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  • Question 1 - A 70-year-old diabetic smoker presents with central chest pain that radiates to his...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old diabetic smoker presents with central chest pain that radiates to his left shoulder and jaw. He is given 300 mg aspirin and morphine, and his pain subsides. The pain lasted approximately 90 minutes in total. His ECG shows normal sinus rhythm. He is referred to the on-call medical team for admission, and a troponin test is scheduled at the appropriate time. His blood tests today reveal a creatinine level of 298 micromoles per litre.
      Which of the following medications should you also consider administering to this patient?

      Your Answer: Unfractionated heparin

      Explanation:

      This patient’s medical history suggests a diagnosis of acute coronary syndrome. It is important to provide pain relief as soon as possible. This can be achieved by administering GTN (sublingual or buccal), but if there is suspicion of an acute myocardial infarction (MI), intravenous opioids such as morphine should be offered.

      Aspirin should be given to all patients with unstable angina or NSTEMI as soon as possible and should be continued indefinitely, unless there are contraindications such as a high risk of bleeding or aspirin hypersensitivity. A single loading dose of 300 mg should be given immediately after presentation.

      For patients without a high risk of bleeding and no planned coronary angiography within 24 hours of admission, fondaparinux should be administered. However, if coronary angiography is planned within 24 hours, unfractionated heparin can be offered as an alternative to fondaparinux. For patients with significant renal impairment (creatinine above 265 micromoles per litre), unfractionated heparin should be considered, with dose adjustment based on clotting function monitoring.

      Routine administration of oxygen is no longer recommended, but oxygen saturation should be monitored using pulse oximetry as soon as possible, preferably before hospital admission. Supplemental oxygen should only be given to individuals with an oxygen saturation (SpO2) below 94% who are not at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure, aiming for an SpO2 of 94-98%. For individuals with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure, a target SpO2 of 88-92% should be achieved until blood gas analysis is available.

      Bivalirudin, a specific and reversible direct thrombin inhibitor (DTI), is recommended by NICE as a potential treatment for adults with STEMI undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention.

      For more information, refer to the NICE guidelines on the assessment and diagnosis of chest pain of recent onset.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      21.6
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  • Question 2 - A 32 year old with a documented peanut allergy is currently receiving treatment...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old with a documented peanut allergy is currently receiving treatment for an anaphylactic reaction. What are the most likely cardiovascular manifestations that you would observe in a patient experiencing an episode of anaphylaxis?

      Your Answer: Hypotension and tachycardia

      Explanation:

      Anaphylaxis, also known as anaphylactic shock, is characterized by certain symptoms similar to other types of shock. These symptoms include low blood pressure (hypotension), rapid heart rate (tachycardia), irregular heart rhythm (arrhythmia), changes in the electrocardiogram (ECG) indicating reduced blood flow to the heart (myocardial ischemia), such as ST elevation, and in severe cases, cardiac arrest.

      Further Reading:

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and life-threatening hypersensitivity reaction that can have sudden onset and progression. It is characterized by skin or mucosal changes and can lead to life-threatening airway, breathing, or circulatory problems. Anaphylaxis can be allergic or non-allergic in nature.

      In allergic anaphylaxis, there is an immediate hypersensitivity reaction where an antigen stimulates the production of IgE antibodies. These antibodies bind to mast cells and basophils. Upon re-exposure to the antigen, the IgE-covered cells release histamine and other inflammatory mediators, causing smooth muscle contraction and vasodilation.

      Non-allergic anaphylaxis occurs when mast cells degrade due to a non-immune mediator. The clinical outcome is the same as in allergic anaphylaxis.

      The management of anaphylaxis is the same regardless of the cause. Adrenaline is the most important drug and should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses for adrenaline vary based on age. Other treatments include high flow oxygen and an IV fluid challenge. Corticosteroids and chlorpheniramine are no longer recommended, while non-sedating antihistamines may be considered as third-line treatment after initial stabilization of airway, breathing, and circulation.

      Common causes of anaphylaxis include food (such as nuts, which is the most common cause in children), drugs, and venom (such as wasp stings). Sometimes it can be challenging to determine if a patient had a true episode of anaphylaxis. In such cases, serum tryptase levels may be measured, as they remain elevated for up to 12 hours following an acute episode of anaphylaxis.

      The Resuscitation Council (UK) provides guidelines for the management of anaphylaxis, including a visual algorithm that outlines the recommended steps for treatment.
      https://www.resus.org.uk/sites/default/files/2021-05/Emergency%20Treatment%20of%20Anaphylaxis%20May%202021_0.pdf

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 3 - A 42 year old male comes to the emergency department with a sudden...

    Correct

    • A 42 year old male comes to the emergency department with a sudden onset of 'tearing' pain in the middle of his chest that extends to the center of his back. The patient is tall and has a slender physique. Additionally, you observe that the patient has elongated arms and fingers. During the chest examination, you notice a prominent protrusion of the sternum (pectus carinatum). What is the probable underlying cause of this patient's chest pain?

