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  • Question 1 - A 45-year-old woman presents with recurrent episodes of central chest pain that radiate...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman presents with recurrent episodes of central chest pain that radiate to her left arm. She has a history of angina and uses a GTN spray for relief. She reports that the pains have been occurring more frequently in the past few days and have been triggered by less exertion. Currently, she is not experiencing any pain, and her ECG shows normal sinus rhythm with no abnormalities in T wave or ST-segment.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Unstable angina

      Explanation:

      Unstable angina is characterized by the presence of one or more of the following symptoms: angina of effort occurring over a few days with increasing frequency, episodes of angina occurring recurrently and predictably without specific provocation, or an unprovoked and prolonged episode of cardiac chest pain. The electrocardiogram (ECG) may appear normal or show T-wave/ST-segment changes, and cardiac enzymes are typically within normal range.

      On the other hand, stable angina is defined by central chest pain that is triggered by activities such as exercise and emotional stress. This pain may radiate to the jaw or left arm and is relieved by resting for a few minutes. It is usually brought on by a predictable amount of exertion.

      Prinzmetal angina, although rare, is a variant of angina that primarily occurs at rest between midnight and early morning. The attacks can be severe and tend to happen in clusters. This type of angina is caused by coronary artery spasm, and patients may have normal coronary arteries.

      Decubitus angina, on the other hand, is angina that occurs when lying down. It often develops as a result of cardiac failure due to an increased volume of blood within the blood vessels, which places additional strain on the heart.

      Lastly, Ludwig’s angina is an extremely serious and potentially life-threatening cellulitis that affects the submandibular area. It most commonly arises from an infection in the floor of the mouth, which then spreads to the submandibular space.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A middle-aged homeless individual with a history of intravenous drug use complains of...

    Correct

    • A middle-aged homeless individual with a history of intravenous drug use complains of extremely intense back pain, accompanied by a fever and weakness in the left leg. The pain has been disrupting his sleep and hindering his ability to walk. During the examination, tenderness is observed in the lower lumbar spine, along with weakness in left knee extension and foot dorsiflexion.

      What is the MOST probable diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Discitis

      Explanation:

      Discitis is an infection that affects the space between the intervertebral discs in the spine. This condition can have serious consequences, including the formation of abscesses and sepsis. The most common cause of discitis is usually Staphylococcus aureus, but other organisms like Streptococcus viridans and Pseudomonas aeruginosa may be responsible in intravenous drug users and those with weakened immune systems. Gram-negative organisms such as Escherichia coli and Mycobacterium tuberculosis can also cause discitis.

      There are several risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing discitis. These include having undergone spinal surgery (which occurs in 1-2% of cases post-operatively), having an immunodeficiency, being an intravenous drug user, being under the age of eight, having diabetes mellitus, or having a malignancy.

      The typical symptoms of discitis include back or neck pain (which occurs in over 90% of cases), pain that often wakes the patient from sleep, fever (present in 60-70% of cases), and neurological deficits (which can occur in up to 50% of cases). In children, refusal to walk may also be a symptom.

      When diagnosing discitis, MRI is the preferred imaging modality due to its high sensitivity and specificity. It is important to image the entire spine, as discitis often affects multiple levels. Plain radiographs are not very sensitive to the early changes of discitis and may appear normal for 2-4 weeks. CT scanning is also not very sensitive in detecting discitis.

      Treatment for discitis involves admission to the hospital for intravenous antibiotics. Before starting the antibiotics, it is important to send three sets of blood cultures and a full set of blood tests, including a CRP, to the lab. The choice of antibiotics depends on the specific situation. A typical antibiotic regimen for discitis may include IV flucloxacillin as the first-line treatment if there is no penicillin allergy, IV vancomycin if the infection was acquired in the hospital or there is a high risk of MRSA, and possibly IV gentamicin if there is a possibility of a Gram-negative infection. In cases where there is acute kidney injury and Gram-negative cover is required, IV piperacillin-tazobactam alone may be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 45-year-old man receives a blood transfusion for anemia secondary to gastrointestinal bleeding....

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man receives a blood transfusion for anemia secondary to gastrointestinal bleeding. During the transfusion, he complains of experiencing alternating sensations of heat and cold during the second unit, and his temperature is measured at 38.1ºC. His temperature before the transfusion was measured at 37ºC. He feels fine otherwise and does not have any other symptoms.
      Which of the following transfusion reactions is most likely to have taken place?

      Your Answer: Febrile transfusion reaction

      Explanation:

      Blood transfusion is a crucial medical treatment that can save lives, but it also comes with various risks and potential problems. These include immunological complications, administration errors, infections, and immune dilution. While there have been improvements in safety procedures and a reduction in transfusion use, errors and adverse reactions still occur. One common adverse reaction is febrile transfusion reactions, which present as an unexpected rise in temperature during or after transfusion. This can be caused by cytokine accumulation or recipient antibodies reacting to donor antigens. Treatment for febrile transfusion reactions is supportive, and other potential causes should be ruled out.

      Another serious complication is acute haemolytic reaction, which is often caused by ABO incompatibility due to administration errors. This reaction requires the transfusion to be stopped and IV fluids to be administered. Delayed haemolytic reactions can occur several days after a transfusion and may require monitoring and treatment for anaemia and renal function. Allergic reactions, TRALI (Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury), TACO (Transfusion Associated Circulatory Overload), and GVHD (Graft-vs-Host Disease) are other potential complications that require specific management approaches.

      In summary, blood transfusion carries risks and potential complications, but efforts have been made to improve safety procedures. It is important to be aware of these complications and to promptly address any adverse reactions that may occur during or after a transfusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old woman with a history of alcoholic liver disease comes in with...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman with a history of alcoholic liver disease comes in with a fever, abdominal pain, ascites, and worsening hepatic encephalopathy. The doctor suspects spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. Which ONE statement is correct regarding this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Patients should be administered broad-spectrum antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) is a sudden bacterial infection of the fluid in the abdomen. It typically occurs in patients with high blood pressure in the portal vein, and about 70% of cases are seen in patients with severe liver disease. In any given year, around 30% of patients with fluid buildup in the abdomen will develop SBP.

      SBP can present with a wide range of symptoms, so it’s important to be vigilant when caring for patients with fluid buildup in the abdomen, especially if there is a sudden decline in their condition. Some patients may not show any symptoms at all.

      Common clinical features of SBP include fever (80% of cases), abdominal pain (70% of cases), worsening or unexplained confusion due to liver dysfunction, diarrhea, nausea and vomiting, and bowel obstruction.

      There are several factors that increase the risk of developing SBP, including severe liver disease (Child-Pugh class C), gastrointestinal bleeding, urinary tract infection, excessive growth of bacteria in the intestines, presence of indwelling lines such as central venous catheters or urinary catheters, previous episodes of SBP, and low levels of protein in the fluid buildup in the abdomen.

      To diagnose SBP, a procedure called abdominal paracentesis is performed to collect fluid from the abdomen. The following findings on fluid analysis strongly suggest SBP: total white blood cell count in the fluid greater than 500 cells/µL, total neutrophil count in the fluid greater than 250 cells/µL, lactate level in the fluid higher than 25 mg/dL, pH of the fluid below 7.35, and presence of bacteria on Gram-stain.

      Patients with SBP should be admitted to the hospital and treated with broad-spectrum antibiotics. The preferred antibiotic is an intravenous third-generation cephalosporin, such as Ceftriaxone. If the patient is allergic to beta-lactam antibiotics, ciprofloxacin can be considered as an alternative. Administration of intravenous albumin has been shown to reduce the risk of kidney failure and death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old Caucasian woman comes in with itchy, hyperpigmented patches on her chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old Caucasian woman comes in with itchy, hyperpigmented patches on her chest and back. She recently returned from her vacation in Ibiza and the areas have become more noticeable after sun exposure. What is the most suitable treatment for her condition?

      Your Answer: Topical clotrimazole

      Correct Answer: Ketoconazole shampoo (Nizoral)

      Explanation:

      Pityriasis versicolor, also known as tinea versicolor, is a common skin condition caused by an infection with the yeasts Malassezia furfur and Malassezia globosa. It typically presents as multiple patches of altered pigmentation, primarily on the trunk. In individuals with fair skin, these patches are usually darker in color, while in those with darker skin or a tan, they may appear lighter (known as pityriasis versicolor alba). It is not uncommon for the rash to cause itching.

      The recommended treatment for pityriasis versicolor involves the use of antifungal agents. One particularly effective option is ketoconazole shampoo, which is sold under the brand name Nizoral. To use this shampoo, it should be applied to the affected areas and left on for approximately five minutes before being rinsed off. This process should be repeated daily for a total of five days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 32 year old male presents to the emergency department with worsening abdominal...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old male presents to the emergency department with worsening abdominal pain and diarrhea. The patient had previously been referred to a gastroenterologist by his primary care physician for recurrent episodes of abdominal pain and diarrhea accompanied by anemia. Barium contrast studies were performed last week, and the report indicates the presence of 'cobblestoning' and 'rose thorn ulcers' in the terminal ileum and colon.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Crohn's disease

      Explanation:

      Cobblestoning and rose thorn ulcers are visual characteristics seen in radiological images of individuals with Crohn’s disease. Cobblestoning occurs when there are linear ulcerations running both lengthwise and widthwise, creating a cobblestone-like appearance on the intestinal wall. This effect is enhanced by the presence of nodular wall swelling, and when barium enters the deep crevices of the ulcers, it further accentuates the cobblestone pattern.

      Further Reading:

      Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a chronic condition characterized by inflammation of the intestinal tract and an imbalance of the intestinal microbiota. The two main forms of IBD are Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis (UC). In some cases, it is not possible to differentiate between Crohn’s disease and UC, and the term inflammatory bowel disease type-unclassified may be used.

      Crohn’s disease is a chronic, relapsing-remitting inflammatory disease that can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract, from the mouth to the anus. It most commonly involves the ileum and colon. The inflammation in Crohn’s disease affects all layers of the intestinal wall, leading to complications such as strictures, fistulas, and adhesions. Risk factors for developing Crohn’s disease include a family history, smoking, infectious gastroenteritis, appendicectomy, and the use of NSAIDs and oral contraceptive drugs. Symptoms of Crohn’s disease can vary but often include diarrhea, abdominal pain, weight loss, and perianal disease. Extraintestinal features, such as arthritis, erythema nodosum, and uveitis, can also occur.

      Ulcerative colitis is a chronic, relapsing-remitting inflammatory disease that primarily affects the large bowel. The inflammation in UC is limited to the intestinal mucosa and does not involve skip lesions like in Crohn’s disease. Risk factors for developing UC include a family history, not smoking, and no appendix. Symptoms of UC include bloody diarrhea, urgency, tenesmus, and abdominal pain. Extraintestinal features, such as arthritis and uveitis, can also occur. Complications of UC include toxic megacolon, bowel obstruction, bowel perforation, strictures, fistula formation, anemia, malnutrition, and colorectal cancer.

      Diagnosing IBD involves various investigations, including blood tests, stool microscopy and culture, fecal calprotectin testing, endoscopy with biopsy, and imaging modalities such as CT and MR enterography. The management of Crohn’s disease and UC is complex and may involve corticosteroids, immunosuppressive drugs, biologic therapy, surgery, and nutritional support. Patients with IBD should also be monitored for nutritional deficiencies, colorectal cancer, and osteoporosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 65-year-old patient presents with dysuria, fevers, rigors, and left-sided loin pain. On...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old patient presents with dysuria, fevers, rigors, and left-sided loin pain. On examination, there is tenderness over his left renal angle and he has a temperature of 38.6°C. You suspect the most likely diagnosis is pyelonephritis.
      Which of the following is not a reason to consider hospital admission in a patient with pyelonephritis?

      Your Answer: Failure to improve significantly within 12 hours of starting antibiotics

      Explanation:

      This patient is displaying symptoms and signs that are consistent with a diagnosis of acute pyelonephritis. Additionally, they are showing signs of sepsis, which indicates a more serious illness or condition. Therefore, it would be advisable to admit the patient for inpatient treatment.

      According to the recommendations from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), patients with pyelonephritis should be admitted if it is severe or if they exhibit any signs or symptoms that suggest a more serious condition, such as sepsis. Signs of sepsis include significant tachycardia, hypotension, or breathlessness, as well as marked signs of illness like impaired level of consciousness, profuse sweating, rigors, pallor, or significantly reduced mobility. A temperature greater than 38°C or less than 36°C is also indicative of sepsis.

      NICE also advises considering referral or seeking specialist advice for individuals with acute pyelonephritis if they are significantly dehydrated or unable to take oral fluids and medicines, if they are pregnant, if they have a higher risk of developing complications due to known or suspected abnormalities of the genitourinary tract or underlying diseases like diabetes mellitus or immunosuppression, or if they have recurrent episodes of urinary tract infections (UTIs).

      For non-pregnant women and men, the recommended choice of antibacterial therapy is as follows: oral first-line options include cefalexin, ciprofloxacin, or co-amoxiclav (taking into account local microbial resistance data), and trimethoprim if sensitivity is known. Intravenous first-line options are amikacin, ceftriaxone, cefuroxime, ciprofloxacin, or gentamicin if the patient is severely unwell or unable to take oral treatment. Co-amoxiclav may be used if given in combination or if sensitivity is known. Antibacterials may be combined if there are concerns about susceptibility or sepsis. For intravenous second-line options, it is recommended to consult a local microbiologist.

      For pregnant women, the recommended choice of antibacterial therapy is cefalexin for oral first-line treatment. If the patient is severely unwell or unable to take oral treatment, cefuroxime is the recommended intravenous first-line option. If there are concerns about susceptibility or sepsis, it is advised to consult a local microbiologist for intravenous second-line

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 28 year old female presents to the emergency department after being struck...

    Correct

    • A 28 year old female presents to the emergency department after being struck in the face during a night out. The patient reports a possible jaw fracture. You assess the patient for signs of mandibular fracture using the Manchester Mandibular Fracture Decision Rule.

      Which of the following signs is NOT included in the Manchester Mandibular Fracture Decision Rule?

      Your Answer: Lacerations to the gum mucosa

      Explanation:

      The Manchester Mandibular Fracture Decision Rule consists of five signs that indicate a possible mandibular fracture: malocclusion, trismus, pain with mouth closed, broken teeth, and step deformity. If none of these signs are present, it is unlikely that a mandibular fracture has occurred. However, if one or more of these signs are present, it is recommended to obtain an X-ray for further evaluation. It is important to note that gum lacerations, although commonly seen in mandibular fractures, are not included in the Manchester Mandibular Fracture Decision Rule.

      Further Reading:

      Mandibular fractures are a common type of facial fracture that often present to the emergency department. The mandible, or lower jaw, is formed by the fusion of two hemimandibles and articulates with the temporomandibular joints. Fractures of the mandible are typically caused by direct lateral force and often involve multiple fracture sites, including the body, condylar head and neck, and ramus.

      When assessing for mandibular fractures, clinicians should use a look, feel, move method similar to musculoskeletal examination. However, it is important to note that TMJ effusion, muscle spasm, and pain can make moving the mandible difficult. Key signs of mandibular fracture include malocclusion, trismus (limited mouth opening), pain with the mouth closed, broken teeth, step deformity, hematoma in the sublingual space, lacerations to the gum mucosa, and bleeding from the ear.

      The Manchester Mandibular Fracture Decision Rule uses the absence of five exam findings (malocclusion, trismus, broken teeth, pain with closed mouth, and step deformity) to exclude mandibular fracture. This rule has been found to be 100% sensitive and 39% specific in detecting mandibular fractures. Imaging is an important tool in diagnosing mandibular fractures, with an OPG X-ray considered the best initial imaging for TMJ dislocation and mandibular fracture. CT may be used if the OPG is technically difficult or if a CT is being performed for other reasons, such as a head injury.

      It is important to note that head injury often accompanies mandibular fractures, so a thorough head injury assessment should be performed. Additionally, about a quarter of patients with mandibular fractures will also have a fracture of at least one other facial bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maxillofacial & Dental
      30.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 7 year old male is brought into the emergency department by concerned...

    Correct

    • A 7 year old male is brought into the emergency department by concerned parents. The child has been feeling unwell for the past 2-3 days, complaining of stomach pain and feeling nauseous. The parents have also noticed that the child has been drinking more than usual and constantly feels thirsty. Tests confirm a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and appropriate treatment is initiated. About 4 hours after starting treatment, one of the nursing staff asks you to assess the patient as he has been experiencing headaches and has started vomiting. The following repeat observations are recorded:

      Pulse: 58 bpm
      Respiration rate: 28 bpm
      Temperature: 37.2ºC

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Administer mannitol (20%) 0.5-1 g/kg over 10-15 minutes

      Explanation:

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that occurs due to a lack of insulin in the body. It is most commonly seen in individuals with type 1 diabetes but can also occur in type 2 diabetes. DKA is characterized by hyperglycemia, acidosis, and ketonaemia.

      The pathophysiology of DKA involves insulin deficiency, which leads to increased glucose production and decreased glucose uptake by cells. This results in hyperglycemia and osmotic diuresis, leading to dehydration. Insulin deficiency also leads to increased lipolysis and the production of ketone bodies, which are acidic. The body attempts to buffer the pH change through metabolic and respiratory compensation, resulting in metabolic acidosis.

      DKA can be precipitated by factors such as infection, physiological stress, non-compliance with insulin therapy, acute medical conditions, and certain medications. The clinical features of DKA include polydipsia, polyuria, signs of dehydration, ketotic breath smell, tachypnea, confusion, headache, nausea, vomiting, lethargy, and abdominal pain.

      The diagnosis of DKA is based on the presence of ketonaemia or ketonuria, blood glucose levels above 11 mmol/L or known diabetes mellitus, and a blood pH below 7.3 or bicarbonate levels below 15 mmol/L. Initial investigations include blood gas analysis, urine dipstick for glucose and ketones, blood glucose measurement, and electrolyte levels.

      Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, electrolyte correction, insulin therapy, and treatment of any underlying cause. Fluid replacement is typically done with isotonic saline, and potassium may need to be added depending on the patient’s levels. Insulin therapy is initiated with an intravenous infusion, and the rate is adjusted based on blood glucose levels. Monitoring of blood glucose, ketones, bicarbonate, and electrolytes is essential, and the insulin infusion is discontinued once ketones are below 0.3 mmol/L, pH is above 7.3, and bicarbonate is above 18 mmol/L.

      Complications of DKA and its treatment include gastric stasis, thromboembolism, electrolyte disturbances, cerebral edema, hypoglycemia, acute respiratory distress syndrome, and acute kidney injury. Prompt medical intervention is crucial in managing DKA to prevent potentially fatal outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
      31.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 45-year-old female patient is known to have Parkinson’s disease. She complains of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old female patient is known to have Parkinson’s disease. She complains of recent excessive sleepiness, increased anxiety, and uncontrolled jerky movements in her lower limbs.
      Which SINGLE medication is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Co-simalcite

      Correct Answer: Co-beneldopa

      Explanation:

      Co-beneldopa, such as Madopar®, is a medication that combines levodopa and benserazide, a dopa-decarboxylase inhibitor. Levodopa is a precursor of dopamine and has been the primary treatment for Parkinson’s disease since the 1970s. To minimize the side effects of levodopa, it is administered with a dopa-decarboxylase inhibitor (DDI) to reduce its availability in the peripheral system. However, patients may still experience adverse effects like nausea, dizziness, sleepiness, dyskinesia, mood changes, confusion, hallucinations, and delusions.

      None of the other combination medications mentioned in this question cause the listed side effects.

      Co-dydramol is a pain reliever that contains dihydrocodeine tartrate and paracetamol.

      Co-flumactone is a medication that combines spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, and hydroflumethiazide, a type of thiazide diuretic used for managing congestive cardiac failure.

      Co-tenidone is a combination of atenolol and chlorthalidone, primarily used for treating hypertension.

      Co-simalcite, also known as Altacite plus, is an antacid that contains two main ingredients: hydrotalcite and activated dimeticone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 60-year-old woman presents with recent weight loss, difficulty breathing, and chest pain....

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman presents with recent weight loss, difficulty breathing, and chest pain. She has a long history of smoking and has been diagnosed with COPD. A chest X-ray reveals a large mass in the left lung consistent with cancer. You recommend that she be referred to a specialist for further evaluation and treatment, but she refuses and does not want her family to know about her condition. She also states that she does not want to hear any negative news. After assessing her mental capacity and determining that she is competent and has capacity, which of the following statements is true regarding her ongoing care?

      Your Answer: You should document that the patient has declined information

      Explanation:

      There is no indication for an independent psychiatric evaluation of this patient. However, it is important to clearly document in his medical records that you have assessed his mental capacity and determined that he is capable of making decisions. It would not be appropriate in this case to refer him to a specialist against his wishes or to breach confidentiality by discussing his illness with his family or next of kin. According to the guidelines set by the General Medical Council (GMC), it is necessary to document the fact that the patient has declined relevant information. It is also important to avoid pressuring the patient to change their mind in these circumstances.

      For further information, please refer to the GMC guidelines on treatment and care towards the end of life: good practice in decision making.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Palliative & End Of Life Care
      26.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - You are getting ready to administer local anesthesia to the skin of a...

    Incorrect

    • You are getting ready to administer local anesthesia to the skin of a patient's groin before inserting a femoral venous catheter. You opt for lidocaine as the choice of medication. What is the mechanism of action of lidocaine?

      Your Answer: Blockade of voltage-gated Na+ channels

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Lidocaine works by blocking voltage-gated sodium channels. These channels are responsible for the propagation of action potentials in nerve fibers. By blocking these channels, lidocaine prevents the influx of sodium ions into the nerve cells, thereby inhibiting the generation and conduction of nerve impulses. This results in local anesthesia, as the transmission of pain signals from the skin to the brain is effectively blocked.

      Further Reading:

      Local anaesthetics, such as lidocaine, bupivacaine, and prilocaine, are commonly used in the emergency department for topical or local infiltration to establish a field block. Lidocaine is often the first choice for field block prior to central line insertion. These anaesthetics work by blocking sodium channels, preventing the propagation of action potentials.

      However, local anaesthetics can enter the systemic circulation and cause toxic side effects if administered in high doses. Clinicians must be aware of the signs and symptoms of local anaesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST) and know how to respond. Early signs of LAST include numbness around the mouth or tongue, metallic taste, dizziness, visual and auditory disturbances, disorientation, and drowsiness. If not addressed, LAST can progress to more severe symptoms such as seizures, coma, respiratory depression, and cardiovascular dysfunction.

      The management of LAST is largely supportive. Immediate steps include stopping the administration of local anaesthetic, calling for help, providing 100% oxygen and securing the airway, establishing IV access, and controlling seizures with benzodiazepines or other medications. Cardiovascular status should be continuously assessed, and conventional therapies may be used to treat hypotension or arrhythmias. Intravenous lipid emulsion (intralipid) may also be considered as a treatment option.

      If the patient goes into cardiac arrest, CPR should be initiated following ALS arrest algorithms, but lidocaine should not be used as an anti-arrhythmic therapy. Prolonged resuscitation may be necessary, and intravenous lipid emulsion should be administered. After the acute episode, the patient should be transferred to a clinical area with appropriate equipment and staff for further monitoring and care.

      It is important to report cases of local anaesthetic toxicity to the appropriate authorities, such as the National Patient Safety Agency in the UK or the Irish Medicines Board in the Republic of Ireland. Additionally, regular clinical review should be conducted to exclude pancreatitis, as intravenous lipid emulsion can interfere with amylase or lipase assays.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 3 week old female is brought into the emergency department by concerned...

