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Question 1
Incorrect
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You are recommending hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for a 50-year-old woman who is healthy but is suffering from severe menopausal symptoms. She is curious about the advantages and disadvantages of various types of HRT.
What is the accurate response concerning the risk of cancer associated with different HRT formulations?Your Answer: Combined HRT decreases the risk of breast cancer
Correct Answer: Combined HRT increases the risk of breast cancer
Explanation:The addition of progestogen to HRT has been found to increase the risk of breast cancer. However, this risk is dependent on the duration of treatment and decreases after discontinuing HRT. It is important to note that this increased risk doesn’t affect the likelihood of dying from breast cancer. HRT with oestrogen alone may have no or reduced risk of coronary heart disease, while combined HRT has little to no increase in the risk of CHD. It is worth noting that there is no HRT available that contains progestogen only. Although NICE doesn’t provide specific risk analysis for ovarian cancer in women taking HRT, a meta-analysis suggests an increased risk for both oestrogen-only and combined HRT preparations.
Adverse Effects of Hormone Replacement Therapy
Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, often combined with a progestogen, to alleviate menopausal symptoms. However, this treatment can have side-effects such as nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, and weight gain.
Moreover, there are potential complications associated with HRT. One of the most significant risks is an increased likelihood of breast cancer, particularly when a progestogen is added. The Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study found that the relative risk of developing breast cancer was 1.26 after five years of HRT use. The risk of breast cancer is related to the duration of HRT use, and it begins to decline when the treatment is stopped. Additionally, HRT use can increase the risk of endometrial cancer, which can be reduced but not eliminated by adding a progestogen.
Another potential complication of HRT is an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), particularly when a progestogen is added. However, transdermal HRT doesn’t appear to increase the risk of VTE. Women who are at high risk for VTE should be referred to haematology before starting any HRT treatment, even transdermal. Finally, HRT use can increase the risk of stroke and ischaemic heart disease if taken more than ten years after menopause.
In conclusion, while HRT can be an effective treatment for menopausal symptoms, it is essential to be aware of the potential adverse effects and complications associated with this treatment. Women should discuss the risks and benefits of HRT with their healthcare provider before starting any treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 2
Correct
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You are seeing a 60-year-old lady with oestrogen-receptor-positive breast cancer.
She is being treated with letrozole 2.5 mg daily.
Which of the following is the most common side effect of her treatment?Your Answer: Osteoporosis
Explanation:Letrozole and its Side Effects
Letrozole is a medication used to treat postmenopausal women with oestrogen-receptor positive breast cancer. However, it is not recommended for premenopausal women. The British National Formulary (BNF) lists the frequency of side effects as very common, common, uncommon, rare, and very rare. Letrozole’s less common side effects include cough and leucopenia, while vulvovaginal disorders are listed as uncommon. Pulmonary embolism is a rare side effect. On the other hand, osteoporosis and bone fractures are more common side effects, and patients should have their bone mineral density assessed before treatment and at regular intervals. The BNF also cautions that patients may be susceptible to osteoporosis. It is important to be aware of these potential side effects when prescribing Letrozole.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old lady who has recently moved to the UK from Haiti presents with post-coital bleeding and an offensive vaginal discharge that has been ongoing for six weeks. She had swabs taken by the practice nurse a week prior to her visit. On examination, an inflamed cervix that bleeds upon touch is noted. She is a gravida 6, para 4, and has never had a cervical smear. She has been sterilized for 10 years and has never used barrier contraception. A high vaginal swab has ruled out Chlamydia, gonorrhoea, and Trichomonas. What is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Advise self referral to STD clinic
Correct Answer: Refer for urgent colposcopy
Explanation:Suspected Cervical Cancer
This patient should be suspected to have cervical cancer until proven otherwise, due to inflammation of the cervix that has been shown to be non-infective and no documented smear history, which puts her at higher risk. Empirical treatment for Chlamydia or gonorrhoea would not usually be suggested in general practice unless the patient has symptoms and signs of PID. Referring to an STD clinic is incorrect, as urgent investigation for cancer is necessary. Referring routinely to gynaecology is an option, but it doesn’t fully take into account the urgency of ruling out cervical cancer. Arranging a smear test for a lady with suspected cervical cancer would be inappropriate, as smear tests do not diagnose cancer, they only assess the likelihood of cancer occurring in the future.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 4
Incorrect
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What is a risk factor for breast cancer?
Your Answer: Nulliparity
Correct Answer: Younger first time mothers
Explanation:Factors affecting breast cancer risk
Breast cancer risk is influenced by various factors. Women who experience late menopause, early menarche, and use combined oral contraceptive pills are at an increased risk of developing breast cancer. Additionally, older first-time mothers are also at a higher risk. However, childbearing can reduce the risk of breast cancer. According to Cancer Research UK, women who have had children have a 30% lower risk of developing breast cancer compared to those who have not.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A woman is worried about her risk of breast cancer. When should she be referred to the local breast services?
Your Answer: A woman whose sister has been diagnosed with HER2 positive breast cancer aged 51 years
Correct Answer: A woman whose father has been diagnosed with breast cancer aged 56 years
Explanation:Breast Cancer Screening and Familial Risk Factors
Breast cancer screening is offered to women aged 50-70 years through the NHS Breast Screening Programme, with mammograms offered every three years. While the effectiveness of breast screening is debated, it is estimated that the programme saves around 1,400 lives annually. Women over 70 years may still have mammograms but are encouraged to make their own appointments.
For those with familial risk factors, NICE guidelines recommend referral to a breast clinic for further assessment. Those with one first-degree or second-degree relative diagnosed with breast cancer do not need referral unless certain factors are present in the family history, such as early age of diagnosis, bilateral breast cancer, male breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Jewish ancestry, or complicated patterns of multiple cancers at a young age. Women with an increased risk of breast cancer due to family history may be offered screening from a younger age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old female comes to see you at the GP surgery complaining of hot flashes. Her LMP was 13 months ago. She wants to have some blood tests to confirm she has gone through the menopause.