      Your Answer: Aortic dissection

      Explanation:

      Marfan’s syndrome is a condition that greatly increases the risk of aortic dissection. This patient exhibits several characteristics commonly seen in individuals with Marfan syndrome, such as tall stature, low BMI, and pectoral abnormalities like pectus carinatum and excavatum. Additionally, their long limbs and fingers are also indicative of Marfan’s syndrome. It is important to note that aortic dissection tends to occur at a much younger age in individuals with Marfan syndrome compared to those without connective tissue diseases. The median age for type A dissection in Marfan’s patients is 36.7 years, while for type B dissection it is 40 years. In contrast, individuals without Marfan’s syndrome typically experience dissection at the ages of 63 and 62 years for type A and type B dissections, respectively.

      Further Reading:

      Aortic dissection is a life-threatening condition in which blood flows through a tear in the innermost layer of the aorta, creating a false lumen. Prompt treatment is necessary as the mortality rate increases by 1-2% per hour. There are different classifications of aortic dissection, with the majority of cases being proximal. Risk factors for aortic dissection include hypertension, atherosclerosis, connective tissue disorders, family history, and certain medical procedures.

      The presentation of aortic dissection typically includes sudden onset sharp chest pain, often described as tearing or ripping. Back pain and abdominal pain are also common, and the pain may radiate to the neck and arms. The clinical picture can vary depending on which aortic branches are affected, and complications such as organ ischemia, limb ischemia, stroke, myocardial infarction, and cardiac tamponade may occur. Common signs and symptoms include a blood pressure differential between limbs, pulse deficit, and a diastolic murmur.

      Various investigations can be done to diagnose aortic dissection, including ECG, CXR, and CT with arterial contrast enhancement (CTA). CT is the investigation of choice due to its accuracy in diagnosis and classification. Other imaging techniques such as transoesophageal echocardiography (TOE), magnetic resonance imaging/angiography (MRI/MRA), and digital subtraction angiography (DSA) are less commonly used.

      Management of aortic dissection involves pain relief, resuscitation measures, blood pressure control, and referral to a vascular or cardiothoracic team. Opioid analgesia should be given for pain relief, and resuscitation measures such as high flow oxygen and large bore IV access should be performed. Blood pressure control is crucial, and medications such as labetalol may be used to reduce systolic blood pressure. Hypotension carries a poor prognosis and may require careful fluid resuscitation. Treatment options depend on the type of dissection, with type A dissections typically requiring urgent surgery and type B dissections managed by thoracic endovascular aortic repair (TEVAR) and blood pressure control optimization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 4 - Your hospital’s cardiology department is currently evaluating the utility of a triple marker...

    Correct

    • Your hospital’s cardiology department is currently evaluating the utility of a triple marker test for use risk stratification of patients with a suspected acute coronary syndrome. The test will use troponin I, myoglobin and heart-type fatty acid-binding protein (HFABP).

      How long after heart attack do troponin I levels return to normal?

      Your Answer: 3-10 days

      Explanation:

      The timing of the initial rise, peak, and return to normality of various cardiac enzymes can serve as a helpful guide. Creatine kinase, the main cardiac isoenzyme, typically experiences an initial rise within 4-8 hours, reaches its peak at 18 hours, and returns to normal within 2-3 days. Myoglobin, which lacks specificity due to its association with skeletal muscle damage, shows an initial rise within 1-4 hours, peaks at 6-7 hours, and returns to normal within 24 hours. Troponin I, known for its sensitivity and specificity, exhibits an initial rise within 3-12 hours, reaches its peak at 24 hours, and returns to normal within 3-10 days. HFABP, or heart fatty acid binding protein, experiences an initial rise within 1.5 hours, peaks at 5-10 hours, and returns to normal within 24 hours. Lastly, LDH, predominantly found in cardiac muscle, shows an initial rise at 10 hours, peaks at 24-48 hours, and returns to normal within 14 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 5 - A 28-year-old woman presents after experiencing a syncopal episode earlier in the day....

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents after experiencing a syncopal episode earlier in the day. She fainted while jogging on the treadmill at her local gym. She regained consciousness quickly and currently feels completely fine. Upon examination, she has a slim physique, normal heart sounds without any additional sounds or murmurs, clear lungs, and a soft abdomen. She is originally from Thailand and mentions that her mother passed away suddenly in her 30s.

      Her ECG reveals:
      - Right bundle branch block pattern
      - Downward-sloping 'coved' ST elevation in leads V1-V3
      - Widespread upward-sloping ST depression in other leads

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Brugada syndrome

      Explanation:

      Brugada syndrome is a genetic disorder that is passed down from one generation to another in an autosomal dominant manner. It is characterized by abnormal findings on an electrocardiogram (ECG) and can lead to sudden cardiac death. The cause of death in individuals with Brugada syndrome is typically ventricular fibrillation, which occurs as a result of specific defects in ion channels that are determined by our genes. Interestingly, this syndrome is more commonly observed in South East Asia and is actually the leading cause of sudden unexplained cardiac death in Thailand.

      One of the key features seen on an ECG that is consistent with Type 1 Brugada syndrome is a pattern known as right bundle branch block. Additionally, there is a distinct downward sloping coved ST elevation observed in leads V1-V3. These specific ECG findings help to identify individuals who may be at risk for developing Brugada syndrome and experiencing its potentially fatal consequences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 6 - A 70-year-old female smoker presents with intense chest discomfort. Her ECG indicates an...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old female smoker presents with intense chest discomfort. Her ECG indicates an acute myocardial infarction and she is immediately taken to the cath lab. Angiography reveals a blockage in the left anterior descending artery.
      Which area of the heart is most likely affected in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Anteroseptal

      Correct Answer: Right ventricle

      Explanation:

      A summary of the vessels involved in different types of myocardial infarction, along with the corresponding ECG leads and the location of the infarction.

