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  • Question 1 - A 6-month-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department by his concerned parents....

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department by his concerned parents. They have observed that he has been experiencing painful swelling in his fingers and toes over the past few days. They have also noticed that he has been excessively fatigued and that his skin and eyes appear to have a yellowish tint. The family recently relocated from Ghana but were unable to access prenatal or postnatal screening tests. The parents had plans to travel by plane for a pre-booked vacation in three days.
      What is the safe duration for the family to travel, given the probable diagnosis for this infant?

      Your Answer: Three days

      Correct Answer: Ten days

      Explanation:

      Guidelines for Air Travel with Sickle-Cell Disease

      Air travel can pose risks for individuals with sickle-cell disease, particularly following a sickle-cell crisis. The following guidelines are recommended:

      – Wait ten days before travelling to reduce the risk of complications such as deep vein thrombosis.
      – Patients with sickle-cell anaemia can travel with supplemental oxygen if needed, provided there are no recent crises or other medical concerns. Patients with sickle-cell trait can travel as normal.
      – Avoid flying within three days of a crisis to reduce the risk of sickling.
      – Patients without other medical concerns should not need to wait longer than four weeks following a crisis.
      – Short flights of 4-6 hours should not pose issues for those with sickle-cell disease, as long as they stay hydrated during travel. There is no need to wait six months following a crisis.

      By following these guidelines, individuals with sickle-cell disease can safely travel by air.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
      56.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 23-year-old woman was assaulted with a bat during a domestic altercation. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman was assaulted with a bat during a domestic altercation. The attack caused an oblique fracture in the middle of the humerus.
      Which nerve is most likely to be damaged during a midshaft humeral fracture?

      Your Answer: Ulnar nerve

      Correct Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      The radial nerve originates from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus and runs alongside the deep brachial artery in the spiral groove of the humeral shaft. It is susceptible to damage during midshaft humeral fractures, resulting in loss of sensation on the dorsal aspect of the hand and weakness in wrist extension. The ulnar nerve is located medially to the radial nerve and is not typically affected by midshaft humeral fractures. However, it can be injured by a fracture of the medial epicondyle, resulting in weakness in wrist flexion and loss of adduction and sensation in the medial aspect of the hand. The axillary nerve branches closer to the shoulder and is prone to injury with shoulder dislocation, causing weakness in the deltoid muscle. The median nerve is not located near the midshaft of the humerus but can be injured in various ways, resulting in sensory and motor deficits. The musculocutaneous nerve passes over the brachialis muscle and can be affected by entrapment or upper brachial plexus injury, causing weakness in elbow flexion and forearm supination and sensory loss on the radial aspect of the forearm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      30.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 30-year-old man presents with a left-sided, painless testicular lump. He has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents with a left-sided, painless testicular lump. He has a history of orchidopexy for an undescended testicle.
      On examination, there is a firm lump lying in the body of the left testicle. His body mass index is 27. There are a few left-sided inguinal lymph nodes palpable. You suspect testicular cancer.
      Which of the following findings on history and examination makes this provisional diagnosis more likely?

      Your Answer: Absence of tenderness

      Correct Answer: History of orchidopexy for an undescended testicle

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Risk Factors and Symptoms of Testicular Cancer

      Testicular cancer is a serious condition that can have life-altering consequences if not detected and treated early. One of the main risk factors for this type of cancer is a history of undescended testes, which increases the risk significantly. Additionally, men with a high body mass index may have a lower risk of developing testicular cancer.

      It’s important to note that the presence or absence of tenderness in the testicles does not necessarily indicate the presence of cancer. However, any man who notices a lump or mass in the body of the testicle should seek urgent medical attention to rule out the possibility of cancer.

      In terms of metastasis, testicular cancer commonly spreads to the para-aortic lymph nodes rather than the inguinal nodes. By understanding these risk factors and symptoms, men can take proactive steps to protect their health and detect any potential issues early on.

      Understanding the Risk Factors and Symptoms of Testicular Cancer

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      34.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 40-year-old man presents with generalized pruritus and excoriation marks on his skin....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man presents with generalized pruritus and excoriation marks on his skin. He has visible needle track marks in his antecubital fossae and shiny nails. His sclerae appear normal and he denies any significant medical or surgical history. He works as a truck driver and has no significant exposure to industrial chemicals or organic dust. He has no family history of atopy and smokes six cigarettes a day while only drinking alcohol socially once a week. What is the most appropriate initial test to perform?

