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Question 1
Correct
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A 27-year-old intravenous drug user presents with a systolic murmur that is most audible at the fifth costal cartilage on the left sternal edge. What is the most probable anatomical site of the disease causing the murmur?
Your Answer: Tricuspid valve
Explanation:Auscultation of Heart Murmurs and Associated Cardiac Structures
When listening to heart sounds, the location of the murmur can provide clues about the underlying cardiac structure involved. A pansystolic murmur heard at the left sternal margin at the fifth costal cartilage suggests tricuspid regurgitation, likely caused by infective endocarditis in an intravenous drug user. A ventricular septal defect can be auscultated as a pansystolic murmur, while an atrial septal defect is associated with an ejection systolic murmur and split second heart sound over the pulmonary area. Abnormalities of the mitral valve are heard in the fifth intercostal space at the mid-clavicular line, and the aortic valve can be auscultated at the second intercostal space in the right sternal edge. Understanding the relationship between heart murmurs and associated cardiac structures can aid in diagnosis and management of cardiac conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman has been suffering from significant pain in her lower limbs when walking more than 200 meters for the past six months. During physical examination, her legs appear pale and cool without signs of swelling or redness. The palpation of dorsalis pedis or posterior tibial pulses is not possible. The patient has a body mass index of 33 kg/m2 and has been smoking for 25 pack years. What is the most probable vascular abnormality responsible for these symptoms?
Your Answer: Arteriosclerosis
Correct Answer: Atherosclerosis
Explanation:Arteriosclerosis and Related Conditions
Arteriosclerosis is a medical condition that refers to the hardening and loss of elasticity of medium or large arteries. Atherosclerosis, on the other hand, is a specific type of arteriosclerosis that occurs when fatty materials such as cholesterol accumulate in the artery walls, causing them to thicken. This chronic inflammatory response is caused by the accumulation of macrophages and white blood cells, and is often promoted by low-density lipoproteins. The formation of multiple plaques within the arteries characterizes atherosclerosis.
Medial calcific sclerosis is another form of arteriosclerosis that occurs when calcium deposits form in the middle layer of walls of medium-sized vessels. This condition is often not clinically apparent unless it is severe, and it is more common in people over 50 years old and in diabetics. It can be seen as opaque vessels on radiographs.
Lymphatic obstruction, on the other hand, is a blockage of the lymph vessels that drain fluid from tissues throughout the body. This condition may cause lymphoedema, and the most common reason for this is the removal or enlargement of the lymph nodes.
It is important to understand these conditions and their differences to properly diagnose and treat patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A typically healthy and fit 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with palpitations that have been ongoing for 4 hours. He reports no chest pain, has a National Early Warning Score (NEWS) of 0, and the only physical finding is an irregularly irregular pulse. An electrocardiogram (ECG) confirms that the patient is experiencing atrial fibrillation. The patient has no notable medical history.
What is the most suitable course of action?Your Answer: Anticoagulation therapy with warfarin
Correct Answer: Medical cardioversion (amiodarone or flecainide)
Explanation:Management of Atrial Fibrillation: Treatment Options and Considerations
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a common cardiac arrhythmia that requires prompt management to prevent complications. The following are the treatment options and considerations for managing AF:
Investigations for Reversible Causes
Before initiating any treatment, the patient should be investigated for reversible causes of AF, such as hyperthyroidism and alcohol. Blood tests (TFTs, FBC, U and Es, LFTs, and coagulation screen) and a chest X-ray should be performed.Medical Cardioversion
If no reversible causes are found, medical cardioversion is the most appropriate treatment for haemodynamically stable patients who present within 48 hours of the onset of AF. Amiodarone or flecainide can be used for this purpose.DC Cardioversion
DC cardioversion is indicated for haemodynamically unstable patients, including those with shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, and heart failure. It is also appropriate if medical cardioversion fails.Anticoagulation Therapy with Warfarin
Patients who remain in persistent AF for over 48 hours should have their CHA2DS2 VASc score calculated. If the score is equal to or greater than 1 for men or equal to or greater than 2 for women, anticoagulation therapy with warfarin should be initiated.Radiofrequency Ablation
Radiofrequency ablation is not a suitable treatment for acute AF.24-Hour Three Lead ECG Tape
Sending the patient home with a 24-hour three lead ECG tape and reviewing them in one week is not necessary as the diagnosis of AF has already been established.In summary, the management of AF involves investigating for reversible causes, considering medical or DC cardioversion, initiating anticoagulation therapy with warfarin if necessary, and avoiding radiofrequency ablation for acute AF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old, 80 kg woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of chest pain that began 5 hours ago. She has no known allergies and is not taking any regular medications. Her electrocardiogram shows T-wave inversion in lateral leads but no ST changes, and her serum troponin level is significantly elevated. What is the appropriate combination of drugs to administer immediately?