      For instance, an anteroseptal infarction involving the left anterior descending artery is indicated by ECG leads V1-V3. Similarly, an anterior infarction involving the left anterior descending artery is indicated by leads V3-V4.

      In cases of anterolateral infarctions, both the left anterior descending artery and the left circumflex artery are involved, and this is reflected in ECG leads V5-V6. An extensive anterior infarction involving the left anterior descending artery is indicated by leads V1-V6.

      Lateral infarcts involving the left circumflex artery are indicated by leads I, II, aVL, and V6. Inferior infarctions, on the other hand, involve either the right coronary artery (in 80% of cases) or the left circumflex artery (in 20% of cases), and this is shown by leads II, III, and aVF.

      In the case of a right ventricular infarction, the right coronary artery is involved, and this is indicated by leads V1 and V4R. Lastly, a posterior infarction involving the right coronary artery is shown by leads V7-V9.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      22.4
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  • Question 7 - A 60-year-old woman presents with worsening symptoms of shortness of breath. Upon examination...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman presents with worsening symptoms of shortness of breath. Upon examination of her cardiovascular system, you find a collapsing pulse. Her apex beat is hyperkinetic and displaced to the side. During auscultation, you detect an early diastolic murmur that is most pronounced when the patient is sitting forward and exhaling.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mitral regurgitation

      Correct Answer: Aortic regurgitation

      Explanation:

      Aortic regurgitation is a condition where the aortic valve fails to close tightly, resulting in the backflow of blood from the aorta into the left ventricle during ventricular diastole. This valvular lesion presents with various clinical symptoms and signs.

      The clinical symptoms of aortic regurgitation include exertional dyspnea, orthopnea, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. These symptoms are experienced by patients during physical activity, while lying flat, and during episodes of sudden nighttime breathlessness, respectively.

      On the other hand, the clinical signs of aortic regurgitation can be observed during physical examination. These signs include a collapsing pulse, widened pulse pressure, hyperkinetic laterally displaced apex beat, and a thrill in the aortic area. Additionally, an early diastolic murmur can be heard, which is loudest at the lower left sternal edge when the patient is sitting forward and exhaling.

      Aortic regurgitation is also associated with several eponymous signs, which are named after the physicians who first described them. These signs include Corrigan’s sign, which is characterized by visible and forceful neck pulsation. De Musset’s sign refers to head nodding in time with the heartbeat. Quincke’s sign is the observation of visible nail bed capillary pulsation. Duroziez’s sign is the presence of a diastolic murmur heard proximal to femoral artery compression. Traube’s sign is the perception of a pistol shot sound over the femoral arteries. The Lighthouse sign is the blanching and flushing of the forehead. Becker’s sign is the pulsation seen in retinal vessels. Rosenbach’s sign is the presence of a pulsatile liver. Lastly, Muller’s sign refers to pulsations of the uvula.

      In summary, aortic regurgitation is a valvular lesion that leads to the incomplete closure of the aortic valve. It manifests with various clinical symptoms, signs, and eponymous findings, which can be identified through careful examination and observation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 8 - A 68 year old male presents to the emergency department with central heavy...

    Incorrect

    • A 68 year old male presents to the emergency department with central heavy chest pain that began 10 hours ago while the patient was sitting down watching television. The patient has previously refused treatment for high cholesterol and stage 1 hypertension. Physical examination reveals a mildly elevated blood pressure of 156/94 mmHg, but is otherwise unremarkable. The ECG shows ST depression and T wave inversion in leads V1-V3. Initial troponin results are negative, and a second high sensitivity troponin assay performed 3 hours later also returns negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vincent's angina

      Correct Answer: Unstable angina

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing between unstable angina and other acute coronary syndromes can be done by looking at normal troponin results. If serial troponin tests come back negative, it can rule out a diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Unstable angina is characterized by myocardial ischemia occurring at rest or with minimal exertion, without any acute damage or death of heart muscle cells. The patient in question shows ECG and biochemical features that align with this definition. Vincent’s angina, on the other hand, refers to an infection in the throat accompanied by ulcerative gingivitis.

      Further Reading:

      Acute Coronary Syndromes (ACS) is a term used to describe a group of conditions that involve the sudden reduction or blockage of blood flow to the heart. This can lead to a heart attack or unstable angina. ACS includes ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non-ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina (UA).

      The development of ACS is usually seen in patients who already have underlying coronary heart disease. This disease is characterized by the buildup of fatty plaques in the walls of the coronary arteries, which can gradually narrow the arteries and reduce blood flow to the heart. This can cause chest pain, known as angina, during physical exertion. In some cases, the fatty plaques can rupture, leading to a complete blockage of the artery and a heart attack.

      There are both non modifiable and modifiable risk factors for ACS. non modifiable risk factors include increasing age, male gender, and family history. Modifiable risk factors include smoking, diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and obesity.

      The symptoms of ACS typically include chest pain, which is often described as a heavy or constricting sensation in the central or left side of the chest. The pain may also radiate to the jaw or left arm. Other symptoms can include shortness of breath, sweating, and nausea/vomiting. However, it’s important to note that some patients, especially diabetics or the elderly, may not experience chest pain.