    Correct

    • A 3 week old female is brought into the emergency department by concerned parents with intermittent vomiting. They inform you that for the past few days the baby has been projectile vomiting approximately 30 minutes after each feed. The parents are worried because the baby is not wetting her diaper as frequently as usual. Bowel movements are normal in consistency but less frequent. The baby has no fever, rashes, and her vital signs are normal. The parents inquire about the treatment plan for the most likely underlying diagnosis.

      What is the management approach for the most probable underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Advise the parents the child will likely require a pyloromyotomy

      Explanation:

      The most effective treatment for pyloric stenosis is pyloromyotomy, a surgical procedure. Before undergoing surgery, the patient should be rehydrated and any electrolyte imbalances should be corrected.

      Further Reading:

      Pyloric stenosis is a condition that primarily affects infants, characterized by the thickening of the muscles in the pylorus, leading to obstruction of the gastric outlet. It typically presents between the 3rd and 12th weeks of life, with recurrent projectile vomiting being the main symptom. The condition is more common in males, with a positive family history and being first-born being additional risk factors. Bottle-fed children and those delivered by c-section are also more likely to develop pyloric stenosis.

      Clinical features of pyloric stenosis include projectile vomiting, usually occurring about 30 minutes after a feed, as well as constipation and dehydration. A palpable mass in the upper abdomen, often described as like an olive, may also be present. The persistent vomiting can lead to electrolyte disturbances, such as hypochloremia, alkalosis, and mild hypokalemia.

      Ultrasound is the preferred diagnostic tool for confirming pyloric stenosis. It can reveal specific criteria, including a pyloric muscle thickness greater than 3 mm, a pylorus longitudinal length greater than 15-17 mm, a pyloric volume greater than 1.5 cm3, and a pyloric transverse diameter greater than 13 mm.

      The definitive treatment for pyloric stenosis is pyloromyotomy, a surgical procedure that involves making an incision in the thickened pyloric muscle to relieve the obstruction. Before surgery, it is important to correct any hypovolemia and electrolyte disturbances with intravenous fluids. Overall, pyloric stenosis is a relatively common condition in infants, but with prompt diagnosis and appropriate management, it can be effectively treated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - You are managing a patient in the resuscitation bay with suspected myxoedema coma....

    Correct

    • You are managing a patient in the resuscitation bay with suspected myxoedema coma. A member of the nursing team hands you the patient's ECG. What ECG findings would you anticipate in a patient with myxoedema coma?

      Your Answer: Prolonged QT interval

      Explanation:

      Patients with myxoedema coma often exhibit several common ECG abnormalities. These include bradycardia, a prolonged QT interval, and T wave flattening or inversion. Additionally, severe hypothyroidism (myxoedema) is associated with other ECG findings such as low QRS voltage, conduction blocks, and T wave inversions without ST deviation.

      Further Reading:

      The thyroid gland is an endocrine organ located in the anterior neck. It consists of two lobes connected by an isthmus. The gland produces hormones called thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which regulate energy use, protein synthesis, and the body’s sensitivity to other hormones. The production of T4 and T3 is stimulated by thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) secreted by the pituitary gland, which is in turn stimulated by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus.

      Thyroid disorders can occur when there is an imbalance in the production or regulation of thyroid hormones. Hypothyroidism is characterized by a deficiency of thyroid hormones, while hyperthyroidism is characterized by an excess. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is autoimmune thyroiditis, also known as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. It is more common in women and is often associated with goiter. Other causes include subacute thyroiditis, atrophic thyroiditis, and iodine deficiency. On the other hand, the most common cause of hyperthyroidism is Graves’ disease, which is also an autoimmune disorder. Other causes include toxic multinodular goiter and subacute thyroiditis.

      The symptoms and signs of thyroid disorders can vary depending on whether the thyroid gland is underactive or overactive. In hypothyroidism, common symptoms include weight gain, lethargy, cold intolerance, and dry skin. In hyperthyroidism, common symptoms include weight loss, restlessness, heat intolerance, and increased sweating. Both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism can also affect other systems in the body, such as the cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, and neurological systems.

      Complications of thyroid disorders can include dyslipidemia, metabolic syndrome, coronary heart disease, heart failure, subfertility and infertility, impaired special senses, and myxedema coma in severe cases of hypothyroidism. In hyperthyroidism, complications can include Graves’ orbitopathy, compression of the esophagus or trachea by goiter, thyrotoxic periodic paralysis, arrhythmias, osteoporosis, mood disorders, and increased obstetric complications.

      Myxedema coma is a rare and life-threatening complication of severe hypothyroidism. It can be triggered by factors such as infection or physiological insult and presents with lethargy, bradycardia, hypothermia, hypotension, hypoventilation, altered mental state, seizures and/or coma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - You are managing a 62-year-old male patient presenting with symptomatic bradycardia. Despite multiple...

    Incorrect

    • You are managing a 62-year-old male patient presenting with symptomatic bradycardia. Despite multiple administrations of atropine, there has been no improvement in the patient's condition. Which two medications would be the most suitable options to consider next for treating this rhythm?

      Your Answer: Glucagon/intralipid

      Correct Answer: Adrenaline/Isoprenaline

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline and isoprenaline are considered as second-line medications for the treatment of bradycardia. If atropine fails to improve the condition, transcutaneous pacing is recommended. However, if pacing is not available, the administration of second-line drugs becomes necessary. Adrenaline is typically given intravenously at a dosage of 2-10 mcg/minute, while isoprenaline is given at a dosage of 5 mcg/minute. It is important to note that glucagon is not mentioned as a treatment option for this patient’s bradycardia, as the cause of the condition is not specified as a beta-blocker overdose.

      Further Reading:

      Causes of Bradycardia:
      – Physiological: Athletes, sleeping
      – Cardiac conduction dysfunction: Atrioventricular block, sinus node disease
      – Vasovagal & autonomic mediated: Vasovagal episodes, carotid sinus hypersensitivity
      – Hypothermia
      – Metabolic & electrolyte disturbances: Hypothyroidism, hyperkalaemia, hypermagnesemia
      – Drugs: Beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, digoxin, amiodarone
      – Head injury: Cushing’s response
      – Infections: Endocarditis
      – Other: Sarcoidosis, amyloidosis

      Presenting symptoms of Bradycardia:
      – Presyncope (dizziness, lightheadedness)
      – Syncope
      – Breathlessness
      – Weakness
      – Chest pain
      – Nausea

      Management of Bradycardia:
      – Assess and monitor for adverse features (shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, heart failure)
      – Treat reversible causes of bradycardia
      – Pharmacological treatment: Atropine is first-line, adrenaline and isoprenaline are second-line
      – Transcutaneous pacing if atropine is ineffective
      – Other drugs that may be used: Aminophylline, dopamine, glucagon, glycopyrrolate

      Bradycardia Algorithm:
      – Follow the algorithm for management of bradycardia, which includes assessing and monitoring for adverse features, treating reversible causes, and using appropriate medications or pacing as needed.
      https://acls-algorithms.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/12/Website-Bradycardia-Algorithm-Diagram.pdf

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 16 - A 2-year-old girl is brought in by her father. She is experiencing pain...

    Correct

    • A 2-year-old girl is brought in by her father. She is experiencing pain in her left ear and has symptoms of a cold. Upon examination, her left eardrum appears red. She does not have a fever and is otherwise healthy. You diagnose her with acute otitis media.
      What would be a valid reason to prescribe antibiotics for this child?

      Your Answer: Age less than 2 years

      Explanation:

      According to a Cochrane review conducted in 2008, it was discovered that approximately 80% of children experiencing acute otitis media were able to recover within a span of two days. However, the use of antibiotics only resulted in a reduction of pain for about 7% of children after the same two-day period. Furthermore, the administration of antibiotics did not show any significant impact on the rates of hearing loss, recurrence, or perforation. In cases where antibiotics are deemed necessary for children with otitis media, some indications include being under the age of two, experiencing discharge from the ear (otorrhoea), and having bilateral acute otitis media.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      15.7
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  • Question 17 - A 2-year-old girl is brought in by her father with a reported high...

    Correct

    • A 2-year-old girl is brought in by her father with a reported high temperature at home. The triage nurse measures her temperature again as part of her initial assessment.
      Which of the following is suggested by NICE as being an acceptable method of measuring body temperature in this age group?

      Your Answer: Infra-red tympanic thermometer

      Explanation:

      In infants who are less than 4 weeks old, it is recommended to measure their body temperature using an electronic thermometer placed in the armpit.

      For children between the ages of 4 weeks and 5 years, there are several methods that can be used to measure body temperature. These include using an electronic thermometer in the armpit, a chemical dot thermometer in the armpit, or an infra-red tympanic thermometer.

      It is important to note that measuring temperature orally or rectally should be avoided in this age group. Additionally, forehead chemical thermometers are not reliable and should not be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      15.8
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  • Question 18 - A 45-year-old man comes in with a high temperature, shivering, aching head, cough,...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man comes in with a high temperature, shivering, aching head, cough, and difficulty breathing. He also complains of a sore throat and occasional nosebleeds. He works at a nearby zoo in the birdhouse. During the examination, a red rash is noticed on his face, along with significant crackling sounds in both lower lobes of his lungs and an enlarged spleen.
      What is the BEST antibiotic to prescribe for this patient?

      Your Answer: Clarithromycin

      Correct Answer: Doxycycline

      Explanation:

      Psittacosis is a type of infection that can be transmitted from animals to humans, known as a zoonotic infection. It is caused by a bacterium called Chlamydia psittaci. This infection is most commonly seen in people who own domestic birds, but it can also affect those who work in pet shops or zoos.

      The typical presentation of psittacosis includes symptoms similar to those of pneumonia that is acquired within the community. People may experience flu-like symptoms along with severe headaches and sensitivity to light. In about two-thirds of patients, an enlargement of the spleen, known as splenomegaly, can be observed.

      Infected individuals often develop a reddish rash with flat spots on their face, known as Horder’s spots. Additionally, they may experience skin conditions such as erythema nodosum or erythema multiforme.

      The recommended treatment for psittacosis is a course of tetracycline or doxycycline, which should be taken for a period of 2-3 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      12.7
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  • Question 19 - A 28-year-old woman comes in with lower abdominal pain, painful urination, painful intercourse,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in with lower abdominal pain, painful urination, painful intercourse, and thick vaginal discharge. A pregnancy test done today is negative. She has no fever and her vital signs are normal. During the exam, her abdomen feels soft, but she experiences cervical motion tenderness during a pelvic examination.

      What is the MOST suitable treatment plan?

      Your Answer: IV ceftriaxone and metronidazole plus oral doxycycline

      Correct Answer: IM ceftriaxone plus oral doxycycline and metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a pelvic infection that affects the upper female reproductive tract, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries. It is typically caused by an ascending infection from the cervix and is commonly associated with sexually transmitted diseases like chlamydia and gonorrhea. In the UK, genital Chlamydia trachomatis infection is the most common cause of PID seen in genitourinary medicine clinics.

      PID can often be asymptomatic, but when symptoms are present, they may include lower abdominal pain and tenderness, fever, painful urination, painful intercourse, purulent vaginal discharge, abnormal vaginal bleeding, and tenderness in the cervix and adnexa. It is important to note that symptoms of ectopic pregnancy can be similar to those of PID, so a pregnancy test should be conducted for all patients with suspicious symptoms.

      To investigate a possible case of PID, endocervical swabs should be taken to test for C. trachomatis and N. gonorrhoeae using nucleic acid amplification tests if available. Mild to moderate cases of PID can usually be managed in primary care or outpatient settings, while patients with severe disease should be admitted to the hospital for intravenous antibiotics. Signs of severe disease include a fever above 38°C, signs of a tubo-ovarian abscess, signs of pelvic peritonitis, or concurrent pregnancy.

      Empirical antibiotic treatment should be initiated as soon as a presumptive diagnosis of PID is made clinically, without waiting for swab results. The current recommended outpatient treatment for PID is a single intramuscular dose of ceftriaxone 500 mg, followed by oral doxycycline 100 mg twice daily and oral metronidazole 400 mg twice daily for 14 days. An alternative regimen is oral ofloxacin 400 mg twice daily and oral metronidazole 400 mg twice daily for 14 days.

      For severely ill patients in the inpatient setting, initial treatment includes intravenous doxycycline, a single-dose of intravenous ceftriaxone, and intravenous metronidazole. This is then followed by a switch to oral doxycycline and metronidazole to complete a 14-day treatment course. If a patient fails to respond to treatment, laparoscopy is necessary to confirm the diagnosis or consider alternative diagnoses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
      977.5
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  • Question 20 - A 28-year-old woman gives birth to a baby with microcephaly at 36-weeks gestation....

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman gives birth to a baby with microcephaly at 36-weeks gestation. She remembers experiencing a flu-like illness and skin rash early in the pregnancy after being bitten by a mosquito while visiting relatives in Brazil.

      What is the SINGLE most probable organism responsible for causing this birth defect?

      Your Answer: Zika virus

      Explanation:

      The Zika virus is a newly emerging virus that is transmitted by mosquitoes. It was first discovered in humans in Uganda in 1952. Recently, there has been a significant outbreak of the virus in South America.

      When a person contracts the Zika virus, about 1 in 5 individuals will experience clinical illness, while the rest will show no symptoms at all. The most common symptoms of the virus include fever, rash, joint pain, and conjunctivitis. These symptoms typically last for no more than a week.

      While not completely conclusive, the evidence from the recent outbreak strongly suggests a connection between Zika virus infection and microcephaly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
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  • Question 21 - A 65 year old is brought into the emergency department by a coworker...

    Correct

    • A 65 year old is brought into the emergency department by a coworker who is concerned about the patient being disoriented. The coworker says he overheard the patient talking to someone in the break room but when he looked over to join the conversation, there was no one there. Despite there being no one present, the patient continued to have a dialogue with thin air. The coworker informs you that he has noticed the patient being a bit confused at times before, but the confusion usually resolves within a day or two. During the examination, you observe a shuffling gait and resting tremor. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dementia with Lewy bodies

      Explanation:

      Dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB) is characterized by several key features, including spontaneous fluctuations in cognitive abilities, visual hallucinations, and Parkinsonism. Visual hallucinations are particularly prevalent in DLB and Parkinson’s disease dementia, which are considered to be part of the same spectrum. While visual hallucinations can occur in other forms of dementia, they are less frequently observed.

      Further Reading:

      Dementia is a progressive and irreversible clinical syndrome characterized by cognitive and behavioral symptoms. These symptoms include memory loss, impaired reasoning and communication, personality changes, and reduced ability to carry out daily activities. The decline in cognition affects multiple domains of intellectual functioning and is not solely due to normal aging.

      To diagnose dementia, a person must have impairment in at least two cognitive domains that significantly impact their daily activities. This impairment cannot be explained by delirium or other major psychiatric disorders. Early-onset dementia refers to dementia that develops before the age of 65.

      The most common cause of dementia is Alzheimer’s disease, accounting for 50-75% of cases. Other causes include vascular dementia, dementia with Lewy bodies, and frontotemporal dementia. Less common causes include Parkinson’s disease dementia, Huntington’s disease, prion disease, and metabolic and endocrine disorders.

      There are several risk factors for dementia, including age, mild cognitive impairment, genetic predisposition, excess alcohol intake, head injury, depression, learning difficulties, diabetes, obesity, hypertension, smoking, Parkinson’s disease, low social engagement, low physical activity, low educational attainment, hearing impairment, and air pollution.

      Assessment of dementia involves taking a history from the patient and ideally a family member or close friend. The person’s current level of cognition and functional capabilities should be compared to their baseline level. Physical examination, blood tests, and cognitive assessment tools can also aid in the diagnosis.

      Differential diagnosis for dementia includes normal age-related memory changes, mild cognitive impairment, depression, delirium, vitamin deficiencies, hypothyroidism, adverse drug effects, normal pressure hydrocephalus, and sensory deficits.

      Management of dementia involves a multi-disciplinary approach that includes non-pharmacological and pharmacological measures. Non-pharmacological interventions may include driving assessment, modifiable risk factor management, and non-pharmacological therapies to promote cognition and independence. Drug treatments for dementia should be initiated by specialists and may include acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, memantine, and antipsychotics in certain cases.

      In summary, dementia is a progressive and irreversible syndrome characterized by cognitive and behavioral symptoms. It has various causes and risk factors, and its management involves a multi-disciplinary approach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 22 - A 45-year-old woman is brought into resus by blue light ambulance following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman is brought into resus by blue light ambulance following a car crash. She was hit by a truck while driving a car and has a suspected pelvic injury. She is currently on a backboard with cervical spine protection and a pelvic binder in place. The massive transfusion protocol is activated.
      Which of the following is the definition of a massive transfusion?

      Your Answer: Transfusion of more than 5 units if blood in 24 hours

      Correct Answer: The transfusion of more than 4 units of blood in 1 hour

      Explanation:

      ATLS guidelines now suggest administering only 1 liter of crystalloid fluid during the initial assessment. If patients do not respond to the crystalloid, it is recommended to quickly transition to blood products. Studies have shown that infusing more than 1.5 liters of crystalloid fluid is associated with higher mortality rates in trauma cases. Therefore, it is advised to prioritize the early use of blood products and avoid large volumes of crystalloid fluid in trauma patients. In cases where it is necessary, massive transfusion should be considered, defined as the transfusion of more than 10 units of blood in 24 hours or more than 4 units of blood in one hour. For patients with evidence of Class III and IV hemorrhage, early resuscitation with blood and blood products in low ratios is recommended.

      Based on the findings of significant trials, such as the CRASH-2 study, the use of tranexamic acid is now recommended within 3 hours. This involves administering a loading dose of 1 gram intravenously over 10 minutes, followed by an infusion of 1 gram over eight hours. In some regions, tranexamic acid is also being utilized in the prehospital setting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
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  • Question 23 - A 58 year old female presents to the emergency department 2 hours after...

    Incorrect

    • A 58 year old female presents to the emergency department 2 hours after developing severe tearing chest pain that radiates to the back. The patient rates the severity as 10/10 on the visual analogue scale. You note the patient is prescribed medication for hypertension but the patient admits she rarely takes her tablets. The patient's observations are shown below:

      Blood pressure 180/88 mmHg
      Pulse rate 92 bpm
      Respiration rate 22 rpm
      Oxygen sats 97% on air
      Temperature 37.2ºC

      Chest X-ray shows a widened mediastinum. You prescribe antihypertensive therapy. What is the target systolic blood pressure in this patient?

      Your Answer: 120-140 mmHg

      Correct Answer: 100-120 mmHg

      Explanation:

      To manage aortic dissection, it is important to lower the systolic blood pressure to a range of 100-120 mmHg. This helps decrease the strain on the damaged artery and minimizes the chances of the dissection spreading further. In this patient, symptoms such as tearing chest pain and a widened mediastinum on the chest X-ray are consistent with aortic dissection.

      Further Reading:

      Aortic dissection is a life-threatening condition in which blood flows through a tear in the innermost layer of the aorta, creating a false lumen. Prompt treatment is necessary as the mortality rate increases by 1-2% per hour. There are different classifications of aortic dissection, with the majority of cases being proximal. Risk factors for aortic dissection include hypertension, atherosclerosis, connective tissue disorders, family history, and certain medical procedures.

      The presentation of aortic dissection typically includes sudden onset sharp chest pain, often described as tearing or ripping. Back pain and abdominal pain are also common, and the pain may radiate to the neck and arms. The clinical picture can vary depending on which aortic branches are affected, and complications such as organ ischemia, limb ischemia, stroke, myocardial infarction, and cardiac tamponade may occur. Common signs and symptoms include a blood pressure differential between limbs, pulse deficit, and a diastolic murmur.

      Various investigations can be done to diagnose aortic dissection, including ECG, CXR, and CT with arterial contrast enhancement (CTA). CT is the investigation of choice due to its accuracy in diagnosis and classification. Other imaging techniques such as transoesophageal echocardiography (TOE), magnetic resonance imaging/angiography (MRI/MRA), and digital subtraction angiography (DSA) are less commonly used.

      Management of aortic dissection involves pain relief, resuscitation measures, blood pressure control, and referral to a vascular or cardiothoracic team. Opioid analgesia should be given for pain relief, and resuscitation measures such as high flow oxygen and large bore IV access should be performed. Blood pressure control is crucial, and medications such as labetalol may be used to reduce systolic blood pressure. Hypotension carries a poor prognosis and may require careful fluid resuscitation. Treatment options depend on the type of dissection, with type A dissections typically requiring urgent surgery and type B dissections managed by thoracic endovascular aortic repair (TEVAR) and blood pressure control optimization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 24 - You evaluate a 45-year-old woman with a swollen and red left calf. Her...

    Correct

    • You evaluate a 45-year-old woman with a swollen and red left calf. Her D-dimer levels are elevated, and you schedule an ultrasound scan, which confirms the presence of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in her left calf. She has no significant medical history and no reported drug allergies.
      According to the current NICE guidelines, which of the following anticoagulants is recommended as the initial treatment for DVT?

      Your Answer: Apixaban

      Explanation:

      The current guidelines from NICE recommend that the first-line treatment for confirmed deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) or pulmonary embolus (PE) should be either apixaban or rivaroxaban, which are direct oral anticoagulants.

      If neither of these options is suitable, the following alternatives should be considered:

      1. LMWH (low molecular weight heparin) should be administered for at least 5 days, followed by dabigatran or edoxaban.

      2. LMWH should be combined with a vitamin K antagonist (VKA), such as warfarin, for at least 5 days or until the international normalized ratio (INR) reaches at least 2.0 on 2 consecutive readings. Afterward, the VKA can be continued alone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 42-year-old woman presents with fatigue and vomiting following a recent viral illness....

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with fatigue and vomiting following a recent viral illness. She experienced flu-like symptoms for four days and had difficulty eating during that time. She visited the Emergency Department with these symptoms but was discharged with advice to rest in bed and take regular acetaminophen. Her blood tests today are as follows:
      Bilirubin 50 mmol (3-20)
      ALT 34 IU/L (5-40)
      ALP: 103 IU/L (20-140)
      LDH: 150 IU/L (100-330)
      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gilbert’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Gilbert’s syndrome is the most common hereditary cause of elevated bilirubin levels and can be found in up to 5% of the population. This condition is characterized by an isolated increase in unconjugated bilirubin without any detectable liver disease. It is typically inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.

      The elevated bilirubin levels in Gilbert’s syndrome do not have any serious consequences and tend to occur during times of stress, physical exertion, fasting, or infection. While it is often asymptomatic, some individuals may experience symptoms such as fatigue, decreased appetite, nausea, and abdominal pain.

      The underlying cause of the increased bilirubin levels in this syndrome is a decrease in the activity of the enzyme glucuronyltransferase, which is responsible for conjugating bilirubin. In Gilbert’s syndrome, the bilirubin levels are generally less than three times the upper limit of normal, with more than 70% of the bilirubin being unconjugated. Liver function tests and LDH levels are typically within the normal range.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - You are participating in training for managing a significant radiation incident. Which of...

    Correct

    • You are participating in training for managing a significant radiation incident. Which of the following decontamination measures is expected to be the most efficient in eliminating radioactive material from an affected individual?

      Your Answer: Remove outer layer of clothing

      Explanation:

      The first step in decontaminating radioactive material from an individual is to remove their clothing carefully, without shaking it too much to avoid spreading radioactive dust. The clothing should then be placed in a plastic bag or sealable container. Next, the person should be washed down with warm water from a clean source and scrubbed with detergent using a rinse-wipe-rinse method.

      Further Reading:

      Radiation exposure refers to the emission or transmission of energy in the form of waves or particles through space or a material medium. There are two types of radiation: ionizing and non-ionizing. Non-ionizing radiation, such as radio waves and visible light, has enough energy to move atoms within a molecule but not enough to remove electrons from atoms. Ionizing radiation, on the other hand, has enough energy to ionize atoms or molecules by detaching electrons from them.

