has shown that most of these convulsions occur before the age of three. The convulsions are typically tonic-clonic in nature, and most children (75%) will only experience one seizure. A strong family history of febrile seizures is the most important factor in predicting whether a child will develop further seizures.
Fortunately, epilepsy develops in only approximately 2% of children who experience febrile convulsions. After the first seizure, no treatment is required other than symptomatic care. It is important for parents and caregivers to be aware of the signs and symptoms of febrile convulsions and to seek medical attention if they occur. With proper management and care, most children will recover fully from febrile convulsions without any long-term effects.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 34
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man with a 25-year history of chronic plaque psoriasis is being seen in clinic. Despite having severe psoriasis at times, he is currently managing well with only topical therapy. Which of the following conditions is he NOT at an elevated risk for due to his psoriasis history?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Melanoma
Explanation:The risk of non-melanoma skin cancer is higher in individuals with psoriasis.
Psoriasis is a condition that can have both physical and psychological complications, beyond just psoriatic arthritis. While it may be tempting to focus solely on topical treatments, it’s important to keep in mind the potential risks associated with psoriasis. Patients with this condition are at a higher risk for cardiovascular disease, hypertension, venous thromboembolism, depression, ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease, non-melanoma skin cancer, and other types of cancer such as liver, lung, and upper gastrointestinal tract cancers. Therefore, it’s crucial to consider these potential complications when managing a patient with psoriasis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 35
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old woman has suffered three episodes of transient right monocular blindness.
Her rate is 88 beats per minute (regular) and she is in sinus rhythm.
Which is the single most appropriate investigation that would diagnose the condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CT scan
Explanation:Carotid Duplex Ultrasonography for Atherosclerotic Stenosis
Whilst carotid duplex ultrasonography may not be arranged directly from primary care, it is important for healthcare professionals to have an understanding of investigations that may be arranged by secondary care and to be able to discuss this in more general terms with their patients, including indications. This is particularly relevant for patients who have experienced amaurosis fugax caused by internal carotid artery atherosclerotic stenosis, which may also present with temporary paresis, aphasia, or sensory deficits. Fundoscopic examination may reveal bright yellow cholesterol emboli in patients with retinal involvement. The investigation to identify the significant stenosis or occlusive lesion usually greater than 70% is carotid duplex ultrasonography.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 36
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old girl who works in a daycare center comes in for evaluation. She reports experiencing joint pain, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal cramps. Additionally, she has a purplish rash on her legs and around her waistline. Upon urine testing, she shows signs of microscopic hematuria, proteinuria, and red blood cell casts. What is the most probable cause? Choose only ONE option.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Henoch–Schönlein purpura
Explanation:Henoch-Schönlein purpura is a common vasculitis that affects children and young adults, typically between the ages of 4 and 15. The condition is characterized by palpable purpura on dependent areas of the body, such as the lower limbs, and areas exposed to skin pressure. Other symptoms may include subcutaneous edema, joint pain, and gastrointestinal issues. Skin biopsy can reveal a leukocytoclastic vasculitis, and elevated levels of immunoglobulin A (IgA) are present in about half of patients. In some cases, Henoch-Schönlein purpura may follow a respiratory tract infection. Glomerulonephritis may also be present, which can be identified by microscopic hematuria, proteinuria, and red-cell casts. While renal involvement occurs in up to 40% of older children, it is serious in only about 10% of patients. Treatment may involve prednisolone for severe cases, with the addition of azathioprine if glomerulonephritis is present and associated with deteriorating renal function.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
-
-
Question 37
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man is requested to come to the clinic for a routine check up following a car accident. He claims he did not see a cyclist emerging from a road to his left while driving his car. Upon further inquiry, he confesses to bumping into door frames in his house more frequently than usual, but attributes it to his general clumsiness. His medical history includes hypertension, which is managed with ramipril, and erectile dysfunction, for which he has recently been prescribed sildenafil. During the examination, he displays bilateral peripheral field visual loss. What would be the most appropriate investigation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent pituitary MRI
Explanation:Pituitary Tumour and Peripheral Vision Loss
The combination of peripheral visual field loss and erectile dysfunction is a cause for concern as it may indicate the presence of a pituitary tumour. While pituitary function tests are important, the urgent need to protect the patient’s sight requires an immediate pituitary MRI scan to check for possible compression of the optic chiasma. The availability of this scan may vary depending on local arrangements, but it is crucial to understand the necessary steps to take in order to act accordingly.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 38
Incorrect
-
You are a GPST1 working in a general practice. A practice nurse seeks your guidance on a routine ECG performed on a 50-year-old man. Upon examining the ECG, you observe that the patient is in regular sinus rhythm with a rate of 70 beats per minute. However, the patient has a long QT interval and small T waves.