      The diagnosis of ACS is typically made based on the patient’s history, electrocardiogram (ECG), and blood tests for cardiac enzymes, specifically troponin. The ECG can show changes consistent with a heart attack, such as ST segment elevation or depression, T wave inversion, or the presence of a new left bundle branch block. Elevated troponin levels confirm the diagnosis of a heart attack.

      The management of ACS depends on the specific condition and the patient’s risk factors. For STEMI, immediate coronary reperfusion therapy, either through primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) or fibrinolysis, is recommended. In addition to aspirin, a second antiplatelet agent is usually given. For NSTEMI or unstable angina, the treatment approach may involve reperfusion therapy or medical management, depending on the patient’s risk of future cardiovascular events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 9 - A 70-year-old woman comes in complaining of a rapid heartbeat and difficulty breathing....

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman comes in complaining of a rapid heartbeat and difficulty breathing. She has a past medical history of a kidney transplant. Her rhythm strip reveals supraventricular tachycardia.
      What is the most suitable initial dosage of adenosine to administer to her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adenosine 3 mg IV

      Explanation:

      Adenosine is given through a rapid IV bolus, followed by a flush of saline solution. In adults, the starting dose is 6 mg, and if needed, an additional dose of 12 mg is given. If necessary, another dose of either 12 mg or 18 mg can be administered at intervals of 1-2 minutes until the desired effect is observed.

      It is important to note that the latest ALS guidelines recommend an 18 mg dose for the third administration, while the BNF/NICE guidelines suggest a 12 mg dose.

      However, patients who have undergone a heart transplant are particularly sensitive to the effects of adenosine. Therefore, their initial dose should be reduced to 3 mg, followed by 6 mg, and then 12 mg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of gradual onset sharp...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of gradual onset sharp chest pain over the past 24 hours. The patient reports that the pain worsens with deep inspiration and feels more comfortable when sitting leaning forward. When asked about pain radiation, the patient confirms that the pain extends to the left side of the neck and points to the ridge of the trapezius. Physical examination reveals clear lung fields, regular rhythm with quiet heart sounds, and no murmurs. The patient's vital signs are as follows:

      Blood pressure: 108/66 mmHg
      Pulse rate: 94 bpm
      Respiratory rate: 18 rpm
      Temperature: 37.3ºC
      Oxygen saturations: 97% on room air

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute pericarditis

      Explanation:

      Radiation to the trapezius ridge is a distinct symptom of acute pericarditis. The patient in question exhibits characteristics that align with a diagnosis of pericarditis. Pericarditis is a common condition affecting the pericardium, and it is often considered as a potential cause for chest pain. It is worth noting that the specific radiation of pain to the trapezius ridge is highly indicative of pericarditis, as it occurs when the phrenic nerve, which also innervates the trapezius muscle, becomes irritated while passing through the pericardium.

      Further Reading:

      Pericarditis is an inflammation of the pericardium, which is the protective sac around the heart. It can be acute, lasting less than 6 weeks, and may present with chest pain, cough, dyspnea, flu-like symptoms, and a pericardial rub. The most common causes of pericarditis include viral infections, tuberculosis, bacterial infections, uremia, trauma, and autoimmune diseases. However, in many cases, the cause remains unknown. Diagnosis is based on clinical features, such as chest pain, pericardial friction rub, and electrocardiographic changes. Treatment involves symptom relief with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), and patients should avoid strenuous activity until symptoms improve. Complicated cases may require treatment for the underlying cause, and large pericardial effusions may need urgent drainage. In cases of purulent effusions, antibiotic therapy is necessary, and steroid therapy may be considered for pericarditis related to autoimmune disorders or if NSAIDs alone are ineffective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 11 - A 32-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of dizziness and palpitations....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of dizziness and palpitations. She informs you that she was recently diagnosed with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. You proceed to perform an ECG.

      Which ONE statement about the ECG findings in Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type A WPW can resemble right bundle branch block

      Explanation:

      Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome is a condition that affects the electrical system of the heart. It occurs when there is an abnormal pathway, known as the bundle of Kent, between the atria and the ventricles. This pathway can cause premature contractions of the ventricles, leading to a type of rapid heartbeat called atrioventricular re-entrant tachycardia (AVRT).

      In a normal heart rhythm, the electrical signals travel through the bundle of Kent and stimulate the ventricles. However, in WPW syndrome, these signals can cause the ventricles to contract prematurely. This can be seen on an electrocardiogram (ECG) as a shortened PR interval, a slurring of the initial rise in the QRS complex (known as a delta wave), and a widening of the QRS complex.

      There are two distinct types of WPW syndrome that can be identified on an ECG. Type A is characterized by predominantly positive delta waves and QRS complexes in the praecordial leads, with a dominant R wave in V1. This can sometimes be mistaken for right bundle branch block (RBBB). Type B, on the other hand, shows predominantly negative delta waves and QRS complexes in leads V1 and V2, and positive in the other praecordial leads, resembling left bundle branch block (LBBB).

