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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman contacts her GP clinic seeking a more dependable form of contraception. She had visited her pharmacist the day before and received the levonorgestrel emergency contraceptive pill after engaging in unprotected sexual activity. As her healthcare provider, you recommend the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). What is the appropriate time for this patient to begin taking the COCP?
Your Answer: After she has had a negative pregnancy test
Correct Answer: Immediately
Explanation:Starting hormonal contraception immediately after using levonorgestrel emergency contraceptive pill is safe. However, if ulipristal was used, hormonal contraception should be started or restarted after 5 days, and barrier methods should be used during this time. Waiting for 7 or 30 days before starting hormonal contraception is unnecessary as levonorgestrel does not affect its efficacy. A pregnancy test is only recommended if the patient’s next period is more than 5-7 days late or lighter than usual, not routinely after taking levonorgestrel.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female visits her doctor with a complaint of oral ulcers that have been persistent for a month. She also reports experiencing swollen and painful hands for the past two weeks. During the examination, the doctor observes a malar rash on her face. To identify the underlying condition, the doctor orders some blood tests. What is the most sensitive antibody test for the underlying condition?
Your Answer: Anti-Smith
Correct Answer: ANA
Explanation:Anti-Ro is less sensitive than ANA as it is only present in a smaller number of cases.
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive, making it useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%), but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%), but only 30% of SLE patients test positive. Other antibody tests include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).
Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, but a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Proper monitoring of SLE is crucial for effective management of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 3
Correct
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An 80-year-old man presents to the surgical assessment unit for evaluation before an elective Hartmann's procedure in a week due to bowel cancer. He has a medical history of hypertension, atrial fibrillation, and a previous cerebrovascular accident. The registrar requests you to assess him before his surgery next week. During your review, you observe that he is currently on warfarin, and his INR is 2.6 today. All other blood tests are normal. What is the most appropriate approach to manage his anticoagulation during the peri-operative period?
Your Answer: Stop his warfarin and commence treatment dose low molecular weight heparin
Explanation:Managing anticoagulation during the peri-operative period can be difficult and depends on the type of anticoagulant used and the reasons for its use. It is important to assess each patient’s risk of venous thromboembolism and bleeding. In this case, the patient has a high risk of both thromboembolic disease and bleeding due to previous CVA, known AF, and major abdominal surgery. Therefore, the best approach would be to use a shorter-acting anticoagulant such as low molecular weight heparin at a treatment dose, while withholding warfarin. The low molecular weight heparin would be stopped the night before surgery, and mechanical prophylaxis would be used.
Venous thromboembolism (VTE) is a serious condition that can lead to severe health complications and even death. However, it is preventable. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines for 2018 to provide recommendations for the assessment and management of patients at risk of VTE in hospital. All patients admitted to the hospital should be assessed individually to identify risk factors for VTE development and bleeding risk. The department of health’s VTE risk assessment tool is recommended for medical and surgical patients. Patients with certain risk factors, such as reduced mobility, surgery, cancer, and comorbidities, are at increased risk of developing VTE. After assessing a patient’s VTE risk, healthcare professionals should compare it to their risk of bleeding to decide whether VTE prophylaxis should be offered. If indicated, VTE prophylaxis should be started as soon as possible.
There are two types of VTE prophylaxis: mechanical and pharmacological. Mechanical prophylaxis includes anti-embolism stockings and intermittent pneumatic compression devices. Pharmacological prophylaxis includes fondaparinux sodium, low molecular weight heparin (LMWH), and unfractionated heparin (UFH). The choice of prophylaxis depends on the patient’s individual risk factors and bleeding risk.
In general, medical patients deemed at risk of VTE after individual assessment are started on pharmacological VTE prophylaxis, provided that the risk of VTE outweighs the risk of bleeding and there are no contraindications. Surgical patients at low risk of VTE are treated with anti-embolism stockings, while those at high risk are treated with a combination of stockings and pharmacological prophylaxis.