      Your Answer: Allergen skin test

      Correct Answer: Blood for HIV antibody

      Explanation:

      Investigating Pruritus in a Male Patient

      Pruritus, or itching, can be a symptom of various underlying conditions. In the case of a male patient without apparent cause of pruritus, an HIV antibody test would be the most appropriate first-line investigation, along with other tests such as blood sugar, thyroid profile, and urea and electrolytes. This is because HIV infection can present with intractable pruritus before other symptoms appear. Allergen skin tests may be used in suspected allergic reactions, but they would be inappropriate in this case as there is no indication of such a reaction. The anti-M2 antibody test is used for primary biliary cirrhosis, which is a rare possibility in this case. A chest x-ray is not a useful first-line test as there is no indication of malignancy. Kidney diseases can give rise to pruritus, but there is no mention of kidney disease here. It is important to consider the patient’s medical history, including any potential risk factors such as IV drug abuse, which may be the source of infection. Further investigations may be necessary depending on the results of initial tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      125.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old woman who is 28 weeks pregnant attends the joint antenatal and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman who is 28 weeks pregnant attends the joint antenatal and diabetes clinic for a review of her gestational diabetes. She was diagnosed with gestational diabetes at 24 weeks gestation after glucose was found on a routine urine dipstick. Despite a 2-week trial of lifestyle modifications, there was no improvement. She was then started on metformin for the past 2 weeks, which has also not improved her daily glucose measurements. During examination, her symphysio-fundal height measures 28 cm and foetal heart rate is present. What is the next appropriate step in her management?

      Your Answer: Prescribe short-acting and long-acting insulin

      Correct Answer: Prescribe short-acting insulin only

      Explanation:

      The recommended treatment for gestational diabetes is short-acting insulin, not longer-acting subcutaneous insulin. If lifestyle modifications and metformin do not improve the condition, the next step is to provide education on how to dose insulin in accordance with meals and offer short-acting insulin. Glibenclamide and gliclazide are not recommended for use in pregnancy due to the risk of adverse birth outcomes and neonatal hypoglycemia. Prescribing both drugs together or long-acting insulin is also not recommended. Short-acting insulin alone provides better postprandial glucose control and is more flexible in responding to the varying diets of pregnant women.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      71.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What are the criteria that must be met for blood used in an...

    Incorrect

    • What are the criteria that must be met for blood used in an exchange transfusion for a neonate?

      Your Answer: Plasma reduced whole blood in CPD which is irradiated

      Correct Answer: Plasma reduced whole blood in CPD less than 5-days-old and irradiated

      Explanation:

      Requirements for Exchange Transfusion

      Exchange transfusion is a medical procedure that necessitates the use of blood that has been processed to meet specific criteria. The blood used must be plasma-reduced whole blood, irradiated, and less than five days old. These requirements are necessary to ensure that the blood is free from any contaminants that could cause adverse reactions in the patient. Additionally, the Rh group of the blood used must either be Rh negative or identical to the neonate to prevent haemolytic transfusion reactions. These precautions are taken to ensure the safety and well-being of the patient undergoing the exchange transfusion. Proper blood selection is crucial in ensuring the success of the procedure and minimizing the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 68-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) visits his general practitioner...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) visits his general practitioner (GP) complaining of increased wheezing, breathlessness, and a dry cough. He is able to speak in complete sentences.
      During the examination, the following observations are made:
      Temperature 37.2 °C
      Respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute
      Blood pressure 130/70 mmHg
      Heart rate 90 bpm
      Oxygen saturations 96% on room air
      He has diffuse expiratory wheezing.
      What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Acute Exacerbation of COPD

      When a patient presents with evidence of an acute non-infective exacerbation of COPD, treatment with oral corticosteroids is appropriate. Short-acting bronchodilators may also be necessary. If the patient’s observations are not grossly deranged, they can be managed in the community with instructions to seek further medical input if their symptoms worsen.

      Antibiotics are not indicated for non-infective exacerbations of COPD. However, if the patient has symptoms of an infective exacerbation, antibiotics may be prescribed based on the Anthonisen criteria.

      Referral to a hospital medical team for admission is not necessary unless the patient is haemodynamically unstable, hypoxic, or experiencing respiratory distress.

      A chest X-ray is not required unless there is suspicion of underlying pneumonia or pneumothorax. If the patient fails to respond to therapy or develops new symptoms, a chest X-ray may be considered at a later stage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      23.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old woman presents to Accident and Emergency with chest pain.
    For which of...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to Accident and Emergency with chest pain.
      For which of the following is a chest X-ray the least appropriate as an investigation to best manage the patient?

      Your Answer: Suspected pneumothorax

      Correct Answer: Suspected rib fracture without respiratory compromise

      Explanation:

      Indications for Chest X-Ray: When to Perform a CXR

      Chest X-rays (CXRs) are a common imaging modality used to diagnose various conditions affecting the chest. However, it is important to use CXRs judiciously and only when they are likely to provide useful information. Here are some indications for performing a CXR:

      Suspected rib fracture without respiratory compromise: In patients with musculoskeletal chest pain, a CXR should not be the first-line investigation. Instead, a CT scan of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis is more useful. However, if the patient is unstable, has respiratory compromise, or is a child with concerns for radiation exposure, a CXR can be considered.

