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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which of the following drugs doesn't inhibit cytochrome P450?
Your Answer: Ketoconazole
Correct Answer: Clopidogrel
Explanation:P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors
The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing many drugs in the body. Induction of this system occurs when a drug or substance causes an increase in the activity of the P450 enzymes. This process usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug. On the other hand, P450 inhibitors decrease the activity of the enzymes and their effects are often seen rapidly.
Some common inducers of the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking. Smoking affects CYP1A2, which is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.
In contrast, some common inhibitors of the P450 system include antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, acute alcohol intake, and quinupristin.
It is important to be aware of the potential for drug interactions when taking medications that affect the P450 enzyme system. Patients should always inform their healthcare provider of all medications and supplements they are taking to avoid any adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 2
Correct
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A 26-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of severe lower abdomen pain, headache, flushing, anxiety, and restlessness during her menstrual cycle. Her symptoms improve as she approaches the end of her period. Blood tests reveal no apparent cause, and a symptom diary suggests a possible diagnosis of premenstrual syndrome.
According to NICE, which of the following is a potential treatment option for premenstrual syndrome?Your Answer: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
Explanation:According to NICE, the treatment of premenstrual syndrome should be approached from various angles, taking into account the severity of symptoms and the patient’s preferences. Effective treatment options include non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs taken orally, combined oral contraceptive, cognitive behavioural therapy and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. However, the copper intrauterine device, tricyclic antidepressants, diazepam and progestogen only pill are not recommended as treatment options.
Understanding Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)
Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is a condition that affects women during the luteal phase of their menstrual cycle. It is characterized by emotional and physical symptoms that can range from mild to severe. PMS only occurs in women who have ovulatory menstrual cycles and doesn’t occur before puberty, during pregnancy, or after menopause.
Emotional symptoms of PMS include anxiety, stress, fatigue, and mood swings. Physical symptoms may include bloating and breast pain. The severity of symptoms varies from woman to woman, and management options depend on the severity of symptoms.
Mild symptoms can be managed with lifestyle advice, such as getting enough sleep, exercising regularly, and avoiding smoking and alcohol. Specific advice includes eating regular, frequent, small, balanced meals that are rich in complex carbohydrates.
Moderate symptoms may benefit from a new-generation combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), such as Yasmin® (drospirenone 3 mg and ethinylestradiol 0.030 mg). Severe symptoms may benefit from a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which can be taken continuously or just during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle (for example, days 15-28, depending on the length of the cycle). Understanding PMS and its management options can help women better cope with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 3
Correct
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A 25-year-old female presents with a history of weight loss and diarrhoea. During a colonoscopy to investigate her symptoms, a biopsy is taken and the report indicates the presence of pigment-laden macrophages suggestive of melanosis coli. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Laxative abuse
Explanation:Understanding Melanosis Coli: A Pigmentation Disorder of the Bowel Wall
Melanosis coli is a condition that affects the pigmentation of the bowel wall. This disorder is characterized by the presence of pigment-laden macrophages, which can be observed through histology. One of the primary causes of melanosis coli is laxative abuse, particularly the use of anthraquinone compounds like senna.
This condition is a result of the accumulation of melanin in the macrophages of the colon. The pigmentation can be seen as dark brown or black spots on the lining of the colon. While melanosis coli is not typically a serious condition, it can be a sign of underlying issues such as chronic constipation or other gastrointestinal disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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The mother of a 4-year-old girl has contacted the GP surgery as her daughter was recently hospitalized with a fever and a non-blanching rash. The diagnosis was meningococcal septicaemia, but the serogroup is currently unknown. The local health protection unit has advised the mother to speak to her GP about chemoprophylaxis for herself.
The mother is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill and has a sulphonamide allergy. She received the meningococcal C vaccine during childhood but did not receive the meningococcal B vaccine as it was not available at the time. What is the most appropriate treatment option for her?Your Answer: No chemoprophylaxis required
Correct Answer: Oral ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Prophylaxis for contacts of patients with meningococcal meningitis involves the use of oral ciprofloxacin or rifampicin. The recommended choice, according to Public Health England guidelines, is ciprofloxacin, which is taken as a single-dose treatment for both adults and children. It should be given to all close contacts of the index case during the 7 days before the onset of illness, regardless of vaccination status. Rifampicin is an alternative option but is less desirable due to its potential to reduce the effectiveness of combined oral contraceptives and the need for multiple doses. Currently, there is no role for administering a vaccine to the patient as the infection serogroup has not been identified. Even if serogroup B infection is confirmed later, the administration of meningococcal B (MenB) vaccine to close contacts is not recommended unless it is a cluster of cases, which would be determined by the local health protection team rather than the GP.