Patients undergoing certain surgical procedures, such as hip and knee replacements, are recommended to receive pharmacological VTE prophylaxis to reduce the risk of VTE developing post-surgery. For fragility fractures of the pelvis, hip, and proximal femur, LMWH or fondaparinux sodium is recommended for a month if the risk of VTE outweighs the risk of bleeding.
Healthcare professionals should advise patients to stop taking their combined oral contraceptive pill or hormone replacement therapy four weeks before surgery and mobilize them as soon as possible after surgery. Patients should also ensure they are hydrated. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help prevent VTE and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 4
Correct
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A 55-year-old man, who has recently started a new relationship, presented with depression. He reported a decrease in libido, which was affecting his relationship. The physician decided to initiate testosterone therapy after conducting some blood tests.
Which of the following routes should not be used to administer testosterone?Your Answer: Intravenous (iv)
Explanation:Different Routes of Testosterone Administration and their Risks
Testosterone is a hormone that can be administered through various routes, each with its own risks and benefits. Intravenous administration is not recommended due to the risk of emboli formation and respiratory distress. Oral preparations are available but can be toxic to the liver, making transdermal formulations a safer option. Transdermal delivery can be achieved through gels, skin patches, or matrix patches, but absorption can vary. Intramuscular injections, such as undecanoate, release the drug slowly over a period of 2-6 weeks. Buccal tablets that adhere to the mucosa can also be used, but may cause buccal ulcers. It is important to consider the risks and benefits of each route of administration when choosing a testosterone formulation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old patient on your morning telephone appointment list reports a painful watering left eye after mowing the lawn. His daughter can see a grass seed visibly stuck near his cornea. What is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Advise eye irrigation to remove the seed and prescribe chloramphenicol eye drops for 7 days
Correct Answer: Refer to ophthalmology immediately for assessment that day
Explanation:If a patient has an organic foreign body in their eye, such as a grass seed, it is crucial to refer them immediately to ophthalmology for assessment due to the risk of infection. The removal of the foreign body should also be done on the same day as the assessment to prevent further complications. This is especially important in cases where the injury was caused by high-velocity objects, such as during grass cutting. Attempting to remove the foreign body in primary care or delaying the removal to the following day is not recommended as it may increase the risk of infection and prolong the patient’s discomfort. It is essential to seek specialist care to ensure proper treatment and avoid any potential complications.
A corneal foreign body can cause eye pain, a sensation of something being in the eye, sensitivity to light, watering, and redness. If the injury was caused by high-velocity objects or sharp items, or if there is significant trauma to the eye or surrounding area, it is important to refer the patient to an ophthalmologist. If a chemical injury has occurred, the eye should be irrigated for 20-30 minutes before referral. Foreign bodies made of organic material, such as seeds or soil, also require referral due to a higher risk of infection and complications. If the foreign body is located in or near the center of the cornea, or if there are any red flags such as severe pain, irregular pupils, or reduced vision, referral is necessary. For more information on management, please refer to Clinical Knowledge Summaries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 2-year-old toddler is brought to the GP by concerned parents who have noticed swelling of the foreskin during urination and inability to retract it. What is the most appropriate initial approach to manage this condition?
Your Answer: Reassure parents and review in 6-months
Explanation:Forcible retraction should be avoided in younger children with phimosis, as it can lead to scar formation. It is important to note that phimosis is normal in children under the age of 2 and typically resolves on its own over time. Therefore, there is no urgent need for referral to paediatrics or paediatric surgeons. While lubricant is not helpful in managing phimosis, topical steroids have been found to be beneficial.
Phimosis in Children: When to Seek Treatment
Phimosis is a condition where the foreskin of the penis cannot be retracted. In children under two years old, this may be a normal physiological process that will resolve on its own. The British Association of Paediatric Urologists recommends an expectant approach in such cases, as forcible retraction can lead to scarring. However, personal hygiene is important to prevent infections. If the child is over two years old and experiences recurrent balanoposthitis or urinary tract infections, treatment can be considered.