      Suspected pleural effusion: A CXR is useful in diagnosing pleural effusions, which appear as an opacity with a meniscal superior edge.

      Suspected pneumonia: A CXR is useful in diagnosing pneumonia, which appears as consolidation in the affected lobe of the lung.

      Suspected sepsis: A CXR can be used as part of a septic screen, alongside cultures and urinalysis.

      Suspected pneumothorax: A CXR is diagnostic of a pneumothorax, which appears as air within the pleural space. Treatment modalities can be directed based on the size of the pneumothorax.

      In summary, CXRs should be used judiciously and only when they are likely to provide useful information. In some cases, a CT scan may be more useful as a first-line investigation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      52.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old pregnant woman presents to the Emergency department with complaints of severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old pregnant woman presents to the Emergency department with complaints of severe itching, nausea, and lethargy. She is currently 38 weeks pregnant and this is her second pregnancy. Upon examination, she appears to be clinically jaundiced, but her vital signs are within normal limits. Laboratory tests reveal the following results: Hb 121 g/l, Platelets 189 * 109/l, WBC 8.7 * 109/l, Bilirubin 90 µmol/l, ALP 540 u/l, ALT 120 u/l, γGT 130 u/l, Albumin 35 g/l, and INR 1.0. The acute viral hepatitis screen is negative. Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Viral hepatitis

      Correct Answer: Cholestasis of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      The most probable condition is cholestasis of pregnancy, which is indicated by intense itching, jaundice, obstructive liver function tests, normal white blood cell count, and absence of coagulopathy. Severe itching is a typical symptom of cholestasis of pregnancy, while acute fatty liver of pregnancy presents with non-specific symptoms such as fatigue, malaise, and nausea. Given the normal results of the full blood count and viral screening, it is unlikely that the patient has HELLP syndrome or viral hepatitis. Lastly, pre-eclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure and protein in the urine.

      Liver Complications During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, there are several liver complications that may arise. One of the most common is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which occurs in about 1% of pregnancies and is typically seen in the third trimester. Symptoms include intense itching, especially in the palms and soles, as well as elevated bilirubin levels. Treatment involves the use of ursodeoxycholic acid for relief and weekly liver function tests. Women with this condition are usually induced at 37 weeks to prevent stillbirth, although maternal morbidity is not typically increased.

      Another rare complication is acute fatty liver of pregnancy, which may occur in the third trimester or immediately after delivery. Symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting, headache, jaundice, and hypoglycemia. Severe cases may result in pre-eclampsia. ALT levels are typically elevated, and support care is the primary management until delivery can be performed once the patient is stabilized.

      Finally, conditions such as Gilbert’s and Dubin-Johnson syndrome may be exacerbated during pregnancy. Additionally, HELLP syndrome, which stands for haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets, is a serious complication that can occur in the third trimester and requires immediate medical attention. Overall, it is important for pregnant women to be aware of these potential liver complications and to seek medical attention if any symptoms arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      33.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old music teacher who presented to her General Practitioner (GP) with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old music teacher who presented to her General Practitioner (GP) with a skin lesion on her forearm. On examination, the lesion is a 4-mm red, raised lesion with multiple scratch marks surrounding it. The GP wishes to refer Mrs Green to a local dermatologist.
      Which of the following descriptions most accurately describes this lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: erythematosus papule with excoriation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Dermatological Terms: Describing Skin Lesions

      Accurately describing skin lesions is crucial in diagnosing skin conditions. Dermatological terms can help healthcare professionals communicate effectively about skin lesions. Here are some common terms:

      – Bulla: A fluid-filled lesion (blister) that may be single or multiloculated.
      – Crust: Dried serum, pus, or blood.
      – Erythema: Vascular dilation and inflammation producing redness on the skin.
      – Excoriation: Scratch marks, often self-induced and secondary to itching.
      – Lichenification: Chronic thickening and increased marking of the skin caused by scratching.
      – Macule: A change in color or texture of the skin without any change in elevation. When >1 cm in diameter, it is called a ‘patch.’
      – Nodule: A raised lesion with a rounded surface greater than 0.5 cm in diameter.
      – Papule: A solid, raised lesion less than 1 cm in diameter.
      – Plaque: An elevated plateau of the skin, often greater than 0.5 cm.
      – Pustule: A pus-filled lesion.
      – Scale: Flakes arising from an abnormal stratum corneum.
      – Telangiectasia: Small dilated blood vessels near the skin surface.
      – Vesicle: A fluid-filled lesion less than 1 cm in diameter.
      – Weal: A raised compressible area of dermal edema.

      Understanding Dermatological Terms: Describing Skin Lesions

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Ethics And Legal (0/1) 0%
Orthopaedics (0/1) 0%
Urology (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (0/2) 0%
Obstetrics (1/2) 50%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Acute Medicine And Intensive Care (1/1) 100%
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