      There are different types of ionizing radiation, including alpha particles, beta particles, gamma rays, and X-rays. Alpha particles are positively charged and consist of 2 protons and 2 neutrons from the atom’s nucleus. They are emitted from the decay of heavy radioactive elements and do not travel far from the source atom. Beta particles are small, fast-moving particles with a negative electrical charge that are emitted from an atom’s nucleus during radioactive decay. They are more penetrating than alpha particles but less damaging to living tissue. Gamma rays and X-rays are weightless packets of energy called photons. Gamma rays are often emitted along with alpha or beta particles during radioactive decay and can easily penetrate barriers. X-rays, on the other hand, are generally lower in energy and less penetrating than gamma rays.

      Exposure to ionizing radiation can damage tissue cells by dislodging orbital electrons, leading to the generation of highly reactive ion pairs. This can result in DNA damage and an increased risk of future malignant change. The extent of cell damage depends on factors such as the type of radiation, time duration of exposure, distance from the source, and extent of shielding.

      The absorbed dose of radiation is directly proportional to time, so it is important to minimize the amount of time spent in the vicinity of a radioactive source. A lethal dose of radiation without medical management is 4.5 sieverts (Sv) to kill 50% of the population at 60 days. With medical management, the lethal dose is 5-6 Sv. The immediate effects of ionizing radiation can range from radiation burns to radiation sickness, which is divided into three main syndromes: hematopoietic, gastrointestinal, and neurovascular. Long-term effects can include hematopoietic cancers and solid tumor formation.

      In terms of management, support is mainly supportive and includes IV fluids, antiemetics, analgesia, nutritional support, antibiotics, blood component substitution, and reduction of brain edema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
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  • Question 27 - You assess a 7-year-old girl who has been brought to the ER by...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 7-year-old girl who has been brought to the ER by her parents due to concerns about her health. They report that she has had a fever and a sore throat for the past few days, but now she has developed a red rash all over her body. After diagnosing scarlet fever, you prescribe antibiotics. What guidance would you provide to the parents regarding their child's attendance at school?

      Your Answer: No school exclusion required

      Correct Answer: Exclusion from school until 24 hours after starting antibiotic treatment

      Explanation:

      Patients who have been diagnosed with Scarlet fever should be instructed to stay away from school or work until at least 24 hours after they have started taking antibiotics. It is also important for them to practice good hygiene habits.

      Further Reading:

      Scarlet fever is a reaction to erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more common in children aged 2-6 years, with the peak incidence at 4 years. The typical presentation of scarlet fever includes fever, malaise, sore throat (tonsillitis), and a rash. The rash appears 1-2 days after the fever and sore throat symptoms and consists of fine punctate erythema that first appears on the torso and spares the face. The rash has a rough ‘sandpaper’ texture and desquamation occurs later, particularly around the fingers and toes. Another characteristic feature is the ‘strawberry tongue’, which initially has a white coating and swollen, reddened papillae, and later becomes red and inflamed. Diagnosis is usually made by a throat swab, but antibiotic treatment should be started immediately without waiting for the results. The recommended treatment is oral penicillin V, but patients with a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin. Children can return to school 24 hours after starting antibiotics. Scarlet fever is a notifiable disease. Complications of scarlet fever include otitis media, rheumatic fever, and acute glomerulonephritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 28 - A 35-year-old patient with a history of exhaustion and weariness has a complete...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old patient with a history of exhaustion and weariness has a complete blood count scheduled. The complete blood count reveals the presence of macrocytic anemia.
      What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Liver disease

      Explanation:

      Anaemia can be categorized based on the size of red blood cells. Microcytic anaemia, characterized by a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of less than 80 fl, can be caused by various factors such as iron deficiency, thalassaemia, anaemia of chronic disease (which can also be normocytic), sideroblastic anaemia (which can also be normocytic), lead poisoning, and aluminium toxicity (although this is now rare and mainly affects haemodialysis patients).

      On the other hand, normocytic anaemia, with an MCV ranging from 80 to 100 fl, can be attributed to conditions like haemolysis, acute haemorrhage, bone marrow failure, anaemia of chronic disease (which can also be microcytic), mixed iron and folate deficiency, pregnancy, chronic renal failure, and sickle-cell disease.

      Lastly, macrocytic anaemia, characterized by an MCV greater than 100 fl, can be caused by factors such as B12 deficiency, folate deficiency, hypothyroidism, reticulocytosis, liver disease, alcohol abuse, myeloproliferative disease, myelodysplastic disease, and certain drugs like methotrexate, hydroxyurea, and azathioprine.

      It is important to understand the different causes of anaemia based on red cell size as this knowledge can aid in the diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 60-year-old woman presents with intense pain in her left eye and sudden...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman presents with intense pain in her left eye and sudden vision loss in the same eye. She has experienced multiple episodes of vomiting. After conducting a comprehensive examination and measuring the intraocular pressure, you diagnose her with acute closed-angle glaucoma. You provide analgesics and administer IV acetazolamide as the initial treatment.
      What other treatment option could potentially benefit this patient?

      Your Answer: Topical tropicamide

      Correct Answer: Topical pilocarpine

      Explanation:

      This patient has presented with acute closed-angle glaucoma, which is a serious eye condition requiring immediate medical attention. It occurs when the iris pushes forward and blocks the fluid access to the trabecular meshwork, leading to increased pressure within the eye and damage to the optic nerve.

      The main symptoms of acute closed-angle glaucoma include severe eye pain, decreased vision, redness around the cornea, swelling of the cornea, a fixed semi-dilated pupil, nausea, vomiting, and episodes of blurred vision or seeing haloes.

      To confirm the diagnosis, tonometry is performed to measure the intraocular pressure. Normal pressure ranges from 10 to 21 mmHg, but in acute closed-angle glaucoma, it is often higher than 30 mmHg. Goldmann’s applanation tonometer is commonly used in hospitals for this purpose.

      Management of acute closed-angle glaucoma involves providing pain relief, such as morphine, and antiemetics if the patient is experiencing vomiting. Intravenous acetazolamide is administered to reduce intraocular pressure. Additionally, a topical miotic medication like pilocarpine is started about an hour after initiating other treatments to help constrict the pupil, as it may initially be paralyzed and unresponsive.

      Overall, acute closed-angle glaucoma is a medical emergency that requires prompt intervention to alleviate symptoms and prevent further damage to the eye.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 30 - A 5 year old child is brought to the emergency department by worried...

    Correct

    • A 5 year old child is brought to the emergency department by worried parents due to a foul smelling purulent discharge from the right ear and intermittent sneezing for the past 3 days.

      What condition should be considered in this child?

      Your Answer: Nasal foreign body

      Explanation:

      The most common sign of a foreign body (FB) in the nose in children is unilateral purulent nasal discharge. This discharge may have a foul smell. It is important to note that children often deny putting foreign bodies in their nose due to fear of getting in trouble. Purulent nasal discharge is more likely to occur with organic FBs, as they can absorb water and minerals, creating a breeding ground for bacterial colonization and infection. This type of discharge is more likely to occur after the FB has been in the nose for a few days.

      Further Reading:

      Foreign bodies in the ear or nose are a common occurrence, especially in children between the ages of 2 and 8. Foreign bodies in the ear are more common than those in the nose. Symptoms of foreign bodies in the ear may include ear pain, a feeling of fullness, impaired hearing, discharge, tinnitus, and vertigo. It is important to consider referral to an ENT specialist for the removal of potentially harmful foreign bodies such as glass, sharp objects, button batteries, and tightly wedged items. ENT involvement is also necessary if there is a perforation of the eardrum or if the foreign body is embedded in the eardrum.

      When preparing a patient for removal, it is important to establish rapport and keep the patient relaxed, especially if they are a young child. The patient should be positioned comfortably and securely, and ear drops may be used to anesthetize the ear. Removal methods for foreign bodies in the ear include the use of forceps or a hook, irrigation (except for batteries, perforations, or organic material), suction, and magnets for ferrous metal foreign bodies. If there is an insect in the ear, it should be killed with alcohol, lignocaine, or mineral oil before removal.

      After the foreign body is removed, it is important to check for any residual foreign bodies and to discharge the patient with appropriate safety net advice. Prophylactic antibiotic drops may be considered if there has been an abrasion of the skin.

      Foreign bodies in the nose are less common but should be dealt with promptly due to the risk of posterior dislodgement into the airway. Symptoms of foreign bodies in the nose may include nasal discharge, sinusitis, nasal pain, epistaxis, or blood-stained discharge. Most nasal foreign bodies are found on the anterior or middle third of the nose and may not show up on x-rays.

      Methods for removing foreign bodies from the nose include the mother’s kiss technique, suction, forceps, Jobson horne probe, and foley catheter. The mother’s kiss technique involves occluding the patent nostril and having a parent blow into the patient’s mouth. A foley catheter can be used by inserting it past the foreign body and inflating the balloon to gently push the foreign body out. ENT referral may be necessary if the foreign body cannot be visualized but there is a high suspicion, if attempts to remove the foreign body have failed, if the patient requires sed

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
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  • Question 31 - A 21 year old male comes to the emergency department complaining of a...

    Correct

    • A 21 year old male comes to the emergency department complaining of a sore throat that has been bothering him for the past 2 days. The patient denies having a cough. Upon examination, the patient's temperature is measured at 38.3°C, blood pressure at 122/78 mmHg, and pulse rate at 92 bpm. There is visible white exudate on both tonsils and tenderness and swelling when palpating the lymph nodes around the sternocleidomastoid muscles on both sides.

      What is the CENTOR score for this patient?

      Your Answer: 4

      Explanation:

      The CENTOR score is a clinical prediction rule used to assess the likelihood of a patient having a streptococcal infection, which is commonly associated with sore throat. It is based on the presence or absence of four clinical criteria: fever, tonsillar exudate, tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy, and absence of cough. Each criterion is assigned one point, and the total score ranges from 0 to 4. In this case, the patient has a fever, tonsillar exudate, tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy, and no cough, resulting in a CENTOR score of 4. A higher score indicates a higher likelihood of a streptococcal infection, and further diagnostic testing or treatment may be warranted.

      Further Reading:

      Pharyngitis and tonsillitis are common conditions that cause inflammation in the throat. Pharyngitis refers to inflammation of the oropharynx, which is located behind the soft palate, while tonsillitis refers to inflammation of the tonsils. These conditions can be caused by a variety of pathogens, including viruses and bacteria. The most common viral causes include rhinovirus, coronavirus, parainfluenza virus, influenza types A and B, adenovirus, herpes simplex virus type 1, and Epstein Barr virus. The most common bacterial cause is Streptococcus pyogenes, also known as Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus (GABHS). Other bacterial causes include Group C and G beta-hemolytic streptococci and Fusobacterium necrophorum.

      Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus is the most concerning pathogen as it can lead to serious complications such as rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis. These complications can occur due to an autoimmune reaction triggered by antigen/antibody complex formation or from cell damage caused by bacterial exotoxins.

      When assessing a patient with a sore throat, the clinician should inquire about the duration and severity of the illness, as well as associated symptoms such as fever, malaise, headache, and joint pain. It is important to identify any red flags and determine if the patient is immunocompromised. Previous non-suppurative complications of Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus infection should also be considered, as there is an increased risk of further complications with subsequent infections.

      Red flags that may indicate a more serious condition include severe pain, neck stiffness, or difficulty swallowing. These symptoms may suggest epiglottitis or a retropharyngeal abscess, which require immediate attention.

      To determine the likelihood of a streptococcal infection and the need for antibiotic treatment, two scoring systems can be used: CENTOR and FeverPAIN. The CENTOR criteria include tonsillar exudate, tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy or lymphadenitis, history of fever, and absence of cough. The FeverPAIN criteria include fever, purulence, rapid onset of symptoms, severely inflamed tonsils, and absence of cough or coryza. Based on the scores from these criteria, the likelihood of a streptococcal infection can be estimated, and appropriate management can be undertaken. can

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      23.2
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  • Question 32 - A 35-year-old patient with a history of schizophrenia comes in with side effects...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old patient with a history of schizophrenia comes in with side effects from a medication that he recently began taking for this condition. Upon examination, you observe that he is experiencing severe muscular rigidity, a decreased level of consciousness, and a body temperature of 40ºC.
      Which of the following medications is most likely causing these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Olanzapine

      Correct Answer: Chlorpromazine

      Explanation:

      First-generation antipsychotics, also known as conventional or typical antipsychotics, are potent blockers of dopamine D2 receptors. However, these drugs also have varying effects on other receptors such as serotonin type 2 (5-HT2), alpha1, histaminic, and muscarinic receptors.

      One of the major drawbacks of first-generation antipsychotics is their high incidence of extrapyramidal side effects. These include rigidity, bradykinesia, dystonias, tremor, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. Additionally, there is a rare but life-threatening reaction called neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) that can occur with these medications. NMS is characterized by fever, muscle rigidity, altered mental status, and autonomic dysfunction. It typically occurs shortly after starting or increasing the dose of a neuroleptic medication.

      In contrast, second-generation antipsychotics, also known as novel or atypical antipsychotics, have a lower risk of extrapyramidal side effects and NMS compared to their first-generation counterparts. However, they are associated with higher rates of metabolic effects and weight gain.

      It is important to differentiate serotonin syndrome from NMS as they share similar features. Serotonin syndrome is most commonly caused by serotonin-specific reuptake inhibitors.

      Here are some commonly encountered examples of first- and second-generation antipsychotics:

      First-generation:
      – Chlopromazine
      – Haloperidol
      – Fluphenazine
      – Trifluoperazine

      Second-generation:
      – Clozapine
      – Olanzapine
      – Quetiapine
      – Risperidone
      – Aripiprazole

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      14.9
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  • Question 33 - A 55-year-old male with a past medical history of high blood pressure arrives...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old male with a past medical history of high blood pressure arrives at the emergency department complaining of sudden chest and interscapular pain that feels like tearing. You suspect aortic dissection. Which of the following signs and symptoms aligns with the diagnosis of aortic dissection?

      Your Answer: Blood pressure differential of more than 10 mmHg between left and right arms

      Explanation:

      A significant proportion of the population experiences a difference of 10 mmHg or more in blood pressure between their upper limbs. Pericarditis can be identified by the presence of saddle-shaped ST elevation and pain in the trapezius ridge. Aortic dissection is characterized by a diastolic murmur with a decrescendo pattern, which indicates aortic incompetence.

      Further Reading:

      Aortic dissection is a life-threatening condition in which blood flows through a tear in the innermost layer of the aorta, creating a false lumen. Prompt treatment is necessary as the mortality rate increases by 1-2% per hour. There are different classifications of aortic dissection, with the majority of cases being proximal. Risk factors for aortic dissection include hypertension, atherosclerosis, connective tissue disorders, family history, and certain medical procedures.

      The presentation of aortic dissection typically includes sudden onset sharp chest pain, often described as tearing or ripping. Back pain and abdominal pain are also common, and the pain may radiate to the neck and arms. The clinical picture can vary depending on which aortic branches are affected, and complications such as organ ischemia, limb ischemia, stroke, myocardial infarction, and cardiac tamponade may occur. Common signs and symptoms include a blood pressure differential between limbs, pulse deficit, and a diastolic murmur.

      Various investigations can be done to diagnose aortic dissection, including ECG, CXR, and CT with arterial contrast enhancement (CTA). CT is the investigation of choice due to its accuracy in diagnosis and classification. Other imaging techniques such as transoesophageal echocardiography (TOE), magnetic resonance imaging/angiography (MRI/MRA), and digital subtraction angiography (DSA) are less commonly used.

      Management of aortic dissection involves pain relief, resuscitation measures, blood pressure control, and referral to a vascular or cardiothoracic team. Opioid analgesia should be given for pain relief, and resuscitation measures such as high flow oxygen and large bore IV access should be performed. Blood pressure control is crucial, and medications such as labetalol may be used to reduce systolic blood pressure. Hypotension carries a poor prognosis and may require careful fluid resuscitation. Treatment options depend on the type of dissection, with type A dissections typically requiring urgent surgery and type B dissections managed by thoracic endovascular aortic repair (TEVAR) and blood pressure control optimization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      7.2
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  • Question 34 - You evaluate a 4-year-old girl who has been diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)....

    Correct

    • You evaluate a 4-year-old girl who has been diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). She had initially improved after receiving fluids, but her condition has worsened in the past hour. She is now expressing discomfort due to a headache and is displaying irritability. She has started vomiting again, and the nursing staff has observed an increase in her blood pressure and a decrease in her heart rate.
      What complication has developed?

      Your Answer: Cerebral oedema

      Explanation:

      Cerebral edema is the most significant complication of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), leading to death in many cases. It occurs in approximately 0.2-1% of DKA cases. The high blood glucose levels cause an osmolar gradient, resulting in the movement of water from the intracellular fluid (ICF) to the extracellular fluid (ECF) space and a decrease in cell volume. When insulin and intravenous fluids are administered to correct the condition, the effective osmolarity decreases rapidly, causing a reversal of the fluid shift and the development of cerebral edema.

      Cerebral edema is associated with a higher mortality rate and poor neurological outcomes. To prevent its occurrence, it is important to slowly normalize osmolarity over a period of 48 hours, paying attention to glucose and sodium levels, as well as ensuring proper hydration. Monitoring the child for symptoms such as headache, recurrent vomiting, irritability, changes in Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS), abnormal slowing of heart rate, and increasing blood pressure is crucial.

      If cerebral edema does occur, it should be treated with either a hypertonic (3%) saline solution at a dosage of 3 ml/kg or a mannitol infusion at a dosage of 250-500 mg/kg over a 20-minute period.

      In addition to cerebral edema, there are other complications associated with DKA in children, including cardiac arrhythmias, pulmonary edema, and acute renal failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      12.3
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  • Question 35 - A 35 year old female presents to the emergency department complaining of abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old female presents to the emergency department complaining of abdominal cramps and bloating. She informs you that she has not had a bowel movement for 2 days. Blood tests are conducted, but all results come back within normal ranges. The patient's vital signs are all normal, and she does not have a fever. She discloses that she has been experiencing recurrent abdominal pain and bloating for the past 6-9 months and has consulted her primary care physician about it. Based on the symptoms, you suspect constipation predominant irritable bowel syndrome and decide to prescribe a laxative. However, you need to be cautious about prescribing certain medications for patients with irritable bowel syndrome. Which of the following medications should be avoided in these patients?

      Your Answer: Docusate

      Correct Answer: Lactulose

      Explanation:

      In this scenario, a 35-year-old female presents to the emergency department with complaints of abdominal cramps and bloating. She mentions that she has not had a bowel movement for 2 days. After conducting blood tests, which all come back normal, and assessing her vital signs, which are also normal, it is suspected that she may have constipation predominant irritable bowel syndrome. This suspicion is based on her history of recurrent abdominal pain and bloating over the past 6-9 months, for which she has already consulted her primary care physician.

      To address the constipation symptoms, a laxative is considered as a potential treatment option. However, it is important to exercise caution when prescribing medications for patients with irritable bowel syndrome. One medication that should be avoided in these patients is lactulose.

      Further Reading:

      Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a chronic disorder that affects the interaction between the gut and the brain. The exact cause of IBS is not fully understood, but factors such as genetics, drug use, enteric infections, diet, and psychosocial factors are believed to play a role. The main symptoms of IBS include abdominal pain, changes in stool form and/or frequency, and bloating. IBS can be classified into subtypes based on the predominant stool type, including diarrhea-predominant, constipation-predominant, mixed, and unclassified.

      Diagnosing IBS involves using the Rome IV criteria, which includes recurrent abdominal pain associated with changes in stool frequency and form. It is important to rule out other more serious conditions that may mimic IBS through a thorough history, physical examination, and appropriate investigations. Treatment for IBS primarily involves diet and lifestyle modifications. Patients are advised to eat regular meals with a healthy, balanced diet and adjust their fiber intake based on symptoms. A low FODMAP diet may be trialed, and a dietician may be consulted for guidance. Regular physical activity and weight management are also recommended.

      Psychosocial factors, such as stress, anxiety, and depression, should be addressed and managed appropriately. If constipation is a predominant symptom, soluble fiber supplements or foods high in soluble fiber may be recommended. Laxatives can be considered if constipation persists, and linaclotide may be tried if optimal doses of previous laxatives have not been effective. Antimotility drugs like loperamide can be used for diarrhea, and antispasmodic drugs or low-dose tricyclic antidepressants may be prescribed for abdominal pain. If symptoms persist or are refractory to treatment, alternative diagnoses should be considered, and referral to a specialist may be necessary.

      Overall, the management of IBS should be individualized based on the patient’s symptoms and psychosocial situation. Clear explanation of the condition and providing resources for patient education, such as the NHS patient information leaflet and support from organizations like The IBS Network, can also be beneficial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - You are summoned to the resuscitation room to provide assistance with a 68-year-old...

    Correct

    • You are summoned to the resuscitation room to provide assistance with a 68-year-old individual who is undergoing treatment for cardiac arrest. After three defibrillation attempts and the administration of adrenaline and amiodarone, the patient experiences a restoration of spontaneous circulation.

      What is the recommended target SpO2 following a cardiac arrest?

      Your Answer: 94-98%

      Explanation:

      The recommended target SpO2, which measures the percentage of oxygen saturation in the blood, following a cardiac arrest is 94-98%. This range ensures that the patient receives adequate oxygenation without the risk of hyperoxia, which is an excess of oxygen in the body.

      Further Reading:

      Cardiopulmonary arrest is a serious event with low survival rates. In non-traumatic cardiac arrest, only about 20% of patients who arrest as an in-patient survive to hospital discharge, while the survival rate for out-of-hospital cardiac arrest is approximately 8%. The Resus Council BLS/AED Algorithm for 2015 recommends chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute with a compression depth of 5-6 cm. The ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths is 30:2.

      After a cardiac arrest, the goal of patient care is to minimize the impact of post cardiac arrest syndrome, which includes brain injury, myocardial dysfunction, the ischaemic/reperfusion response, and the underlying pathology that caused the arrest. The ABCDE approach is used for clinical assessment and general management. Intubation may be necessary if the airway cannot be maintained by simple measures or if it is immediately threatened. Controlled ventilation is aimed at maintaining oxygen saturation levels between 94-98% and normocarbia. Fluid status may be difficult to judge, but a target mean arterial pressure (MAP) between 65 and 100 mmHg is recommended. Inotropes may be administered to maintain blood pressure. Sedation should be adequate to gain control of ventilation, and short-acting sedating agents like propofol are preferred. Blood glucose levels should be maintained below 8 mmol/l. Pyrexia should be avoided, and there is some evidence for controlled mild hypothermia but no consensus on this.

      Post ROSC investigations may include a chest X-ray, ECG monitoring, serial potassium and lactate measurements, and other imaging modalities like ultrasonography, echocardiography, CTPA, and CT head, depending on availability and skills in the local department. Treatment should be directed towards the underlying cause, and PCI or thrombolysis may be considered for acute coronary syndrome or suspected pulmonary embolism, respectively.

      Patients who are comatose after ROSC without significant pre-arrest comorbidities should be transferred to the ICU for supportive care. Neurological outcome at 72 hours is the best prognostic indicator of outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Resus
      5.5
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  • Question 37 - Your Pediatric Department has implemented a protocol for conducting landmark guided fascia iliaca...

    Correct

    • Your Pediatric Department has implemented a protocol for conducting landmark guided fascia iliaca compartment blocks (FICB) for pediatric patients with a fractured femoral neck.
      Which of the following two landmarks should be utilized?