Your Answer: Aspirin 300 mg, clopidogrel 75 mg, fondaparinux 2.5 mg
Correct Answer: Aspirin 300 mg, prasugrel 60 mg, fondaparinux 2.5 mg
Explanation:For patients with different combinations of medications, the appropriate treatment plan may vary. In general, aspirin should be given as soon as possible and other medications may be added depending on the patient’s condition and the likelihood of undergoing certain procedures. For example, if angiography is not planned within 24 hours of admission, a loading dose of aspirin and prasugrel with fondaparinux may be given. If PCI is planned, unfractionated heparin may be considered. The specific dosages and medications may differ based on the patient’s individual needs and risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 57-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department with sudden onset central crushing chest pain. The patient reports feeling pain in his neck and jaw as well. He has no significant medical history, but he does smoke occasionally and consumes up to 60 units of alcohol per week. An ECG is performed, revealing widespread ST elevation indicative of an acute coronary syndrome. At what point do the microscopic changes of acute MI become visible?
Your Answer: 12-24 hours after the infarct
Explanation:The Pathological Progression of Myocardial Infarction: A Timeline of Changes
Myocardial infarction, commonly known as a heart attack, is a serious medical condition that occurs when blood flow to the heart is blocked, leading to tissue damage and potentially life-threatening complications. The pathological progression of myocardial infarction follows a predictable sequence of events, with macroscopic and microscopic changes occurring over time.
Immediately after the infarct occurs, there are usually no visible changes to the myocardium. However, within 3-6 hours, maximal inflammatory changes occur, with the most prominent changes occurring between 24-72 hours. During this time, coagulative necrosis and acute inflammatory responses are visible, with marked infiltration by neutrophils.
Between 3-10 days, the infarcted area begins to develop a hyperaemic border, and the process of organisation and repair begins. Granulation tissue replaces dead muscle, and dying neutrophils are replaced by macrophages. Disintegration and phagocytosis of dead myofibres occur during this time.
If a patient survives an acute infarction, the infarct heals through the formation of scar tissue. However, scar tissue does not possess the usual contractile properties of normal cardiac muscle, leading to contractile dysfunction or congestive cardiac failure. The entire process from coagulative necrosis to the formation of well-formed scar tissue takes 6-8 weeks.
In summary, understanding the timeline of changes that occur during myocardial infarction is crucial for early diagnosis and effective treatment. By recognising the macroscopic and microscopic changes that occur over time, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate interventions to improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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An 82-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after experiencing a sudden loss of consciousness while grocery shopping. Upon examination, she is fully alert and appears to be in good health.
Her vital signs are normal, with a CBG of 5.8 mmol/l. However, her cardiovascular system shows an irregular, low volume heart rate of 90-110 beats per minute, and her blood pressure is 145/120 mmHg while lying down and standing up. Her JVP is raised by 5 cm, and her apex beat is displaced to the mid-axillary line, with diffuse heart sounds. A loud pansystolic murmur is heard at the apex, radiating to the axilla and at the lower left sternal edge, along with a mid-diastolic rumble best heard at the apex. There are occasional bibasal crackles in her chest, which clear up with coughing. Additionally, she has mild peripheral edema up to the mid-calf.
Based on these clinical findings, what is the most likely cause of her collapse?Your Answer: Mitral stenosis
Correct Answer: Mixed mitral valve disease
Explanation:This patient exhibits features of mixed mitral valve disease, which can be challenging to diagnose due to contradictory signs. She has a mid-diastolic rumble, low-volume pulse, and atrial fibrillation, indicating mitral stenosis. However, she also has a displaced apex beat and a pan-systolic murmur, indicating mitral regurgitation. Mixed aortic valve disease is also common in these patients. Aortic stenosis and mixed aortic valve disease are unlikely diagnoses based on the clinical findings, while mitral stenosis and mitral regurgitation alone do not fully explain the examination results.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 60-year-old man presents to cardiology outpatients after being lost to follow-up for 2 years. He has a significant cardiac history, including two previous myocardial infarctions, peripheral vascular disease, and three transient ischemic attacks. He is also a non-insulin-dependent diabetic. Upon examination, his JVP is raised by 2 cm, he has peripheral pitting edema to the mid-calf bilaterally, and bilateral basal fine inspiratory crepitations. His last ECHO, which was conducted 3 years ago, showed moderately impaired LV function and mitral regurgitation. He is currently taking bisoprolol, aspirin, simvastatin, furosemide, ramipril, and gliclazide. What medication could be added to improve his prognosis?