What is the most appropriate management from the list below?Your Answer: She should have FSH/LH and oestradiol levels checked 6 weeks apart to confirm a diagnosis of menopause.
Correct Answer: She can be advised that she has gone through the menopause. No bloods required
Explanation:Diagnosing Menopause According to NICE NG23
According to NICE NG23 guidelines, menopause can be diagnosed without laboratory tests in otherwise healthy women aged over 45 years with menopausal symptoms. Perimenopause can be diagnosed based on vasomotor symptoms and irregular periods, while menopause can be diagnosed in women who have not had a period for at least 12 months and are not using hormonal contraception. Menopause can also be diagnosed based on symptoms in women without a uterus.
However, in women aged 40 to 45 years with menopausal symptoms, including a change in their menstrual cycle, and in women aged under 40 years in whom menopause is suspected, a FSH test may be considered to diagnose menopause.
In the case of a woman aged over 45 years with amenorrhoea for over 12 months, a clinical diagnosis of menopause can be made without the need for blood tests. It is important to note that premature ovarian failure is not a concern in this case as the woman is aged 48.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 7
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents for contraceptive advice. She wishes to resume taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) after a 12-year hiatus due to a new relationship. She is in good health with no significant medical history, but she does smoke occasionally, averaging 2-3 cigarettes per day. Her body mass index (BMI) is 26 kg/m².
According to the guidelines of the Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH), what is the most appropriate advice to provide regarding the COCP?Your Answer: The disadvantages outweigh the advantages and alternative methods should be used
Explanation:The FSRH has issued UKMEC recommendations for the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) due to the heightened risk of cardiovascular disease. According to these guidelines, the COCP is classified as UKMEC 2 for individuals under the age of 35. For those over the age of 35 who smoke less than 15 cigarettes per day, the COCP is classified as UKMEC 3. However, for those over the age of 35 who smoke more than 15 cigarettes per day, the COCP is classified as UKMEC 4. Progestogen-only contraceptives, on the other hand, are not associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular disease and are therefore classified as UKMEC 1, regardless of the patient’s age or cigarette intake.
The choice of contraceptive for women may be affected by comorbidities. The FSRH provides UKMEC recommendations for different conditions. Smoking increases the risk of cardiovascular disease, and the COCP is recommended as UKMEC 2 for women under 35 and UKMEC 3 for those over 35 who smoke less than 15 cigarettes/day, but is UKMEC 4 for those who smoke more. Obesity increases the risk of venous thromboembolism, and the COCP is recommended as UKMEC 2 for women with a BMI of 30-34 kg/m² and UKMEC 3 for those with a BMI of 35 kg/m² or more. The COCP is contraindicated for women with a history of migraine with aura, but is UKMEC 3 for those with migraines without aura and UKMEC 2 for initiation. For women with epilepsy, consistent use of condoms is recommended in addition to other forms of contraception. The choice of contraceptive for women taking anti-epileptic medication depends on the specific medication, with the COCP and POP being UKMEC 3 for most medications, while the implant is UKMEC 2 and the Depo-Provera, IUD, and IUS are UKMEC 1. Lamotrigine has different recommendations, with the COCP being UKMEC 3 and the POP, implant, Depo-Provera, IUD, and IUS being UKMEC 1.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old female presents for contraception advice. She had the intrauterine device inserted after being diagnosed with breast cancer seven years ago, which was treated successfully. However, she has noticed that her periods have become heavier since having the device and is interested in exploring other contraceptive options. What advice should be given regarding her contraception?
Your Answer: She should be advised that she could use barrier contraception, the intrauterine device, intrauterine system or contraceptive implant
Correct Answer: She should be advised to use barrier contraception or the intrauterine device only
Explanation:Contraception Options for Patients with Past Breast Cancer
Patients with a past history of breast cancer should be advised to use barrier contraception or the intrauterine device (IUD) only. Hormonal containing contraception, including progestogens, are UKMEC 3 in these patients. This means that the benefits of using hormonal contraception may outweigh the risks, but caution should be taken and alternative options should be considered.
The IUD and implant are also UKMEC 3 in patients with past breast cancer, while the IUD and progesterone-only pill are also considered UKMEC 3. It is important for patients to discuss their options with their healthcare provider and weigh the potential benefits and risks of each method before making a decision. By considering all options and taking precautions, patients with past breast cancer can still have access to effective contraception while minimizing potential risks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman who is taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) seeks advice. She is currently on day 15 of her cycle and has missed her last two pills. Before this, she had taken her pill correctly every day. She had unprotected sex 10 hours ago and is unsure if she needs emergency contraception to avoid pregnancy.
What advice should she be given?Your Answer: To have a copper intrauterine device (IUD) fitted
Correct Answer: No emergency contraception is required and to continue taking her pill as normal
Explanation:If the patient has missed two pills between days 8-14 of her cycle but has taken the previous 7 days of COCP correctly, emergency contraception is not necessary according to the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Health. Since the patient is not in need of emergency contraception, offering a hormonal-based option would be inappropriate. However, if emergency contraception is required, options include EllaOne (ulipristal acetate) up to 120 hours after unprotected intercourse or Levonelle (levonorgestrel) up to 96 hours after unprotected intercourse.
Inserting a copper IUD to prevent pregnancy would also be inappropriate in this case. If the patient is having difficulty remembering to take her pill correctly and is interested in long-acting contraception, counseling her on options such as intrauterine devices, subnormal contraceptive implants, and the contraceptive injection would be appropriate.
It is important to note that emergency contraception can be prescribed up to 120 hours after unprotected sexual intercourse, but its effectiveness decreases over time. Therefore, advising a patient to take emergency contraception within 12 hours would be incorrect.