      Overall, WPW syndrome is a condition that affects the electrical conduction system of the heart, leading to abnormal heart rhythms. It can be identified on an ECG by specific features such as shortened PR interval, delta waves, and widened QRS complex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 12 - A 32-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance due to 'severe palpitations.' His heart rate is 180 bpm, and his rhythm strip is suggestive of supraventricular tachycardia. You plan to administer adenosine.
      Which of the following is a contraindication to the use of adenosine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Recent severe asthma exacerbation

      Explanation:

      Adenosine is a type of purine nucleoside that is primarily utilized in the diagnosis and treatment of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia. Its main mechanism of action involves stimulating A1-adenosine receptors and opening acetylcholine-sensitive potassium channels. This leads to hyperpolarization of the cell membrane in the atrioventricular (AV) node and slows down conduction in the AV node by inhibiting calcium channels.

      When administering adenosine, it is given rapidly through an intravenous bolus, followed by a saline flush. The initial dose for adults is 6 mg, and if necessary, additional doses of 12 mg or 18 mg can be given at 1-2 minute intervals until the desired effect is observed. It is important to note that the latest ALS guidelines recommend 18 mg for the third dose, while the BNF/NICE guidelines suggest 12 mg.

      One of the advantages of adenosine is its very short half-life, which is less than 10 seconds. This means that its effects are rapid, typically occurring within 10 seconds. However, the duration of action is also short, lasting only 10-20 seconds. Due to its short half-life, any side effects experienced are usually brief. These side effects may include a sense of impending doom, facial flushing, dyspnea, chest discomfort, and a metallic taste.

      There are certain contraindications to the use of adenosine. These include 2nd or 3rd degree AV block, sick sinus syndrome, long QT syndrome, severe hypotension, decompensated heart failure, chronic obstructive lung disease, and asthma. It is important to exercise caution when administering adenosine to patients with a heart transplant, as they are particularly sensitive to its effects. In these cases, a reduced initial dose of 3 mg is recommended, followed by 6 mg and then 12 mg.

      It is worth noting that the effects of adenosine can be potentiated by dipyridamole, a medication commonly used in combination with adenosine. Therefore, the dose of adenosine should be adjusted and reduced in patients who are also taking dipyridamole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 13 - A 45-year-old woman comes in with central chest pain that is spreading to...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman comes in with central chest pain that is spreading to her left arm for the past 30 minutes. Her vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 80 beats per minute, blood pressure of 118/72, and oxygen saturation of 98% on room air. The ECG shows the following findings:
      ST depression in leads V1-V4 and aVR
      ST elevation in V5-V6, II, III, and aVF
      Positive R wave in V1 and V2
      What is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute inferoposterior myocardial infarction

      Explanation:

      The ECG shows the following findings:
      – There is ST depression in leads V1-V4 and aVR.
      – There is ST elevation in leads V5-V6, II, III, and aVF.
      – There is a positive R wave in leads V1 and V2, which indicates a reverse Q wave.
      These ECG changes indicate that there is an acute inferoposterior myocardial infarction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 14 - A 72-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of severe chest pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of severe chest pain, difficulty breathing, and feeling nauseous for the past hour. The ECG reveals ST-segment elevation in the anterolateral leads. After starting treatment, her condition improves, and the ECG changes indicate signs of resolution.
      Which medication is responsible for the rapid restoration of blood flow in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tenecteplase

      Explanation:

      Tenecteplase is a medication known as a tissue plasminogen activator (tPA). Its main mechanism of action involves binding specifically to fibrin and converting plasminogen into plasmin. This process leads to the breakdown of the fibrin matrix and promotes reperfusion at the affected site. Among the options provided, Tenecteplase is the sole drug that primarily acts by facilitating reperfusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 15 - A 72 year old male is brought to the emergency department by his...

    Incorrect

    • A 72 year old male is brought to the emergency department by his daughter due to sudden confusion, severe headache, and problems with coordination. Upon initial assessment at triage, the patient's blood pressure is found to be significantly elevated at 224/126 mmHg. You suspect the presence of hypertensive encephalopathy. What is the primary treatment option for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Labetalol

      Explanation:

      The primary treatment option for hypertensive encephalopathy, a condition characterized by sudden confusion, severe headache, and coordination problems due to significantly elevated blood pressure, is labetalol.

      Further Reading:

      A hypertensive emergency is characterized by a significant increase in blood pressure accompanied by acute or progressive damage to organs. While there is no specific blood pressure value that defines a hypertensive emergency, systolic blood pressure is typically above 180 mmHg and/or diastolic blood pressure is above 120 mmHg. The most common presentations of hypertensive emergencies include cerebral infarction, pulmonary edema, encephalopathy, and congestive cardiac failure. Less common presentations include intracranial hemorrhage, aortic dissection, and pre-eclampsia/eclampsia.

      The signs and symptoms of hypertensive emergencies can vary widely due to the potential dysfunction of every physiological system. Some common signs and symptoms include headache, nausea and/or vomiting, chest pain, arrhythmia, proteinuria, signs of acute kidney failure, epistaxis, dyspnea, dizziness, anxiety, confusion, paraesthesia or anesthesia, and blurred vision. Clinical assessment focuses on detecting acute or progressive damage to the cardiovascular, renal, and central nervous systems.