What could be the reason for this distinct ECG pattern?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia
Explanation:Long QT syndrome may result from hypokalaemia.
Long QT syndrome (LQTS) is a genetic condition that causes a delay in the ventricles’ repolarization. This delay can lead to ventricular tachycardia/torsade de pointes, which can cause sudden death or collapse. The most common types of LQTS are LQT1 and LQT2, which are caused by defects in the alpha subunit of the slow delayed rectifier potassium channel. A normal corrected QT interval is less than 430 ms in males and 450 ms in females.
There are various causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital factors, drugs, and other conditions. Congenital factors include Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome and Romano-Ward syndrome. Drugs that can cause a prolonged QT interval include amiodarone, sotalol, tricyclic antidepressants, and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. Other factors that can cause a prolonged QT interval include electrolyte imbalances, acute myocardial infarction, myocarditis, hypothermia, and subarachnoid hemorrhage.
LQTS may be detected on a routine ECG or through family screening. Long QT1 is usually associated with exertional syncope, while Long QT2 is often associated with syncope following emotional stress, exercise, or auditory stimuli. Long QT3 events often occur at night or at rest and can lead to sudden cardiac death.
Management of LQTS involves avoiding drugs that prolong the QT interval and other precipitants if appropriate. Beta-blockers are often used, and implantable cardioverter defibrillators may be necessary in high-risk cases. It is important to note that sotalol may exacerbate LQTS.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 39
Incorrect
-
A 58-year-old woman with diet-controlled type II diabetes is being treated with a thiazide, a beta blocker and an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor for hypertension. Her General Practitioner has recently increased some of her medication and has asked her to return to the surgery for a repeat blood pressure measurement and blood test to check for renal function and electrolytes.
Investigations:
Investigation Results Normal value
Serum potassium concentration 3.1 mmol/l 3.5-5.0 mmol/l
Blood pressure 156/94 mmHg <140/90 mmHg
Serum creatinine concentration 115 µmol/l 70-120 µmol/l
Which of the following is the single most likely cause of her hypokalaemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The thiazide diuretic
Explanation:Causes of Hypokalaemia: Understanding the Factors that Lower Potassium Levels
Hypokalaemia, or low potassium levels, can be caused by various factors. One of the common causes is the use of thiazide diuretics, which inhibit sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule of the kidney. This can lead to excess potassium loss via urine, especially in patients with underlying renal impairment. However, the use of a potassium-sparing diuretic can help offset this problem.
Another possible cause of hypokalaemia is primary aldosteronism, also known as Conn syndrome. This condition can cause hypertension and hypokalaemia, but it only accounts for a small percentage of hypertension cases.
Low dietary potassium intake is also a factor that can contribute to hypokalaemia, although it is less common in people who are eating normally. Potassium depletion is more likely to occur in cases of starvation.
Renal tubular acidosis type 4, which is often seen in patients with diabetes, is associated with hyperkalaemia rather than hypokalaemia. On the other hand, renal tubular acidosis types 1 and 2 are linked to hypokalaemia.
Lastly, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors tend to raise the plasma potassium concentration rather than decrease it, due to their action on the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system.
Understanding the various causes of hypokalaemia is important in identifying and treating the underlying condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
-
-
Question 40
Incorrect
-
Which statements accurately describe an intention to treat analysis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is a study comparing the effects of treatment with placebo or active treatment and also a similar group of non-study participants
Explanation:Intention to Treat Studies
When conducting a randomised study, the principles of double-blind placebo control may apply, but the preferential fall out of patients who do not perceive a benefit from the placebo may introduce bias. Intention to treat studies argue that all patients who originally participate in the study should be committed to analysis. This approach maintains treatment groups that are similar apart from random variation, which is the reason for randomisation. Failure to perform analysis on the groups produced by the randomisation process may result in the loss of this feature. Additionally, intention to treat studies permit non-compliance and deviations from policy by clinicians. By committing all patients to analysis, intention to treat studies provide a more accurate representation of the effectiveness of a treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
-
-
Question 41
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man with pancreatic cancer comes to the clinic for a review of medication. He reports that his pain is no longer managed with paracetamol and 240 mg oral codeine per day. The doctor decides to initiate an opiate.