The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their advice for women taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol. If one pill is missed at any time during the cycle, the woman should take the last pill, even if it means taking two pills in one day, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed. However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. She should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for seven days in a row. If pills are missed in week one, emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week one. If pills are missed in week two, after seven consecutive days of taking the COC, there is no need for emergency contraception. If pills are missed in week three, she should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of seven days on, seven days off.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 10
Correct
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During a phone consultation, a 32-year-old transgender man seeks advice on cervical screening. He is sexually active and had a normal cervical smear five years ago. However, he has changed GP practices and has not received any further invitations. He wants to know if he needs any further smear tests.
The patient is generally healthy and has not experienced weight loss, dyspareunia, or abnormal vaginal bleeding. He has not had a period for over 18 months and is only taking testosterone therapy since his gender reassignment two years ago. He has no surgical history and doesn't smoke or drink alcohol.
What is the most appropriate advice to give this patient regarding cervical screening?Your Answer: Cervical screening should be offered to this patient
Explanation:All sexually active individuals with a uterus, including transgender patients, should be offered cervical screening. This patient, who is sexually active and has an intact uterus, requires regular cervical smear tests regardless of their menstrual cycle or symptoms of abnormal vaginal bleeding. Testosterone therapy may affect the patient’s gender characteristics, but gender reassignment allows for legal recognition of their gender identity and rights, such as obtaining a new birth certificate, driving license, passport, and the ability to marry in their new gender. However, neither of these factors exempts the patient from cervical screening.
Contraceptive and Sexual Health Guidance for Transgender and Non-Binary Individuals
The Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare has released guidance on contraceptive choices and sexual health for transgender and non-binary individuals. The guidance emphasizes the importance of sensitive communication and offering options that consider personal preferences, co-morbidities, and current medications or therapies. For those engaging in vaginal sex, condoms and dental dams are recommended to prevent sexually transmitted infections. Cervical screening and HPV vaccinations should also be offered. Those at risk of HIV transmission should be advised of pre-exposure prophylaxis and post-exposure prophylaxis.
For individuals assigned female at birth with a uterus, testosterone therapy doesn’t provide protection against pregnancy, and oestrogen-containing regimens are not recommended as they can antagonize the effect of testosterone therapy. Progesterone-only contraceptives are considered safe, and non-hormonal intrauterine devices may also suspend menstruation. Emergency contraception may be required following unprotected vaginal intercourse, and either oral formulation or the non-hormonal intrauterine device may be considered.
In patients assigned male at birth, hormone therapy may reduce or cease sperm production, but the variability of its effects means it cannot be relied upon as a method of contraception. Condoms are recommended for those engaging in vaginal sex to avoid the risk of pregnancy. The guidance stresses the importance of offering individuals options that take into account their personal circumstances and preferences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman schedules a routine appointment to discuss her cervical screening outcomes. Regrettably, her last two samples have been reported as insufficient. What is the best course of action for these findings?
Your Answer: Colposcopy within 2 weeks
Correct Answer: Colposcopy within 6 weeks
Explanation:If a woman has two consecutive inadequate samples during cervical cancer screening, she should be referred for colposcopy. This is because if the cytology results are abnormal and show high-grade dyskaryosis (moderate or severe), colposcopy should be offered within 2 weeks. For those with inadequate, borderline, or low-grade dyskaryosis (mild) results, they should receive an appointment within 6 weeks. It is not possible for the woman to return to routine recall as her samples were inadequate. Repeat hrHPV tests would only be necessary if the woman had positive hrHPV and normal cytology results.
Understanding Cervical Cancer Screening Results
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved significantly in recent years, with the introduction of HPV testing allowing for further risk stratification. The NHS now uses an HPV first system, where a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.
If the hrHPV test is negative, individuals can return to normal recall, unless they fall under the test of cure pathway, untreated CIN1 pathway, or require follow-up for incompletely excised cervical glandular intraepithelial neoplasia (CGIN) / stratified mucin producing intraepithelial lesion (SMILE) or cervical cancer. If the hrHPV test is positive, samples are examined cytologically, and if the cytology is abnormal, individuals will require colposcopy.
If the cytology is normal but the hrHPV test is positive, the test is repeated at 12 months. If the repeat test is still hrHPV positive and cytology is normal, a further repeat test is done 12 months later. If the hrHPV test is negative at 24 months, individuals can return to normal recall, but if it is still positive, they will require colposcopy. If the sample is inadequate, it will need to be repeated within 3 months, and if two consecutive samples are inadequate, colposcopy will be required.
For individuals who have previously had CIN, they should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample in the community 6 months after treatment. The most common treatment for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia is large loop excision of transformation zone (LLETZ), which may be done during the initial colposcopy visit or at a later date depending on the individual clinic. Cryotherapy is an alternative technique.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 12
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents for the removal of her copper intrauterine device (IUD) on day 4 of her 30-day menstrual cycle. She wishes to start taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) after the removal of the IUD. There are no contraindications to the COCP. What is the next best step in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Start the combined oral contraceptive pill today, no further contraceptive is required
Explanation:If the patient removes her IUD on day 1-5 of her menstrual cycle and switches to the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), she doesn’t need any additional contraception. The COCP is effective immediately if started on these days. However, if she starts the COCP from day 6 onwards, she will need to use barrier contraception for 7 days. There is no need to delay starting the COCP after IUD removal unless there is another reason. If the patient had recently taken ulipristal as an emergency contraceptive, she would need to wait for 5 days before starting hormonal contraception, but this is not the case for this patient.
New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman presents with symptoms suggestive of vaginal thrush. She is experiencing a thick white discharge and itching around the vulva. This is the third time in 6 months that she has had these symptoms. Previously, she has been treated with antifungal medications and the symptoms have resolved. The patient has recently undergone a full STI screening which came back negative and she is not currently pregnant.