      Investigations that are essential in evaluating hypertensive emergencies include U&Es (electrolyte levels), urinalysis, ECG, and CXR. Additional investigations may be considered depending on the suspected underlying cause, such as a CT head for encephalopathy or new onset confusion, CT thorax for suspected aortic dissection, and CT abdomen for suspected phaeochromocytoma. Plasma free metanephrines, urine total catecholamines, vanillylmandelic acid (VMA), and metanephrine may be tested if phaeochromocytoma is suspected. Urine screening for cocaine and/or amphetamines may be appropriate in certain cases, as well as an endocrine screen for Cushing’s syndrome.

      The management of hypertensive emergencies involves cautious reduction of blood pressure to avoid precipitating renal, cerebral, or coronary ischemia. Staged blood pressure reduction is typically the goal, with an initial reduction in mean arterial pressure (MAP) by no more than 25% in the first hour. Further gradual reduction to a systolic blood pressure of 160 mmHg and diastolic blood pressure of 100 mmHg over the next 2 to 6 hours is recommended. Initial management involves treatment with intravenous antihypertensive agents in an intensive care setting with appropriate monitoring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 16 - A 68 year old male is brought to the emergency department by a...

    Incorrect

    • A 68 year old male is brought to the emergency department by a concerned coworker who noticed that the patient seemed unsteady on his feet and very short of breath when walking to his car. The patient tells you they usually feel a bit short of breath when doing things like walking to their car or going up the stairs. On examination you note a regular pulse, rate 88 bpm, but an audible ejection systolic murmur loudest at the left sternal edge. Blood pressure is 148/94 mmHg. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Explanation:

      Severe aortic stenosis (AS) is characterized by several distinct features. These include a slow rising pulse, an ejection systolic murmur that is heard loudest in the aortic area and may radiate to the carotids, and a soft or absent S2 heart sound. Additionally, patients with severe AS often have a narrow pulse pressure and may exhibit an S4 heart sound.

      AS is commonly caused by hypertension, although blood pressure findings can vary. In severe cases, patients may actually be hypotensive due to impaired cardiac output. Symptoms of severe AS typically include Presyncope or syncope, exertional chest pain, and shortness of breath. These symptoms can be remembered using the acronym SAD (Syncope, Angina, Dyspnoea).

      It is important to note that aortic stenosis primarily affects older individuals, as it is a result of scarring and calcium buildup in the valve. Age-related AS typically begins after the age of 60, but symptoms may not appear until patients are in their 70s or 80s.

      Diastolic murmurs, on the other hand, are associated with conditions such as aortic regurgitation, pulmonary regurgitation, and mitral stenosis.

      Further Reading:

      Valvular heart disease refers to conditions that affect the valves of the heart. In the case of aortic valve disease, there are two main conditions: aortic regurgitation and aortic stenosis.

      Aortic regurgitation is characterized by an early diastolic murmur, a collapsing pulse (also known as a water hammer pulse), and a wide pulse pressure. In severe cases, there may be a mid-diastolic Austin-Flint murmur due to partial closure of the anterior mitral valve cusps caused by the regurgitation streams. The first and second heart sounds (S1 and S2) may be soft, and S2 may even be absent. Additionally, there may be a hyperdynamic apical pulse. Causes of aortic regurgitation include rheumatic fever, infective endocarditis, connective tissue diseases like rheumatoid arthritis and systemic lupus erythematosus, and a bicuspid aortic valve. Aortic root diseases such as aortic dissection, spondyloarthropathies like ankylosing spondylitis, hypertension, syphilis, and genetic conditions like Marfan’s syndrome and Ehler-Danlos syndrome can also lead to aortic regurgitation.

      Aortic stenosis, on the other hand, is characterized by a narrow pulse pressure, a slow rising pulse, and a delayed ESM (ejection systolic murmur). The second heart sound (S2) may be soft or absent, and there may be an S4 (atrial gallop) that occurs just before S1. A thrill may also be felt. The duration of the murmur is an important factor in determining the severity of aortic stenosis. Causes of aortic stenosis include degenerative calcification (most common in older patients), a bicuspid aortic valve (most common in younger patients), William’s syndrome (supravalvular aortic stenosis), post-rheumatic disease, and subvalvular conditions like hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM).

      Management of aortic valve disease depends on the severity of symptoms. Asymptomatic patients are generally observed, while symptomatic patients may require valve replacement. Surgery may also be considered for asymptomatic patients with a valvular gradient greater than 40 mmHg and features such as left ventricular systolic dysfunction. Balloon valvuloplasty is limited to patients with critical aortic stenosis who are not fit for valve replacement.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 17 - A 55 year old female presents to the emergency department 3 hours after...

    Incorrect

    • A 55 year old female presents to the emergency department 3 hours after experiencing severe central chest pain that radiates to the back while gardening. The patient describes the pain as tearing and states it is the worst pain she has ever felt. You note a past medical history of poorly controlled hypertension. The patient's vital signs are as follows:

      Blood pressure 182/98 mmHg
      Pulse rate 94 bpm
      Respiration rate 22 rpm
      Oxygen saturation 97% on room air
      Temperature 37.3ºC

      An ECG is performed which shows normal sinus rhythm. Chest X-ray reveals a widened mediastinum and an abnormal aortic contour.

      What is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous labetalol

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate initial treatment for this patient would be intravenous labetalol. Labetalol is a non-selective beta blocker with alpha-blocking properties. It is the preferred initial treatment for aortic dissection because it helps to reduce blood pressure and heart rate, which can help to decrease the shear forces acting on the aortic wall and prevent further dissection. Intravenous administration of labetalol allows for rapid and effective control of blood pressure.