Which of the following is the most suitable choice?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral morphine 30 mg daily in divided doses
Explanation:Starting Strong Opioids for Pain Management
When beginning strong opioids for pain management, it is recommended to use regular oral sustained-release or immediate-release morphine, depending on the patient’s preference. Immediate-release morphine can be used as needed for breakthrough pain, but it should not replace regular oral morphine. For patients without renal or hepatic comorbidities, a typical starting dose of 20-30 mg of oral morphine per day is recommended. This can be divided into two doses of sustained-release morphine or taken as 5mg of immediate-release morphine every 4 hours. However, patients switching from a weak opioid may require a higher starting dose of 40-60mg per day.
If oral opioids are not suitable, transdermal patches or subcutaneous infusions can be used as an alternative. In most cases, a general practitioner should not require specialist advice at this stage of pain management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
-
-
Question 42
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a pigmented lesion on her left cheek. She reports that the lesion has been present for a while but has recently increased in size. Upon examination, it is evident that she has significant sun damage on her face, legs, and arms due to living in South Africa. The lesion appears flat, pigmented, and has an irregular border.
What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lentigo maligna
Explanation:Skin Lesions and Their Characteristics
Lentigo Maligna: This pre-invasive lesion has the potential to develop into malignant melanoma. It appears as a pigmented, flat lesion against sun-damaged skin. Surgical excision is the ideal intervention, but cryotherapy and topical immunotherapy are possible alternatives.
Squamous Cell Carcinoma: This common type of skin cancer presents as enlarging scaly or crusted nodules, often associated with ulceration. It may arise in areas of actinic keratoses or Bowen’s disease.
Basal Cell Carcinoma: This skin cancer usually occurs in photo-exposed areas of fair-skinned individuals. It looks like pearly nodules with surface telangiectasia.
Pityriasis Versicolor: This is a common yeast infection of the skin that results in an annular, erythematous scaling rash on the trunk.
Actinic Keratosis: These scaly lesions occur in sun-damaged skin in fair-skinned individuals and are considered to be a pre-cancerous form of SCC.
Understanding Skin Lesions and Their Characteristics
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 43
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old woman has developed gradually increasing breathlessness on minimal exertion over two months. Her vital capacity is 3 litres when sitting and 1.4 litres when lying. Physical examination reveals mild bilateral ptosis. There are no other abnormal neurological findings.
What is the single most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Myasthenia gravis
Explanation:Neuromuscular Disorders: Symptoms and Characteristics
Myasthenia gravis is a neuromuscular disorder that affects both eyes and respiratory muscles, causing bilateral ptosis and respiratory muscle weakness. Unlike other disorders, initial weakness is not limited to a single muscle group. Guillain–Barré syndrome, on the other hand, presents with an ascending pattern of progressive symmetrical weakness, starting in the lower extremities and progressing to involve the arms, trunk, cranial nerves, and muscles of respiration. Motor neurone disease typically affects the upper and lower motor neurons, leading to progressive weakness of the bulbar, limb, thoracic, and abdominal muscles. Myotonic dystrophy is a chronic, slowly progressive disease that affects muscle wasting, cataracts, heart conduction defects, endocrine changes, and myotonia. Polymyositis is an inflammatory myopathy that causes symmetrical proximal muscle weakness in the upper and lower limbs, with involvement of the thighs, trunk, shoulders, hips, and upper arms over time. Ocular muscles are never involved in the generalised type of the disease.
Understanding Neuromuscular Disorders and Their Characteristics
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 44
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man presents for review. He has been recently diagnosed with congestive heart failure. Currently, he takes digoxin 0.25 mg daily, furosemide 40 mg daily and amiloride 5 mg daily.
Routine laboratory studies are normal except for a blood urea of 8 mmol/l (2.5-7.5) and a serum creatinine of 110 μmol/L (60-110).
One month later, the patient continues to have dyspnoea and orthopnoea and has noted a 4 kg reduction in weight. His pulse rate is 96 per minute, blood pressure is 132/78 mmHg. Physical examination is unchanged except for reduced crackles, JVP is no longer visible and there is no ankle oedema.
Repeat investigations show:
Urea 10.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
Creatinine 120 µmol/L (60-110)
Sodium 135 mmol/L (137-144)
Potassium 3.5 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
Digoxin concentration within therapeutic range.