      Your Answer: The anterior superior iliac spine and the pubic tubercle

      Explanation:

      The fascia iliaca compartment is a space within the body that has specific boundaries. It is located at the front of the hip and is surrounded by various muscles and structures. The anterior limit of this compartment is formed by the posterior surface of the fascia iliaca, which covers the iliacus muscle. Additionally, the medial reflection of this fascia covers every surface of the psoas major muscle. On the posterior side, the limit is formed by the anterior surface of the iliacus muscle and the psoas major muscle. The medial boundary is the vertebral column, while the cranially lateral boundary is the inner lip of the iliac crest. This compartment is also continuous with the space between the quadratus lumborum muscle and its fascia in a cranio-medial direction.

      The fascia iliaca compartment is important because it allows for the deposition of local anesthetic in sufficient volumes. This can be achieved through a straightforward injection, which targets the femoral and lateral femoral cutaneous nerves. These nerves supply sensation to the medial, anterior, and lateral thigh. Occasionally, the obturator nerve is also blocked, although this can vary from person to person.

      To perform a fascia iliaca compartment block (FICB), specific landmarks need to be identified. An imaginary line is drawn between the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) and the pubic tubercle. This line is then divided into thirds. The injection entry point is marked 1 cm caudal (inferior) from the junction of the lateral and middle third.

      However, there are certain contraindications to performing a FICB. These include patient refusal, anticoagulation or bleeding disorders, allergy to local anesthetics, previous femoral bypass surgery, and infection or inflammation over the injection site.

      As with any medical procedure, there are potential complications associated with a FICB. These can include intravascular injection, local anesthetic toxicity, allergy to the local anesthetic, temporary or permanent nerve damage, infection, and block failure. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these risks and take appropriate precautions when performing a FICB.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pain & Sedation
      20
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  • Question 38 - A 68 year old male is brought into the emergency department with a...

    Correct

    • A 68 year old male is brought into the emergency department with a two week history of worsening nausea, muscle aches, fatigue, and weakness. You send urine and blood samples for analysis. The results are shown below:

      Na+ 126 mmol/l
      K+ 5.3 mmol/l
      Urea 7.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 90 µmol/l
      Glucose 6.0 mmol/l
      Urine osmolality 880 mosmol/kg

      You review the patient's medications. Which drug is most likely responsible for this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      This patient is experiencing hyponatremia, which is characterized by low plasma osmolality and high urine osmolality, indicating syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH). One of the most common causes of SIADH is the use of SSRIs. On the other hand, lithium, sodium bicarbonate, and corticosteroids are known to cause hypernatremia. Plasma osmolality can be calculated using the formula (2 x Na) + Glucose + Urea. In this patient, the calculated osmolality is 265 mosmol/kg, which falls within the normal range of 275-295 mosmol/kg.

      Further Reading:

      Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is a condition characterized by low sodium levels in the blood due to excessive secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). ADH, also known as arginine vasopressin (AVP), is responsible for promoting water and sodium reabsorption in the body. SIADH occurs when there is impaired free water excretion, leading to euvolemic (normal fluid volume) hypotonic hyponatremia.

      There are various causes of SIADH, including malignancies such as small cell lung cancer, stomach cancer, and prostate cancer, as well as neurological conditions like stroke, subarachnoid hemorrhage, and meningitis. Infections such as tuberculosis and pneumonia, as well as certain medications like thiazide diuretics and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), can also contribute to SIADH.

      The diagnostic features of SIADH include low plasma osmolality, inappropriately elevated urine osmolality, urinary sodium levels above 30 mmol/L, and euvolemic. Symptoms of hyponatremia, which is a common consequence of SIADH, include nausea, vomiting, headache, confusion, lethargy, muscle weakness, seizures, and coma.

      Management of SIADH involves correcting hyponatremia slowly to avoid complications such as central pontine myelinolysis. The underlying cause of SIADH should be treated if possible, such as discontinuing causative medications. Fluid restriction is typically recommended, with a daily limit of around 1000 ml for adults. In severe cases with neurological symptoms, intravenous hypertonic saline may be used. Medications like demeclocycline, which blocks ADH receptors, or ADH receptor antagonists like tolvaptan may also be considered.

      It is important to monitor serum sodium levels closely during treatment, especially if using hypertonic saline, to prevent rapid correction that can lead to central pontine myelinolysis. Osmolality abnormalities can help determine the underlying cause of hyponatremia, with increased urine osmolality indicating dehydration or renal disease, and decreased urine osmolality suggesting SIADH or overhydration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      16.1
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  • Question 39 - You review a 70-year-old man with a history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation,...

    Correct

    • You review a 70-year-old man with a history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation, who is currently on the clinical decision unit (CDU). His most recent blood results reveal significant renal impairment.

      His current medications are as follows:
      Digoxin 250 mcg once daily
      Atenolol 50 mg once daily
      Aspirin 75 mg once daily

      What is the SINGLE most suitable medication adjustment to initiate for this patient?

      Your Answer: Reduce dose of digoxin

      Explanation:

      Digoxin is eliminated through the kidneys, and if renal function is compromised, it can lead to elevated levels of digoxin and potential toxicity. To address this issue, it is necessary to decrease the patient’s digoxin dosage and closely monitor their digoxin levels and electrolyte levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      16.5
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  • Question 40 - You are requested to evaluate a 78-year-old individual who has experienced excessive bleeding...

    Correct

    • You are requested to evaluate a 78-year-old individual who has experienced excessive bleeding from the right nostril for a duration of 2 hours. During the examination, you observe a bleed originating from Little's area of the nasal septum.

      Which of the following accurately characterizes the arteries that contribute to the arterial anastomosis in Little's area?

      Your Answer: Greater palatine artery, anterior ethmoidal artery, superior labial artery and sphenopalatine artery

      Explanation:

      Kiesselbach’s plexus, also known as Little’s area, is formed by the connection of four or five arteries. These arteries include the greater palatine artery, anterior ethmoidal artery, superior labial artery, and sphenopalatine artery. Some sources also include the posterior ethmoidal artery as part of the plexus. The greater palatine artery is a branch of the maxillary artery, while the anterior ethmoidal artery is a branch of the internal carotid artery. The superior labial artery and sphenopalatine artery are both branches of the external carotid artery. The posterior ethmoidal artery, if included, is a branch of the ophthalmic artery.

      Further Reading:

      Epistaxis, or nosebleed, is a common condition that can occur in both children and older adults. It is classified as either anterior or posterior, depending on the location of the bleeding. Anterior epistaxis usually occurs in younger individuals and arises from the nostril, most commonly from an area called Little’s area. These bleeds are usually not severe and account for the majority of nosebleeds seen in hospitals. Posterior nosebleeds, on the other hand, occur in older patients with conditions such as hypertension and atherosclerosis. The bleeding in posterior nosebleeds is likely to come from both nostrils and originates from the superior or posterior parts of the nasal cavity or nasopharynx.

      The management of epistaxis involves assessing the patient for signs of instability and implementing measures to control the bleeding. Initial measures include sitting the patient upright with their upper body tilted forward and their mouth open. Firmly pinching the cartilaginous part of the nose for 10-15 minutes without releasing the pressure can also help stop the bleeding. If these measures are successful, a cream called Naseptin or mupirocin nasal ointment can be prescribed for further treatment.

      If bleeding persists after the initial measures, nasal cautery or nasal packing may be necessary. Nasal cautery involves using a silver nitrate stick to cauterize the bleeding point, while nasal packing involves inserting nasal tampons or inflatable nasal packs to stop the bleeding. In cases of posterior bleeding, posterior nasal packing or surgery to tie off the bleeding vessel may be considered.

      Complications of epistaxis can include nasal bleeding, hypovolemia, anemia, aspiration, and even death. Complications specific to nasal packing include sinusitis, septal hematoma or abscess, pressure necrosis, toxic shock syndrome, and apneic episodes. Nasal cautery can lead to complications such as septal perforation and caustic injury to the surrounding skin.

      In children under the age of 2 presenting with epistaxis, it is important to refer them for further investigation as an underlying cause is more likely in this age group.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      22.2
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  • Question 41 - You assess a 42-year-old individual who is being admitted for alcohol detoxification. They...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 42-year-old individual who is being admitted for alcohol detoxification. They have been prescribed Pabrinex by one of your colleagues.
      Which of the following vitamins is not included in Pabrinex?

      Your Answer: Vitamin C

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B12

      Explanation:

      Pabrinex is a supplement that includes a combination of essential vitamins. These vitamins are Thiamine (also known as vitamin B1), Riboflavin (commonly referred to as vitamin B2), Nicotinamide (which encompasses Vitamin B3, niacin, and nicotinic acid), Pyridoxine (known as vitamin B6), and Ascorbic acid (which is vitamin C). Each of these vitamins plays a crucial role in maintaining our overall health and well-being. By incorporating Pabrinex into our daily routine, we can ensure that our bodies receive the necessary nutrients to support various bodily functions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 55-year-old woman comes in with severe chest pain in the center of...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman comes in with severe chest pain in the center of her chest. Her ECG reveals the following findings:
      ST elevation in leads I, II, aVF, and V6
      Reciprocal ST depression in leads V1-V4 and aVR
      Prominent tall R waves in leads V2-V3
      Upright T waves in leads V2-V3
      Based on these findings, which blood vessel is most likely affected in this case?

      Your Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      This ECG indicates changes that are consistent with an acute inferoposterior myocardial infarction (MI). There is ST elevation in leads I, II, aVF, and V6, along with reciprocal ST depression in leads V1-V4 and aVR. Additionally, there are tall dominant R waves in leads V2-V3 and upright T waves in leads V2-V3. Based on these findings, the most likely vessel involved in this case is the right coronary artery.

      To summarize the vessels involved in different types of myocardial infarction see below:
      ECG Leads – Location of MI | Vessel involved
      V1-V3 – Anteroseptal | Left anterior descending
      V3-V4 – Anterior | Left anterior descending
      V5-V6 – Anterolateral | Left anterior descending / left circumflex artery
      V1-V6 – Extensive anterior | Left anterior descending
      I, II, aVL, V6 – Lateral | Left circumflex artery
      II, III, aVF – Inferior | Right coronary artery (80%), Left circumflex artery (20%)
      V1, V4R – Right ventricle | Right coronary artery
      V7-V9 – Posterior | Right coronary artery

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      38.7
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  • Question 43 - A 25-year-old female patient arrives at the Emergency Department displaying clinical signs of...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female patient arrives at the Emergency Department displaying clinical signs of a sexually transmitted infection.
      Which of the following organisms is frequently transmitted through sexual contact?

      Your Answer: Human papillomavirus

      Explanation:

      The human papillomavirus (HPV) is a viral infection that is primarily responsible for the development of genital warts. This virus is predominantly transmitted through sexual contact.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A 60-year-old woman comes in with intense left eye pain and vision loss...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman comes in with intense left eye pain and vision loss in the left eye. She has experienced multiple episodes of vomiting. During the examination, there is noticeable redness around the left side of the cornea, and the left pupil is dilated and does not react to light.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Closed-angle glaucoma

      Explanation:

      Acute closed-angle glaucoma is a serious eye condition that requires immediate medical attention. It occurs when the iris pushes forward and blocks the fluid from reaching the trabecular meshwork, which is responsible for draining the eye. This blockage leads to increased pressure inside the eye and can cause damage to the optic nerve.

      The main symptoms of acute closed-angle glaucoma include severe eye pain, vision loss or decreased visual acuity, redness and congestion around the cornea, swelling of the cornea, a fixed semi-dilated pupil, and nausea and vomiting. Some individuals may also experience episodes of blurred vision or seeing haloes before the onset of these symptoms.

      On the other hand, chronic open-angle glaucoma is a more common form of the condition. It affects about 1 in 50 people over the age of 40 and 1 in 10 people over the age of 75. In this type of glaucoma, there is a partial blockage in the trabecular meshwork, which gradually restricts the drainage of fluid from the eye. As a result, the pressure inside the eye gradually increases, leading to optic nerve damage. Unlike acute closed-angle glaucoma, chronic open-angle glaucoma does not cause eye pain or redness. Instead, it presents slowly with a gradual loss of peripheral vision, while central vision is relatively preserved.

      It is important to seek medical attention if you experience any symptoms of glaucoma, as early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent further vision loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      16.6
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  • Question 45 - A 32-year-old man is brought to the hospital with a known notifiable illness.
    Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man is brought to the hospital with a known notifiable illness.
      Which of the following is the LEAST probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Scarlet fever

      Correct Answer: Leptospirosis

      Explanation:

      Public Health England (PHE) has a primary goal of promptly identifying potential disease outbreaks and epidemics. While accuracy of diagnosis is important, it is not the main focus. Since 1968, the clinical suspicion of a notifiable infection has been sufficient for reporting purposes.

      Registered medical practitioners (RMPs) are legally obligated to notify the designated proper officer at their local council or local health protection team (HPT) when they suspect cases of certain infectious diseases.

      The Health Protection (Notification) Regulations 2010 specify the diseases that RMPs must report to the proper officers. These diseases include acute encephalitis, acute infectious hepatitis, acute meningitis, acute poliomyelitis, anthrax, botulism, brucellosis, cholera, COVID-19, diphtheria, enteric fever (typhoid or paratyphoid fever), food poisoning, haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS), infectious bloody diarrhoea, invasive group A streptococcal disease, Legionnaires’ disease, leprosy, malaria, measles, meningococcal septicaemia, mumps, plague, rabies, rubella, severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS), scarlet fever, smallpox, tetanus, tuberculosis, typhus, viral haemorrhagic fever (VHF), whooping cough, and yellow fever.

      It is worth noting that leptospirosis is not considered a notifiable disease, making it the least likely option among the diseases listed above.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 40-year-old woman presents with symptoms of chronic heartburn, difficulty swallowing, and occasional...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman presents with symptoms of chronic heartburn, difficulty swallowing, and occasional food blockage. She was recently given a short course of omeprazole but has not experienced any improvement in her symptoms. Her medical history includes asthma and seasonal allergies, for which she uses a salbutamol inhaler and steroid creams. She has not noticed any weight loss, has not experienced any episodes of vomiting blood, and overall feels healthy.

      What is the most probable diagnosis in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Eosinophilic oesophagitis

      Explanation:

      Eosinophilic oesophagitis (EoE), also known as allergic inflammatory condition of the oesophagus, is characterized by the presence of eosinophils. It was identified as a clinical condition about two decades ago but has gained recognition more recently. EoE is most commonly observed in middle-aged individuals, with an average age of diagnosis ranging from 30 to 50 years. It is more prevalent in men, with a male-to-female ratio of 3:1. Allergic conditions, particularly atopy, are often associated with EoE.

      The clinical manifestations of EoE vary depending on the age of the patient. In adults, common symptoms include dysphagia, food bolus obstruction, heartburn, and chest pain. On the other hand, children with EoE may present with failure to thrive, food refusal, difficulty feeding, vomiting, and abdominal pain.

      To diagnose EoE, it is crucial to consider the possibility of this condition in patients who have persistent heartburn and/or difficulty swallowing, especially if they have a history of allergies or atopic disease. Diagnosis is confirmed by identifying more than 15 eosinophils per high-power field on an oesophageal biopsy. Allergy testing is not effective as EoE is not mediated by IgE.

      There are three main management options for EoE, all of which are considered first-line treatments. The first option is proton pump inhibitors (PPIs), which are effective in approximately one-third of patients. If an endoscopic biopsy confirms the presence of eosinophils, an 8-week trial of PPIs can be initiated. After the trial, a repeat endoscopy and biopsy should be performed to assess for persistent eosinophils. Patients who respond to PPIs are diagnosed with PPI responsive oesophageal eosinophilia, while those who do not respond are diagnosed with true eosinophilic oesophagitis.

      The second management option is dietary manipulation, which can be effective in both children and adults. It can be used as an initial treatment or in combination with pharmacological therapy. The six most commonly implicated food groups in EoE are cow’s milk, wheat, egg, soy, peanut/tree nut, and fish/shellfish. There are four main approaches to dietary manipulation: elemental diet, six food elimination diet (SFED), four food elimination diet (FFED),

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      93.3
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - You review a 65-year-old woman with a diagnosis of Parkinson's disease. You can...

    Correct

    • You review a 65-year-old woman with a diagnosis of Parkinson's disease. You can see from her records that she has an advanced directive in place.

      Which SINGLE statement is true regarding an advanced directive?

      Your Answer: They can be used to make decisions about the use of parenteral fluids

      Explanation:

      An advance decision, also known as an advance directive in Scotland, is a statement made by a patient expressing their desire to refuse certain types of medical treatment or care in the event that they become unable to make or communicate decisions for themselves. These statements serve as a means of effectively communicating the patient’s wishes to healthcare professionals and family members, helping to avoid any confusion that may arise. If a patient reaches a point where they are no longer capable of making informed decisions about their care, an advance decision can provide clarity and guidance.

      An advance decision can typically be utilized in the following situations: making decisions regarding CPR, determining the use of IV fluids and parenteral nutrition, deciding on specific procedures, and addressing the use of blood products for Jehovah’s Witnesses. However, it is important to note that advance decisions have their limitations and cannot be used to grant a relative lasting power of attorney, appoint a spokesperson to make decisions on the patient’s behalf, request a specific medical treatment, advocate for something illegal (such as assisted suicide), refuse treatment for a mental health condition, or authorize treatments that are not in the patient’s best interests.

      A doctor is legally obligated to adhere to an advance decision unless certain circumstances arise. These circumstances include changes that invalidate the decision, advances or changes in treatment that alter the circumstances, ambiguity in the wording of the decision, or if the decision is unsigned or its authenticity is in doubt. If there are any doubts about the validity of an advance decision, it is advisable to seek legal advice. Unfortunately, there have been instances where advance decisions have been forged or signed under duress, and any suspicions of this nature should be raised.

      It is important to note that there is no specific time period for which an advance decision remains valid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Palliative & End Of Life Care
      26.8
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  • Question 48 - A 14-year-old girl comes in with a sudden onset of a painful throat...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl comes in with a sudden onset of a painful throat that has been bothering her for the past day. She has no history of coughing or cold symptoms. During the examination, her temperature is measured at 38.5°C, and there is visible exudate on her right tonsil, which also appears to be swollen and red. No anterior cervical lymph nodes can be felt. What is her FeverPAIN Score for assessing her sore throat?

      Your Answer: 4

      Correct Answer: 5

      Explanation:

      Two scoring systems are suggested by NICE to aid in the evaluation of sore throat: The Centor Clinical Prediction Score and The FeverPAIN Score.

      The FeverPAIN score was developed from a study involving 1760 adults and children aged three and above. The score was tested in a trial that compared three prescribing strategies: empirical delayed prescribing, using the score to guide prescribing, or a combination of the score with the use of a near-patient test (NPT) for streptococcus. Utilizing the score resulted in faster symptom resolution and a reduction in the prescription of antibiotics (both reduced by one third). The inclusion of the NPT did not provide any additional benefit.

      The score comprises of five factors, each of which is assigned one point: Fever (Temp >38°C) in the last 24 hours, Purulence, Attended rapidly in under three days, Inflamed tonsils, and No cough or coryza.

      Based on the score, the recommendations are as follows:
      – Score 0-1 = 13-18% likelihood of streptococcus infection, antibiotics are not recommended.
      – Score 2-3 = 34-40% likelihood of streptococcus infection, consider delayed prescribing of antibiotics (3-5 day ‘backup prescription’).
      – Score 4-5 = 62-65% likelihood of streptococcus infection, use immediate antibiotics if severe, or a 48-hour short ‘backup prescription.’

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      23.2
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  • Question 49 - You are present at a pediatric cardiac arrest. The cardiac arrest team has,...

    Correct

    • You are present at a pediatric cardiac arrest. The cardiac arrest team has, unfortunately, been unable to establish IV access, and an intraosseous needle is inserted. The child weighs 20 kg.
      What is the appropriate dose of adrenaline to administer via the IO route in this situation?

      Your Answer: 300 mcg

      Explanation:

      When administering adrenaline to a pediatric patient experiencing cardiac arrest, the dosage given through the intraosseous (IO) route is identical to that given through the intravenous (IV) route. Both routes require a dosage of 10 mcg/kg. For instance, if the child weighs 30 kg, the appropriate dosage would be 300 mcg (0.3 mg).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
      39
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 70-year-old diabetic smoker presents with central chest pain that radiates to his...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old diabetic smoker presents with central chest pain that radiates to his left shoulder and jaw. He is given 300 mg aspirin and morphine, and his pain subsides. The pain lasted approximately 90 minutes in total. His ECG shows normal sinus rhythm. He is referred to the on-call medical team for admission, and a troponin test is scheduled at the appropriate time. His blood tests today reveal a creatinine level of 298 micromoles per litre.
      Which of the following medications should you also consider administering to this patient?

      Your Answer: Fondaparinux

      Correct Answer: Unfractionated heparin

      Explanation:

      This patient’s medical history suggests a diagnosis of acute coronary syndrome. It is important to provide pain relief as soon as possible. This can be achieved by administering GTN (sublingual or buccal), but if there is suspicion of an acute myocardial infarction (MI), intravenous opioids such as morphine should be offered.

      Aspirin should be given to all patients with unstable angina or NSTEMI as soon as possible and should be continued indefinitely, unless there are contraindications such as a high risk of bleeding or aspirin hypersensitivity. A single loading dose of 300 mg should be given immediately after presentation.

      For patients without a high risk of bleeding and no planned coronary angiography within 24 hours of admission, fondaparinux should be administered. However, if coronary angiography is planned within 24 hours, unfractionated heparin can be offered as an alternative to fondaparinux. For patients with significant renal impairment (creatinine above 265 micromoles per litre), unfractionated heparin should be considered, with dose adjustment based on clotting function monitoring.

      Routine administration of oxygen is no longer recommended, but oxygen saturation should be monitored using pulse oximetry as soon as possible, preferably before hospital admission. Supplemental oxygen should only be given to individuals with an oxygen saturation (SpO2) below 94% who are not at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure, aiming for an SpO2 of 94-98%. For individuals with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure, a target SpO2 of 88-92% should be achieved until blood gas analysis is available.

      Bivalirudin, a specific and reversible direct thrombin inhibitor (DTI), is recommended by NICE as a potential treatment for adults with STEMI undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention.

      For more information, refer to the NICE guidelines on the assessment and diagnosis of chest pain of recent onset.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      25.5
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  • Question 51 - A 40-year-old woman comes in with bitemporal hemianopia resulting from a meningioma.
    Where...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman comes in with bitemporal hemianopia resulting from a meningioma.
      Where in the visual pathway has this lesion occurred?

      Your Answer: Optic chiasm

      Explanation:

      The optic chiasm is situated just below the hypothalamus and is in close proximity to the pituitary gland. When the pituitary gland enlarges, it can impact the functioning of the optic nerve at this location. Specifically, the fibres from the nasal half of the retina cross over at the optic chiasm to form the optic tracts. Compression at the optic chiasm primarily affects these fibres, resulting in a visual defect that affects peripheral vision in both eyes, known as bitemporal hemianopia. There are several causes of optic chiasm lesions, with the most common being a pituitary tumor. Other causes include craniopharyngioma, meningioma, optic glioma, and internal carotid artery aneurysm. The diagram below provides a summary of the different visual field defects that can occur at various points in the visual pathway.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      13.7
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  • Question 52 - A 68-year-old man suffers a fractured neck of femur. He is later diagnosed...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man suffers a fractured neck of femur. He is later diagnosed with osteoporosis and is prescribed medication for the secondary prevention of osteoporotic fragility fractures.
      What is the recommended initial treatment for the secondary prevention of osteoporotic fragility fractures?

      Your Answer: Oral bisphosphonate

      Explanation:

      Oral bisphosphonates are the primary choice for treating osteoporotic fragility fractures in individuals who have already experienced such fractures. After a fragility fracture, it is advised to start taking a bisphosphonate, typically alendronic acid, and consider supplementing with calcium and vitamin D.