      Other treatment options, such as intravenous magnesium sulphate, intravenous verapamil, GTN sublingual spray, and oral nifedipine, are not appropriate for the management of aortic dissection. Magnesium sulphate is used for the treatment of certain arrhythmias and pre-eclampsia, but it does not address the underlying issue of aortic dissection. Verapamil and nifedipine are calcium channel blockers that can lower blood pressure, but they can also cause reflex tachycardia, which can worsen the condition. GTN sublingual spray is used for the treatment of angina, but it does not address the underlying issue of aortic dissection.

      Further Reading:

      Aortic dissection is a life-threatening condition in which blood flows through a tear in the innermost layer of the aorta, creating a false lumen. Prompt treatment is necessary as the mortality rate increases by 1-2% per hour. There are different classifications of aortic dissection, with the majority of cases being proximal. Risk factors for aortic dissection include hypertension, atherosclerosis, connective tissue disorders, family history, and certain medical procedures.

      The presentation of aortic dissection typically includes sudden onset sharp chest pain, often described as tearing or ripping. Back pain and abdominal pain are also common, and the pain may radiate to the neck and arms. The clinical picture can vary depending on which aortic branches are affected, and complications such as organ ischemia, limb ischemia, stroke, myocardial infarction, and cardiac tamponade may occur. Common signs and symptoms include a blood pressure differential between limbs, pulse deficit, and a diastolic murmur.

      Various investigations can be done to diagnose aortic dissection, including ECG, CXR, and CT with arterial contrast enhancement (CTA). CT is the investigation of choice due to its accuracy in diagnosis and classification. Other imaging techniques such as transoesophageal echocardiography (TOE), magnetic resonance imaging/angiography (MRI/MRA), and digital subtraction angiography (DSA) are less commonly used.

      Management of aortic dissection involves pain relief, resuscitation measures, blood pressure control, and referral to a vascular or cardiothoracic team. Opioid analgesia should be given for pain relief, and resuscitation measures such as high flow oxygen and large bore IV access should be performed. Blood pressure control is crucial, and medications such as labetalol may be used to reduce systolic blood pressure. Hypotension carries a poor prognosis and may require careful fluid resuscitation. Treatment options depend on the type of dissection, with type A dissections typically requiring urgent surgery and type B dissections managed by thoracic endovascular aortic repair (TEVAR) and blood pressure control optimization.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 18 - A 60 year old female presents to the emergency department complaining of increasing...

    Incorrect

    • A 60 year old female presents to the emergency department complaining of increasing shortness of breath. The patient reports feeling more fatigued and breathless with minimal exertion over the past few months, but in the past few days, she has been experiencing breathlessness even at rest. She informs you that she has been taking aspirin, ramipril, bisoprolol, and rosuvastatin for the past 5 years since she had a minor heart attack. Upon examination, you observe prominent neck veins, bilateral lung crepitations that are worse at the bases, faint heart sounds, and pitting edema below the knee. The patient's vital signs are as follows:

      Blood pressure: 130/84 mmHg
      Pulse rate: 90 bpm
      Respiration rate: 23 bpm
      Temperature: 37.0ºC
      Oxygen saturation: 93% on room air

      What would be the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Furosemide 40 mg IV

      Explanation:

      Given the patient’s symptoms and physical findings, the most appropriate initial treatment would be to administer Furosemide 40 mg intravenously. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that helps remove excess fluid from the body, which can alleviate symptoms of fluid overload such as shortness of breath and edema. By reducing fluid volume, Furosemide can help improve the patient’s breathing and relieve the strain on the heart.

      Further Reading:

      Cardiac failure, also known as heart failure, is a clinical syndrome characterized by symptoms and signs resulting from abnormalities in the structure or function of the heart. This can lead to reduced cardiac output or high filling pressures at rest or with stress. Heart failure can be caused by various problems such as myocardial, valvular, pericardial, endocardial, or arrhythmic issues.

      The most common causes of heart failure in the UK are coronary heart disease and hypertension. However, there are many other possible causes, including valvular heart disease, structural heart disease, cardiomyopathies, certain drugs or toxins, endocrine disorders, nutritional deficiencies, infiltrative diseases, infections, and arrhythmias. Conditions that increase peripheral demand on the heart, such as anemia, pregnancy, sepsis, hyperthyroidism, Paget’s disease of bone, arteriovenous malformations, and beriberi, can also lead to high-output cardiac failure.

      Signs and symptoms of heart failure include edema, lung crepitations, tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension, displaced apex beat, right ventricular heave, elevated jugular venous pressure, cyanosis, hepatomegaly, ascites, pleural effusions, breathlessness, fatigue, orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, nocturnal cough or wheeze, and Presyncope.

      To diagnose heart failure, NICE recommends three key tests: N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide (NT‑proBNP), transthoracic echocardiography, and ECG. Additional tests may include chest X-ray, blood tests (U&Es, thyroid function, LFT’s, lipid profile, HbA1C, FBC), urinalysis, and peak flow or spirometry.

      Management of cardiogenic pulmonary edema, a complication of heart failure, involves ensuring a patent airway, optimizing breathing with supplemental oxygen and non-invasive ventilation if necessary, and addressing circulation with loop diuretics to reduce preload, vasodilators to reduce preload and afterload, and inotropes if hypotension or signs of end organ hypoperfusion persist.

