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Question 1
Correct
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Over the last five years, the total number of patients admitted and deaths in the East and North Hertfordshire NHS Trust have been recorded. In the year 2010/2011, there were 95,071 patients admitted and 1,912 deaths. What is the crude mortality ratio for this group in that year (per 100 admissions)?
Your Answer: 2
Explanation:In this scenario, the crude mortality ratio is established by comparing the number of deaths occurring within the hospital in a given year to the total number of admissions, disregarding age or gender-specific mortality rates. For instance, with 1,912 deaths out of 95,071 admissions, the ratio computes to 0.02, or 2.0% when calculated per 100 admissions (1,912/95,071 = 0.02/100= 2.0%. When recalculated per 1,000 admissions, the crude admission rate would be 20 per 1,000.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A geriatric medicine trainee has developed a research project that they aim to publish in a high impact factor journal.
Two groups of elderly patients with hypertension are randomly assigned to receive treatment with amlodipine or lisinopril for a six week period.
At the end of the six week trial period, each participant is asked to rate the effectiveness of their specific treatment on lowering their blood pressure. The rating scale is from 1-5, where 1 indicates 'very ineffective' and 5 indicates 'very effective'.
As the data is not normally distributed, what statistical test should be utilized to determine if there is a significant difference between the two treatments?Your Answer: Student's t-test (paired)
Correct Answer: Mann-Whitney U test
Explanation:The appropriate statistical test for comparing ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data is the Mann-Whitney U test. This test is necessary when dealing with non-normally distributed data, such as Likert items. In contrast, the chi-squared test is used to compare percentages, while the student’s t-test (paired or unpaired) requires normally distributed data and/or paired observations. As the data in this scenario involves two different groups receiving different interventions, the Mann-Whitney U test is the most appropriate choice.
Types of Significance Tests
Significance tests are used to determine whether the results of a study are statistically significant or simply due to chance. The type of significance test used depends on the type of data being analyzed. Parametric tests are used for data that can be measured and are usually normally distributed, while non-parametric tests are used for data that cannot be measured in this way.
Parametric tests include the Student’s t-test, which can be paired or unpaired, and Pearson’s product-moment coefficient, which is used for correlation analysis. Non-parametric tests include the Mann-Whitney U test, which compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data, and the Wilcoxon signed-rank test, which compares two sets of observations on a single sample. The chi-squared test is used to compare proportions or percentages, while Spearman and Kendall rank are used for correlation analysis.
It is important to choose the appropriate significance test for the type of data being analyzed in order to obtain accurate and reliable results. By understanding the different types of significance tests available, researchers can make informed decisions about which test to use for their particular study.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old male presents to the emergency department after ingesting windshield wiper fluid in a suicidal attempt. He is visibly upset and expresses remorse for his actions, and now desires medical intervention. Upon arrival, he complains of feeling drowsy and having a headache, and is disoriented to time and person.
The medical team performs an arterial blood gas analysis, revealing the following results:
pH 7.28 (7.35 - 7.45)
Bicarbonate 12 mmol/L (22 - 29)
pCO2 26 mmHg (35 - 45)
pO2 114 mmHg (80-100)
Na+ 147 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.3 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Cl- 103 mmol/L (95 - 110)
Which of the following symptoms is associated with his condition?Your Answer: Diarrhoea
Correct Answer: Blurring of vision
Explanation:Methanol poisoning is a serious condition that can result in various symptoms, including visual problems. Methanol is commonly used in industrial products like cleaners, fuel, and windshield wiper fluid. When ingested, it breaks down into toxic substances like formaldehyde, formate, and formic acid, which can harm the body. The initial symptoms of methanol poisoning include confusion, headaches, and central nervous system depression. Additionally, arterial blood gas analysis may reveal metabolic acidosis. Methanol poisoning can also cause mydriasis and retinal oedema, leading to visual problems.
It’s important to note that methanol poisoning does not typically affect the gastrointestinal system, so patients are unlikely to experience diarrhoea or constipation. These symptoms are more commonly associated with other causes like infections or lead poisoning. Diaphoresis and fever are also not typical symptoms of methanol poisoning and are more commonly associated with other substances like cocaine or tricyclic antidepressants. However, it’s important to consider other potential causes of these symptoms, such as infections or heart attacks.
Methanol poisoning can lead to symptoms similar to alcohol intoxication, such as nausea, as well as specific visual impairments, including blindness. These visual problems are believed to be caused by the buildup of formic acid in the body. The exact mechanism behind methanol-induced visual loss is not fully understood, but it is thought to be a type of optic neuropathy.
To manage methanol poisoning, treatment options include the use of fomepizole, which is a competitive inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase, or ethanol. Haemodialysis may also be used to remove methanol and its toxic byproducts from the body. Additionally, cofactor therapy with folinic acid may be administered to reduce the risk of ophthalmological complications. Proper management of methanol poisoning is crucial to prevent serious and potentially irreversible damage to the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 4
Incorrect
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What is the primary cell-cell interaction necessary for the development of granulomas?
Your Answer: Th2 CD4+ T cells and CD8+ T cells
Correct Answer: Th1 CD4+ T cell and macrophages
Explanation:The Formation of Granulomas
Granulomas are formed when bacteria that cannot be killed are ingested by macrophages. These macrophages, which are filled with resistant bacteria such as Mycobacterium tuberculosis or Mycobacterium leprae, receive assistance from Th1 CD4+ T cells in the form of IFN-gamma. The macrophage then releases IL-12 to maintain its association with the T cell, and IFN-gamma helps activate the macrophage’s killing mechanisms. However, if this fails to clear the bacteria, the response moves to a more protective role. Fibroblasts seal off the area, forming a capsule that may become calcified. In TB infection, it is common for the macrophages within to undergo necrosis.
FDC and B cells interact to produce high-affinity antibody, while NK cells and macrophages do not directly interact with any particular response. Th2 CD4+ T cells provide stimulatory signals to B cells for the production of antibody. Th2 CD4+ T cells and CD8+ T cells do not directly interact for any specific response. Th1 CD4+ cells are part of the antiviral response, along with CD8+ T cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old cattle farmer has been referred for an ultrasound scan of his liver by his doctor due to experiencing upper abdominal discomfort and nausea for the past 6 months. There are no specific triggers for his symptoms, but he mentions that he has had a stressful year as a few of his cattle have been ill and required treatment for parasites.