What would be the most appropriate next step in managing her symptoms?Your Answer: Refer routinely to gynaecology
Correct Answer: Prescribe an induction-maintenance regimen of antifungal medication
Explanation:Patients with recurrent vaginal candidiasis, defined as experiencing four or more documented episodes in one year with at least partial symptom resolution between episodes, should be considered for an induction-maintenance regime of oral fluconazole, according to NICE guidance. This involves prescribing an induction course of three doses of oral fluconazole 150 mg taken three days apart or an intravaginal antifungal for 10-14 days, followed by a maintenance regimen of six months of treatment with an oral or intravaginal antifungal.
While topical antifungals can be used for uncomplicated episodes of vaginal thrush, prescribing a course of topical treatment would be inappropriate for patients with recurrent symptoms. Instead, the induction-maintenance regime should be used.
Referral to gynaecology or dermatology may be appropriate for patients aged 12-15 years old, those with doubt about the diagnosis, those with unexplained treatment failure, or those with a non-albicans Candida species identified. Swabbing the discharge to confirm the diagnosis is important, but treatment should not be delayed for symptomatic patients. Therefore, starting treatment with the induction-maintenance protocol is appropriate for patients with recurrent infections.
Vaginal candidiasis, commonly known as ‘thrush’, is a prevalent condition that many women self-diagnose and treat. Candida albicans is responsible for 80% of cases, while other candida species cause the remaining 20%. Although most women have no predisposing factors, certain conditions such as diabetes mellitus, drug use (antibiotics, steroids), pregnancy, and immunosuppression (HIV) may increase the likelihood of developing vaginal candidiasis. Symptoms include non-offensive discharge resembling cottage cheese, vulvitis, dyspareunia, dysuria, itching, vulval erythema, fissuring, and satellite lesions.
Routine high vaginal swabs are not necessary if the clinical features are consistent with candidiasis. Treatment options include local or oral therapy. The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommends oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose as the first-line treatment. If oral therapy is contraindicated, a single dose of clotrimazole 500 mg intravaginal pessary may be used. If vulval symptoms are present, a topical imidazole may be added to an oral or intravaginal antifungal. Pregnant women should only use local treatments such as cream or pessaries, as oral treatments are not recommended.
Recurrent vaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more episodes per year by BASHH. Compliance with previous treatment should be checked, and the diagnosis of candidiasis should be confirmed. A high vaginal swab for microscopy and culture may be necessary, and a blood glucose test should be performed to exclude diabetes. Differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus should also be ruled out. An induction-maintenance regime may be used, consisting of oral fluconazole every three days for three doses as induction, followed by oral fluconazole weekly for six months as maintenance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 14
Incorrect
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You see a 45-year-old woman who has been taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) for the last 12 years. She has recently become a patient at your practice and has not had a medication review in a long time. Despite being a non-smoker, having a normal BMI, and having no relevant medical history, she still requires contraception as she is sexually active and having regular periods. After discussing the risks and benefits of the COCP with her, she is hesitant to discontinue its use.
Which of the following statements regarding the COCP is accurate?Your Answer: Women should be advised against extended or continuous regimens of the COCP if >40 years old
Correct Answer:
Explanation:For women over 40, it is recommended to consider a COC pill containing less than 30 µg ethinylestradiol as the first-line option due to the potentially lower risks of VTE, cardiovascular disease, and stroke compared to formulations with higher doses of estrogen. COCP can also help reduce menstrual bleeding and pain, which may be beneficial for women in this age group. However, it is important to consider special considerations when prescribing COCP to women over 40.
Levonorgestrel or norethisterone-containing COCP preparations should be considered as the first-line option for women over 40 due to the potentially lower risk of VTE compared to formulations containing other progestogens. The UKMEC criteria for women over 40 is 2, while for women from menarche until 40, it is 1. The faculty of sexual and reproductive health recommends the use of COCP until age 50 if there are no other contraindications. Women aged 50 and over should be advised to use an alternative, safer method for contraception.
Extended or continuous COCP regimens can be offered to women for contraception and to control menstrual or menopausal symptoms. COCP is associated with a reduced risk of ovarian and endometrial cancer that lasts for several decades after cessation. It may also help maintain bone mineral density compared to non-use of hormones in the perimenopause.
Although meta-analyses have found a slightly increased risk of breast cancer among women using COCP, there is no significant risk of breast cancer ten years after cessation. Women who smoke should be advised to stop COCP at 35 as this is the age at which excess risk of mortality associated with smoking becomes clinically significant.
Women over the age of 40 still require effective contraception until they reach menopause, despite a significant decline in fertility. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has produced specific guidance for this age group, titled Contraception for Women Aged Over 40 Years. No method of contraception is contraindicated by age alone, with all methods being UKMEC1 except for the combined oral contraceptive pill (UKMEC2 for women >= 40 years) and Depo-Provera (UKMEC2 for women > 45 years). The FSRH guidance provides specific considerations for each method, such as the use of COCP in the perimenopausal period to maintain bone mineral density and reduce menopausal symptoms. Depo-Provera use is associated with a small loss in bone mineral density, which is usually recovered after discontinuation. The FSRH also provides a table detailing how different methods may be stopped based on age and amenorrhea status. Hormone replacement therapy cannot be relied upon for contraception, and a separate method is needed. The FSRH advises that the POP may be used in conjunction with HRT as long as the HRT has a progestogen component, while the IUS is licensed to provide the progestogen component of HRT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Jane, a 29-year-old female, has been experiencing a sore and inflamed left breast. She has been breastfeeding her newborn daughter for the past four weeks. During her visit to the GP, the doctor notes the inflammation and a temperature of 38.2ºC. The GP diagnoses mastitis and prescribes medication while encouraging Jane to continue breastfeeding.
Which organism is most commonly responsible for causing mastitis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Understanding Mastitis: Symptoms, Management, and Risks
Mastitis is a condition that occurs when the breast tissue becomes inflamed, and it is commonly associated with breastfeeding. It affects approximately 1 in 10 women and is characterized by symptoms such as a painful, tender, and red hot breast, as well as fever and general malaise.