      In summary, cardiac failure is a clinical syndrome resulting from abnormalities in cardiac function. It can have various causes and is characterized by specific signs and symptoms. Diagnosis involves specific tests, and management focuses on addressing

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 19 - A 72 year old male attends the emergency department complaining of feeling lightheaded,...

    Incorrect

    • A 72 year old male attends the emergency department complaining of feeling lightheaded, experiencing shortness of breath, and having irregular heartbeats. He states that these symptoms started six hours ago. Upon listening to his chest, clear lung fields are detected but an irregularly irregular pulse is observed. The patient has type 2 diabetes, which is currently controlled through diet. The only medications he takes are:
      - Lisinopril 2.5 mg once daily
      - Simvastatin 20 mg once daily
      There is no history of heart disease, vascular disease, or stroke. The recorded observations are as follows:
      - Blood pressure: 148/92 mmHg
      - Pulse rate: 86 bpm
      - Respiration rate: 15 bpm
      - Oxygen saturation: 97% on room air
      An ECG is performed, confirming atrial fibrillation. As part of the management, you need to calculate the patient's CHA2DS2-VASc score.

      What is this patient's score?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4

      Explanation:

      The patient is currently taking 20 mg of Atorvastatin once daily. They do not have a history of heart disease, vascular disease, or stroke. Their blood pressure is 148/92 mmHg, pulse rate is 86 bpm, and respiration rate is 1.

      Further Reading:

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is the most common sustained cardiac arrhythmia, affecting around 5% of patients over the age of 70-75 years and 10% of patients aged 80-85 years. While AF can cause palpitations and inefficient cardiac function, the most important aspect of managing patients with AF is reducing the increased risk of stroke.

      AF can be classified as first detected episode, paroxysmal, persistent, or permanent. First detected episode refers to the initial occurrence of AF, regardless of symptoms or duration. Paroxysmal AF occurs when a patient has 2 or more self-terminating episodes lasting less than 7 days. Persistent AF refers to episodes lasting more than 7 days that do not self-terminate. Permanent AF is continuous atrial fibrillation that cannot be cardioverted or if attempts to do so are deemed inappropriate. The treatment goals for permanent AF are rate control and anticoagulation if appropriate.

      Symptoms of AF include palpitations, dyspnea, and chest pain. The most common sign is an irregularly irregular pulse. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is essential for diagnosing AF, as other conditions can also cause an irregular pulse.

      Managing patients with AF involves two key parts: rate/rhythm control and reducing stroke risk. Rate control involves slowing down the irregular pulse to avoid negative effects on cardiac function. This is typically achieved using beta-blockers or rate-limiting calcium channel blockers. If one drug is not effective, combination therapy may be used. Rhythm control aims to restore and maintain normal sinus rhythm through pharmacological or electrical cardioversion. However, the majority of patients are managed with a rate control strategy.

      Reducing stroke risk in patients with AF is crucial. Risk stratifying tools, such as the CHA2DS2-VASc score, are used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy. Anticoagulation is recommended for patients with a score of 2 or more. Clinicians can choose between warfarin and novel oral anticoagulants (NOACs) for anticoagulation.

      Before starting anticoagulation, the patient’s bleeding risk should be assessed using tools like the HAS-BLED score or the ORBIT tool. These tools evaluate factors such as hypertension, abnormal renal or liver function, history of bleeding, age, and use of drugs that predispose to bleeding.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 20 - A 68 year old man is brought to the emergency department due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 68 year old man is brought to the emergency department due to sudden difficulty breathing. During auscultation, you detect a murmur. The patient then undergoes a bedside echocardiogram which reveals mitral regurgitation. What murmur is commonly associated with mitral regurgitation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: pansystolic murmur

      Explanation:

      Mitral regurgitation is characterized by a continuous murmur throughout systole that is often heard loudest at the apex and can be heard radiating to the left axilla.

      Further Reading:

      Mitral Stenosis:
      – Causes: Rheumatic fever, Mucopolysaccharidoses, Carcinoid, Endocardial fibroelastosis
      – Features: Mid-late diastolic murmur, loud S1, opening snap, low volume pulse, malar flush, atrial fibrillation, signs of pulmonary edema, tapping apex beat
      – Features of severe mitral stenosis: Length of murmur increases, opening snap becomes closer to S2
      – Investigation findings: CXR may show left atrial enlargement, echocardiography may show reduced cross-sectional area of the mitral valve

      Mitral Regurgitation:
      – Causes: Mitral valve prolapse, Myxomatous degeneration, Ischemic heart disease, Rheumatic fever, Connective tissue disorders, Endocarditis, Dilated cardiomyopathy
      – Features: pansystolic murmur radiating to left axilla, soft S1, S3, laterally displaced apex beat with heave
      – Signs of acute MR: Decompensated congestive heart failure symptoms
      – Signs of chronic MR: Leg edema, fatigue, arrhythmia (atrial fibrillation)
      – Investigation findings: Doppler echocardiography to detect regurgitant flow and pulmonary hypertension, ECG may show signs of LA enlargement and LV hypertrophy, CXR may show LA and LV enlargement in chronic MR and pulmonary edema in acute MR.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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Cardiology (6/8) 75%
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