Upon examination, he has mild tenderness in the upper right abdominal quadrant, but no other significant findings. The ultrasound reveals hepatic cysts.
Which organism is most likely responsible for his condition?Your Answer: Enterobius vermicularis
Correct Answer: Echinococcus granulosus
Explanation:A sheep farmer has been diagnosed with hepatic cysts on ultrasound, which is likely caused by Echinococcus granulosus infection.
Echinococcus granulosus is a tapeworm commonly found in farmers who raise sheep. The tapeworm is transmitted through the ingestion of hydatid cysts by dogs, which then spread the infection through their feces. Symptoms may not appear for a long time as the cysts grow slowly, but patients may experience abdominal discomfort and nausea. Hepatic cysts can be detected through liver ultrasound.
Clonorchis sinensis infection is caused by consuming undercooked fish and can lead to biliary tract obstruction, resulting in symptoms such as abdominal pain, jaundice, and nausea. It is also a risk factor for cholangiocarcinoma.
Enterobius vermicularis, or pinworm, is usually asymptomatic but can cause perianal itching, especially at night. Diagnosis is made by examining sticky tape applied to the perianal area under a microscope.
Strongyloides stercoralis is a roundworm commonly found in soil. Infected patients may experience diarrhea, abdominal pain, and papulovesicular lesions where the larvae have penetrated the skin.
Helminths are a group of parasitic worms that can infect humans and cause various diseases. Nematodes, also known as roundworms, are one type of helminth. Strongyloides stercoralis is a type of roundworm that enters the body through the skin and can cause symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and skin lesions. Treatment for this infection typically involves the use of ivermectin or benzimidazoles. Enterobius vermicularis, also known as pinworm, is another type of roundworm that can cause perianal itching and other symptoms. Diagnosis is made by examining sticky tape applied to the perianal area. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.
Hookworms, such as Ancylostoma duodenale and Necator americanus, are another type of roundworm that can cause gastrointestinal infections and anemia. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles. Loa loa is a type of roundworm that is transmitted by deer fly and mango fly and can cause red, itchy swellings called Calabar swellings. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Trichinella spiralis is a type of roundworm that can develop after eating raw pork and can cause fever, periorbital edema, and myositis. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.
Onchocerca volvulus is a type of roundworm that causes river blindness and is spread by female blackflies. Treatment involves the use of ivermectin. Wuchereria bancrofti is another type of roundworm that is transmitted by female mosquitoes and can cause blockage of lymphatics and elephantiasis. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Toxocara canis, also known as dog roundworm, is transmitted through ingestion of infective eggs and can cause visceral larva migrans and retinal granulomas. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Ascaris lumbricoides, also known as giant roundworm, can cause intestinal obstruction and occasionally migrate to the lung. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.
Cestodes, also known as tapeworms, are another type of helminth. Echinococcus granulosus is a tapeworm that is transmitted through ingestion of eggs in dog feces and can cause liver cysts and anaphylaxis if the cyst ruptures
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman visits her GP with a solitary, painless tumour in her left cheek. Upon further examination, she is diagnosed with pleomorphic adenoma. What is the recommended management for this condition?
Your Answer: Chemotherapy
Correct Answer: Surgical resection
Explanation:Surgical resection is the preferred treatment for pleomorphic adenoma, a benign tumor of the parotid gland that may undergo malignant transformation. Chemotherapy and radiotherapy are not effective in managing this condition. Additionally, salivary stone removal is not relevant to the treatment of pleomorphic adenoma.
Understanding Pleomorphic Adenoma
Pleomorphic adenoma, also known as a benign mixed tumour, is a non-cancerous growth that commonly affects the parotid gland. This type of tumour usually develops in individuals aged 40 to 60 years old. The condition is characterized by the proliferation of epithelial and myoepithelial cells of the ducts, as well as an increase in stromal components. The tumour is slow-growing, lobular, and not well encapsulated.
The clinical features of pleomorphic adenoma include a gradual onset of painless unilateral swelling of the parotid gland. The swelling is typically movable on examination rather than fixed. The management of pleomorphic adenoma involves surgical excision. The prognosis is generally good, with a recurrence rate of 1-5% with appropriate excision (parotidectomy). However, recurrence may occur due to capsular disruption during surgery. If left untreated, pleomorphic adenoma may undergo malignant transformation, occurring in 2-10% of adenomas observed for long periods. Carcinoma ex-pleomorphic adenoma is the most common type of malignant transformation, occurring most frequently as adenocarcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old male patient with AF, who is on appropriate medication for rate control, is admitted with dig toxicity after receiving antibiotics for a UTI. What ECG finding is most probable?
Your Answer: Delta wave
Correct Answer: Reverse tick abnormality
Explanation:Dig Toxicity and its Treatment
Dig Toxicity can occur as a result of taking antibiotics that inhibit enzymes, especially if the prescribing physician does not take this into account. One of the most common signs of dig toxicity is the reverse tick abnormality, which can be detected through an electrocardiogram (ECG).
To treat dig toxicity, it is important to first address any electrolyte imbalances that may be present. In more severe cases, a monoclonal antibody called digibind may be administered to help alleviate symptoms. Overall, it is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the potential for dig toxicity and to take appropriate measures to prevent and treat it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A respiratory specialist is conducting a bronchoscopy to determine a suitable biopsy for histological evaluation of suspected bronchial carcinoma in a pediatric patient.
While performing the procedure, the bronchoscope is erroneously inserted through the diaphragm at the T10 level.
Which structure is at the highest risk of being harmed as a result of this error?Your Answer: Azygous vein
Correct Answer: Oesophagus
Explanation:The oesophagus passes through the diaphragm at the level of T10 along with the vagal trunk, which is the most likely structure to have been damaged. The aorta, on the other hand, perforates the diaphragm at T12 and supplies oxygenated blood to the lower body, while the azygous vein also perforates the diaphragm at T12 and drains the right side of the thorax into the superior vena cava.