The first-line management of mastitis is to continue breastfeeding, and simple measures such as analgesia and warm compresses can also be helpful. However, if a woman is systemically unwell, has a nipple fissure, or if symptoms do not improve after 12-24 hours of effective milk removal, treatment with antibiotics may be necessary. The most common organism causing infective mastitis is Staphylococcus aureus, and the first-line antibiotic is oral flucloxacillin for 10-14 days. It is important to note that breastfeeding or expressing should continue during antibiotic treatment.
If left untreated, mastitis can lead to the development of a breast abscess, which may require incision and drainage. Therefore, it is crucial to seek medical attention if symptoms persist or worsen. By understanding the symptoms, management, and risks associated with mastitis, women can take proactive steps to address this condition and ensure their overall health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female patient complains of a fishy vaginal discharge that she finds offensive. She reports a grey, watery discharge. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bacterial vaginosis
Explanation:Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.
Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimens. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Injectable depot-provera
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Copper intrauterine device
Explanation:Injectable progesterone contraceptives are not recommended for individuals with current breast cancer due to contraindications. This applies to all hormonal contraceptive options, including Depo-Provera, which are classified as UKMEC 4. As a result, the copper intrauterine device is the only suitable contraception option available.
Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera
Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150 mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucous thickening and endometrial thinning.
However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.
It is important to note that Noristerat, another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, is rarely used in clinical practice. It is given every 8 weeks. The BNF gives different advice regarding the interval between injections, stating that a pregnancy test should be done if the interval is greater than 12 weeks and 5 days. However, this is not commonly adhered to in the family planning community.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old teacher presents to you with concerns about her Depo-Provera injectable contraceptive. She has been experiencing irregular bleeding since starting the contraceptive 4 months ago. This is causing her personal inconvenience and putting a strain on her relationship. She denies any vaginal discharge and is in a stable relationship. She has had regular cervical smears and her last one was normal 2 years ago. What advice would you give her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trial of a short-term combined oral contraceptive pill
Explanation:Management of Unscheduled Bleeding in a Young Lady on Depo-Provera Injection
This patient is a young lady who has been experiencing unscheduled bleeding after being put on the Depo-Provera injection. However, she has no red flag symptoms and is up-to-date with her cervical smears, which provides reassurance to her history. At this stage, blood tests and a pelvic ultrasound scan are not necessary, but may be considered later on. Referral to a gynaecologist is not indicated as there are no alarming symptoms present.
It is important to follow advice from the cervical screening hub regarding cervical smears and not order one sooner than indicated. If any alarming symptoms arise, referral to a gynaecologist is recommended. For women experiencing unscheduled bleeding while on a progesterone-only injectable and who are medically eligible, a combined oral contraceptive can be offered for three months in the usual cyclic manner. The longer-term use of the combined contraceptive pill with the injectable progesterone is a matter of clinical judgement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of vaginal itching and increased discharge with a peculiar consistency, but no odour. During the examination, the GP observes erythema in the areas surrounding her vagina, along with some clumpy white discharge. The patient reports experiencing dysuria but no abdominal pain, and her urine appears pale yellow. She also mentions having three similar episodes in the past year. What possible conditions should be considered for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A blood test to rule out diabetes
Explanation:In cases of recurrent vaginal candidiasis, it is important to consider a blood test to rule out diabetes as a potential underlying cause. This is because poorly controlled diabetes can increase the risk of Candida growth. While it is important to treat the symptoms of the infection, it is also crucial to investigate any predisposing factors that may be contributing to the recurrence.
Measuring TSH, free T3 and T4 levels to rule out hyperthyroidism is not necessary as there is no link between an overactive thyroid and Candida infections. Similarly, mid-stream urine to rule out UTI is not necessary unless the patient’s symptoms suggest a urinary tract infection. Referral to a specialist is also not necessary as recurrent vaginal candidiasis can be managed in primary care with an induction-maintenance regimen of antifungals. Specialist referral may only be necessary if the infective organism is resistant to treatment or if it is a non-albicans Candida species.
Vaginal candidiasis, commonly known as ‘thrush’, is a prevalent condition that many women self-diagnose and treat. Candida albicans is responsible for 80% of cases, while other candida species cause the remaining 20%. Although most women have no predisposing factors, certain conditions such as diabetes mellitus, drug use (antibiotics, steroids), pregnancy, and immunosuppression (HIV) may increase the likelihood of developing vaginal candidiasis. Symptoms include non-offensive discharge resembling cottage cheese, vulvitis, dyspareunia, dysuria, itching, vulval erythema, fissuring, and satellite lesions.
Routine high vaginal swabs are not necessary if the clinical features are consistent with candidiasis. Treatment options include local or oral therapy. The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommends oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose as the first-line treatment. If oral therapy is contraindicated, a single dose of clotrimazole 500 mg intravaginal pessary may be used. If vulval symptoms are present, a topical imidazole may be added to an oral or intravaginal antifungal. Pregnant women should only use local treatments such as cream or pessaries, as oral treatments are not recommended.
Recurrent vaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more episodes per year by BASHH. Compliance with previous treatment should be checked, and the diagnosis of candidiasis should be confirmed. A high vaginal swab for microscopy and culture may be necessary, and a blood glucose test should be performed to exclude diabetes. Differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus should also be ruled out. An induction-maintenance regime may be used, consisting of oral fluconazole every three days for three doses as induction, followed by oral fluconazole weekly for six months as maintenance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A morbidly obese 35-year-old patient comes to see you. She has been amenorrhoeic for 10 years, has male pattern hirsutism and had an ultrasound scan demonstrating polycystic ovaries 8 years ago.
She has recently lost 3 kg in weight and has been spotting blood per vagina for two weeks. She has come to see you asking if the weight loss may have caused her ovaries to start working again. You examine for local causes of bleeding, and the vagina and cervix appear healthy. Pregnancy test is negative.