What would be the next most appropriate change to make to his medication?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add lisinopril 2.5 mg daily
Explanation:The Importance of ACE Inhibitors in Heart Failure Treatment
Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are crucial drugs in the treatment of heart failure. They offer a survival advantage and are the primary treatment for heart failure, unless contraindicated. These drugs work by reducing peripheral vascular resistance through the blockage of the angiotensin converting enzyme. This action decreases myocardial oxygen consumption, improving cardiac output and moderating left ventricular and vascular hypertrophy.
ACE inhibitors are particularly effective in treating congestive heart failure (CHF) caused by systolic dysfunction. However, first dose hypotension may occur, especially if the patient is already on diuretics. These drugs are also beneficial in protecting renal function, especially in cases of significant proteinuria. An increase of 20% in serum creatinine levels is not uncommon and is not a reason to discontinue the medication.
It is important to note that potassium levels can be affected by ACE inhibitors, and this patient is already taking several drugs that can alter potassium levels. The introduction of an ACE inhibitor may increase potassium levels, which would need to be monitored carefully. If potassium levels become too high, the amiloride may need to be stopped or substituted with a higher dose of furosemide. Overall, ACE inhibitors play a crucial role in the treatment of heart failure and should be carefully monitored to ensure their effectiveness and safety.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 45
Incorrect
-
As a GP, what tests should be performed for an 80-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation who has been started on amiodarone?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: TFTs, LFTs every 6 months
Explanation:Amiodarone, a class III antiarrhythmic drug, has the potential to impact various bodily systems such as the thyroid, liver, and lungs.
To ensure patient safety, it is recommended to conduct liver and thyroid function tests every six months. Before initiating amiodarone treatment, a chest x-ray is necessary, but it is not required routinely after treatment unless respiratory symptoms arise.
Adverse Effects and Drug Interactions of Amiodarone
Amiodarone is a medication used to treat irregular heartbeats. However, its use can lead to several adverse effects. One of the most common adverse effects is thyroid dysfunction, which can manifest as either hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism. Other adverse effects include corneal deposits, pulmonary fibrosis or pneumonitis, liver fibrosis or hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy, myopathy, photosensitivity, a slate-grey appearance, thrombophlebitis, injection site reactions, bradycardia, and lengthening of the QT interval.
It is also important to note that amiodarone can interact with other medications. For example, it can decrease the metabolism of warfarin, leading to an increased INR. Additionally, it can increase digoxin levels. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor patients closely for adverse effects and drug interactions when using amiodarone. Proper management and monitoring can help minimize the risks associated with this medication.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 46
Incorrect
-
A 64-year-old patient has scheduled a phone consultation to discuss cervical screening. She has seen recent Public Health adverts raising awareness of cervical cancer and encouraging women to get screened. Although she is aware that she is now past the age for routine screening, she would like to self-refer for cervical screening, just as her friend did for breast screening. Upon checking her records, you find that her last smear was 3 years ago, and she has never had an abnormal result. She confirms that she has no symptoms. What advice should you give her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She is no longer eligible for cervical screening
Explanation:Cervical screening is only available to women between the ages of 25 and 64, and cannot be offered to those outside of this age range. However, if a patient has never had a screening test or has not had one since age 50, they can have a one-off test. Unlike breast and bowel screening, patients cannot self-refer for cervical screening outside of the routine age range. This is because cervical cancer is unlikely to develop after this age if previous tests have been normal. Patients with symptoms of cervical cancer should be referred for colposcopy, while asymptomatic patients should not be referred as screening is designed to detect asymptomatic cases.
Understanding Cervical Cancer Screening in the UK
Cervical cancer screening is a well-established program in the UK that aims to detect Premalignant changes in the cervix. This program is estimated to prevent 1,000-4,000 deaths per year. However, it should be noted that cervical adenocarcinomas, which account for around 15% of cases, are frequently undetected by screening.
The screening program has evolved significantly in recent years. Initially, smears were examined for signs of dyskaryosis, which may indicate cervical intraepithelial neoplasia. However, the introduction of HPV testing allowed for further risk stratification. Patients with mild dyskaryosis who were HPV negative could be treated as having normal results. The NHS has now moved to an HPV first system, where a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.
All women between the ages of 25-64 years are offered a smear test. Women aged 25-49 years are screened every three years, while those aged 50-64 years are screened every five years. Cervical screening cannot be offered to women over 64, unlike breast screening, where patients can self-refer once past screening age. In Scotland, screening is offered from 25-64 every five years.