Structures Perforating the Diaphragm
The diaphragm is a dome-shaped muscle that separates the thoracic and abdominal cavities. It plays a crucial role in breathing by contracting and relaxing to create negative pressure in the lungs. However, there are certain structures that perforate the diaphragm, allowing them to pass through from the thoracic to the abdominal cavity. These structures include the inferior vena cava at the level of T8, the esophagus and vagal trunk at T10, and the aorta, thoracic duct, and azygous vein at T12.
To remember these structures and their corresponding levels, a helpful mnemonic is I 8(ate) 10 EGGS AT 12. This means that the inferior vena cava is at T8, the esophagus and vagal trunk are at T10, and the aorta, thoracic duct, and azygous vein are at T12. Knowing these structures and their locations is important for medical professionals, as they may need to access or treat them during surgical procedures or diagnose issues related to them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old patient, Sarah, suffered severe left-sided craniofacial trauma in a car accident. Following a period in the ICU, Sarah has been discharged to the ward and requires rehabilitation therapy due to suspected cranial nerve damage. Sarah experiences numbness on the left side of her face and struggles with chewing. However, she can still smile and reports no alteration in her sense of taste. The left eye lacks the corneal reflex, while the right eye has it. What other symptom is likely present in Sarah?
Your Answer: Tongue deviation to the right
Correct Answer: Jaw deviation to the left
Explanation:Tom’s jaw deviation towards the left is consistent with trigeminal nerve damage from his accident. The trigeminal nerve controls facial sensation and the muscles of mastication. His ability to smile and report no change in taste suggests that his facial nerve is intact, and he is not experiencing upper motor neuron lesion. Jaw deviation to the right, tongue deviation to the left or right, and inability to wrinkle the forehead are not consistent with trigeminal nerve palsy.
Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.
In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Barbara, a 50-year-old woman presents to the emergency department following a drunken altercation with another woman outside a bar. Barbara is visibly intoxicated and has some facial bruises. During the examination, the junior doctor on-call observes a bite wound on her left shoulder. The wound is cleaned, and Barbara is discharged with a prescription for co-amoxiclav.
What is the bacterial organism that can infect this bite wound?Your Answer: Rabies
Correct Answer: Eikenella
Explanation:Eikenella is a bacterial organism that is known to cause infections following human bites. Symptoms of an infection with this bacteria may include fever, tenderness, and swelling in the affected area.
While a human bite can put the patient at risk for hepatitis C infection, this question specifically asks for a bacterial organism, and hepatitis C is a virus. Symptoms of hepatitis C infection may include jaundice, fatigue, and easy bruising or bleeding.
Pasteurella multocida is a bacterial organism commonly found in animal bites, but the stem refers to a human bite. Infection with this bacteria may cause redness, swelling, and pain in the affected area.
Rabies is a viral infection typically associated with animal bites. Initial symptoms may include pain and tingling at the site of the bite, as well as fever. Without proper treatment, the virus can spread to the central nervous system and lead to death.
Animal bites are a common occurrence in everyday practice, with dogs and cats being the most frequent culprits. These bites are usually caused by multiple types of bacteria, with Pasteurella multocida being the most commonly isolated organism. To manage these bites, it is important to cleanse the wound thoroughly. Puncture wounds should not be sutured unless there is a risk of cosmesis. The current recommendation is to use co-amoxiclav, but if the patient is allergic to penicillin, doxycycline and metronidazole are recommended.
On the other hand, human bites can cause infections from a variety of bacteria, including both aerobic and anaerobic types. Common organisms include Streptococci spp., Staphylococcus aureus, Eikenella, Fusobacterium, and Prevotella. To manage these bites, co-amoxiclav is also recommended. It is important to consider the risk of viral infections such as HIV and hepatitis C when dealing with human bites.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which of the following accurately characterizes the mechanisms that drive type IV hypersensitivity reactions?
Your Answer: Deposition of immune complexes of IgG and antigen at the site of inflammation
Correct Answer: T cell mediated response at the site of inflammation
Explanation:ACID represents the four types of hypersensitivity reactions:
– Type 1 is Anaphylactic
– Type 2 is Cytotoxic
– Type 3 is Immune complex
– Type 4 is Delayed hypersensitivity
Type 4 hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by T cells and are characterized by the lack of immune complex deposition.Classification of Hypersensitivity Reactions
Hypersensitivity reactions are classified into four types according to the Gell and Coombs classification. Type I, also known as anaphylactic hypersensitivity, occurs when an antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells. This type of reaction is commonly seen in atopic conditions such as asthma, eczema, and hay fever. Type II hypersensitivity occurs when cell-bound IgG or IgM binds to an antigen on the cell surface, leading to autoimmune conditions such as autoimmune hemolytic anemia, ITP, and Goodpasture’s syndrome. Type III hypersensitivity occurs when free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine to form immune complexes, leading to conditions such as serum sickness, systemic lupus erythematosus, and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Type IV hypersensitivity is T-cell mediated and includes conditions such as tuberculosis, graft versus host disease, and allergic contact dermatitis.
In recent times, a fifth category has been added to the classification of hypersensitivity reactions. Type V hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies recognize and bind to cell surface receptors, either stimulating them or blocking ligand binding. This type of reaction is seen in conditions such as Graves’ disease and myasthenia gravis. Understanding the classification of hypersensitivity reactions is important in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 12
Correct
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During a hip examination, Sarah, a 65-year-old female, is found to have a positive trendelenburg's sign. When she stands on only her left leg, her right pelvis drops.
If the cause of her positive trendelenburg's sign is neurological, which nerve is affected in Sarah?Your Answer: Right superior gluteal
Explanation:If the superior gluteal nerve is damaged, it can result in a positive Trendelenburg sign. This nerve is responsible for providing innervation to the gluteus minimus and gluteus medius muscles, which are important for abducting and medially rotating the lower limb, as well as preventing pelvic drop of the opposing limb. For example, when standing on only the right leg, the right gluteus minimus and gluteus medius muscles stabilize the pelvis. However, if the right superior gluteal nerve is damaged, the right gluteus minimus and gluteus medius muscles will not receive proper innervation, leading to instability and a drop in the left pelvis when standing on the right leg. On the other hand, the inferior gluteal nerve innervates the gluteus maximus muscles, which are responsible for extending the thigh and performing lateral rotation.