What should you do?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Suspected cancer referral
Explanation:Management of Suspicious Bleeding in a High-Risk Patient
This patient has several risk factors for endometrial dysplasia and cancer, including obesity, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and long-term amenorrhea. Recently, she has experienced a change in her bleeding pattern from amenorrhea to spotting, which requires ruling out any suspicious causes. According to NICE guidelines, women aged 55 years and over with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred for an appointment within 2 weeks for endometrial cancer. For women under 55 years, a suspected cancer pathway referral should be considered. A direct access ultrasound scan may also be considered for women aged 55 years and over with unexplained symptoms of vaginal discharge, thrombocytosis, haematuria, low haemoglobin levels, thrombocytosis, or high blood glucose levels.
In this case, checking a day 21 progesterone is not useful as the patient is amenorrheic. The FSH:LH ratio may be helpful in diagnosing polycystic ovarian syndrome, but it will not guide management in this case. The use of a coil may be considered after a TVUS to measure endometrial thickness if the patient is deemed low risk. Overall, it is important to promptly investigate any suspicious bleeding in high-risk patients to ensure early detection and management of any potential malignancies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman presents to you with concerns about the possibility of pregnancy after engaging in consensual, unprotected sexual intercourse last night. She is currently on day 10 of her menstrual cycle and had taken the morning-after-pill seven days ago after a similar incident. She had stopped taking her combined oral contraceptive pill four weeks ago and was scheduled to have a levonorgestrel intrauterine system inserted next week. Her medical history is unremarkable, and she has a height of 180cm and a weight of 74kg (BMI 22.8). What is the most appropriate course of action to prevent pregnancy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Levonorgestrel at double dose by mouth
Explanation:The correct answer is to double the dose of levonorgestrel to 3 mg by mouth for this patient, as she has a weight of over 70kg, despite having a healthy BMI. This information is based on the BNF guidelines.
Inserting a copper intrauterine device would not be the best option for this patient, as she already has plans for levonorgestrel device insertion and may be using it for additional hormonal benefits, such as reducing the heaviness of her bleeding.
Inserting the levonorgestrel uterine system would not provide the emergency contraception required for this patient, as it takes about 7 days to become effective. Therefore, it is not appropriate in this situation.
The standard dose of levonorgestrel 1.5mg would be given to females who weigh less than 70 kg or have a BMI less than 26. However, in this case, it would be inappropriate due to the patient’s weight being over 70kg.
It would be risky to suggest to this patient that she doesn’t need to take another form of emergency contraception, as the initial pill may not have prevented ovulation during this cycle.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, and should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) for maximum efficacy. The single dose of levonorgestrel is 1.5mg, but should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. It is safe and well-tolerated, but may cause vomiting in around 1% of women. Ulipristal, on the other hand, is a selective progesterone receptor modulator that inhibits ovulation. It should be taken within 120 hours after intercourse, and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which may inhibit fertilization or implantation. It must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI, or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high-risk of sexually transmitted infection. The IUD is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle, and may be left in-situ for long-term contraception.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents with symptoms of hot flashes, night sweats, mood swings, vaginal dryness, and reduced libido. She has not had a period for 12 months and has an intact uterus. Despite being obese, she has no other risk factors and has been informed about the potential risks and benefits of hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What would be the most suitable HRT regimen for her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transdermal cyclical regimen
Explanation:The appropriate HRT regimen for this patient is a transdermal cyclical one, as she has had a period within the last year. As she has an intact uterus, a combined regimen with both oestrogen and progesterone is necessary. Given her increased risk of venous thromboembolism and cardiovascular disease due to obesity, transdermal preparations are recommended over oral options. Low-dose vaginal oestrogen is not sufficient for her systemic symptoms. An oestrogen-only preparation is not appropriate for women with a uterus. A transdermal continuous combined regimen is not recommended within 12 months of the last menstrual period. If the patient cannot tolerate the transdermal option, an oral cyclical regimen may be considered.
Managing Menopause: Lifestyle Modifications, HRT, and Non-HRT Options
Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It is diagnosed when a woman has not had a period for 12 months. Menopausal symptoms are common and can last for several years. The management of menopause can be divided into three categories: lifestyle modifications, hormone replacement therapy (HRT), and non-hormone replacement therapy.
Lifestyle modifications can help manage symptoms such as hot flashes, sleep disturbance, mood changes, and cognitive symptoms. Regular exercise, weight loss, stress reduction, and good sleep hygiene are recommended.
HRT is an effective treatment for menopausal symptoms, but it is not suitable for everyone. Women with current or past breast cancer, any oestrogen-sensitive cancer, undiagnosed vaginal bleeding, or untreated endometrial hyperplasia should not take HRT. HRT brings certain risks, including an increased risk of venous thromboembolism, stroke, coronary heart disease, breast cancer, and ovarian cancer.
Non-HRT options include fluoxetine, citalopram, or venlafaxine for vasomotor symptoms, vaginal lubricants or moisturisers for vaginal dryness, self-help groups, cognitive behaviour therapy, or antidepressants for psychological symptoms, and vaginal oestrogen for urogenital symptoms.
When stopping HRT, it is important to gradually reduce the dosage to limit recurrence in the short term. Women should be referred to secondary care if treatment has been ineffective, if there are ongoing side effects, or if there is unexplained bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman comes to the clinic seeking emergency contraception. She had unprotected sex within the last 24 hours and is not currently using any regular form of birth control. Her menstrual cycle is regular, with her last period occurring 12 days ago. She has no known medical conditions. Upon reviewing her medical records, you discover that she used levonorgestrel for emergency contraception 20 days ago.