      There are other treatment options available for preventing fragility fractures after an initial occurrence. These include raloxifene, teriparatide, and denosumab.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Elderly Care / Frailty
      5.3
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  • Question 53 - A 10-year-old girl is brought into the Emergency Department with stomach pain and...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old girl is brought into the Emergency Department with stomach pain and throwing up. Her mom tells you that she has been losing weight lately and seems to be drinking a lot and peeing a lot. During the examination, she appears tired and you notice that she is dehydrated. She is breathing deeply and quickly. Her blood sugar levels are found to be very high when her blood is tested.
      Which of the following tests will be most useful in confirming the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Urine dipstick

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this case is diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). To confirm the diagnosis, it is important to establish that his blood glucose levels are high, he has significant ketonuria or ketonaemia, and that he is experiencing acidosis. Therefore, out of the options provided, a urine dipstick test will be the most useful.

      DKA is a life-threatening condition that occurs when there is a lack of insulin, leading to an inability to metabolize glucose. This results in hyperglycemia and an osmotic diuresis, causing excessive thirst and increased urine production. If the urine output exceeds the patient’s ability to drink, dehydration becomes inevitable. Additionally, without insulin, fat becomes the primary energy source, leading to the production of large amounts of ketones and metabolic acidosis.

      DKA is characterized by three main factors:
      1. Hyperglycemia (blood glucose > 11 mmol/l)
      2. Ketonaemia (> 3 mmol/l) or significant ketonuria (> 2+ on urine dipstick)
      3. Acidosis (bicarbonate < 15 mmol/l and/or venous pH < 7.3) The clinical features of DKA include nausea, vomiting, excessive thirst, excessive urine production, abdominal pain, signs of dehydration, a smell of ketones on the breath (similar to pear drops), deep and rapid respiration (Kussmaul breathing), confusion or reduced consciousness, and tachycardia, hypotension, and shock. The following investigations should be performed:
      – Blood glucose measurement
      – Urine dipstick test (will show marked glycosuria and ketonuria)
      – Blood ketone assay (more sensitive and specific than urine dipstick)
      – Blood tests including full blood count (FBC) and urea and electrolytes (U&Es)
      – Arterial or venous blood gas analysis (to assess for metabolic acidosis)

      The principles of managing DKA are as follows:
      – Fluid boluses should only be given to reverse signs of shock and should be administered slowly in 10 ml/kg aliquots. If there are no signs of shock, fluid boluses should not be given, and specialist advice should be sought if a second bolus is required.
      – Rehydration should be done with replacement therapy over 48 hours after signs of shock have been reversed.
      – The first 20 ml/kg of fluid resuscitation should be given in addition

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      32.5
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - A 37 year old male is brought into the emergency department with severe...

    Correct

    • A 37 year old male is brought into the emergency department with severe chest injuries following a car accident. FAST scanning shows the presence of around 100 ml of fluid in the pericardium. The patient's blood pressure is 118/78 mmHg and pulse rate is 92. What is the recommended course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Transfer to theatre for thoracotomy

      Explanation:

      For individuals with traumatic cardiac tamponade, thoracotomy is the recommended treatment. In the case of a trauma patient with a significant buildup of fluid around the heart and the potential for tamponade, it is advised to transfer stable patients to the operating room for thoracotomy instead of performing pericardiocentesis. Pericardiocentesis, when done correctly, is likely to be unsuccessful due to the presence of clotted blood in the pericardium. Additionally, performing pericardiocentesis would cause a delay in the thoracotomy procedure. If access to the operating room is not possible, pericardiocentesis may be considered as a temporary solution.

      Further Reading:

      Cardiac tamponade, also known as pericardial tamponade, occurs when fluid accumulates in the pericardial sac and compresses the heart, leading to compromised blood flow. Classic clinical signs of cardiac tamponade include distended neck veins, hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and pulseless electrical activity (PEA). Diagnosis is typically done through a FAST scan or an echocardiogram.

      Management of cardiac tamponade involves assessing for other injuries, administering IV fluids to reduce preload, performing pericardiocentesis (inserting a needle into the pericardial cavity to drain fluid), and potentially performing a thoracotomy. It is important to note that untreated expanding cardiac tamponade can progress to PEA cardiac arrest.

      Pericardiocentesis can be done using the subxiphoid approach or by inserting a needle between the 5th and 6th intercostal spaces at the left sternal border. Echo guidance is the gold standard for pericardiocentesis, but it may not be available in a resuscitation situation. Complications of pericardiocentesis include ST elevation or ventricular ectopics, myocardial perforation, bleeding, pneumothorax, arrhythmia, acute pulmonary edema, and acute ventricular dilatation.

      It is important to note that pericardiocentesis is typically used as a temporary measure until a thoracotomy can be performed. Recent articles published on the RCEM learning platform suggest that pericardiocentesis has a low success rate and may delay thoracotomy, so it is advised against unless there are no other options available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      15.9
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  • Question 55 - A 5 year old female is brought to the emergency department by her...

    Correct

    • A 5 year old female is brought to the emergency department by her parents. They are worried because the child has had a high fever for the past 24 hours and has developed noisy breathing and a change in her voice in the past few hours. They inform you that the child has been refusing to drink fluids orally due to a sore throat for the past few hours as well. The parents mention that the child has never had a serious illness before. You observe that the child has not received any vaccinations as the parents have concerns about potential vaccine-related diseases later in life. During the assessment, the child is sitting upright, leaning forward on her arms, and drooling. You can hear audible stridor. The child's vital signs are as follows:

      Temperature: 38.9ºC
      Pulse: 155 bpm
      Respiration rate: 40 bpm
      Oxygen saturation: 96% on room air

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Epiglottitis

      Explanation:

      Epiglottitis symptoms typically appear suddenly, usually within a day. This patient’s symptoms align with those of epiglottitis and his vaccination status puts him at a higher risk. Common clinical features of epiglottitis include a rapid onset of symptoms, high fever, a sore throat, a change in voice (often described as a muffled or hot potato voice), painful swallowing, a specific positioning called tripod positioning, excessive drooling, and stridor.

      Further Reading:

      Epiglottitis is a rare but serious condition characterized by inflammation and swelling of the epiglottis, which can lead to a complete blockage of the airway. It is more commonly seen in children between the ages of 2-6, but can also occur in adults, particularly those in their 40s and 50s. Streptococcus infections are now the most common cause of epiglottitis in the UK, although other bacterial agents, viruses, fungi, and iatrogenic causes can also be responsible.

      The clinical features of epiglottitis include a rapid onset of symptoms, high fever, sore throat, painful swallowing, muffled voice, stridor and difficulty breathing, drooling of saliva, irritability, and a characteristic tripod positioning with the arms forming the front two legs of the tripod. It is important for healthcare professionals to avoid examining the throat or performing any potentially upsetting procedures until the airway has been assessed and secured.

      Diagnosis of epiglottitis is typically made through fibre-optic laryngoscopy, which is considered the gold standard investigation. Lateral neck X-rays may also show a characteristic thumb sign, indicating an enlarged and swollen epiglottis. Throat swabs and blood cultures may be taken once the airway is secured to identify the causative organism.

      Management of epiglottitis involves assessing and securing the airway as the top priority. Intravenous or oral antibiotics are typically prescribed, and supplemental oxygen may be given if intubation or tracheostomy is planned. In severe cases where the airway is significantly compromised, intubation or tracheostomy may be necessary. Steroids may also be used, although the evidence for their benefit is limited.

      Overall, epiglottitis is a potentially life-threatening condition that requires urgent medical attention. Prompt diagnosis, appropriate management, and securing the airway are crucial in ensuring a positive outcome for patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
      19.7
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  • Question 56 - A 35-year-old man is given a medication during the 2nd-trimester of his partner's...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man is given a medication during the 2nd-trimester of his partner's pregnancy. As a result, the baby is born with a neural tube defect.
      Which of the following medications is the most probable cause of these abnormalities?

      Your Answer: Trimethoprim

      Explanation:

      The use of trimethoprim during the first trimester of pregnancy is linked to a higher risk of neural tube defects due to its interference with folate. If it is not possible to use an alternative antibiotic, it is recommended that pregnant women taking trimethoprim also take high-dose folic acid. However, the use of trimethoprim during the second and third trimesters of pregnancy is considered safe.

      Here is a list outlining the commonly encountered drugs that have adverse effects during pregnancy:

      ACE inhibitors (e.g. ramipril): If given in the second and third trimesters, they can cause hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence.

      Aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamicin): They can cause ototoxicity and deafness.

      Aspirin: High doses can lead to first-trimester abortions, delayed onset labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus. However, low doses (e.g. 75 mg) do not pose significant risks.

      Benzodiazepines (e.g. diazepam): When given late in pregnancy, they can cause respiratory depression and a neonatal withdrawal syndrome.

      Calcium-channel blockers: If given in the first trimester, they can cause phalangeal abnormalities. If given in the second and third trimesters, they can lead to fetal growth retardation.

      Carbamazepine: It can cause haemorrhagic disease of the newborn and neural tube defects.

      Chloramphenicol: It can cause grey baby syndrome.

      Corticosteroids: If given in the first trimester, they may cause orofacial clefts.

      Danazol: If given in the first trimester, it can cause masculinization of the female fetuses genitals.

      Finasteride: Pregnant women should avoid handling finasteride as crushed or broken tablets can be absorbed through the skin and affect male sex organ development.

      Haloperidol: If given in the first trimester, it may cause limb malformations. If given in the third trimester, there is an increased risk of extrapyramidal symptoms in the neonate.

      Heparin: It can cause maternal bleeding and thrombocytopenia.

      Isoniazid: It can lead to maternal liver damage and neuropathy and seizures in the neonate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - A young woman with a previous case of urethritis has a urethral swab...

    Correct

    • A young woman with a previous case of urethritis has a urethral swab sent to the laboratory for examination. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is identified in the sample, confirming a diagnosis of gonorrhea.

      Which ONE statement about Neisseria gonorrhoeae is accurate?

      Your Answer: It adheres to the genitourinary epithelium via pili

      Explanation:

      Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a type of bacteria that causes the sexually transmitted infection known as gonorrhoea. It is a Gram-negative diplococcus, meaning it appears as pairs of bacteria under a microscope. This infection is most commonly seen in individuals between the ages of 15 and 35, and it is primarily transmitted through sexual contact. One important characteristic of Neisseria gonorrhoeae is its ability to undergo antigenic variation, which means that recovering from an infection does not provide immunity and reinfection is possible.

      When Neisseria gonorrhoeae infects the body, it first attaches to the genitourinary epithelium using pili, which are hair-like structures on the surface of the bacteria. It then invades the epithelial layer and triggers a local acute inflammatory response. In men, the clinical features of gonorrhoea often include urethritis (inflammation of the urethra) in about 80% of cases, dysuria (painful urination) in around 50% of cases, and mucopurulent discharge. Rectal infection may also occur, usually without symptoms, but it can cause anal discharge. Pharyngitis, or inflammation of the throat, is usually asymptomatic in men.

      In women, the clinical features of gonorrhoea commonly include vaginal discharge in about 50% of cases, lower abdominal pain in around 25% of cases, dysuria in 10-15% of cases, and pelvic/lower abdominal tenderness in less than 5% of cases. Endocervical discharge and/or bleeding may also be present. Similar to men, rectal infection is usually asymptomatic but can cause anal discharge, and pharyngitis is usually asymptomatic in women as well.

      Complications of Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection can be serious and include pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) in women, epididymo-orchitis or prostatitis in men, arthritis, dermatitis, pericarditis and/or myocarditis, hepatitis, and meningitis.

      To diagnose gonorrhoea, samples of pus from the urethra, cervix, rectum, or throat should be collected and promptly sent to the laboratory in specialized transport medium. Traditionally, diagnosis has been made using Gram-stain and culture techniques, but newer PCR testing methods are becoming more commonly used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - A 45-year-old presents to the emergency department with palpitations and episodes of fainting....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old presents to the emergency department with palpitations and episodes of fainting. It is determined that the patient would benefit from cardioversion. You have a discussion about the treatment options, advantages, and potential risks. What is the definition of material risk?

      Your Answer: The relative decrease in the risk of an adverse event in the treatment group compared to an untreated group

      Correct Answer: Risk associated with an intervention that carries significant risk of harm or adverse outcome

      Explanation:

      Material risk refers to a significant potential for harm that a reasonable person would consider when deciding whether to undergo a medical or surgical treatment. It is an important factor to consider when obtaining consent for the treatment. Montgomery defines material risk as any risk that a reasonable person in the patient’s position would find significant. Relative risk, on the other hand, compares the risk between two different groups of people. Relative risk reduction measures the decrease in the risk of an adverse event in the treatment group compared to an untreated group. Side effect risk quantifies the likelihood of developing a side effect from a treatment, whether minor or major. Lastly, 1/ARR represents the number needed to treat in order to achieve a desired outcome.

      Further Reading:

      Patients have the right to determine what happens to their own bodies, and for consent to be valid, certain criteria must be met. These criteria include the person being informed about the intervention, having the capacity to consent, and giving consent voluntarily and freely without any pressure or undue influence.

      In order for a person to be deemed to have capacity to make a decision on a medical intervention, they must be able to understand the decision and the information provided, retain that information, weigh up the pros and cons, and communicate their decision.

      Valid consent can only be provided by adults, either by the patient themselves, a person authorized under a Lasting Power of Attorney, or someone with the authority to make treatment decisions, such as a court-appointed deputy or a guardian with welfare powers.

      In the UK, patients aged 16 and over are assumed to have the capacity to consent. If a patient is under 18 and appears to lack capacity, parental consent may be accepted. However, a young person of any age may consent to treatment if they are considered competent to make the decision, known as Gillick competence. Parental consent may also be given by those with parental responsibility.

      The Fraser guidelines apply to the prescription of contraception to under 16’s without parental involvement. These guidelines allow doctors to provide contraceptive advice and treatment without parental consent if certain criteria are met, including the young person understanding the advice, being unable to be persuaded to inform their parents, and their best interests requiring them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment.

      Competent adults have the right to refuse consent, even if it is deemed unwise or likely to result in harm. However, there are exceptions to this, such as compulsory treatment authorized by the mental health act or if the patient is under 18 and refusing treatment would put their health at serious risk.

      In emergency situations where a patient is unable to give consent, treatment may be provided without consent if it is immediately necessary to save their life or prevent a serious deterioration of their condition. Any treatment decision made without consent must be in the patient’s best interests, and if a decision is time-critical and the patient is unlikely to regain capacity in time, a best interest decision should be made. The treatment provided should be the least restrictive on the patient’s future choices.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - A 65-year-old man presents with unintentional weight loss and a noticeable lump in...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with unintentional weight loss and a noticeable lump in his abdomen. A CT scan reveals a sizable tumor in the sigmoid colon.
      Where is the mass most likely to be felt when palpating the surface marking?

      Your Answer: Left hypochondrium

      Correct Answer: Left iliac fossa

      Explanation:

      The sigmoid colon is the last segment of the colon and is primarily situated in the left iliac fossa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      90.5
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - A 40-year-old male patient presents with a history of dizziness and fainting episodes....

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old male patient presents with a history of dizziness and fainting episodes. He has also been suffering from a mild flu-like illness for the past few days. He had a syncopal episode in the department and was moved into the resuscitation area. His observations are as follows: Temperature 38.4°C, HR 112, BP 78/44, oxygen saturation 98% on high-flow oxygen, GCS 14/15, BM 1.5.
      His initial blood results are shown below:
      Na+: 118 mmol/l
      K+: 6.1 mmol/l
      Urea: 11.6 mmol/l
      Creatinine: 132 mmol/l
      Which of the following investigations is most appropriate to confirm the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Synacthen test

      Explanation:

      This patient has presented with an Addisonian crisis, which is a rare but potentially catastrophic condition if not diagnosed promptly. It is more commonly seen in women than men and typically occurs between the ages of 30 and 50.

      Addison’s disease is caused by insufficient production of steroid hormones by the adrenal glands, affecting the production of glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and sex steroids. The main causes of Addison’s disease include autoimmune adrenalitis (accounting for 80% of cases), bilateral adrenalectomy, Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome (hemorrhage into the adrenal glands), and tuberculosis.

      The most common trigger for an Addisonian crisis in patients with Addison’s disease is the intentional or accidental withdrawal of steroid therapy. Other factors that can precipitate a crisis include infection, trauma, myocardial infarction, cerebral infarction, asthma, hypothermia, and alcohol abuse.

      Clinical features of Addison’s disease include weakness, lethargy, hypotension (especially orthostatic hypotension), nausea, vomiting, weight loss, reduced axillary and pubic hair, depression, and hyperpigmentation (particularly in palmar creases, buccal mucosa, and exposed areas). In an Addisonian crisis, the main symptoms are usually hypoglycemia and shock, characterized by tachycardia, peripheral vasoconstriction, hypotension, altered consciousness, and even coma.

      Biochemical markers of Addison’s disease typically include increased ACTH levels (as a compensatory response to stimulate the adrenal glands), elevated serum renin levels, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, hypercalcemia, hypoglycemia, and metabolic acidosis. Confirmatory investigations may involve the Synacthen test, plasma ACTH level measurement, plasma renin level measurement, and testing for adrenocortical antibodies.

      Management of Addison’s disease should be overseen by an Endocrinologist. Treatment usually involves the administration of hydrocortisone, fludrocortisone, and dehydroepiandrosterone. Some patients may also require thyroxine if there is concurrent hypothalamic-pituitary disease. Treatment is lifelong, and patients should carry a steroid card and MedicAlert bracelet to alert healthcare professionals about their condition and the potential for an Addisonian crisis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - A 25-year-old individual who was attacked with a baseball bat returns from the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old individual who was attacked with a baseball bat returns from the radiology department after undergoing a CT head scan. The CT images show the presence of intracranial bleeding, and after consulting with the on-call neurosurgical registrar, it is decided that the patient will be transferred to the nearby neurosurgical unit after intubation. How can you determine the amount of oxygen that will be required during the transfer?

      Your Answer: Tidal volume x ventilation rate x FiO2

      Correct Answer: 2 x Minute Volume (MV) x FiO2 x transfer time in minutes

      Explanation:

      To determine the amount of oxygen needed for a transfer, you can use the formula: 2 x Minute Volume (MV) x FiO2 x transfer time in minutes. This formula calculates the volume of oxygen that should be taken on the transfer. The Minute Volume (MV) represents the expected oxygen consumption. It is recommended to double the expected consumption to account for any unforeseen delays or increased oxygen demand during the transfer. Therefore, the second equation is used to calculate the volume of oxygen that will be taken on the transfer.

      Further Reading:

      Transfer of critically ill patients in the emergency department is a common occurrence and can involve intra-hospital transfers or transfers to another hospital. However, there are several risks associated with these transfers that doctors need to be aware of and manage effectively.

      Technical risks include equipment failure or inadequate equipment, unreliable power or oxygen supply, incompatible equipment, restricted positioning, and restricted monitoring equipment. These technical issues can hinder the ability to detect and treat problems with ventilation, blood pressure control, and arrhythmias during the transfer.

      Non-technical risks involve limited personal and medical team during the transfer, isolation and lack of resources in the receiving hospital, and problems with communication and liaison between the origin and destination sites.

      Organizational risks can be mitigated by having a dedicated consultant lead for transfers who is responsible for producing guidelines, training staff, standardizing protocols, equipment, and documentation, as well as capturing data and conducting audits.

      To optimize the patient’s clinical condition before transfer, several key steps should be taken. These include ensuring a low threshold for intubation and anticipating airway and ventilation problems, securing the endotracheal tube (ETT) and verifying its position, calculating oxygen requirements and ensuring an adequate supply, monitoring for circulatory issues and inserting at least two IV accesses, providing ongoing analgesia and sedation, controlling seizures, and addressing any fractures or temperature changes.

      It is also important to have the necessary equipment and personnel for the transfer. Standard monitoring equipment should include ECG, oxygen saturation, blood pressure, temperature, and capnographic monitoring for ventilated patients. Additional monitoring may be required depending on the level of care needed by the patient.

      In terms of oxygen supply, it is standard practice to calculate the expected oxygen consumption during transfer and multiply it by two to ensure an additional supply in case of delays. The suggested oxygen supply for transfer can be calculated using the minute volume, fraction of inspired oxygen, and estimated transfer time.

      Overall, managing the risks associated with patient transfers requires careful planning, communication, and coordination to ensure the safety and well-being of critically ill patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      10.8
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  • Question 62 - A 7-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her father after...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her father after falling off her bike. Her ankle appears to be deformed, and it is suspected that she has a fracture in her distal fibula. The triage nurse informs you that she is experiencing moderate pain. According to the RCEM guidance, which of the following analgesics is recommended for treating moderate pain in a child of this age?

      Your Answer: Oral paracetamol 10 mg/kg

      Correct Answer: Oral morphine 0.2-0.5 mg/kg

      Explanation:

      A recent audit conducted by the Royal College of Emergency Medicine (RCEM) in 2018 revealed a concerning decline in the standards of pain management for children with fractured limbs in Emergency Departments (EDs). The audit found that the majority of patients experienced longer waiting times for pain relief compared to previous years. Shockingly, more than 1 in 10 children who presented with significant pain due to a limb fracture did not receive any pain relief at all.

      To address this issue, the Agency for Health Care Policy and Research (AHCPR) in the USA recommends following the ABCs of pain management for all patients, including children. This approach involves regularly asking about pain, systematically assessing it, believing the patient and their family in their reports of pain and what relieves it, choosing appropriate pain control options, delivering interventions in a timely and coordinated manner, and empowering patients and their families to have control over their pain management.

      The RCEM has established standards that require a child’s pain to be assessed within 15 minutes of their arrival at the ED. This is considered a fundamental standard. Various rating scales are available for assessing pain in children, with the choice depending on the child’s age and ability to use the scale. These scales include the Wong-Baker Faces Pain Rating Scale, Numeric rating scale, and Behavioural scale.

      To ensure timely administration of analgesia to children in acute pain, the RCEM has set specific standards. These standards state that 100% of patients in severe pain should receive appropriate analgesia within 60 minutes of their arrival or triage, whichever comes first. Additionally, 75% should receive analgesia within 30 minutes, and 50% within 20 minutes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pain & Sedation
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - A 35-year-old woman is given diclofenac for arthritis during her second trimester of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is given diclofenac for arthritis during her second trimester of pregnancy. As a result of this medication, the baby develops a birth defect.
      What is the most probable birth defect that can occur due to the use of diclofenac during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn

      Correct Answer: Premature closure of the ductus arteriosus

      Explanation:

      The use of NSAIDs during the third trimester of pregnancy is associated with several risks. These risks include delayed onset of labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus, which is a condition characterized by bilirubin-induced brain dysfunction. Additionally, there is a slight increase in the risk of first-trimester abortion if NSAIDs are used early in pregnancy.

      Below is a list outlining the most commonly encountered drugs that have adverse effects during pregnancy:

      Drug: ACE inhibitors (e.g. ramipril)
      Adverse effects: If given in the second and third trimester, ACE inhibitors can cause hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence.

      Drug: Aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamicin)
      Adverse effects: Aminoglycosides can cause ototoxicity, leading to deafness in the fetus.

      Drug: Aspirin
      Adverse effects: High doses of aspirin can cause first-trimester abortions, delayed onset of labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus. However, low doses (e.g. 75 mg) have no significant associated risk.

      Drug: Benzodiazepines (e.g. diazepam)
      Adverse effects: When given late in pregnancy, benzodiazepines can cause respiratory depression and a neonatal withdrawal syndrome.

      Drug: Calcium-channel blockers
      Adverse effects: If given in the first trimester, calcium-channel blockers can cause phalangeal abnormalities. If given in the second and third trimester, they can cause fetal growth retardation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - A 5-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department by his father. For...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department by his father. For the past two days, he has had severe diarrhea and vomiting. He has not urinated today. He typically weighs 18 kg.