The Trendelenburg Test: Assessing Gluteal Nerve Function
The Trendelenburg test is a diagnostic tool used to assess the function of the superior gluteal nerve. This nerve is responsible for the contraction of the gluteus medius muscle, which is essential for maintaining balance and stability while standing on one leg.
When the superior gluteal nerve is injured or damaged, the gluteus medius muscle is weakened, resulting in a compensatory shift of the body towards the unaffected side. This shift is characterized by a gravitational shift, which causes the body to be supported on the unaffected limb.
To perform the Trendelenburg test, the patient is asked to stand on one leg while the physician observes the position of the pelvis. In a healthy individual, the gluteus medius muscle contracts as soon as the contralateral leg leaves the floor, preventing the pelvis from dipping towards the unsupported side. However, in a person with paralysis of the superior gluteal nerve, the pelvis on the unsupported side descends, indicating that the gluteus medius on the affected side is weak or non-functional. This is known as a positive Trendelenburg test.
It is important to note that the Trendelenburg test is also used in vascular investigations to determine the presence of saphenofemoral incompetence. In this case, tourniquets are placed around the upper thigh to assess blood flow. However, in the context of assessing gluteal nerve function, the Trendelenburg test is a valuable tool for diagnosing and treating motor deficits and gait abnormalities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old man visits his physician complaining of persistent faecal incontinence. During a digital rectal exam, the physician observes a weakened external anal sphincter and suspects a nerve lesion may be the cause.
Which nerve is responsible for supplying the external anal sphincter?Your Answer: External anal sphincter nerve
Correct Answer: Inferior rectal branch of the pudendal nerve
Explanation:The inferior rectal branch of the pudendal nerve is responsible for supplying innervation to the external anal sphincter, which is a striated muscle under voluntary control. In contrast, the internal anal sphincter is composed of smooth muscle and is controlled involuntarily by the autonomic nervous system. The perineal nerve, which is the largest terminal branch of the pudendal nerve, originates from the S2, S3, and S4 nerve roots of the sacral plexus and provides muscular branches to both superficial and deep perineal muscles, as well as the external urethral sphincter.
Anatomy of the Anal Sphincter
The anal sphincter is composed of two muscles: the internal anal sphincter and the external anal sphincter. The internal anal sphincter is made up of smooth muscle and is continuous with the circular muscle of the rectum. It surrounds the upper two-thirds of the anal canal and is supplied by sympathetic nerves. On the other hand, the external anal sphincter is composed of striated muscle and surrounds the internal sphincter but extends more distally. It is supplied by the inferior rectal branch of the pudendal nerve (S2 and S3) and the perineal branch of the S4 nerve roots.
In summary, the anal sphincter is a complex structure that plays a crucial role in maintaining continence. The internal and external anal sphincters work together to control the passage of feces and gas through the anus. Understanding the anatomy of the anal sphincter is important for diagnosing and treating conditions that affect bowel function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which of these statements relating to the external carotid is false?
Your Answer: The ascending pharyngeal artery is a medial branch
Correct Answer: It ends by bifurcating into the superficial temporal and ascending pharyngeal artery
Explanation:The external carotid artery ends by splitting into two branches – the superficial temporal and maxillary branches. It has a total of eight branches, with three located on its anterior surface – the thyroid, lingual, and facial arteries. The pharyngeal artery is a medial branch, while the posterior auricular and occipital arteries are located on the posterior surface.
Anatomy of the External Carotid Artery
The external carotid artery begins on the side of the pharynx and runs in front of the internal carotid artery, behind the posterior belly of digastric and stylohyoid muscles. It is covered by sternocleidomastoid muscle and passed by hypoglossal nerves, lingual and facial veins. The artery then enters the parotid gland and divides into its terminal branches within the gland.
To locate the external carotid artery, an imaginary line can be drawn from the bifurcation of the common carotid artery behind the angle of the jaw to a point in front of the tragus of the ear.
The external carotid artery has six branches, with three in front, two behind, and one deep. The three branches in front are the superior thyroid, lingual, and facial arteries. The two branches behind are the occipital and posterior auricular arteries. The deep branch is the ascending pharyngeal artery. The external carotid artery terminates by dividing into the superficial temporal and maxillary arteries within the parotid gland.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A health-conscious 45-year-old presents with an unexplained acute kidney injury (AKI) and a kidney biopsy reveals the presence of calcium oxalate crystals in the renal tubules. The patient's calcium levels are normal, oxalate levels are elevated, and vitamin D levels are within normal range. Which vitamin overdose could potentially account for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin C
Explanation:The deposition of calcium oxalate in the renal tubules indicates that the patient is experiencing oxalate nephropathy, which is commonly caused by an overdose of vitamin C. Therefore, the correct answer is vitamin C overdose. It should be noted that elevated calcium levels are associated with vitamin D overdose, which is not applicable in this case.
Understanding Oxalate Nephropathy
Oxalate nephropathy is a type of sudden kidney damage that occurs when calcium oxalate crystals accumulate in the renal tubules. This condition can be caused by various factors, including the ingestion of ethylene glycol or an overdose of vitamin C. When these crystals build up in the renal tubules, they can cause damage to the tubular epithelium, leading to kidney dysfunction.
To better understand oxalate nephropathy, it is important to note that the renal tubules are responsible for filtering waste products from the blood and excreting them in the urine. When calcium oxalate crystals accumulate in these tubules, they can disrupt this process and cause damage to the tubular epithelium. This can lead to a range of symptoms, including decreased urine output, swelling in the legs and feet, and fatigue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old patient presents to the rheumatology clinic with weight loss, fever, and night sweats. The individual is also experiencing shortness of breath. The following blood test results are obtained:
- Hemoglobin (Hb): 140 g/l
- Platelets: 192 * 109/l
- White cell count (WCC): 5.3 * 109/l
- Creatinine: 154 umol/l
- Urea: 9 mmol/l
- cANCA positive
The white cell differential count is reported as normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Granulomatosis with polyangiitis
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for this patient is granulomatosis with polyangiitis, as indicated by the presence of cANCA and the involvement of multiple organs including the lungs, skin, kidneys, and upper respiratory tract. This condition is known to cause inflammation in the glomeruli, leading to renal impairment. Churg-Strauss disease and Alport’s syndrome are unlikely due to normal eosinophil levels and cANCA positivity, respectively. Goodpasture’s syndrome is also unlikely as the patient does not present with haematuria or haemoptysis.
Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis: An Autoimmune Condition
Granulomatosis with polyangiitis, previously known as Wegener’s granulomatosis, is an autoimmune condition that affects the upper and lower respiratory tract as well as the kidneys. It is characterized by a necrotizing granulomatous vasculitis. The condition presents with various symptoms such as epistaxis, sinusitis, nasal crusting, dyspnoea, haemoptysis, and rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis. Other symptoms include a saddle-shape nose deformity, vasculitic rash, eye involvement, and cranial nerve lesions.
To diagnose granulomatosis with polyangiitis, doctors perform various investigations such as cANCA and pANCA tests, chest x-rays, and renal biopsies. The cANCA test is positive in more than 90% of cases, while the pANCA test is positive in 25% of cases. Chest x-rays show a wide variety of presentations, including cavitating lesions. Renal biopsies reveal epithelial crescents in Bowman’s capsule.
The management of granulomatosis with polyangiitis involves the use of steroids, cyclophosphamide, and plasma exchange. Cyclophosphamide has a 90% response rate. The median survival rate for patients with this condition is 8-9 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman was referred to gastroenterology to investigate unresolved dyspepsia. She has been receiving NSAID treatment to manage a flare-up of osteoarthritis. Endoscopy reveals the presence of a gastric ulcer.
What factors may have contributed to the endoscopy findings?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduced PGE2 (prostaglandin)
Explanation:The use of NSAIDs can lead to the formation of peptic ulcers by reducing the production of PGE2, which is responsible for increasing gastric mucus secretion. NSAIDs inhibit the COX enzymes that convert arachidonic acid into endoperoxides, which then form PGE2. PGI2 is another product of endoperoxides that causes vasodilation, reduces platelet aggregation, and has no effect on gastric mucus production. Thromboxane A2 is also a product of endoperoxides, but it causes vasoconstriction and increases platelet aggregation without affecting gastric mucus production. Inhibition of COX enzymes does not result in a deficiency of arachidonic acid, which is a precursor for prostaglandins. NSAID use does not affect leukotriene production, which is independent of COX enzymes and causes bronchoconstriction but does not impact gastric mucus production.
Arachidonic Acid Metabolism: The Role of Leukotrienes and Endoperoxides
Arachidonic acid is a fatty acid that plays a crucial role in the body’s inflammatory response. The metabolism of arachidonic acid involves the production of various compounds, including leukotrienes and endoperoxides. Leukotrienes are produced by leukocytes and can cause constriction of the lungs. LTB4 is produced before leukocytes arrive, while the rest of the leukotrienes (A, C, D, and E) cause lung constriction.
Endoperoxides, on the other hand, are produced by the cyclooxygenase enzyme and can lead to the formation of thromboxane and prostacyclin. Thromboxane is associated with platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction, which can lead to thrombosis. Prostacyclin, on the other hand, has the opposite effect and can cause vasodilation and inhibit platelet aggregation.
Understanding the metabolism of arachidonic acid and the role of these compounds can help in the development of treatments for inflammatory conditions and cardiovascular diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 18
Incorrect
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What is responsible for the depolarization phase of the cardiac action potential?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sodium channels opening
Explanation:The Phases of Cardiac Action Potential
The cardiac action potential is a complex process that involves several phases. The first phase, known as phase 0 or the depolarisation phase, is initiated by the opening of fast Na channels, which allows an influx of Na ions into the cell. This influx of ions causes the membrane potential to become more positive, leading to the contraction of the heart muscle.
Following phase 0, the second phase, known as phase 1 or initial repolarisation, occurs when the Na channels close. This closure causes a brief period of repolarisation, where the membrane potential becomes more negative.
The third phase, known as phase 2 or the plateau phase, is characterised by the opening of K and Ca channels. The influx of calcium ions into the cell is balanced by the efflux of potassium ions, leading to a stable membrane potential. This phase is important for maintaining the contraction of the heart muscle.
Finally, phase 3 or repolarisation occurs when the Ca channels close, causing a net negative current as K+ ions continue to leave the cell. This phase allows the membrane potential to return to its resting state, ready for the next cardiac action potential.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A study on depression is criticized for producing results that do not generalize to younger patient populations. This test can be said to have poor:
External validity
66%
Predictive validity
15%
Construct validity
5%
Divergent validity
8%
Face validity
5%
Good external validity means that the results of a study generalize well to other populations, including younger individuals. Is this aspect of validity more or less important for you?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: External validity
Explanation:When a study has good external validity, its findings can be applied to other populations with confidence.
Validity refers to how accurately something measures what it claims to measure. There are two main types of validity: internal and external. Internal validity refers to the confidence we have in the cause and effect relationship in a study. This means we are confident that the independent variable caused the observed change in the dependent variable, rather than other factors. There are several threats to internal validity, such as poor control of extraneous variables and loss of participants over time. External validity refers to the degree to which the conclusions of a study can be applied to other people, places, and times. Threats to external validity include the representativeness of the sample and the artificiality of the research setting. There are also other types of validity, such as face validity and content validity, which refer to the general impression and full content of a test, respectively. Criterion validity compares tests, while construct validity measures the extent to which a test measures the construct it aims to.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man has had a radical nephrectomy. Upon bisecting the kidney, the pathologist observes a pink fleshy tumor in the renal pelvis. What is the probable illness?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transitional cell carcinoma
Explanation:Renal tumours typically have a yellow or brown hue, but TCCs stand out as they have a pink appearance. If a TCC is detected in the renal pelvis, a nephroureterectomy is necessary.