She asks for your advice on what options are available for emergency contraception. How should you respond?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She can use levonorgestrel or ulipristal, or the intrauterine copper device
Explanation:It is now recommended to use both levonorgestrel and ulipristal more than once in the same menstrual cycle. According to the current guidelines from the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH), if a woman has already taken either medication once or more in a cycle, she can be offered it again after further unprotected sexual intercourse in the same cycle. However, if she has already taken one medication, the other should not be taken within a certain timeframe. It is important to note that the intrauterine copper device is the most effective form of contraception and should be offered to eligible patients. Advising that no emergency contraception is needed when a woman is at risk of pregnancy is incorrect.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, and should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) for maximum efficacy. The single dose of levonorgestrel is 1.5mg, but should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. It is safe and well-tolerated, but may cause vomiting in around 1% of women. Ulipristal, on the other hand, is a selective progesterone receptor modulator that inhibits ovulation. It should be taken within 120 hours after intercourse, and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which may inhibit fertilization or implantation. It must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI, or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high-risk of sexually transmitted infection. The IUD is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle, and may be left in-situ for long-term contraception.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Emma is a 27-year-old woman who visited her GP for a routine smear test. While conducting the test, a 2 cm lump was discovered just lateral to the introitus. Emma reported no accompanying symptoms.
What would be the most suitable course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Do nothing
Explanation:Bartholin’s cysts that are asymptomatic do not need any treatment and can be managed conservatively.
In cases where the cysts are recurrent or causing discomfort, marsupialisation or balloon catheter insertion can be considered as management options. These procedures have been shown to decrease the likelihood of recurrence.
If an abscess is suspected, antibiotics may be necessary. Symptoms of an abscess include pain, swelling, redness, and fever.
Women who are 40 years old or older should be referred for a biopsy to rule out the possibility of carcinoma.
Bartholin’s cyst occurs when the Bartholin duct’s entrance becomes blocked, causing mucous to build up behind the blockage and form a mass. This blockage is usually caused by vulval oedema and is typically sterile. These cysts are often asymptomatic and painless, but if they become large, they may cause discomfort when sitting or superficial dyspareunia. On the other hand, Bartholin’s abscess is extremely painful and can cause erythema and deformity of the affected vulva. Bartholin’s abscess is more common than the cyst, likely due to the asymptomatic nature of the cyst in most cases.
Bartholin’s cysts are usually unilateral and 1-3 cm in diameter, and they should not be palpable in healthy individuals. Limited data suggest that around 3000 in 100,000 asymptomatic women have Bartholin’s cysts, and these cysts account for 2% of all gynaecological appointments. The risk factors for developing Bartholin’s cyst are not well understood, but it is thought to increase in incidence with age up to menopause before decreasing. Having one cyst is a risk factor for developing a second.
Asymptomatic cysts generally do not require intervention, but in older women, some gynaecologists may recommend incision and drainage with biopsy to exclude carcinoma. Symptomatic or disfiguring cysts can be treated with incision and drainage or marsupialisation, which involves creating a new orifice through which glandular secretions can drain. Marsupialisation is more effective at preventing recurrence but is a longer and more invasive procedure. Antibiotics are not necessary for Bartholin’s cyst without evidence of abscess.
References:
1. Berger MB, Betschart C, Khandwala N, et al. Incidental Bartholin gland cysts identified on pelvic magnetic resonance imaging. Obstet Gynecol. 2012 Oct;120(4):798-802.
2. Kaufman RH, Faro S, Brown D. Benign diseases of the vulva and vagina. 5th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Elsevier Mosby; 2005:240-249.
3. Azzan BB. Bartholin’s cyst and abscess: a review of treatment of 53 cases. Br J Clin Pract. 1978 Apr;32(4):101-2. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 25
Incorrect
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You meet with a 32-year-old patient during a clinic visit to discuss contraception options. She expresses interest in getting a coil as she has not had success with oral contraceptives and desires a highly effective method. Although her periods are not excessively heavy or painful, she is curious about the Kyleena® intrauterine system (IUS) after hearing about it from friends and reading an article about it. What information should you provide to this patient regarding the Kyleena®?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The Kyleena® coil releases less systemic levonorgestrel than the mirena® coil
Explanation:The Kyleena® is a newly licensed levonorgestrel (LNG) intrauterine system (IUS) that is designed for contraceptive use for up to 5 years. Unlike the Mirena® IUS, it is not approved for managing heavy menstrual bleeding or providing endometrial protection as part of hormonal replacement therapy. The Kyleena® IUS is smaller in size than the Mirena® coil and contains 19.5mg of LNG, which is less than the 52mg found in the Mirena®. The Jaydess IUS contains the least amount of LNG at 13.5mg, but it is only licensed for 3 years. The Kyleena® releases a lower amount of systemic LNG than the Mirena® IUS, which may result in lower rates of amenorrhea and a higher number of bleeding or spotting days.
New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 26
Incorrect
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The following patients all attend surgery for routine appointments. As a practice, you are trying to improve the number of female patients using the cervical screening programme by opportunistically inviting overdue patients for smear tests.
Which of the following patients who are over 30 years old would you advise make an appointment as they are overdue a smear test?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A 36-year-old homosexual female patient who has never had intercourse with a male partner and has never had a cervical smear
Explanation:Cervical Screening Guidelines in the UK
Cervical screening is an important aspect of women’s health in the UK. The age range for screening varies between 25-64 in England and Wales, and 20-60 in Scotland. The screening interval also varies depending on the country. It is important to note that a patient who is too young or has had a normal smear test within the recommended time frame is not overdue for screening.
According to the latest guidance, women who are taking maintenance immunosuppression medication post-transplantation should follow the national guidelines for non-immunosuppressed individuals. This also applies to other special circumstances, such as HIV-positive patients, who should follow the same age range for screening as the general population.
It is important to note that being homosexual and never having had a male partner doesn’t exempt a woman from screening. Women can still be exposed to HPV through a female partner who may have had previous male partners. Therefore, all women with a cervix should be considered as screening candidates and encouraged to attend.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding pelvic inflammatory disease is inaccurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intrauterine contraceptive devices should always be removed following diagnosis
Explanation:Mild cases of pelvic inflammatory disease do not require removal of intrauterine contraceptive devices.