In special situations, cervical screening in pregnancy is usually delayed until three months postpartum, unless there has been missed screening or previous abnormal smears. Women who have never been sexually active have a very low risk of developing cervical cancer and may wish to opt-out of screening.
While there is limited evidence to support it, the current advice given out by the NHS is that the best time to take a cervical smear is around mid-cycle. Understanding the cervical cancer screening program in the UK is crucial for women to take control of their health and prevent cervical cancer.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
-
-
Question 47
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old woman has advanced breast cancer with bone metastases. She is currently taking co-codamol 30/500 two tablets six hourly and ibuprofen 400 mg three times a day. Despite this, she is still struggling with pain.
What is the most appropriate next course of action? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Modified-release morphine and an oral solution of morphine
Explanation:Choosing the Right Opioid Analgesic for Pain Management: A Guide
When codeine is no longer effective in controlling pain, the British National Formulary (BNF) recommends prescribing morphine. To ensure optimal pain relief, it is important to convert the patient’s current codeine dose to an equivalent dose of morphine and prescribe it as a modified-release preparation. However, an immediate-release preparation of morphine should also be prescribed for breakthrough pain.
While transdermal fentanyl can be useful in certain situations, it takes up to 72 hours to reach a steady state, making it difficult to titrate doses as needed. Subcutaneous analgesia with diamorphine is not necessary in this scenario, as the patient doesn’t exhibit any signs of drowsiness or difficulty swallowing.
For acute pain relief, oxycodone immediate-release tablets can be prescribed as needed. However, for regular use, a modified-release preparation of oxycodone would be more appropriate. By carefully considering the patient’s needs and the characteristics of each opioid analgesic, healthcare providers can choose the most effective and safe option for pain management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
-
-
Question 48
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old man with known asthma visits your clinic with a complaint of worsening wheezing over the past few hours. He seldom attends asthma clinic and you observe that his previous best peak flow readings were 400 L/min. What is the threshold that indicates acute severe asthma in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Respiratory rate >25
Explanation:Assessment and Severity of Acute Asthma
Assessment and severity of acute asthma are common topics in exams. The British Thoracic Society provides clear guidance on the assessment and management of acute asthma, which should be familiar to healthcare professionals.
Indicators of acute severe asthma include a peak expiratory flow rate of 33-50% of best or predicted, a respiratory rate of 25 or greater, a heart rate of 110/min or greater, or an inability to complete sentences in one breath. The aim of oxygen therapy is to maintain SpO2 94-98%.
In the case of this man, the only indicator of an acute severe asthma attack is a respiratory rate of >25. If any of these features persist after initial treatment, the patient should be admitted. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these indicators and to follow the appropriate management guidelines to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
-
-
Question 49
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old man who is typically healthy comes in with a cough that produces clear sputum and feeling generally unwell for the past three days. The physician provides him with a prescription for antibiotics to be filled at a later time. What is the estimated percentage of patients who will ultimately take antibiotics using this approach?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 33%
Explanation:The Debate on Delayed Prescribing for Antibiotics
Delayed prescribing has been a topic of debate for many years, particularly in relation to reducing antibiotic prescriptions for respiratory tract infections. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) currently advocates for this strategy, but its effectiveness and acceptability among patients remain in question.
In 2013, Cochrane conducted a review of 10 studies on the delayed prescription of antibiotics for acute respiratory tract infections. The review found that delayed prescribing reduced antibiotic use from 93% to 32%, regardless of the method used (e.g. post-dated script, same-day script with advice to use after 48 hours). However, patient satisfaction levels were not significantly affected by delayed prescribing.
Critics of delayed prescribing argue that patient satisfaction levels were just as high for patients who were refused antibiotics. Despite the ongoing debate, delayed prescribing remains a potential strategy for reducing unnecessary antibiotic use.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
-
-
Question 50
Incorrect
-
You are conducting a phone consultation with a 36-year-old patient whom you previously saw for erectile dysfunction (ED) two weeks ago. You ordered some blood tests, and the results have come back with abnormal findings. The patient's HbA1c and lipid profile are both within normal limits, but his total testosterone level is low at 9 nmol/l (normal is >12 nmol/l).
What is the appropriate course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Repeat the testosterone level and check follicle stimulating hormone (FSH), luteinising hormone (LH), and prolactin level
Explanation:Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.
To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
0
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)