Renal Lesions: Types, Features, and Treatments
Renal lesions refer to abnormal growths or masses that develop in the kidneys. There are different types of renal lesions, each with its own disease-specific features and treatment options. Renal cell carcinoma is the most common renal tumor, accounting for 85% of cases. It often presents with haematuria and may cause hypertension and polycythaemia as paraneoplastic features. Treatment usually involves radical or partial nephrectomy.
Nephroblastoma, also known as Wilms tumor, is a rare childhood tumor that accounts for 80% of all genitourinary malignancies in those under the age of 15 years. It often presents with a mass and hypertension. Diagnostic workup includes ultrasound and CT scanning, and treatment involves surgical resection combined with chemotherapy. Neuroblastoma is the most common extracranial tumor of childhood, with up to 80% occurring in those under 4 years of age. It is a tumor of neural crest origin and may be diagnosed using MIBG scanning. Treatment involves surgical resection, radiotherapy, and chemotherapy.
Transitional cell carcinoma accounts for 90% of lower urinary tract tumors but only 10% of renal tumors. It often presents with painless haematuria and may be caused by occupational exposure to industrial dyes and rubber chemicals. Diagnosis and staging are done with CT IVU, and treatment involves radical nephroureterectomy. Angiomyolipoma is a hamartoma type lesion that occurs sporadically in 80% of cases and in those with tuberous sclerosis in the remaining cases. It is composed of blood vessels, smooth muscle, and fat and may cause massive bleeding in 10% of cases. Surgical resection is required for lesions larger than 4 cm and causing symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 21
Incorrect
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As a medical student on placement with a surgical team, you come across a patient who has developed foot drop in their right leg after surgery. You notice that the patient is dragging their right foot and experiencing weakness in dorsiflexion and eversion of their foot, as well as an inability to extend their toes. Which nerve is most likely to have been affected during the operation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Common fibular nerve
Explanation:The common fibular nerve starts at the top of the popliteal fossa, passing medial to the biceps femoris and then crossing over the head of the gastrocnemius. It provides an articular branch to the knee before winding around the neck and passing under the Fibularis longus. At this point, it divides into superficial and deep branches. In the popliteal fossa, it also divides to give the lateral sural cutaneous nerve, which joins with a branch from the tibial nerve to form the sural nerve. If the nerve is damaged, it can result in foot drop, which can occur due to prolonged pressure on the nerve during an operation or other causes. Motor loss of other nerves, such as the tibial, sciatic, inferior gluteal, or femoral nerves, can result in weakness in other muscles.
Lower limb anatomy is an important topic that often appears in examinations. One aspect of this topic is the nerves that control motor and sensory functions in the lower limb. The femoral nerve controls knee extension and thigh flexion, and provides sensation to the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh and lower leg. It is commonly injured in cases of hip and pelvic fractures, as well as stab or gunshot wounds. The obturator nerve controls thigh adduction and provides sensation to the medial thigh. It can be injured in cases of anterior hip dislocation. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh provides sensory function to the lateral and posterior surfaces of the thigh, and can be compressed near the ASIS, resulting in a condition called meralgia paraesthetica. The tibial nerve controls foot plantarflexion and inversion, and provides sensation to the sole of the foot. It is not commonly injured as it is deep and well protected, but can be affected by popliteral lacerations or posterior knee dislocation. The common peroneal nerve controls foot dorsiflexion and eversion, and can be injured at the neck of the fibula, resulting in foot drop. The superior gluteal nerve controls hip abduction and can be injured in cases of misplaced intramuscular injection, hip surgery, pelvic fracture, or posterior hip dislocation. Injury to this nerve can result in a positive Trendelenburg sign. The inferior gluteal nerve controls hip extension and lateral rotation, and is generally injured in association with the sciatic nerve. Injury to this nerve can result in difficulty rising from a seated position, as well as difficulty jumping or climbing stairs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman is scheduled to have an axillary lymph node dissection as a component of her breast cancer treatment. During the surgical approach to the axilla, which fascial layer will be cut?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clavipectoral fascia
Explanation:The clavipectoral fascia is located beneath the clavicular part of the pectoralis major muscle and serves as a protective barrier for the axillary vessels and nodes. In cases of breast cancer requiring axillary node clearance, the clavipectoral fascia is incised to allow access to the nodal stations. These stations include level 1 nodes located below the pectoralis minor muscle, level 2 nodes situated behind it, and level 3 nodes above it. In some cases, such as during a Patey Mastectomy, surgeons may need to divide the pectoralis minor muscle to access level 3 nodes. However, with the use of sentinel node biopsy and improved techniques, this procedure is becoming less common.
Anatomy of the Axilla
The axilla, also known as the armpit, is a region of the body that contains important structures such as nerves, veins, and lymph nodes. It is bounded medially by the chest wall and serratus anterior, laterally by the humeral head, and anteriorly by the lateral border of the pectoralis major. The floor of the axilla is formed by the subscapularis muscle, while the clavipectoral fascia forms its fascial boundary.
One of the important nerves that passes through the axilla is the long thoracic nerve, which supplies the serratus anterior muscle. The thoracodorsal nerve and trunk, on the other hand, innervate and vascularize the latissimus dorsi muscle. The axillary vein, which is the continuation of the basilic vein, lies at the apex of the axilla and becomes the subclavian vein at the outer border of the first rib. The intercostobrachial nerves, which provide cutaneous sensation to the axillary skin, traverse the axillary lymph nodes and are often divided during axillary surgery.
The axilla is also an important site of lymphatic drainage for the breast. Therefore, any pathology or surgery involving the breast can affect the lymphatic drainage of the axilla and lead to lymphedema. Understanding the anatomy of the axilla is crucial for healthcare professionals who perform procedures in this region, as damage to any of the structures can lead to significant complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman is 7-days pregnant and the fetal tissue has just undergone implantation. In which part of the uterus does this typically occur?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anterior or superior walls
Explanation:For the embryo to grow and receive nutrients and oxygen from the mother, implantation is necessary. The menstrual cycle prepares the uterus for implantation by increasing its thickness, glandular activity, and vascularization during the secretory phase. Additionally, the endometrium develops a new layer called the decidual layer, which undergoes changes during pregnancy known as decidualization.