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a condition where the female pelvic organs, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, and surrounding peritoneum, become infected and inflamed. It is typically caused by an infection that spreads from the endocervix. The most common causative organism is Chlamydia trachomatis, followed by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Mycoplasma genitalium, and Mycoplasma hominis. Symptoms of PID include lower abdominal pain, fever, dyspareunia, dysuria, menstrual irregularities, vaginal or cervical discharge, and cervical excitation.
To diagnose PID, a pregnancy test should be done to rule out an ectopic pregnancy, and a high vaginal swab should be taken to screen for Chlamydia and Gonorrhoea. However, these tests may often be negative, so consensus guidelines recommend having a low threshold for treatment due to the potential complications of untreated PID. Management typically involves oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole. In mild cases of PID, intrauterine contraceptive devices may be left in, but the evidence is limited, and removal of the IUD may be associated with better short-term clinical outcomes according to recent guidelines.
Complications of PID include perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh Curtis Syndrome), which occurs in around 10% of cases and is characterized by right upper quadrant pain that may be confused with cholecystitis, infertility (with a risk as high as 10-20% after a single episode), chronic pelvic pain, and ectopic pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A carer calls you to see a 70-year-old lady and says There is a pressure sore down below which is not getting better. There is an associated itch and occasionally she sees blood spots on her underwear.
She has been using over-the-counter antifungal creams from the chemist for the last six weeks but it is not helping. On examination there is a shallow ulcer, 3 cm in diameter, on the labia majora. The rest of the examination is normal.
How would you manage this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Routine referral to dermatology
Explanation:Urgent Referral for Unexplained Vulval Lump or Non-Responsive Ulceration
Any woman who discovers a new, unexplained lump or experiences ulceration that doesn’t respond to treatment should be referred urgently. It is important to note that the term pressure sore should be used with caution, as it may not accurately describe the condition.
If the ulcer appears to be caused by thrush, fluconazole may be considered. However, if the ulcer doesn’t arise from typical intertriginous areas and lacks satellite lesions or white discharge, a fungal infection is unlikely.
While primary syphilis can cause a solitary painless genital ulcer, it tends to resolve within four to eight weeks. Therefore, it is unlikely that this would be the first presentation of a lady with primary syphilis.
If the condition is suspected to be a pressure ulcer on the sacrum or another pressure point, a tissue viability nurse may be consulted. However, based on the given history, this seems unlikely. Referring to dermatology is not appropriate for a strongly suspected case of vulval carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of green-brown nipple discharge. She reports no other breast changes and is in good health. She has breastfed three children and is not using any hormonal contraception. What is the primary cause of brown-green nipple discharge?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Duct ectasia
Explanation:The most common cause of brown-green nipple discharge is duct ectasia. This condition is often found in women around menopause and is caused by the dilation of the milk duct due to aging. It may or may not be accompanied by a small lump under the nipple.
While breast cancer can also cause nipple discharge, it is usually bloody and only comes from one nipple. A prolactinoma, a benign pituitary tumor that produces prolactin, can cause bilateral lactation and a cream-colored discharge.
Fat necrosis of the breast is typically caused by blunt trauma to the breast, resulting in a hard lump, but no nipple discharge. Paget’s disease of the nipple is characterized by a change in the skin of the nipple and areola, but there is usually no associated nipple discharge.
Understanding Nipple Discharge: Causes and Assessment
Nipple discharge is a common concern among women, and it can be caused by various factors. Physiological discharge may occur during breastfeeding, while galactorrhea may be triggered by emotional events or certain medications. Hyperprolactinemia, pituitary tumors, mammary duct ectasia, and intraductal papilloma are other possible causes of nipple discharge.
To assess patients with nipple discharge, a breast examination should be conducted to determine the presence of a mass lesion. If a mass is detected, triple assessment is recommended to evaluate the condition. Reporting of investigations should follow a system that uses a prefix denoting the type of investigation, such as M for mammography, followed by a numerical code indicating the findings.
For non-malignant nipple discharge, endocrine disease should be excluded, and smoking cessation advice may be given for duct ectasia. In severe cases of duct ectasia, total duct excision may be necessary. Nipple cytology is generally unhelpful in diagnosing the cause of nipple discharge.
Understanding the causes and assessment of nipple discharge is crucial in providing appropriate management and treatment for patients. Proper evaluation and reporting of investigations can help in identifying any underlying conditions and determining the best course of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 30
Incorrect
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You encounter a 27-year-old woman who wishes to discuss her contraceptive options. She has had difficulty finding a suitable pill and is considering a coil. She has no immediate plans for pregnancy and has never been pregnant before. She experiences heavy and painful periods and is concerned about the possibility of a coil exacerbating her symptoms. She has heard about the Mirena® intrauterine system from a friend but is curious about the new Kyleena® coil and how it compares to the Mirena®.
What advice should you provide to this individual?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The rate of amenorrhoea is likely to be less with the Kyleena® than the Mirena®
Explanation:Compared to the Mirena IUS, the Kyleena IUS has a lower rate of amenorrhoea. The Kyleena IUS is a newly licensed contraceptive that contains 19.5mg of levonorgestrel and can be used for up to 5 years. However, it is not licensed for managing heavy menstrual bleeding or providing endometrial protection as part of hormonal replacement therapy, unlike the Mirena IUS. The Kyleena IUS is smaller in size than the Mirena coil, and the Jaydess IUS contains the least amount of LNG at 13.5mg but is only licensed for 3 years. While the lower LNG in the Kyleena IUS may result in a higher number of bleeding/spotting days, overall, the number of such days is likely to be lower than other doses of LNG-IUS. Women may prefer the Kyleena IUS over the Mirena IUS due to its lower systemic levonorgestrel levels.
New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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