When suspected bacterial meningitis is being investigated and managed, it is important to prioritize timely antibiotic treatment to avoid negative consequences. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and if meningococcal disease is suspected in a prehospital setting, intramuscular benzylpenicillin may be given. An ABC approach should be taken initially, and senior review is necessary if any warning signs are present. A key decision is when to attempt a lumbar puncture, which should be delayed in certain circumstances. Management of patients without indication for delayed LP includes IV antibiotics, with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone recommended for patients aged 3 months to 50 years. Additional tests that may be helpful include blood gases and throat swab for meningococcal culture. Prophylaxis needs to be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis, and meningococcal vaccination should be offered to close contacts when serotype results are available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old patient with panic attacks is evaluated after being on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for 3 months. The patient reports no significant improvement in the frequency of the episodes. According to NICE, what is the recommended second-line pharmacological treatment for panic disorder?
Your Answer: Diazepam
Correct Answer: Imipramine
Explanation:Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing psychiatric disorders such as anxiety. Hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety are important alternative causes. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.
NICE recommends a stepwise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). The first step is education about GAD and active monitoring. The second step involves low-intensity psychological interventions such as individual non-facilitated self-help, individual guided self-help, or psychoeducational groups. The third step includes high-intensity psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy or applied relaxation, or drug treatment. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI recommended by NICE. If sertraline is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin–noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the person cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under the age of 30 years, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.
The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach. The first step is recognition and diagnosis, followed by treatment in primary care. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment. SSRIs are the first-line treatment. If contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered. The third step involves reviewing and considering alternative treatments, followed by review and referral to specialist mental health services in the fourth and fifth steps, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 6
Correct
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A 70-year-old man with advanced colonic cancer becomes cachectic. He is still living at home and is troubled by his lack of appetite and rapid weight loss. There are no obvious reversible problems (eg pain, medication, vomiting, reflux), and his examination shows no acute issues such as bowel obstruction. Blood tests are unremarkable, other than long-standing anaemia and low albumin levels.
Which of the following drugs is most likely to be beneficial for patients with anorexia/cachexia?Your Answer: Dexamethasone
Explanation:Treatment Options for Anorexia/Cachexia Syndrome in Palliative Care
The anorexia/cachexia syndrome is a complex metabolic process that occurs in the end stages of many illnesses, resulting in loss of appetite, weight loss, and muscle wasting. While drugs can be used to improve quality of life, their benefits may be limited or temporary. Corticosteroids, such as dexamethasone, are a commonly used treatment option for short-term improvement of appetite, nausea, energy levels, and overall wellbeing. However, their effects tend to decrease after 3-4 weeks. Proton pump inhibitors, like omeprazole, should be co-prescribed for gastric protection. Amitriptyline is unlikely to be beneficial in these circumstances, but may be useful for depression or neuropathic pain. Cyclizine may help with nausea, but doesn’t have a role in anorexia/cachexia. Levomepromazine is commonly used for end-of-life care to alleviate nausea, but is unlikely to target anorexia or cachexia specifically. Overall, treatment options for anorexia/cachexia syndrome in palliative care should be carefully considered and tailored to each individual patient’s needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy with cystic fibrosis presents with abdominal pain. There is no associated nausea and vomiting. Which of the following is most likely to be the cause?
Your Answer: Distal intestinal obstruction syndrome
Correct Answer: Ulcerative colitis
Explanation:Distal Intestinal Obstruction Syndrome in Cystic Fibrosis Patients
Distal intestinal obstruction syndrome (DIOS) is a common complication in 10-20% of cystic fibrosis patients, with incidence increasing as they age. It is caused by the loss of CFTR function in the intestine, leading to the accumulation of mucous and fecal material in the terminal ileum, caecum, and ascending colon. DIOS is usually diagnosed through a plain abdominal radiograph, which shows faecal loading in the right iliac fossa, dilatation of the ileum, and an empty distal colon. Ultrasound and CT scans can also be used to identify an obstruction mass and show dilated small bowel and proximal colon.