      What is this child's daily maintenance fluid requirements when in good health?

      Your Answer: 1540 ml/day

      Explanation:

      The intravascular volume of an infant is approximately 80 ml/kg. In older children, the intravascular volume is around 70 ml/kg.

      Dehydration itself does not lead to death, but shock can. Shock can occur when there is a loss of 20 ml/kg from the intravascular space, while clinical dehydration is only noticeable after total losses of more than 25 ml/kg.

      The maintenance fluid requirements for healthy, typical children are summarized in the table below:

      Bodyweight:
      – First 10 kg: Daily fluid requirement of 100 ml/kg, hourly fluid requirement of 4 ml/kg
      – Second 10 kg: Daily fluid requirement of 50 ml/kg, hourly fluid requirement of 2 ml/kg
      – Subsequent kg: Daily fluid requirement of 20 ml/kg, hourly fluid requirement of 1 ml/kg

      Therefore, this child’s daily maintenance fluid requirement can be calculated as follows:

      – First 10 kg: 100 ml/kg = 1000 ml
      – Second 10 kg: 50 ml/kg = 500 ml
      – Subsequent kg: 20 ml/kg = 40 ml

      Total daily maintenance fluid requirement: 1540 ml

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      13.3
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  • Question 65 - A 32-year-old woman presents with symptoms of painful urination and frequent urination. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with symptoms of painful urination and frequent urination. She is currently 16 weeks pregnant. A urine dipstick test reveals the presence of blood, protein, white blood cells, and nitrites. Based on her history of chronic kidney disease and an eGFR of 38 ml/minute, you diagnose her with a urinary tract infection (UTI) and decide to prescribe antibiotics. However, there are no culture or sensitivity results available. Which of the following antibiotics would be the most appropriate choice in this situation?

      Your Answer: Trimethoprim

      Correct Answer: Cefalexin

      Explanation:

      For the treatment of pregnant women with lower urinary tract infections (UTIs), it is recommended to provide them with an immediate prescription for antibiotics. It is important to consider their previous urine culture and susceptibility results, as well as any prior use of antibiotics that may have contributed to the development of resistant bacteria. Before starting antibiotics, it is advised to obtain a midstream urine sample from pregnant women and send it for culture and susceptibility testing.

      Once the microbiological results are available, it is necessary to review the choice of antibiotic. If the bacteria are found to be resistant, it is recommended to switch to a narrow-spectrum antibiotic whenever possible. The choice of antibiotics for pregnant women aged 12 years and over is summarized below:

      First-choice:
      – Nitrofurantoin 100 mg modified-release taken orally twice daily for 3 days, if the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is above 45 ml/minute.

      Second-choice (if there is no improvement in lower UTI symptoms with the first-choice antibiotic for at least 48 hours, or if the first-choice is not suitable):
      – Amoxicillin 500 mg taken orally three times daily for 7 days (only if culture results are available and show susceptibility).
      – Cefalexin 500 mg taken twice daily for 7 days.

      For alternative second-choice antibiotics, it is recommended to consult a local microbiologist and choose the appropriate antibiotics based on the culture and sensitivity results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      885
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - A 65-year-old patient who was diagnosed with Parkinson's disease five years ago has...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient who was diagnosed with Parkinson's disease five years ago has experienced a sudden and severe deterioration in her functioning and is now reliant on a wheelchair. Her motor symptoms affect both sides of her body, and she does not exhibit any noticeable tremors. Additionally, she experiences significant fluctuations in blood pressure, urinary incontinence, and has a high-pitched voice.

      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Progressive Supranuclear Palsy

      Correct Answer: Multiple System Atrophy

      Explanation:

      The Parkinson-plus syndromes are a group of neurodegenerative disorders that share similar features with Parkinson’s disease but also have additional clinical characteristics that set them apart from idiopathic Parkinson’s disease (iPD). These syndromes include Multiple System Atrophy (MSA), Progressive Supranuclear Palsy (PSP), Corticobasal degeneration (CBD), and Dementia with Lewy Bodies (DLB).

      Multiple System Atrophy (MSA) is a less common condition than iPD and PSP. It is characterized by the loss of cells in multiple areas of the nervous system. MSA progresses rapidly, often leading to wheelchair dependence within 3-4 years of diagnosis. Some distinguishing features of MSA include autonomic dysfunction, bladder control problems, erectile dysfunction, blood pressure changes, early-onset balance problems, neck or facial dystonia, and a high-pitched voice.

      To summarize the distinguishing features of the Parkinson-plus syndromes compared to iPD, the following table provides a comparison:

      iPD:
      – Symptom onset: One side of the body affected more than the other
      – Tremor: Typically starts at rest on one side of the body
      – Levodopa response: Excellent response
      – Mental changes: Depression
      – Balance/falls: Late in the disease
      – Common eye abnormalities: Dry eyes, trouble focusing

      MSA:
      – Symptom onset: Both sides equally affected
      – Tremor: Not common but may occur
      – Levodopa response: Minimal response (but often tried in early stages of disease)
      – Mental changes: Depression
      – Balance/falls: Within 1-3 years
      – Common eye abnormalities: Dry eyes, trouble focusing

      PSP:
      – Symptom onset: Both sides equally affected
      – Tremor: Less common, if present affects both sides
      – Levodopa response: Minimal response (but often tried in early stages of disease)
      – Mental changes: Personality changes, depression
      – Balance/falls: Within 1 year
      – Common eye abnormalities: Dry eyes, difficulty in looking downwards

      CBD:
      – Symptom onset: One side of the body affected more than the other
      – Tremor: Not common but may occur
      – Levodopa response: Minimal response (but often tried in early stages of disease)
      – Mental changes: Depression
      – Balance/falls: Within 1-3 years
      – Common eye abnormalities: Dry eyes, trouble focusing

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - A 30-year-old woman is given a medication for a medical condition during her...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman is given a medication for a medical condition during her pregnancy. As a result, the newborn is born with a neural tube defect and hemorrhagic disease of the newborn.
      Which of the listed medications is the most probable cause of these abnormalities?

      Your Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      There is an increased risk of neural tube defects in women with epilepsy who take carbamazepine during pregnancy, ranging from 2 to 10 times higher. Additionally, there is a risk of haemorrhagic disease of the newborn associated with this medication. It is crucial to have discussions about epilepsy treatments with women of childbearing age during the planning stages so that they can start early supplementation of folic acid.

      Below is a list outlining the most commonly encountered drugs that have adverse effects during pregnancy:

      ACE inhibitors (e.g. ramipril): If given in the second and third trimester, these medications can cause hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence.

      Aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamicin): These drugs can lead to ototoxicity and deafness in the fetus.

      Aspirin: High doses of aspirin can cause first-trimester abortions, delayed onset labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus. However, low doses (e.g. 75 mg) do not pose significant risks.

      Benzodiazepines (e.g. diazepam): When given late in pregnancy, these medications can result in respiratory depression and a neonatal withdrawal syndrome.

      Calcium-channel blockers: If given in the first trimester, these drugs can cause phalangeal abnormalities. If given in the second and third trimesters, they can lead to fetal growth retardation.

      Carbamazepine: This medication is associated with haemorrhagic disease of the newborn and neural tube defects.

      Chloramphenicol: Use of this drug can cause grey baby syndrome in newborns.

      Corticosteroids: If given in the first trimester, corticosteroids may cause orofacial clefts in the fetus.

      Danazol: When administered in the first trimester, danazol can cause masculinization of the female fetuses genitals.

      Finasteride: Pregnant women should avoid handling finasteride tablets. Crushed or broken tablets can be absorbed through the skin and affect male sex organ development in the fetus.

      Haloperidol: If given in the first trimester, haloperidol may cause limb malformations. In the third trimester, there is an increased risk of extrapyramidal symptoms in the neonate.

      Heparin: Use of heparin during pregnancy is associated with an acceptable bleeding rate and a low rate of thrombotic recurrence in the mother.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - You evaluate the capacity of a minor declining treatment in the Emergency Department....

    Incorrect

    • You evaluate the capacity of a minor declining treatment in the Emergency Department. In accordance with the 2005 Mental Capacity Act, which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer: An independent mental capacity advocate (IMCA) should be instructed prior to an urgent potentially life-saving decision

      Correct Answer: A person is not to be treated as unable to make a decision unless all practicable steps have been taken to help him or her

      Explanation:

      The Act establishes five principles that aim to govern decisions made under the legislation:

      1. Capacity is presumed unless proven otherwise: It is assumed that a person has the ability to make decisions unless it is proven that they lack capacity.

      2. Assistance must be provided before determining incapacity: A person should not be considered unable to make a decision until all reasonable efforts have been made to support them in doing so.

      3. Unwise decisions do not indicate incapacity: Making a decision that others may consider unwise does not automatically mean that a person lacks capacity.

      4. Best interests must guide decision-making: All decisions made on behalf of an incapacitated person must be in their best interests.

      5. Least restrictive approach should be taken: Decisions should be made in a way that minimizes any restrictions on the individual’s fundamental rights and freedoms.

      If a decision significantly conflicts with these principles, it is unlikely to be lawful.

      A person is deemed to lack capacity if they are unable to:

      – Understand the relevant information related to the decision.
      – Retain the information in their memory.
      – Use or evaluate the information to make a decision.
      – Communicate their decision effectively, using any means necessary.

      When assessing capacity, it is important to consider the input of those close to the individual, if appropriate. Close friends and family may provide valuable insights, although their opinions should not unduly influence the assessment.

      In urgent situations where a potentially life-saving decision needs to be made, an IMCA (Independent Mental Capacity Advocate) does not need to be involved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies
      7.9
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  • Question 69 - A 40 year old male has been brought into the ED during the...

    Incorrect

    • A 40 year old male has been brought into the ED during the late hours of the evening after being discovered unresponsive lying on the sidewalk. The paramedics initiated Cardiopulmonary resuscitation which has been ongoing since the patient's arrival in the ED. The patient's core temperature is documented at 28ºC. How frequently would you administer adrenaline to a patient with this core temperature during CPR?

      Your Answer: Every 15 minutes

      Correct Answer: Withhold adrenaline

      Explanation:

      During CPR of a hypothermic patient, it is important to follow specific guidelines. If the patient’s core temperature is below 30ºC, resuscitation drugs, such as adrenaline, should be withheld. Once the core temperature rises above 30ºC, cardiac arrest drugs can be administered. However, if the patient’s temperature is between 30-35ºC, the interval for administering cardiac arrest drugs should be doubled. For example, adrenaline should be given every 6-10 minutes instead of the usual 3-5 minutes for a normothermic patient.

      Further Reading:

      Hypothermic cardiac arrest is a rare situation that requires a tailored approach. Resuscitation is typically prolonged, but the prognosis for young, previously healthy individuals can be good. Hypothermic cardiac arrest may be associated with drowning. Hypothermia is defined as a core temperature below 35ºC and can be graded as mild, moderate, severe, or profound based on the core temperature. When the core temperature drops, basal metabolic rate falls and cell signaling between neurons decreases, leading to reduced tissue perfusion. Signs and symptoms of hypothermia progress as the core temperature drops, initially presenting as compensatory increases in heart rate and shivering, but eventually ceasing as the temperature drops into moderate hypothermia territory.

      ECG changes associated with hypothermia include bradyarrhythmias, Osborn waves, prolonged PR, QRS, and QT intervals, shivering artifact, ventricular ectopics, and cardiac arrest. When managing hypothermic cardiac arrest, ALS should be initiated as per the standard ALS algorithm, but with modifications. It is important to check for signs of life, re-warm the patient, consider mechanical ventilation due to chest wall stiffness, adjust dosing or withhold drugs due to slowed drug metabolism, and correct electrolyte disturbances. The resuscitation of hypothermic patients is often prolonged and may continue for a number of hours.

      Pulse checks during CPR may be difficult due to low blood pressure, and the pulse check is prolonged to 1 minute for this reason. Drug metabolism is slowed in hypothermic patients, leading to a build-up of potentially toxic plasma concentrations of administered drugs. Current guidance advises withholding drugs if the core temperature is below 30ºC and doubling the drug interval at core temperatures between 30 and 35ºC. Electrolyte disturbances are common in hypothermic patients, and it is important to interpret results keeping the setting in mind. Hypoglycemia should be treated, hypokalemia will often correct as the patient re-warms, ABG analyzers may not reflect the reality of the hypothermic patient, and severe hyperkalemia is a poor prognostic indicator.

      Different warming measures can be used to increase the core body temperature, including external passive measures such as removal of wet clothes and insulation with blankets, external active measures such as forced heated air or hot-water immersion, and internal active measures such as inhalation of warm air, warmed intravenous fluids, gastric, bladder, peritoneal and/or pleural lavage and high volume renal haemofilter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a brief history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a brief history of headaches, which are more severe in the morning, and blurred vision and ringing in the ears. Her headache is worse than usual today, and she has vomited multiple times. She has no significant medical history but does take the combined oral contraceptive pill. On examination, you find her to be overweight, and her neurological system examination reveals a sixth cranial nerve palsy, but no other focal neurology and fundoscopy reveals bilateral papilloedema.

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Glioblastoma

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic intracranial hypertension

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this case is idiopathic intracranial hypertension, also known as benign intracranial hypertension or pseudotumour cerebri. This condition typically affects overweight women in their 20s and 30s.

      The clinical features of idiopathic intracranial hypertension include:
      – Headache: The headache is usually worse in the morning and evenings, relieved by standing, and worsened when lying down. It can also be aggravated by coughing and sneezing. Some patients may experience pain around the shoulder girdle.
      – Nausea and vomiting
      – Visual field defects: These develop gradually over time.
      – 6th nerve palsy and diplopia
      – Bilateral papilloedema

      To investigate this condition, the patient should undergo a CT scan and/or MRI of the brain, as well as a lumbar puncture to measure the opening pressure and analyze the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).

      The primary treatment goal for idiopathic intracranial hypertension is to prevent visual loss. This can be achieved through one of the following strategies:
      – Repeated lumbar puncture to control intracranial pressure (ICP)
      – Medical treatment with acetazolamide
      – Surgical decompression of the optic nerve sheath

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of difficulty swallowing for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of difficulty swallowing for the past 6 months. Her dysphagia affects both solids and liquids and has been getting worse over time. Additionally, she has noticed that her fingers turn purple when exposed to cold temperatures. On examination, her fingers appear swollen and the skin over them is thickened. There are also visible telangiectasias.
      Which of the following autoantibodies is most specific for the underlying condition in this case?

      Your Answer: Anti-Smith

      Correct Answer: Anti-centromere

      Explanation:

      Scleroderma disorders are a group of connective tissue disorders that affect multiple systems in the body. These disorders are characterized by damage to endothelial cells, oxidative stress, inflammation around blood vessels, and the activation of fibroblasts leading to fibrosis. Autoantibodies also play a significant role in the development of these conditions.

      Scleroderma, which refers to thickened skin, can also involve internal organs, resulting in a condition called systemic sclerosis. Systemic sclerosis can be further classified into two types: limited cutaneous involvement and diffuse involvement.

      The cardinal features of limited cutaneous involvement, such as in CREST syndrome, include subcutaneous calcifications (calcinosis), Raynaud’s phenomenon leading to ischemia in the fingers or organs, difficulty swallowing (dysphagia) or painful swallowing (odynophagia) due to oesophageal dysmotility, localized thickening and tightness of the skin in the fingers and toes (sclerodactyly), and abnormal dilatation of small blood vessels (telangiectasia).

      In the case of the patient mentioned in this question, they present with progressive dysphagia and Raynaud’s phenomenon. Physical examination reveals sclerodactyly and telangiectasia. These findings strongly suggest a diagnosis of systemic sclerosis with limited cutaneous involvement. The most specific autoantibody associated with this condition is anti-centromere.

      It is important to note that anti-dsDNA and anti-Smith antibodies are typically seen in systemic lupus erythematosus, while anti-Jo1 is associated with polymyositis and dermatomyositis. Anti-SS-B (also known as anti-La antibody) is commonly found in Sjogren’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - You examine the blood test results of a patient in the resuscitation room...

    Incorrect

    • You examine the blood test results of a patient in the resuscitation room who is experiencing an Addisonian crisis. What is the most probable SINGLE biochemical characteristic that will be observed?

      Your Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Correct Answer: Increased ACTH level

      Explanation:

      Addison’s disease is characterized by several classical biochemical features. One of these features is an elevated level of ACTH, which is the body’s attempt to stimulate the adrenal glands. Additionally, individuals with Addison’s disease often experience hyponatremia, which is a decrease in the level of sodium in the blood. Another common feature is hyperkalemia, which refers to an excessive amount of potassium in the blood. Furthermore, individuals with Addison’s disease may also experience hypercalcemia, which is an elevated level of calcium in the blood. Hypoglycemia, which is low blood sugar, is another characteristic feature of this disease. Lastly, metabolic acidosis, which refers to an imbalance in the body’s acid-base levels, is also commonly observed in individuals with Addison’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - A 16 year old male is brought into the emergency department as he...

    Incorrect

    • A 16 year old male is brought into the emergency department as he has become disoriented and lethargic over the past day. Initial tests suggest a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis. A blue 20g cannula has been inserted to administer intravenous fluids. What is the estimated maximum rate of flow through a 20g cannula?

      Your Answer: 360 ml/minute

      Correct Answer: 60 ml/minute

      Explanation:

      The size of the cannula used for IV fluid infusion determines the maximum flow rate. For a 20g cannula, the maximum flow rate is around 60 ml per minute. As a result, the fastest infusion time through a 20g cannula is approximately 15 minutes for a maximum volume of 1000 ml.

      Further Reading:

      Peripheral venous cannulation is a procedure that should be performed following established guidelines to minimize the risk of infection, injury, extravasation, and early failure of the cannula. It is important to maintain good hand hygiene, use personal protective equipment, ensure sharps safety, and employ an aseptic non-touch technique during the procedure.

      According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), the skin should be disinfected with a solution of 2% chlorhexidine gluconate and 70% alcohol before inserting the catheter. It is crucial to allow the disinfectant to completely dry before inserting the cannula.

      The flow rates of IV cannulas can vary depending on factors such as the gauge, color, type of fluid used, presence of a bio-connector, length of the cannula, and whether the fluid is drained under gravity or pumped under pressure. However, the following are typical flow rates for different gauge sizes: 14 gauge (orange) has a flow rate of 270 ml/minute, 16 gauge (grey) has a flow rate of 180 ml/minute, 18 gauge (green) has a flow rate of 90 ml/minute, 20 gauge (pink) has a flow rate of 60 ml/minute, and 22 gauge (blue) has a flow rate of 36 ml/minute. These flow rates are based on infusing 1000 ml of normal saline under ideal circumstances, but they may vary in practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Resus
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - A 21 year old male is brought to the emergency department by his...

    Incorrect

    • A 21 year old male is brought to the emergency department by his mother. The patient had been out drinking with friends at a bar but after an argument his friends left in a cab and the patient decided to walk the 10 miles home intoxicated. The outside air temperature was -2ºC. His mother went out looking for him and found him shivering on the way home. A core temperature is recorded as 32.3ºC. Which of the following best describes this patient?

      Your Answer: Profound hypothermia

      Correct Answer: Mild hypothermia

      Explanation:

      Mild hypothermia is indicated by core temperatures ranging from 32-35ºC.

      Further Reading:

      Hypothermia is defined as a core temperature below 35ºC and can be graded as mild, moderate, severe, or profound based on the core temperature. When the core temperature drops, the basal metabolic rate decreases and cell signaling between neurons decreases, leading to reduced tissue perfusion. This can result in decreased myocardial contractility, vasoconstriction, ventilation-perfusion mismatch, and increased blood viscosity. Symptoms of hypothermia progress as the core temperature drops, starting with compensatory increases in heart rate and shivering, and eventually leading to bradyarrhythmias, prolonged PR, QRS, and QT intervals, and cardiac arrest.

      In the management of hypothermic cardiac arrest, ALS should be initiated with some modifications. The pulse check during CPR should be prolonged to 1 minute due to difficulty in obtaining a pulse. Rewarming the patient is important, and mechanical ventilation may be necessary due to stiffness of the chest wall. Drug metabolism is slowed in hypothermic patients, so dosing of drugs should be adjusted or withheld. Electrolyte disturbances are common in hypothermic patients and should be corrected.

      Frostbite refers to a freezing injury to human tissue and occurs when tissue temperature drops below 0ºC. It can be classified as superficial or deep, with superficial frostbite affecting the skin and subcutaneous tissues, and deep frostbite affecting bones, joints, and tendons. Frostbite can be classified from 1st to 4th degree based on the severity of the injury. Risk factors for frostbite include environmental factors such as cold weather exposure and medical factors such as peripheral vascular disease and diabetes.

      Signs and symptoms of frostbite include skin changes, cold sensation or firmness to the affected area, stinging, burning, or numbness, clumsiness of the affected extremity, and excessive sweating, hyperemia, and tissue gangrene. Frostbite is diagnosed clinically and imaging may be used in some cases to assess perfusion or visualize occluded vessels. Management involves moving the patient to a warm environment, removing wet clothing, and rapidly rewarming the affected tissue. Analgesia should be given as reperfusion is painful, and blisters should be de-roofed and aloe vera applied. Compartment syndrome is a risk and should be monitored for. Severe cases may require surgical debridement of amputation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
      21.8
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  • Question 75 - A 35-year-old woman has experienced a fracture of the left humerus. During examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman has experienced a fracture of the left humerus. During examination, it is found that she has weakness in extending her wrist and metacarpophalangeal joints, leading to wrist drop and an inability to grip with her left hand. However, she still has preserved extension of the elbow. Additionally, there is a loss of sensation over the dorsal aspect of the forearm from below the elbow to the 1st dorsal interosseous.
      Which nerve has been damaged in this particular case?

      Your Answer: Median nerve

      Correct Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      Radial nerve injuries often occur in conjunction with fractures of the humerus. The most common cause of a radial nerve palsy is external compression or trauma to the radial nerve as it passes through the spiral groove in the middle of the humerus.

      There are several factors that can lead to damage of the radial nerve in the spiral groove. These include trauma, such as a fracture in the middle of the humerus, compression known as Saturday night palsy, and iatrogenic causes like injections.

      When the radial nerve is injured within the spiral groove, it results in weakness of the wrist and metacarpophalangeal joints. However, elbow extension is not affected because the branches to the triceps and anconeus muscles originate before the spiral groove. The interphalangeal joints remain unaffected as well, as they are supplied by the median and ulnar nerves. Sensory loss will be experienced over the dorsal aspect of the forearm, extending from below the elbow to the 1st dorsal interosseous.

      In contrast, injury to the radial nerve in the axilla will also cause weakness of elbow extension and sensory loss in the distribution of the more proximal cutaneous branches. This helps distinguish it from injury in the spiral groove.

      In the forearm, the posterior interosseous branch of the radial nerve can also be damaged. This can occur due to injury to the radial head or entrapment in the supinator muscle under the arcade of Frohse. However, this type of injury can be easily distinguished from injury in the spiral groove because there is no sensory involvement and no wrist drop, thanks to the preservation of the extensor carpi radialis longus. Nonetheless, there will still be weakness in the wrist and fingers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - A 40-year-old man presents with a history of a headache, fever and increasing...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man presents with a history of a headache, fever and increasing fatigue. He has had a recent flu-like illness but deteriorated this morning. He has marked neck stiffness and sensitivity to light. On examination, you note a petechial rash on his abdomen.
      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Enterovirus

      Correct Answer: Neisseria meningitidis group B

      Explanation:

      This woman is displaying symptoms and signs that are in line with a diagnosis of meningococcal septicaemia. In the United Kingdom, the majority of cases of meningococcal septicaemia are caused by Neisseria meningitidis group B.