Implantation typically occurs on the anterior or superior walls of the uterus, where the blastocyst attaches and begins the rest of the pregnancy. The process of implantation can be divided into four stages: hatching, apposition, adhesion, and invasion. During hatching, the blastocyst must break out of its zona pellucida. Apposition occurs when the trophoblasts come into contact with the decidua on the endometrium, with the inner cell mass aligned. Adhesion involves molecular communication between the trophoblasts and endometrial cells. Finally, invasion occurs as the trophoblasts penetrate the endometrium.
Embryology is the study of the development of an organism from the moment of fertilization to birth. During the first week of embryonic development, the fertilized egg implants itself into the uterine wall. By the second week, the bilaminar disk is formed, consisting of two layers of cells. The primitive streak appears in the third week, marking the beginning of gastrulation and the formation of the notochord.
As the embryo enters its fourth week, limb buds begin to form, and the neural tube closes. The heart also begins to beat during this time. By week 10, the genitals are differentiated, and the embryo exhibits intermittent breathing movements. These early events in embryonic development are crucial for the formation of the body’s major organs and structures. Understanding the timeline of these events can provide insight into the complex process of human development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of weight loss and feeling full quickly. During the abdominal examination, the doctor notices a swollen lymph node in the left supraclavicular region. The doctor suspects that this could be a sign of gastric cancer with the spread of tumor emboli through the thoracic duct as it ascends from the abdomen into the mediastinum. Can you name the two other structures that pass through the diaphragm along with the thoracic duct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aorta and azygous vein
Explanation:The point at which the aorta, thoracic duct, and azygous vein cross the diaphragm is at T12, specifically at the aortic opening. This is also where the oesophageal branches of the left gastric veins, the vagal trunk, and the oesophagus pass through the diaphragm, at the oesophageal opening located at T10. The left phrenic nerve and sympathetic trunk have their own separate openings in the diaphragm. A lymph node in the left supraclavicular fossa, known as Virchow’s node, is a characteristic sign of early gastric carcinoma.
Structures Perforating the Diaphragm
The diaphragm is a dome-shaped muscle that separates the thoracic and abdominal cavities. It plays a crucial role in breathing by contracting and relaxing to create negative pressure in the lungs. However, there are certain structures that perforate the diaphragm, allowing them to pass through from the thoracic to the abdominal cavity. These structures include the inferior vena cava at the level of T8, the esophagus and vagal trunk at T10, and the aorta, thoracic duct, and azygous vein at T12.
To remember these structures and their corresponding levels, a helpful mnemonic is I 8(ate) 10 EGGS AT 12. This means that the inferior vena cava is at T8, the esophagus and vagal trunk are at T10, and the aorta, thoracic duct, and azygous vein are at T12. Knowing these structures and their locations is important for medical professionals, as they may need to access or treat them during surgical procedures or diagnose issues related to them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old man comes to you with a dry cough that has been going on for three months and recent episodes of haemoptysis. He stopped smoking five years ago and has had two bouts of pneumonia in his left lower lobe in the last year. On examination, he is apyrexial and there are no notable findings.
What would be your first step in investigating this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chest x ray
Explanation:Diagnosis of Bronchial Carcinoma
The patient’s medical history indicates the possibility of bronchial carcinoma. The most appropriate initial investigation to confirm this diagnosis is a chest x-ray. Other tests such as blood cultures may not be useful for an apyrexial patient. However, additional investigations may be considered after the chest x-ray. It is important to prioritize the chest x-ray as the first line investigation to detect any abnormalities in the lungs. Proper diagnosis is crucial for timely treatment and management of bronchial carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male is brought to your clinic by his wife due to concerns of his 'skin and eyes looking yellow' and has worsened since it started 3 months ago. On systematic examination, you noticed jaundice and cachexia but it is otherwise unremarkable. On further questioning the man himself reports that his urine has been getting darker as well as stools becoming paler. You order an urgent CT scan which showed a mass lesion at the head of the pancreas. What is the direct explanation for the change in color of his stools?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decrease in stercobilin
Explanation:The presentation of symptoms related to the conjugation of bilirubin varies depending on where the process is disrupted, such as pre-hepatic, hepatic, or post-hepatic. In this case, a mass in the pancreatic head has caused an obstruction of the common bile duct, which is post-hepatic. This obstruction results in less conjugated bilirubin reaching the intestinal tract and more being absorbed into the systemic circulation. As a result, there is a decrease in stercobilin production, leading to paler stools.
Pancreatic cancer is a type of cancer that is often diagnosed late due to its non-specific symptoms. The majority of pancreatic tumors are adenocarcinomas and are typically found in the head of the pancreas. Risk factors for pancreatic cancer include increasing age, smoking, diabetes, chronic pancreatitis, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma, and mutations in the BRCA2 and KRAS genes.
Symptoms of pancreatic cancer can include painless jaundice, pale stools, dark urine, and pruritus. Courvoisier’s law states that a palpable gallbladder is unlikely to be due to gallstones in the presence of painless obstructive jaundice. However, patients often present with non-specific symptoms such as anorexia, weight loss, and epigastric pain. Loss of exocrine and endocrine function can also occur, leading to steatorrhea and diabetes mellitus. Atypical back pain and migratory thrombophlebitis (Trousseau sign) are also common.
Ultrasound has a sensitivity of around 60-90% for detecting pancreatic cancer, but high-resolution CT scanning is the preferred diagnostic tool. The ‘double duct’ sign, which is the simultaneous dilatation of the common bile and pancreatic ducts, may be seen on imaging.
Less than 20% of patients with pancreatic cancer are suitable for surgery at the time of diagnosis. A Whipple’s resection (pancreaticoduodenectomy) may be performed for resectable lesions in the head of the pancreas, but side-effects such as dumping syndrome and peptic ulcer disease can occur. Adjuvant chemotherapy is typically given following surgery, and ERCP with stenting may be used for palliation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 27
Incorrect
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An elderly retired manual labourer in his late 60s presents to his GP with a complaint of gradual loss of extension in his 4th and 5th finger. During the examination, the doctor observes the presence of nodules between the affected fingers.