Treatment for mild and moderate episodes of DIOS involves hydration, dietetic review, and regular laxatives. N-acetylcysteine can be used in moderate episodes to loosen and soften the plugs. Severe cases may require gastrograffin or Klean-Prep, and surgical review should be obtained if there are signs of peritoneal irritation or complete bowel obstruction. In resistant cases, phosphate or gastrograffin enemas can be used, or colonscopy with installation of gastrograffin.
In summary, DIOS is a common complication in cystic fibrosis patients that can be diagnosed through radiographs, ultrasound, and CT scans. Treatment options vary depending on the severity of the episode, but hydration, dietetic review, and regular laxatives are often used for mild and moderate cases. Severe cases may require more aggressive treatment and surgical review.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 8
Correct
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A 65-year-old man presents to the GP clinic for follow-up. He reports experiencing shortness of breath on exercise, which has worsened over the past few months. He can now only walk 200-300 yards on flat ground and has difficulty climbing stairs. The patient has a history of hypertension and is currently taking amlodipine 5 mg and indapamide 2.5 mg. In the clinic, his blood pressure is 195/90, and he has bibasal crackles indicative of heart failure, but no ankle edema is present.
The following investigations were conducted:
- Haemoglobin: 139 g/L (115-165)
- White cells: 7.1 ×109/L (4-11)
- Platelets: 203 ×109/L (150-400)
- Sodium: 139 mmol/L (135-146)
- Potassium: 4.3 mmol/L (3.5-5)
- Creatinine: 129 μmol/L (79-118)
- Ejection fraction: 55%
What is the most appropriate next therapy for this patient?Your Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:Management of Heart Failure with Preserved Ejection Fraction
Whilst the patient in question has been diagnosed with heart failure, their ejection fraction is preserved. According to the NICE guidelines on Chronic heart failure (NG106), the recommended course of action is to manage the patient’s comorbidities. In this case, the patient’s hypertension is the most significant issue, and stepwise blood pressure control with ACE inhibition is the next logical addition to their therapy. If the patient had a reduced ejection fraction, a bblocker would be added at the same time.
Additionally, the patient should be referred for an abdominal ultrasound to check for differential kidney size, which could indicate the presence of renovascular disease. By addressing the patient’s comorbidities and monitoring for potential complications, healthcare providers can effectively manage heart failure with preserved ejection fraction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents for the removal of her copper intrauterine device (IUD) on day 4 of her 30-day menstrual cycle. She wishes to start taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) after the removal of the IUD. There are no contraindications to the COCP. What is the next best step in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Start the combined oral contraceptive pill today and use barrier contraception for 5 days
Correct Answer: Start the combined oral contraceptive pill today, no further contraceptive is required
Explanation:If the patient removes her IUD on day 1-5 of her menstrual cycle and switches to the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), she doesn’t need any additional contraception. The COCP is effective immediately if started on these days. However, if she starts the COCP from day 6 onwards, she will need to use barrier contraception for 7 days. There is no need to delay starting the COCP after IUD removal unless there is another reason. If the patient had recently taken ulipristal as an emergency contraceptive, she would need to wait for 5 days before starting hormonal contraception, but this is not the case for this patient.
New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents to the clinic with a cough, fever, diarrhoea and myalgia. The cough is non-productive and has been getting gradually worse since he returned from holiday in Italy one week ago. His wife is concerned because over the past 24 hours he has become more drowsy and febrile. He is normally fit and well but drinks around 15 units of alcohol per week.
On examination pulse is 80/min, blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, oxygen saturations are 95% on room air and temperature is 38.2ºC. Bilateral coarse crackles are heard in the chest.
You take some bloods which are reported the next day:
Hb 14.2 g/dl
Platelets 290 * 109/l
WBC 13.8 * 109/l
Na+ 133 mmol/l
K+ 4.1 mmol/l
Urea 8.9 mmol/l
Creatinine 87 µmol/l
Bilirubin 10 µmol/l
ALP 29 u/l
ALT 72 u/l
What is the most likely causative organism?Your Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae
Correct Answer: Legionella pneumophila
Explanation:Legionella is often characterized by symptoms resembling the flu, such as a dry cough, confusion, and a slower than normal heart rate. Additionally, hyponatraemia may be detected through blood tests. If the individual has recently traveled abroad, this may also indicate a potential Legionella infection.