      The implementation of a vaccination program for Neisseria meningitidis group C has significantly reduced the prevalence of this particular type. However, a vaccine for group B disease is currently undergoing clinical trials and is not yet accessible for widespread use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - A 4 year old boy is brought to the emergency department by his...

    Incorrect

    • A 4 year old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents due to a 4 day history of fever, irritability, and pain in his left ear. On examination, there is a tender, erythematous, boggy swelling behind his ear. What is the most probable underlying cause?

      Your Answer: Dental abscess

      Correct Answer: Acute otitis media

      Explanation:

      Acute mastoiditis commonly occurs as a complication of acute otitis media (AOM). In this case, the patient exhibits symptoms indicative of acute mastoiditis. The infection typically spreads from the middle ear tympanic cavity (acute otitis media) to the mastoid antrum through a narrow canal within the petrous temporal bone.

      Further Reading:

      Mastoiditis is an infection of the mastoid air cells, which are located in the mastoid process of the skull. It is usually caused by the spread of infection from the middle ear. The most common organism responsible for mastoiditis is Streptococcus pneumoniae, but other bacteria and fungi can also be involved. The infection can spread to surrounding structures, such as the meninges, causing serious complications like meningitis or cerebral abscess.

      Mastoiditis can be classified as acute or chronic. Acute mastoiditis is a rare complication of acute otitis media, which is inflammation of the middle ear. It is characterized by severe ear pain, fever, swelling and redness behind the ear, and conductive deafness. Chronic mastoiditis is usually associated with chronic suppurative otitis media or cholesteatoma and presents with recurrent episodes of ear pain, headache, and fever.

      Mastoiditis is more common in children, particularly those between 6 and 13 months of age. Other risk factors include immunocompromised patients, those with intellectual impairment or communication difficulties, and individuals with cholesteatoma.

      Diagnosis of mastoiditis involves a physical examination, blood tests, ear swab for culture and sensitivities, and imaging studies like contrast-enhanced CT or MRI. Treatment typically involves referral to an ear, nose, and throat specialist, broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics, pain relief, and myringotomy (a procedure to drain fluid from the middle ear).

      Complications of mastoiditis are rare but can be serious. They include intracranial abscess, meningitis, subperiosteal abscess, neck abscess, venous sinus thrombosis, cranial nerve palsies, hearing loss, labyrinthitis, extension to the zygoma, and carotid artery arteritis. However, most patients with mastoiditis have a good prognosis and do not experience long-term ear problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - A 28 year old male arrives at the emergency department with a complaint...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old male arrives at the emergency department with a complaint of a painful throat that began 5 days ago but has worsened significantly in the last 24 hours. The patient is experiencing difficulty in opening his mouth due to the pain. Upon examination, you determine that the patient is suffering from a peritonsillar abscess. What is the most probable causative organism in this case?

      Your Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae

      Correct Answer: Streptococcus pyogenes

      Explanation:

      The most probable causative organism in a case of peritonsillar abscess is Streptococcus pyogenes.

      A peritonsillar abscess, also known as quinsy, is a collection of pus that forms between the palatine tonsil and the pharyngeal muscles. It is often a complication of acute tonsillitis and is most commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. The exact cause of a peritonsillar abscess is not fully understood, but it is believed to occur when infection spreads beyond the tonsillar capsule or when small salivary glands in the supratonsillar space become blocked.

      The most common causative organisms for a peritonsillar abscess include Streptococcus pyogenes, Staphylococcus aureus, Haemophilus influenzae, and anaerobic organisms. Risk factors for developing a peritonsillar abscess include smoking, periodontal disease, male sex, and a previous episode of the condition.

      Clinical features of a peritonsillar abscess include severe throat pain, difficulty opening the mouth (trismus), fever, headache, drooling of saliva, bad breath, painful swallowing, altered voice, ear pain on the same side, neck stiffness, and swelling of the soft palate. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical presentation, but imaging scans such as CT or ultrasound may be used to assess for complications or determine the best site for drainage.

      Treatment for a peritonsillar abscess involves pain relief, intravenous antibiotics to cover for both aerobic and anaerobic organisms, intravenous fluids if swallowing is difficult, and drainage of the abscess either through needle aspiration or incision and drainage. Tonsillectomy may be recommended to prevent recurrence. Complications of a peritonsillar abscess can include sepsis, spread to deeper neck tissues leading to necrotizing fasciitis or retropharyngeal abscess, airway compromise, recurrence of the abscess, aspiration pneumonia, erosion into major blood vessels, and complications related to the causative organism. All patients with a peritonsillar abscess should be referred to an ear, nose, and throat specialist for further management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - A 35-year-old woman comes in with a painful, red right eye. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes in with a painful, red right eye. She has a history of ankylosing spondylitis (AS).

      What is the MOST frequently occurring eye complication associated with AS?

      Your Answer: Keratitis

      Correct Answer: Uveitis

      Explanation:

      Uveitis is the most prevalent eye complication that arises in individuals with ankylosing spondylitis (AS). Approximately one out of every three patients with AS will experience uveitis at some stage. The symptoms of uveitis include a red and painful eye, along with photophobia and blurred vision. Additionally, patients may notice the presence of floaters. The primary treatment for uveitis involves the use of corticosteroids, and it is crucial for patients to seek immediate attention from an ophthalmologist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - A 35 year old male presents to the emergency department with complaints of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old male presents to the emergency department with complaints of palpitations. An ECG is conducted, revealing a regular narrow complex supraventricular tachycardia with a rate of around 160 bpm. There are no signs of ST elevation or depression. The patient's vital signs are as follows:

      Blood pressure: 128/76 mmHg
      Pulse rate: 166
      Respiration rate: 19
      Oxygen saturations: 97% on room air

      What would be the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Amiodarone 300 mg IV

      Correct Answer: Vagal manoeuvres

      Explanation:

      In stable patients with SVT, it is recommended to first try vagal manoeuvres before resorting to drug treatment. This approach is particularly applicable to patients who do not exhibit any adverse features, as mentioned in the case above.

      Further Reading:

      Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is a type of tachyarrhythmia that originates from the atria or above the bundle of His in the heart. It includes all atrial and junctional tachycardias, although atrial fibrillation is often considered separately. SVT typically produces a narrow QRS complex tachycardia on an electrocardiogram (ECG), unless there is an underlying conduction abnormality below the atrioventricular (AV) node. Narrow complex tachycardias are considered SVTs, while some broad complex tachycardias can also be SVTs with co-existent conduction delays.

      SVT can be classified into three main subtypes based on where it arises: re-entrant accessory circuits (the most common type), atrial tachycardias, and junctional tachycardias. The most common SVTs are AVNRT (AV nodal re-entry tachycardia) and AVRT (AV re-entry tachycardia), which arise from accessory circuits within the heart. AVNRT involves an accessory circuit within the AV node itself, while AVRT involves an accessory pathway between the atria and ventricles that allows additional electrical signals to trigger the AV node.

      Atrial tachycardias originate from abnormal foci within the atria, except for the SA node, AV node, or accessory pathway. Junctional tachycardias arise in the AV junction. The ECG features of SVTs vary depending on the type. Atrial tachycardias may have abnormal P wave morphology, an isoelectric baseline between P waves (in atrial flutter), and inverted P waves in certain leads. AVNRT may show pseudo R waves in V1 or pseudo S waves in certain leads, with an RP interval shorter than the PR interval. AVRT (WPW) may exhibit a delta wave on a resting ECG and retrograde P waves in the ST segment, with an RP interval shorter than the PR interval. Junctional tachycardias may have retrograde P waves before, during, or after the QRS complex, with inverted P waves in certain leads and upright P waves in others.

      Treatment of SVT follows the 2021 resuscitation council algorithm for tachycardia with a pulse. The algorithm provides guidelines for managing stable patients with SVT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - A 67 year old male is brought into the emergency department by concerned...

    Incorrect

    • A 67 year old male is brought into the emergency department by concerned neighbors. They inform you that the patient is frequently intoxicated, but this morning they discovered him wandering in the street and he appeared extremely disoriented and unstable, which is out of character for him. Upon reviewing the patient's medical records, you observe that he has been experiencing abnormal liver function tests for several years and a history of alcohol abuse has been documented. You suspect that the underlying cause of his condition is Wernicke's encephalopathy.

      Your Answer: Portal hypertension

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B1 deficiency

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a sudden neurological condition that occurs due to a lack of thiamine (vitamin B1). It is characterized by symptoms such as confusion, difficulty with coordination, low body temperature, low blood pressure, involuntary eye movements, and vomiting.

      Further Reading:

      Alcoholic liver disease (ALD) is a spectrum of disease that ranges from fatty liver at one end to alcoholic cirrhosis at the other. Fatty liver is generally benign and reversible with alcohol abstinence, while alcoholic cirrhosis is a more advanced and irreversible form of the disease. Alcoholic hepatitis, which involves inflammation of the liver, can lead to the development of fibrotic tissue and cirrhosis.

      Several factors can increase the risk of progression of ALD, including female sex, genetics, advanced age, induction of liver enzymes by drugs, and co-existent viral hepatitis, especially hepatitis C.

      The development of ALD is multifactorial and involves the metabolism of alcohol in the liver. Alcohol is metabolized to acetaldehyde and then acetate, which can result in the production of damaging reactive oxygen species. Genetic polymorphisms and co-existing hepatitis C infection can enhance the pathological effects of alcohol metabolism.

      Patients with ALD may be asymptomatic or present with non-specific symptoms such as abdominal discomfort, vomiting, or anxiety. Those with alcoholic hepatitis may have fever, anorexia, and deranged liver function tests. Advanced liver disease can manifest with signs of portal hypertension and cirrhosis, such as ascites, varices, jaundice, and encephalopathy.

      Screening tools such as the AUDIT questionnaire can be used to assess alcohol consumption and identify hazardous or harmful drinking patterns. Liver function tests, FBC, and imaging studies such as ultrasound or liver biopsy may be performed to evaluate liver damage.

      Management of ALD involves providing advice on reducing alcohol intake, administering thiamine to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and addressing withdrawal symptoms with benzodiazepines. Complications of ALD, such as intoxication, encephalopathy, variceal bleeding, ascites, hypoglycemia, and coagulopathy, require specialized interventions.

      Heavy alcohol use can also lead to thiamine deficiency and the development of Wernicke Korsakoff’s syndrome, characterized by confusion, ataxia, hypothermia, hypotension, nystagmus, and vomiting. Prompt treatment is necessary to prevent progression to Korsakoff’s psychosis.

      In summary, alcoholic liver disease is a spectrum of disease that can range from benign fatty liver to irreversible cirrhosis. Risk factors for progression include female sex, genetics, advanced age, drug-induced liver enzyme induction, and co-existing liver conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - A 40-year-old businessman presents with sudden onset breathlessness and right-sided pleuritic chest pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old businessman presents with sudden onset breathlessness and right-sided pleuritic chest pain. He has recently returned from a trip to Australia. He has no past medical history of note and suffers no known allergies. His observations are as follows: temperature 38.2°C, oxygen saturations 93% on air, heart rate 110 bpm, respiratory rate 24, blood pressure 122/63 mmHg. On examination, he has a tender, swollen left calf, and his chest is clear.

      What is the SINGLE investigation most likely to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: ECG

      Correct Answer: CT pulmonary angiogram

      Explanation:

      The clinical history and examination strongly suggest that the patient has a pulmonary embolism caused by a deep vein thrombosis in his right leg.

      The typical symptoms of a pulmonary embolism include shortness of breath, chest pain that worsens with breathing, coughing, and/or coughing up blood. There may also be symptoms indicating the presence of a deep vein thrombosis. Other signs include rapid breathing and heart rate, fever, and in severe cases, signs of shock, an abnormal heart rhythm, and increased pressure in the jugular veins.

      Given the patient’s high probability Wells score, it is recommended that an immediate CT pulmonary angiogram (CPTA) be performed. This test is considered the most reliable method for diagnosing a pulmonary embolism. A d-dimer test would not provide any additional benefit in this case. While a chest X-ray and ECG may provide useful information, they alone cannot confirm the diagnosis.

      For patients who have an allergy to contrast media, renal impairment, or are at high risk from radiation exposure, a ventilation/perfusion single-photon emission computed tomography (V/Q SPECT) scan or a V/Q planar scan can be offered as an alternative to CTPA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - A 32-year-old woman who is 38 weeks pregnant is brought to the Emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman who is 38 weeks pregnant is brought to the Emergency Department after experiencing sudden difficulty breathing. Shortly after her arrival, she loses consciousness. The cardiac monitor displays ventricular fibrillation, confirming cardiac arrest.
      Which of the following statements about cardiac arrest during pregnancy is NOT true?

      Your Answer: Perimortem Caesarean section should be performed within 5 minutes of the onset of the cardiac arrest

      Correct Answer: The uterus should be manually displaced to the right

      Explanation:

      Cardiac arrest during pregnancy is a rare occurrence, happening in approximately 16 out of every 100,000 live births. It is crucial to consider both the mother and the fetus when dealing with cardiac arrest in pregnancy, as the best way to ensure a positive outcome for the fetus is by effectively resuscitating the mother.

      The main causes of cardiac arrest during pregnancy include pre-existing cardiac disease, pulmonary embolism, hemorrhage, ectopic pregnancy, hypertensive disorders of pregnancy, amniotic fluid embolism, and suicide. Many cardiovascular problems associated with pregnancy are caused by compression of the inferior vena cava.

      To prevent decompensation or potential cardiac arrest during pregnancy, it is important to follow these steps when dealing with a distressed or compromised pregnant patient:

      – Place the patient in the left lateral position or manually displace the uterus to the left.
      – Administer high-flow oxygen, guided by pulse oximetry.
      – Give a fluid bolus if there is low blood pressure or signs of hypovolemia.
      – Re-evaluate the need for any medications currently being administered.
      – Seek expert help and involve obstetric and neonatal specialists early.
      – Identify and treat the underlying cause.

      In the event of cardiac arrest during pregnancy, in addition to following the standard guidelines for basic and advanced life support, the following modifications should be made:

      – Immediately call for expert help, including an obstetrician, anesthetist, and neonatologist.
      – Start CPR according to the standard ALS guidelines, but adjust the hand position slightly higher on the sternum.
      – Ideally establish IV or IO access above the diaphragm to account for potential compression of the inferior vena cava.
      – Manually displace the uterus to the left to relieve caval compression.
      – Tilt the table to the left side (around 15-30 degrees of tilt).
      – Perform early tracheal intubation to reduce the risk of aspiration (seek assistance from an expert anesthetist).
      – Begin preparations for an emergency Caesarean section.

      A perimortem Caesarean section should be performed within 5 minutes of the onset of cardiac arrest. This delivery will alleviate caval compression and increase the chances of successful resuscitation by improving venous return during CPR. It will also maximize the chances of the infant’s survival, as the best survival rate occurs when delivery is achieved within 5 minutes of the mother’s cardiac arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
      29.2
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - A 42-year-old man is brought into the emergency department with suspected methanol poisoning....

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man is brought into the emergency department with suspected methanol poisoning. You collect a blood gas sample. What acid-base disturbance is commonly associated with methanol poisoning?

      Your Answer: Raised anion gap alkalosis

      Correct Answer: Raised anion gap acidosis

      Explanation:

      Methanol poisoning is linked to an increase in anion gap acidosis.

      Further Reading:

      Arterial blood gases (ABG) are an important diagnostic tool used to assess a patient’s acid-base status and respiratory function. When obtaining an ABG sample, it is crucial to prioritize safety measures to minimize the risk of infection and harm to the patient. This includes performing hand hygiene before and after the procedure, wearing gloves and protective equipment, disinfecting the puncture site with alcohol, using safety needles when available, and properly disposing of equipment in sharps bins and contaminated waste bins.

      To reduce the risk of harm to the patient, it is important to test for collateral circulation using the modified Allen test for radial artery puncture. Additionally, it is essential to inquire about any occlusive vascular conditions or anticoagulation therapy that may affect the procedure. The puncture site should be checked for signs of infection, injury, or previous surgery. After the test, pressure should be applied to the puncture site or the patient should be advised to apply pressure for at least 5 minutes to prevent bleeding.

      Interpreting ABG results requires a systematic approach. The core set of results obtained from a blood gas analyser includes the partial pressures of oxygen and carbon dioxide, pH, bicarbonate concentration, and base excess. These values are used to assess the patient’s acid-base status.

      The pH value indicates whether the patient is in acidosis, alkalosis, or within the normal range. A pH less than 7.35 indicates acidosis, while a pH greater than 7.45 indicates alkalosis.

      The respiratory system is assessed by looking at the partial pressure of carbon dioxide (pCO2). An elevated pCO2 contributes to acidosis, while a low pCO2 contributes to alkalosis.

      The metabolic aspect is assessed by looking at the bicarbonate (HCO3-) level and the base excess. A high bicarbonate concentration and base excess indicate alkalosis, while a low bicarbonate concentration and base excess indicate acidosis.

      Analyzing the pCO2 and base excess values can help determine the primary disturbance and whether compensation is occurring. For example, a respiratory acidosis (elevated pCO2) may be accompanied by metabolic alkalosis (elevated base excess) as a compensatory response.

      The anion gap is another important parameter that can help determine the cause of acidosis. It is calculated by subtracting the sum of chloride and bicarbonate from the sum of sodium and potassium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - A 7-year-old child experiences an anaphylactic reaction after being stung by a bee....

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old child experiences an anaphylactic reaction after being stung by a bee.
      What dosage of IV hydrocortisone should be administered in this situation?

      Your Answer: 50 mg

      Correct Answer: 100 mg

      Explanation:

      Corticosteroids can be beneficial in preventing or reducing prolonged reactions. According to the current APLS guidelines, the recommended doses of hydrocortisone for different age groups are as follows:

      – Children under 6 months: 25 mg administered slowly via intramuscular (IM) or intravenous (IV) route.
      – Children aged 6 months to 6 years: 50 mg administered slowly via IM or IV route.
      – Children aged 6 to 12 years: 100 mg administered slowly via IM or IV route.
      – Children over 12 years: 200 mg administered slowly via IM or IV route.
      – Adults: 200 mg administered slowly via IM or IV route.

      It is important to note that the most recent ALS guidelines do not recommend the routine use of corticosteroids for treating anaphylaxis in adults. However, the current APLS guidelines still advocate for the use of corticosteroids in children to manage anaphylaxis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - A 45-year-old woman presents with multiple reddish-purple nodules on her arms and chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents with multiple reddish-purple nodules on her arms and chest that have developed over the past month. She has a known history of HIV infection.

      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Erythema multiforme

      Correct Answer: Kaposi’s sarcoma

      Explanation:

      Kaposi’s sarcoma (KS) is a type of cancer that affects the connective tissues. It is caused by a virus called human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8). This cancer is more likely to occur in individuals with weakened immune systems, such as those with HIV or those who have undergone organ transplants.

      The main symptom of KS is the development of skin lesions. These lesions initially appear as red-purple spots and quickly progress to become raised bumps and nodules. They can appear on any part of the body, but are most commonly found on the lower limbs, back, face, mouth, and genital area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - A 42-year-old male patient comes in with a pituitary tumor that has resulted...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old male patient comes in with a pituitary tumor that has resulted in a visual field defect.
      What type of visual field defect is he most likely experiencing?

      Your Answer: Contralateral homonymous hemianopia

      Correct Answer: Bitemporal hemianopia

      Explanation:

      The optic chiasm is situated just below the hypothalamus and is in close proximity to the pituitary gland. When the pituitary gland enlarges, it can impact the functioning of the optic nerve at this location. Specifically, the fibres from the nasal half of the retina cross over at the optic chiasm to form the optic tracts. Compression at the optic chiasm primarily affects these fibres, resulting in a visual defect that affects peripheral vision in both eyes, known as bitemporal hemianopia. There are several causes of optic chiasm lesions, with the most common being a pituitary tumor. Other causes include craniopharyngioma, meningioma, optic glioma, and internal carotid artery aneurysm. The diagram below provides a summary of the different visual field defects that can occur at various points in the visual pathway.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - A 72-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after experiencing respiratory distress....

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after experiencing respiratory distress. You observe that the patient has a tracheostomy tube in place, which the patient's wife informs you was inserted before undergoing radiation therapy. The patient finished radiation therapy one month ago. What should be the initial step in evaluating this patient?

      Your Answer: Hyper inflate the cuff

      Correct Answer: Remove inner tube

      Explanation:

      When a patient with a tracheostomy is experiencing difficulty breathing, the first step is to assess their condition and provide them with oxygen. If there is suspected obstruction, one of the initial steps to resolve it is to remove the inner tube of the tracheostomy. After that, the mouth and tracheostomy should be examined, and if the patient is breathing, high flow oxygen should be applied to both the mouth and the tracheostomy stoma site. The next steps in managing the patient would be to pass a suction catheter. If the catheter cannot be passed, the cuff should be deflated. If the patient does not stabilize or improve, the tracheostomy tube should be removed. This order of steps is summarized in the green algorithm.

      Further Reading:

      Patients with tracheostomies may experience emergencies such as tube displacement, tube obstruction, and bleeding. Tube displacement can occur due to accidental dislodgement, migration, or erosion into tissues. Tube obstruction can be caused by secretions, lodged foreign bodies, or malfunctioning humidification devices. Bleeding from a tracheostomy can be classified as early or late, with causes including direct injury, anticoagulation, mucosal or tracheal injury, and granulation tissue.

      When assessing a patient with a tracheostomy, an ABCDE approach should be used, with attention to red flags indicating a tracheostomy or laryngectomy emergency. These red flags include audible air leaks or bubbles of saliva indicating gas escaping past the cuff, grunting, snoring, stridor, difficulty breathing, accessory muscle use, tachypnea, hypoxia, visibly displaced tracheostomy tube, blood or blood-stained secretions around the tube, increased discomfort or pain, increased air required to keep the cuff inflated, tachycardia, hypotension or hypertension, decreased level of consciousness, and anxiety, restlessness, agitation, and confusion.

      Algorithms are available for managing tracheostomy emergencies, including obstruction or displaced tube. Oxygen should be delivered to the face and stoma or tracheostomy tube if there is uncertainty about whether the patient has had a laryngectomy. Tracheostomy bleeding can be classified as early or late, with causes including direct injury, anticoagulation, mucosal or tracheal injury, and granulation tissue. Tracheo-innominate fistula (TIF) is a rare but life-threatening complication that occurs when the tracheostomy tube erodes into the innominate artery. Urgent surgical intervention is required for TIF, and management includes general resuscitation measures and specific measures such as bronchoscopy and applying direct digital pressure to the innominate artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - You are preparing to conduct rapid sequence induction. What clinical observation, typically seen...

    Incorrect

    • You are preparing to conduct rapid sequence induction. What clinical observation, typically seen after administering suxamethonium, is not present when rocuronium is used for neuromuscular blockade?

      Your Answer: Skin flushing

      Correct Answer: Muscle fasciculations

      Explanation:

      When suxamethonium is administered for neuromuscular blockade during rapid sequence induction, one of the clinical observations typically seen is muscle fasciculations. However, when rocuronium is used instead, muscle fasciculations are not present.

      Further Reading:

      Rapid sequence induction (RSI) is a method used to place an endotracheal tube (ETT) in the trachea while minimizing the risk of aspiration. It involves inducing loss of consciousness while applying cricoid pressure, followed by intubation without face mask ventilation. The steps of RSI can be remembered using the 7 P’s: preparation, pre-oxygenation, pre-treatment, paralysis and induction, protection and positioning, placement with proof, and post-intubation management.