It is important to note that parents should not attempt to forcibly retract the foreskin in young children. This can cause pain and scarring, and may not even be necessary. Instead, parents should focus on teaching their child good hygiene habits to prevent infections. If the child is experiencing recurrent infections or other symptoms, it may be time to seek medical treatment. By following these guidelines, parents can help their child manage phimosis and maintain good health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl tripped while playing outside. She suffered a fall on an outstretched hand and immediately grabbed her right elbow in pain. She was taken to Accident and Emergency and an X-ray revealed a right humeral supracondylar fracture. The skin is intact and there is only minor swelling below the elbow, with normal distal pulses.
Which of the following problems is this child most likely to experience?Your Answer: Loss of sensation to the right fifth finger
Correct Answer: Loss of sensation to the palmar aspects of the first and second fingers of the right hand and weakened right wrist flexion
Explanation:Common Nerve Injuries Associated with Supracondylar Humeral Fractures
Supracondylar humeral fractures can result in various nerve injuries, depending on the location and severity of the fracture. The following are some common nerve injuries associated with this type of fracture:
1. Loss of sensation to the palmar aspects of the first and second fingers of the right hand and weakened right wrist flexion: This is most likely due to damage to the median nerve, which innervates these fingers and the flexors in the forearm.
2. Loss of cutaneous sensation over the area over the shoulder: This is unlikely to be caused by a closed supracondylar fracture, as the cutaneous innervation in that area is a branch of the axillary nerve.
3. Atrophy of the extensor muscles of the forearm: This is a result of damage to the radial nerve, which is responsible for the extensor mechanisms of the arm.
4. Loss of sensation to the right fifth finger: This is most likely due to an ulnar nerve injury, which could occur due to an injury of the medial humeral epicondyle.
5. Volkmann’s contracture (flexion contracture of the hand and wrist): This is caused by lack of circulation in the forearm due to brachial artery damage, leading to tissue death and fibrosis of the muscles. However, this diagnosis can be ruled out if there are distal pulses and lack of excessive swelling.
In summary, supracondylar humeral fractures can result in various nerve injuries, and it is important to identify and manage them appropriately to prevent long-term complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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You are a Foundation Year 2 doctor in Psychiatry. During the ward round, you are asked to perform a mental state examination of a patient who has been on the ward for a month.
In which part of the mental state examination would you report neologisms, pressure, or poverty?Your Answer: Insight
Correct Answer: Speech
Explanation:Assessing Mental State: Key Components to Consider
When assessing a patient’s mental state, there are several key components to consider. These include speech rate, rhythm, and volume, as well as the presence of neologisms, which may indicate a thought disorder. Poverty of speech may suggest reduced speech content, often seen in depression, while pressure of speech may indicate an increased rate, often seen in mania.
Insight is another important factor to consider, as it reflects the patient’s understanding of their condition and their willingness to accept treatment. Under the heading of Appearance and behaviour, it is important to note the patient’s level of self-care, rapport, and any non-verbal cues. Abnormal movements and level of motor activity should also be observed.
Mood and affect are subjective and objective measures of the patient’s emotional state. Mood refers to the patient’s internal experience, while affect refers to the external manifestation of that emotion. Thought content should also be assessed, including any preoccupations, obsessions, overvalued ideas, ideas of reference, delusions, or suicidal thoughts. By considering these key components, clinicians can gain a comprehensive understanding of a patient’s mental state.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 9
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman presents for guidance as she has just discovered she is expecting her first child. She has a family history of diabetes (mother, aunt, grandmother). Apart from taking folic acid, she is healthy and not on any regular medications. What screening should be recommended to her?
Your Answer: Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) at 24-28 weeks
Explanation:Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman is scheduled for a routine phone consultation. Her father is worried about her well-being, but she insists that she is fine and has no issues. Her father believes that she is socially withdrawn as she does not have any friends and spends most of her time indoors using her phone. Upon further inquiry, you discover that this woman has a strong belief that her phone is being monitored by the government, which is contributing to her isolation. She does not exhibit any psychotic symptoms, and her speech, tone, and mood are all normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Delusional disorder
Correct Answer: Schizotypal personality disorder
Explanation:Individuals with schizotypal personality disorder exhibit peculiar behavior, speech, and beliefs and typically do not have any close friends outside of their family.
Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.
Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.
Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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