Legionnaires Disease: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management
Legionnaires disease is a type of pneumonia caused by the Legionella pneumophilia bacterium. It is commonly found in water tanks and air-conditioning systems, and is often associated with foreign travel. Unlike other types of pneumonia, Legionnaires disease cannot be transmitted from person to person. Symptoms of the disease include flu-like symptoms such as fever, dry cough, confusion, and lymphopaenia. In addition, patients may experience hyponatraemia, deranged liver function tests, and pleural effusion in around 30% of cases.
Diagnosis of Legionnaires disease is typically done through a urinary antigen test. Treatment involves the use of antibiotics such as erythromycin or clarithromycin. Chest x-rays may show nonspecific features, but often include patchy consolidation in the mid-to-lower zones and pleural effusions. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and risk factors associated with Legionnaires disease in order to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old Indian woman contacts her doctor for guidance. She is currently 12 weeks pregnant and was in close proximity to her nephew who has been diagnosed with Chickenpox. The patient spent a few hours with her nephew and had physical contact such as hugging. The patient reports feeling fine and has no noticeable symptoms. She is unsure if she has had Chickenpox before.
What is the best course of action in this scenario?Your Answer: Give varicella zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG)
Correct Answer: Check antibody levels
Explanation:When a pregnant woman is exposed to Chickenpox, it can lead to serious complications for both her and the developing fetus. To prevent this, the first step is to check the woman’s immune status by testing for varicella antibodies. If she is found to be non-immune, she should receive varicella-zoster immune globulin (VZIG) as soon as possible for post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP).
It is important to note that the management and organization of the blood test can be arranged by the GP, although the midwife should also be informed. If the woman is less than 20 weeks pregnant and non-immune, VZIG should be given immediately, but it may still be effective up to 10 days after exposure.
For pregnant women who develop Chickenpox after 20 weeks of gestation, oral aciclovir or an equivalent antiviral should be started within 24 hours of rash onset. However, if the woman is less than 20 weeks pregnant, it is recommended to seek specialist advice.
It is crucial to take action and not simply provide reassurance in cases where the woman is found to be non-immune to varicella, as both she and the fetus are at risk.
Chickenpox Exposure in Pregnancy: Risks and Management
Chickenpox is caused by the varicella-zoster virus and can pose risks to both the mother and fetus during pregnancy. The mother is at a five times greater risk of pneumonitis, while the fetus is at risk of developing fetal varicella syndrome (FVS) if the mother is exposed to Chickenpox before 20 weeks gestation. FVS can result in skin scarring, eye defects, limb hypoplasia, microcephaly, and learning disabilities. There is also a risk of shingles in infancy and severe neonatal varicella if the mother develops a rash between 5 days before and 2 days after birth.
To manage Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy, post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) may be necessary. If the pregnant woman is not immune to varicella, VZIG or antivirals may be given within 10 days of exposure. Waiting until days 7-14 is recommended to reduce the risk of developing clinical varicella. However, the decision on choice of PEP for women exposed from 20 weeks of pregnancy should take into account patient and health professional preference as well as the ability to offer and provide PEP in a timely manner.
If a pregnant woman develops Chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought. Oral aciclovir may be given if the pregnant woman is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash. However, caution should be exercised if the woman is < 20 weeks. Overall, managing Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy requires careful consideration of the risks and benefits to both the mother and fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A concerned mother brings in her 7 month old baby boy, worried about the shape of his skull. The baby's development and birth have been normal, and there are no known conditions in the family. Upon examination, the baby's head circumference is at the 40th percentile, while his height and weight are at the 30th percentile. The left side of his occiput is flattened, his left ear protrudes slightly forward, and his left forehead is more prominent than the right. No other abnormalities are detected. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassurance
Explanation:Plagiocephaly has become more prevalent due to campaigns promoting the practice of placing babies on their backs while sleeping to reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). This condition causes unilateral flattening of the occipital region of the skull, resulting in the forehead and ear on the same side being pushed forward, giving the head a parallelogram appearance. However, most cases of plagiocephaly improve by the age of 3-5 years as the child adopts a more upright posture. The use of helmets is not typically recommended, as a randomized controlled trial showed no significant difference between groups. One simple solution is to turn the baby’s cot around to encourage them to look in the opposite direction and relieve pressure on the affected side. Other methods include supervised tummy time during the day, supported sitting, and changing the position of toys and mobiles in the cot to shift the child’s focus. It is important to ensure that all advice given is consistent with SIDS prevention guidelines.