      Preparation involves preparing the patient, equipment, team, and anticipating any difficulties that may arise during the procedure. Pre-oxygenation is important to ensure the patient has an adequate oxygen reserve and prolongs the time before desaturation. This is typically done by breathing 100% oxygen for 3 minutes. Pre-treatment involves administering drugs to counter expected side effects of the procedure and anesthesia agents used.

      Paralysis and induction involve administering a rapid-acting induction agent followed by a neuromuscular blocking agent. Commonly used induction agents include propofol, ketamine, thiopentone, and etomidate. The neuromuscular blocking agents can be depolarizing (such as suxamethonium) or non-depolarizing (such as rocuronium). Depolarizing agents bind to acetylcholine receptors and generate an action potential, while non-depolarizing agents act as competitive antagonists.

      Protection and positioning involve applying cricoid pressure to prevent regurgitation of gastric contents and positioning the patient’s neck appropriately. Tube placement is confirmed by visualizing the tube passing between the vocal cords, auscultation of the chest and stomach, end-tidal CO2 measurement, and visualizing misting of the tube. Post-intubation management includes standard care such as monitoring ECG, SpO2, NIBP, capnography, and maintaining sedation and neuromuscular blockade.

      Overall, RSI is a technique used to quickly and safely secure the airway in patients who may be at risk of aspiration. It involves a series of steps to ensure proper preparation, oxygenation, drug administration, and tube placement. Monitoring and post-intubation care are also important aspects of RSI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - A 35-year-old woman comes in after being hit in the eye by a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes in after being hit in the eye by a piece of metal at her workplace. She has a deep cut on her upper eyelid and is experiencing intense eye pain and decreased vision.
      What would be the most useful approach for initially assessing this patient?

      Your Answer: Amsler grid test

      Correct Answer: The Seidel test

      Explanation:

      The Seidel test is a method used to assess ocular trauma. The procedure involves applying a 10% fluorescein strip to the affected area and examining it using a cobalt blue filter. If there is a corneal laceration with leakage of aqueous fluid, the dye will be diluted by the fluid, resulting in a visible stream.

      In addition to the Seidel test, there are several other important steps to be taken during an eye examination for trauma. These include inspecting the overall appearance of the eye, examining the lids and peri-orbital bones, assessing visual acuity in both eyes, testing visual fields by confrontation, evaluating eye movements, measuring pupil size and response to light and accommodation, checking for foreign bodies using a slit lamp, performing fundoscopy and assessing the red reflex.

      The Amsler grid test is a useful tool for detecting central visual field defects and aiding in the diagnosis of age-related macular degeneration. A positive Amsler test is indicated by the appearance of curved or wavy lines on the grid.

      Tonometry is a technique used to measure intraocular pressure (IOP), which is helpful in diagnosing glaucoma.

      Retinal photography is a sophisticated imaging process that involves using a digital camera to capture detailed pictures of the retina. It is primarily used to document the health of various structures in the eye, such as the optic nerve, posterior pole, macula, retina, and its blood vessels. However, it is not typically used as part of the initial evaluation for trauma.

      Eye pH measurement is a valuable tool in evaluating chemical eye injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 91 - A 45-year-old man presents with complaints of headaches. He recently started a new...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man presents with complaints of headaches. He recently started a new job and spends a significant amount of time on a computer. He admits to feeling more stressed than usual lately. He describes his headaches as a tight band around his head that sometimes extends into his neck. The headaches are more severe towards the end of the day and typically last for a couple of hours. He does not experience any aura, sensitivity to light, or nausea during an episode. The headaches occur approximately 4-5 days per month and are relieved by over-the-counter pain medication.

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Episodic tension-type headache

      Explanation:

      This patient’s history is indicative of episodic tension-type headache. Chronic tension-type headache is defined as experiencing headaches on more than 15 days per month.

      Migraine with typical aura presents with temporary visual disturbances such as hemianopia or scintillating scotoma that spreads. Migraine without aura must meet the criteria set by the International Headache Society, which are outlined below:

      1. The patient must have at least five attacks that meet criteria 2-4.
      2. The duration of each headache attack should be between 4 and 72 hours.
      3. The headache must have at least two of the following characteristics:
      – Located on one side of the head
      – Pulsating quality
      – Moderate or severe pain intensity
      – Aggravation or avoidance of routine physical activity (e.g., walking or climbing stairs)
      4. During the headache, the patient must experience at least one of the following:
      – Nausea and/or vomiting
      – Sensitivity to light (photophobia) and sound (phonophobia)
      5. The headache should not be attributed to another disorder.

      Medication overuse headache is suspected when a patient uses multiple medications, often at low doses, without experiencing any relief from their headaches. Combination medications containing barbiturates, codeine, and caffeine are frequently involved. The diagnosis can only be confirmed when the symptoms improve after discontinuing the medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 92 - A 32-year-old woman is given trimethoprim for a urinary tract infection while in...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman is given trimethoprim for a urinary tract infection while in her second trimester of pregnancy. As a result of this medication, the baby develops a birth defect.
      What is the most probable abnormality that will occur as a result of using this drug during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Grey baby syndrome

      Correct Answer: Neural tube defect

      Explanation:

      During the first trimester of pregnancy, the use of trimethoprim is linked to an increased risk of neural tube defects because it antagonizes folate. If it is not possible to use an alternative antibiotic, it is recommended that pregnant women taking trimethoprim also take high-dose folic acid. However, the use of trimethoprim in the second and third trimesters of pregnancy is considered safe.

      Below is a list outlining the commonly encountered drugs that have adverse effects during pregnancy:

      ACE inhibitors (e.g. ramipril): If given in the second and third trimesters, they can cause hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence.

      Aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamicin): They can cause ototoxicity and deafness.

      Aspirin: High doses can lead to first-trimester abortions, delayed onset labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus. However, low doses (e.g. 75 mg) do not pose significant risks.

      Benzodiazepines (e.g. diazepam): When given late in pregnancy, they can cause respiratory depression and a neonatal withdrawal syndrome.

      Calcium-channel blockers: If given in the first trimester, they can cause phalangeal abnormalities. If given in the second and third trimesters, they can lead to fetal growth retardation.

      Carbamazepine: It can cause hemorrhagic disease of the newborn and neural tube defects.

      Chloramphenicol: It can cause grey baby syndrome.

      Corticosteroids: If given in the first trimester, they may cause orofacial clefts.

      Danazol: If given in the first trimester, it can cause masculinization of the female fetuses genitals.

      Finasteride: Pregnant women should avoid handling finasteride as crushed or broken tablets can be absorbed through the skin and affect male sex organ development.

      Haloperidol: If given in the first trimester, it may cause limb malformations. If given in the third trimester, there is an increased risk of extrapyramidal symptoms in the neonate.

      Heparin: It can cause maternal bleeding and thrombocytopenia.

      Isoniazid: It can lead to maternal liver damage and neuropathy and seizures in the neonate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
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  • Question 93 - A 2-year-old toddler is brought to the emergency department by worried parents. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old toddler is brought to the emergency department by worried parents. The parents inform you that the child had a slight fever and a runny nose for 48 hours before developing a barking cough last night. During the examination, the child's temperature is recorded as 38.1ºC and you observe a high-pitched wheeze during inspiration.

      What is the most suitable initial treatment option?

      Your Answer: Nebulised ipratropium

      Correct Answer: Oral dexamethasone

      Explanation:

      Corticosteroids are the primary treatment for croup. In this case, the child’s symptoms align with croup. The recommended initial medication for croup is a one-time oral dose of dexamethasone, regardless of the severity of the condition. The dosage is typically 0.15mg per kilogram of the child’s weight.

      Further Reading:

      Croup, also known as laryngotracheobronchitis, is a respiratory infection that primarily affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough and can cause stridor (a high-pitched sound during breathing) and respiratory distress due to swelling of the larynx and excessive secretions. The majority of cases are caused by parainfluenza viruses 1 and 3. Croup is most common in children between 6 months and 3 years of age and tends to occur more frequently in the autumn.

      The clinical features of croup include a barking cough that is worse at night, preceded by symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection such as cough, runny nose, and congestion. Stridor, respiratory distress, and fever may also be present. The severity of croup can be graded using the NICE system, which categorizes it as mild, moderate, severe, or impending respiratory failure based on the presence of symptoms such as cough, stridor, sternal/intercostal recession, agitation, lethargy, and decreased level of consciousness. The Westley croup score is another commonly used tool to assess the severity of croup based on the presence of stridor, retractions, air entry, oxygen saturation levels, and level of consciousness.

      In cases of severe croup with significant airway obstruction and impending respiratory failure, symptoms may include a minimal barking cough, harder-to-hear stridor, chest wall recession, fatigue, pallor or cyanosis, decreased level of consciousness, and tachycardia. A respiratory rate over 70 breaths per minute is also indicative of severe respiratory distress.

      Children with moderate or severe croup, as well as those with certain risk factors such as chronic lung disease, congenital heart disease, neuromuscular disorders, immunodeficiency, age under 3 months, inadequate fluid intake, concerns about care at home, or high fever or a toxic appearance, should be admitted to the hospital. The mainstay of treatment for croup is corticosteroids, which are typically given orally. If the child is too unwell to take oral medication, inhaled budesonide or intramuscular dexamethasone may be used as alternatives. Severe cases may require high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline.

      When considering the differential diagnosis for acute stridor and breathing difficulty, non-infective causes such as inhaled foreign bodies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
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  • Question 94 - A 35-year-old accountant presents with a headache. Since she woke up this morning,...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old accountant presents with a headache. Since she woke up this morning, she describes a right-sided, severe, throbbing headache. She has had similar symptoms previously but feels that this is the worst she has ever had. Her work is very stressful at the moment. She has also vomited this morning. Her husband is with her and is anxious as his mother has recently been diagnosed with a brain tumor. He is really worried that his wife might have the same. On examination, the patient is normotensive with a heart rate of 72 beats per minute, regular. Her cranial nerve examination, including fundoscopy, is normal, as is the examination of her peripheral nervous system. She has no scalp tenderness.
      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tension headache

      Correct Answer: Migraine

      Explanation:

      Migraine without aura typically needs to meet the specific criteria set by the International Headache Society. These criteria include experiencing at least five attacks that meet the requirements outlined in criteria 2-4. The duration of these headache attacks should last between 4 to 72 hours. Additionally, the headache should exhibit at least two of the following characteristics: unilateral location, pulsating quality, moderate or severe pain intensity, and aggravation or avoidance of routine physical activity. Furthermore, during the headache, individuals should experience at least one of the following symptoms: nausea and/or vomiting, photophobia, and phonophobia. For more detailed information, you can refer to the guidelines provided by The British Association for the Study of Headache.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 95 - You review a 65-year-old man who has presented with visual problems. He has...

    Incorrect

    • You review a 65-year-old man who has presented with visual problems. He has been taking amiodarone for several years.
      Which SINGLE statement regarding the effects of amiodarone on the eye is true?

      Your Answer: Patients with corneal microdeposits often complain of seeing an ‘orange halo’

      Correct Answer: Corneal microdeposits are almost universally present in patients taking amiodarone for longer than six months

      Explanation:

      Corneal microdeposits are found in almost all individuals (over 90%) who have been taking amiodarone for more than six months, particularly at doses higher than 400 mg/day. These deposits generally do not cause any symptoms, although approximately 10% of patients may experience a perception of a ‘bluish halo’ around objects they see.

      Amiodarone can also have other effects on the eye, but these are much less common, occurring in only 1-2% of patients. These effects include optic neuropathy, nonarteritic anterior ischemic optic neuropathy (N-AION), optic disc swelling, and visual field defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - What is the mode of action of VX gas in a suspected CBRN...

    Correct

    • What is the mode of action of VX gas in a suspected CBRN incident with a high number of casualties?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase

      Explanation:

      The nerve agents, also known as nerve gases, are a group of highly toxic chemical warfare agents that were initially developed just before and during World War II.

      The first compounds to be created are referred to as the G agents (with G representing German, as they were discovered and synthesized by German scientists). These include Tabun (GA), Sarin (GB), and Soman (GD).

      In the 1950s, the V agents (with V standing for venomous) were synthesized, and they are approximately 10 times more poisonous than sarin. These include Venomous agent X (VX), Venomous agent E (VE), Venomous agent G (VG), and Venomous agent M (VM).

      One of the most well-known incidents involving the use of a nerve agent was the March 1995 Tokyo subway sarin attack. During this attack, Sarin was released into the Tokyo subway system during rush hour. As a result, over 5,000 people sought medical attention. Among them, 984 were moderately poisoned, 54 were severely poisoned, and 12 lost their lives.

      The nerve agents are organophosphorus esters that are chemically related to organophosphorus insecticides. They work by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase (AChE), an enzyme that breaks down the neurotransmitter acetylcholine (ACh). This leads to an accumulation of ACh at both muscarinic and nicotinic cholinergic receptors.

      Nerve agents can be absorbed through any body surface. When dispersed as a spray or aerosol, they can be absorbed through the skin, eyes, and respiratory tract. When dispersed as a vapor, they are primarily absorbed through the respiratory tract and eyes. If a sufficient amount of agent is absorbed, local effects are followed by generalized systemic effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Major Incident Management & PHEM
      11.2
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  • Question 97 - A 2-month-old baby girl is brought in by her parents with projectile vomiting....

    Incorrect

    • A 2-month-old baby girl is brought in by her parents with projectile vomiting. She is vomiting approximately every 45 minutes after each feed but remains hungry. On examination, she appears dehydrated, and you can palpate a small mass in the upper abdomen.

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute gastroenteritis

      Correct Answer: Infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

      Explanation:

      Infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is a condition characterized by the thickening and enlargement of the smooth muscle in the antrum of the stomach, leading to the narrowing of the pyloric canal. This narrowing can easily cause obstruction. It is a relatively common condition, occurring in about 1 in 500 live births, and is more frequently seen in males than females, with a ratio of 4 to 1. It is most commonly observed in first-born male children, although it can rarely occur in adults as well.

      The main symptom of infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is vomiting, which typically begins between 2 to 8 weeks of age. The vomit is usually non-bilious and forcefully expelled. It tends to occur around 30 to 60 minutes after feeding, leaving the baby hungry despite the vomiting. In some cases, there may be blood in the vomit. Other clinical features include persistent hunger, dehydration, weight loss, and constipation. An enlarged pylorus, often described as olive-shaped, can be felt in the right upper quadrant or epigastric in approximately 95% of cases. This is most noticeable at the beginning of a feed.

      The typical acid-base disturbance seen in this condition is hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis. This occurs due to the loss of hydrogen and chloride ions in the vomit, as well as decreased secretion of pancreatic bicarbonate. The increased bicarbonate ions in the distal tubule of the kidney lead to the production of alkaline urine. Hyponatremia and hypokalemia are also commonly present.

      Ultrasound scanning is the preferred diagnostic tool for infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, as it is reliable and easy to perform. It has replaced barium studies as the investigation of choice.

      Initial management involves fluid resuscitation, which should be tailored to the weight and degree of dehydration. Any electrolyte imbalances should also be corrected.

      The definitive treatment for this condition is surgical intervention, with the Ramstedt pyloromyotomy being the procedure of choice. Laparoscopic pyloromyotomy is also an effective alternative if suitable facilities are available. The prognosis for infants with this condition is excellent, as long as there is no delay in diagnosis and treatment initiation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatal Emergencies
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  • Question 98 - You evaluate a 65-year-old woman with a diagnosis of breast cancer. She presents...

    Incorrect

    • You evaluate a 65-year-old woman with a diagnosis of breast cancer. She presents with right arm swelling, redness, and pain. You order an ultrasound scan of her arm, which reveals a significant proximal deep vein thrombosis (DVT). She has no prior history of venous thromboembolism and has no significant medical history.
      What is the MOST suitable anticoagulant option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Low-molecular-weight heparin

      Correct Answer: Direct oral anticoagulant

      Explanation:

      Patients with active cancer and a confirmed deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) should be considered for treatment with a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) such as apixaban. If a DOAC is not suitable for the patient, alternative options should be offered. One option is the use of low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) alone. Another option is the combination of LMWH and a vitamin K antagonist (VKA) like warfarin, which should be given for at least 5 days or until the international normalized ratio (INR) reaches at least 2.0 on 2 consecutive readings. After achieving the desired INR, the patient can continue with a VKA alone. It is important to note that anticoagulation treatment should be offered for a period of 3-6 months. to the NICE guidance on the diagnosis and management of venous thromboembolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
      9
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  • Question 99 - You are treating an 82-year-old patient who is unable to bear weight after...

    Incorrect

    • You are treating an 82-year-old patient who is unable to bear weight after a fall. X-ray results confirm a fractured neck of femur. You inform the patient that they will be referred for surgery. In terms of the blood supply to the femoral neck, which artery is responsible for supplying blood to this area?

      Your Answer: Superficial femoral artery

      Correct Answer: Deep femoral artery

      Explanation:

      The femoral neck receives its blood supply from branches of the deep femoral artery, also known as the profunda femoris artery. The deep femoral artery gives rise to the medial and lateral circumflex branches, which form a network of blood vessels around the femoral neck.

      Further Reading:

      Fractured neck of femur is a common injury, especially in elderly patients who have experienced a low impact fall. Risk factors for this type of fracture include falls, osteoporosis, and other bone disorders such as metastatic cancers, hyperparathyroidism, and osteomalacia.

      There are different classification systems for hip fractures, but the most important differentiation is between intracapsular and extracapsular fractures. The blood supply to the femoral neck and head is primarily from ascending cervical branches that arise from an arterial anastomosis between the medial and lateral circumflex branches of the femoral arteries. Fractures in the intracapsular region can damage the blood supply and lead to avascular necrosis (AVN), with the risk increasing with displacement. The Garden classification can be used to classify intracapsular neck of femur fractures and determine the risk of AVN. Those at highest risk will typically require hip replacement or arthroplasty.

      Fractures below or distal to the capsule are termed extracapsular and can be further described as intertrochanteric or subtrochanteric depending on their location. The blood supply to the femoral neck and head is usually maintained with these fractures, making them amenable to surgery that preserves the femoral head and neck, such as dynamic hip screw fixation.

      Diagnosing hip fractures can be done through radiographs, with Shenton’s line and assessing the trabecular pattern of the proximal femur being helpful techniques. X-rays should be obtained in both the AP and lateral views, and if an occult fracture is suspected, an MRI or CT scan may be necessary.

      In terms of standards of care, it is important to assess the patient’s pain score within 15 minutes of arrival in the emergency department and provide appropriate analgesia within the recommended timeframes. Patients with moderate or severe pain should have their pain reassessed within 30 minutes of receiving analgesia. X-rays should be obtained within 120 minutes of arrival, and patients should be admitted within 4 hours of arrival.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Elderly Care / Frailty
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  • Question 100 - A 45-year-old patient is admitted to the emergency department with severe burns. It...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient is admitted to the emergency department with severe burns. It is determined that a central venous catheter needs to be inserted. Before the central line insertion, the skin on the front of the neck is numbed with 1% lidocaine.

      Which vein in the anterior neck triangle is utilized for the placement of the central venous line?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal jugular vein

      Explanation:

      The internal jugular vein is situated in the anterior triangle of the neck and is frequently utilized for the insertion of central lines. It is important for candidates to have a good understanding of the anatomy of the anterior triangle, including its contents, according to the RCEM.

      Further Reading:

      A central venous catheter (CVC) is a type of catheter that is inserted into a large vein in the body, typically in the neck, chest, or groin. It has several important uses, including CVP monitoring, pulmonary artery pressure monitoring, repeated blood sampling, IV access for large volumes of fluids or drugs, TPN administration, dialysis, pacing, and other procedures such as placement of IVC filters or venous stents.

      When inserting a central line, it is ideal to use ultrasound guidance to ensure accurate placement. However, there are certain contraindications to central line insertion, including infection or injury to the planned access site, coagulopathy, thrombosis or stenosis of the intended vein, a combative patient, or raised intracranial pressure for jugular venous lines.

      The most common approaches for central line insertion are the internal jugular, subclavian, femoral, and PICC (peripherally inserted central catheter) veins. The internal jugular vein is often chosen due to its proximity to the carotid artery, but variations in anatomy can occur. Ultrasound can be used to identify the vessels and guide catheter placement, with the IJV typically lying superficial and lateral to the carotid artery. Compression and Valsalva maneuvers can help distinguish between arterial and venous structures, and doppler color flow can highlight the direction of flow.

      In terms of choosing a side for central line insertion, the right side is usually preferred to avoid the risk of injury to the thoracic duct and potential chylothorax. However, the left side can also be used depending on the clinical situation.

      Femoral central lines are another option for central venous access, with the catheter being inserted into the femoral vein in the groin. Local anesthesia is typically used to establish a field block, with lidocaine being the most commonly used agent. Lidocaine works by blocking sodium channels and preventing the propagation of action potentials.

      In summary, central venous catheters have various important uses and should ideally be inserted using ultrasound guidance. There are contraindications to their insertion, and different approaches can be used depending on the clinical situation. Local anesthesia is commonly used for central line insertion, with lidocaine being the preferred agent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Resus
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  • Question 101 - A 65-year-old woman presents with symptoms of dysuria and urinary frequency. A urine...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with symptoms of dysuria and urinary frequency. A urine dipstick is performed, which reveals the presence of blood, protein, leukocytes and nitrites. Her only past medical history of note is benign bladder enlargement, for which she takes oxybutynin. You make a diagnosis of a urinary tract infection (UTI) and prescribe antibiotics. Her blood tests today show that her eGFR is >60 ml/minute.
      Which of the following antibiotics is the most appropriate to prescribe in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nitrofurantoin

      Explanation:

      For the treatment of men with lower urinary tract infection (UTI), it is recommended to offer an immediate prescription of antibiotics. However, certain factors should be taken into account. This includes considering previous urine culture and susceptibility results, as well as any history of antibiotic use that may have led to the development of resistant bacteria.

      Before starting antibiotics, it is important to obtain a midstream urine sample from men and send it for culture and susceptibility testing. This will help determine the most appropriate choice of antibiotic.

      Once the microbiological results are available, it is necessary to review the initial choice of antibiotic. If the bacteria are found to be resistant and symptoms are not improving, it is recommended to switch to a narrow-spectrum antibiotic whenever possible.

      The first-choice antibiotics for men with lower UTI are trimethoprim 200 mg taken orally twice daily for 7 days, or nitrofurantoin 100 mg modified-release taken orally twice daily for 7 days if the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is above 45 ml/minute.

      If there is no improvement in lower UTI symptoms after at least 48 hours on the first-choice antibiotics, or if the first-choice is not suitable, it is important to consider alternative diagnoses and follow the recommendations in the NICE guidelines on pyelonephritis (acute): antimicrobial prescribing or prostatitis (acute): antimicrobial prescribing. The choice of antibiotic should be based on recent culture and susceptibility results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
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  • Question 102 - A 6-year-old boy comes in with a headache, stiffness in his neck, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy comes in with a headache, stiffness in his neck, and sensitivity to light. He has a known allergy to penicillin and had to spend some time in the ICU because of it. He has also recently developed a rash of small red or purple spots on his arms and legs.

      What is the MOST suitable next course of action in managing his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chloramphenicol

      Explanation:

      This girl is displaying symptoms and signs that are consistent with a diagnosis of meningococcal septicaemia. It is crucial that she receives urgent antibiotic treatment. If a patient has a penicillin allergy, but not anaphylaxis, a third-generation cephalosporin like cefotaxime may be administered. However, in this particular case, the girl has a documented history of anaphylaxis to penicillin. It is important to note that up to 10% of patients who are allergic to penicillin may experience an adverse reaction to cephalosporins. In situations where there is a true anaphylactic reaction to penicillins, the British National Formulary (BNF) recommends the use of chloramphenicol as an alternative treatment option.