Your Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:Heart Failure Medications: Prognostic and Symptomatic Benefits
Heart failure is a prevalent disease that can be managed with various medications. These medications can be divided into two categories: those with prognostic benefits and those with symptomatic benefits. Prognostic medications help improve long-term outcomes, while symptomatic medications provide relief from symptoms.
Prognostic medications include selective beta-blockers, angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, angiotensin II antagonists, and spironolactone. In the RALES trial, spironolactone was shown to reduce all-cause mortality by 30% in patients with heart failure and an ejection fraction of less than 35%.
Symptomatic medications include loop diuretics, digoxin, and vasodilators such as nitrates and hydralazine. These medications provide relief from symptoms but do not improve long-term outcomes.
Other medications, such as nifedipine, sotalol, and naftidrofuryl, are used to manage other conditions such as angina, hypertension, and peripheral and cerebrovascular disorders, but are not of prognostic benefit in heart failure.
Treatment for heart failure can be tailored to each individual case, and heart transplant remains a limited option for certain patient groups. Understanding the benefits and limitations of different medications can help healthcare providers make informed decisions about the best course of treatment for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 8
Correct
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You are requested by a nurse to assess a 66-year-old woman on the Surgical Assessment Unit who is 1-day postoperative, having undergone a laparoscopic cholecystectomy procedure for cholecystitis. She has a medical history of type II diabetes mellitus and chronic kidney disease. Blood tests taken earlier in the day revealed electrolyte imbalances with hyperkalaemia.
Which of the following ECG changes is linked to hyperkalaemia?Your Answer: Peaked T waves
Explanation:Electrocardiogram (ECG) Changes Associated with Hypo- and Hyperkalaemia
Hypo- and hyperkalaemia can cause significant changes in the ECG. Hypokalaemia is associated with increased amplitude and width of the P wave, T wave flattening and inversion, ST-segment depression, and prominent U-waves. As hypokalaemia worsens, it can lead to frequent supraventricular ectopics and tachyarrhythmias, eventually resulting in life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias. On the other hand, hyperkalaemia is associated with peaked T waves, widening of the QRS complex, decreased amplitude of the P wave, prolongation of the PR interval, and eventually ventricular tachycardia/ventricular fibrillation. Both hypo- and hyperkalaemia can cause prolongation of the PR interval, but only hyperkalaemia is associated with flattening of the P-wave. In hyperkalaemia, eventually ventricular tachycardia/ventricular fibrillation is seen, while AF can occur in hypokalaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 68-year-old man is being evaluated in the Cardiac Unit. He has developed a ventricular tachycardia of 160 bpm, appears ill, and has a blood pressure of 70/52 mmHg. What would be the most immediate treatment option?
Your Answer: DC cardioversion
Explanation:Treatment Options for Ventricular Arrhythmia: Evaluating the Choices
When faced with a patient experiencing ventricular arrhythmia, it is important to consider the appropriate treatment options. In the scenario of a broad complex tachycardia with low blood pressure, immediate DC cardioversion is the clear choice. Carotid sinus massage and IV adenosine are not appropriate options as they are used in the diagnosis and termination of SVT. Immediate heparinisation is not the immediate treatment for ventricular arrhythmia. Intravenous lidocaine may be considered if the VT is haemodynamically stable, but in this scenario, it cannot be the correct answer choice. It is important to carefully evaluate the available options and choose the most appropriate treatment for the patient’s specific condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents to his GP for a routine check-up and is found to have a systolic murmur heard loudest in the aortic region. The murmur increases in intensity with deep inspiration and does not radiate. What is the most probable abnormality in this patient?
Your Answer: Aortic stenosis
Correct Answer: Pulmonary stenosis
Explanation:Systolic Valvular Murmurs
A systolic valvular murmur can be caused by aortic/pulmonary stenosis or mitral/tricuspid regurgitation. It is important to note that the location where the murmur is heard loudest can be misleading. For instance, if it is aortic stenosis, the murmur is expected to radiate to the carotids. However, the significant factor to consider is that the murmur is heard loudest on inspiration. During inspiration, venous return to the heart increases, which exacerbates right-sided murmurs. Conversely, expiration reduces venous return and exacerbates left-sided murmurs. To remember this useful fact, the mnemonic RILE (Right on Inspiration, Left on Expiration) can be used.
If a systolic murmur is enhanced on inspiration, it must be a right-sided murmur, which could be pulmonary stenosis or tricuspid regurgitation. However, in this case, only pulmonary stenosis is an option. systolic valvular murmurs and their characteristics is crucial in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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