What is the probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dupuytren's contracture
Explanation:Dupuytren’s contracture commonly affects the ring finger and little finger, particularly in older males. This condition causes nodules and cord development in the palmar fascia, resulting in flexion at the metacarpophalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints.
Trigger finger causes stiffness, pain, and a locking sensation when flexing, making it difficult to extend the finger.
Ganglion cysts, also known as bible cysts, are typically soft and found in the dorsal and volar aspect of the wrist. Many cysts will disappear on their own.
Flexor tendon rupture is usually caused by trauma to the flexor tendon, such as a sports injury. This condition is typically acute and results in a sudden loss of flexion in the affected finger, often requiring surgery.
Understanding Dupuytren’s Contracture
Dupuytren’s contracture is a condition that affects about 5% of the population. It is more common in older men and those with a family history of the condition. The causes of Dupuytren’s contracture include manual labor, phenytoin treatment, alcoholic liver disease, diabetes mellitus, and trauma to the hand.
The condition typically affects the ring finger and little finger, causing them to become bent and difficult to straighten. In severe cases, the hand may not be able to be placed flat on a table.
Surgical treatment may be necessary when the metacarpophalangeal joints cannot be straightened.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A pediatrician is considering whether or not to prescribe a new medication for a young patient.
Upon researching, the pediatrician discovers that a reputable medical journal had rejected a well-conducted study that found no significant difference between the medication and a placebo.
However, the same journal later published a study that showed positive results for the medication.
What type of bias is demonstrated in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Publication bias
Explanation:Publication bias refers to the tendency of journals to prioritize the publication of studies with positive results, leading to the failure to publish valid studies that show negative or uninteresting results. In this case, the original study was not published due to its negative outcome.
Expectation bias, on the other hand, occurs when observers unconsciously report or measure data in a way that supports the expected outcome of the study. This is only a concern in non-blinded trials.
Selection bias arises when individuals are assigned to groups in a way that may influence the study’s outcome.
The Hawthorne effect is a phenomenon where a group alters its behavior due to the knowledge that it is being studied.
Understanding Bias in Clinical Trials
Bias refers to the systematic favoring of one outcome over another in a clinical trial. There are various types of bias, including selection bias, recall bias, publication bias, work-up bias, expectation bias, Hawthorne effect, late-look bias, procedure bias, and lead-time bias. Selection bias occurs when individuals are assigned to groups in a way that may influence the outcome. Sampling bias, volunteer bias, and non-responder bias are subtypes of selection bias. Recall bias refers to the difference in accuracy of recollections retrieved by study participants, which may be influenced by whether they have a disorder or not. Publication bias occurs when valid studies are not published, often because they showed negative or uninteresting results. Work-up bias is an issue in studies comparing new diagnostic tests with gold standard tests, where clinicians may be reluctant to order the gold standard test unless the new test is positive. Expectation bias occurs when observers subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favors the expected study outcome. The Hawthorne effect describes a group changing its behavior due to the knowledge that it is being studied. Late-look bias occurs when information is gathered at an inappropriate time, and procedure bias occurs when subjects in different groups receive different treatment. Finally, lead-time bias occurs when two tests for a disease are compared, and the new test diagnoses the disease earlier, but there is no effect on the outcome of the disease. Understanding these types of bias is crucial in designing and interpreting clinical trials.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient comes in for a routine check-up for his type 2 diabetes. He reports feeling fatigued for the past couple of weeks. During the physical examination, the doctor notes mild conjunctival pallor. The patient has been on metformin for several years. The doctor suspects that the patient may have a vitamin deficiency caused by the metformin.
What vitamin is most likely to be deficient in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin B12 (cobalamin)
Explanation:Reduced absorption of vitamin B12 is a known side effect of long term metformin use, which can lead to vitamin B12 deficiency. The patient is likely experiencing anaemia as a result of this deficiency. A complete blood count can confirm the presence of megaloblastic anaemia, and treatment with vitamin B12 supplements should be beneficial. Deficiencies in vitamin B1 and B6 are not associated with anaemia or metformin use, while deficiencies in vitamin B9 and C can cause anaemia but are not caused by metformin use.
Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin does not cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman comes to her outpatient appointment after being diagnosed with Grave's disease. This condition is known for having three distinct signs, in addition to thyroid eye disease. What are the other signs?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thyroid acropachy & pretibial myxoedema
Explanation:Grave’s disease is commonly linked to several other conditions, including thyroid eye disease, thyroid acropachy, and pretibial myxoedema.
This autoimmune disease, known as Grave’s thyroiditis, is caused by antibodies that target the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) receptor, leading to prolonged stimulation.
One of the most noticeable symptoms of Grave’s disease is exophthalmos, which occurs when TSH receptor antibodies bind to receptors at the back of the eye, causing inflammation and an increase in glycosaminoglycans. This results in swelling of the eye muscles and connective tissue.
Pretibial myxoedema is a skin condition that often develops in individuals with Grave’s disease. It is characterized by localized lesions on the skin in front of the tibia, which are caused by an increase in glycosaminoglycans in the pretibial dermis.
Thyroid acropachy is another condition associated with Grave’s disease, which involves swelling of soft tissues, clubbing of the fingers, and periosteal reactions in the extremities.
Graves’ Disease: Common Features and Unique Signs
Graves’ disease is the most frequent cause of thyrotoxicosis, which is commonly observed in women aged 30-50 years. The condition presents typical features of thyrotoxicosis, such as weight loss, palpitations, and heat intolerance. However, Graves’ disease also displays specific signs that are not present in other causes of thyrotoxicosis. These include eye signs, such as exophthalmos and ophthalmoplegia, as well as pretibial myxoedema and thyroid acropachy. The latter is a triad of digital clubbing, soft tissue swelling of the hands and feet, and periosteal new bone formation.
Graves’ disease is characterized by the presence of autoantibodies, including TSH receptor stimulating antibodies in 90% of patients and anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies in 75% of patients. Thyroid scintigraphy reveals a diffuse, homogenous, and increased uptake of radioactive iodine. These features help distinguish Graves’ disease from other causes of thyrotoxicosis and aid in its diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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