Common Skull Problems in Children
Plagiocephaly is a condition where a child’s head becomes parallelogram-shaped. This condition has become more prevalent in recent years, possibly due to the success of the ‘Back to Sleep’ campaign. This campaign encourages parents to place their infants on their backs to sleep, reducing the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). However, prolonged time spent on the back of the head can lead to flattening of the skull. Plagiocephaly can be corrected with physical therapy or the use of a special helmet.
Craniosynostosis is a condition where the skull bones fuse prematurely, leading to an abnormal head shape. This condition can cause pressure on the brain and may require surgery to correct. It is important to diagnose and treat craniosynostosis early to prevent potential developmental delays or neurological problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 13
Incorrect
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You encounter a 60-year-old man with diabetes and hypertension who reports experiencing erectile dysfunction for the past 6 months. After prescribing sildenafil, which provided some relief, you increased the dosage but the patient is now experiencing adverse effects. He is curious about other treatment options available to him through the NHS. What medications can be prescribed for his condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Generic sildenafil, other PDE5 inhibitors and alprostadil
Explanation:Men who have diabetes may be prescribed other PDE5 inhibitors and alprostadil on the NHS. Generic sildenafil is available without any restrictions on the NHS. However, Viagra®, tadalafil (Cialis®), vardenafil (Levitra®), avanafil (Spedra®), and alprostadil cannot be prescribed on an NHS prescription, except for men who have certain medical conditions or have undergone specific medical procedures. Additionally, specialist centers may prescribe PDE-5 inhibitors on the NHS if the man is experiencing severe distress due to impotence.
Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.
To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman presents with a two month history of mild nausea and upper abdominal discomfort after eating. You suspect gallstones so arrange an ultrasound scan of the abdomen along with a full blood count and liver function tests. Her BMI is 36.
The ultrasound scan doesn't show any stones in the Gallbladder and her liver function tests are normal. Her haemoglobin level is 95 g/L with a microcytic picture. When it was checked 18 months ago her haemoglobin level was 120 g/L. She has no history of vaginal bleeding or melaena. Her BMI is now 32.
What is the most appropriate management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange a routine barium meal and swallow
Explanation:Urgent Referral for Upper GI Endoscopy in a Woman with Recent Onset Anemia and Weight Loss
This woman, aged over 55, has recently developed anemia and has also experienced weight loss. According to the latest NICE guidelines, urgent referral for upper GI endoscopy is necessary in such cases. Routine referrals for CT scan and barium meal are not appropriate. Treating with iron without referral is not recommended as it may delay diagnosis.
The loss of blood from the gastrointestinal tract is a common cause of anemia, and the symptoms experienced by this woman suggest an upper GI cause. Therefore, it is important to refer her for an upper GI endoscopy as soon as possible to identify the underlying cause of her symptoms and provide appropriate treatment. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help prevent further complications and improve the woman’s overall health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with alcohol dependency disorder feels unwell. He stopped drinking six days ago.
Which one of the following symptoms is most suggestive of delirium tremens?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Visual hallucinations
Explanation:Delirium Tremens: Symptoms and Characteristics
Delirium tremens is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals who have been drinking heavily for a prolonged period of time. It is characterised by a range of symptoms, including confusion, agitation, tremors, tachycardia, fevers, high blood pressure, and visual hallucinations.
One of the key features of delirium tremens is the presence of visual hallucinations, which can be particularly distressing for individuals experiencing this condition. These hallucinations may involve seeing things that are not there, such as animals or people, or distortions of reality, such as objects appearing to move or change shape.
Other symptoms of delirium tremens can include sweating, nausea, vomiting, and seizures. In severe cases, delirium tremens can be life-threatening, and medical intervention may be necessary to manage the symptoms and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman is experiencing depression. She has early morning waking, low mood, and no energy. She has lost interest in all her usual activities and feels like giving up. Additionally, she has a history of stress incontinence. Which medication can effectively treat both her depression and stress incontinence?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Duloxetine
Explanation:Treatment Options for Depression and Stress Incontinence
Duloxetine is a medication that can be used to treat both depression and stress incontinence. It may be the best choice for patients who do not want or are not suitable for surgical treatment. However, before considering drug treatment, it is recommended that patients undertake at least three months of pelvic floor exercises. This can help improve symptoms and reduce the need for medication.
It is important to counsel patients about the potential adverse effects of duloxetine, which may include nausea, dry mouth, and constipation. Patients should also be advised to report any unusual symptoms or side effects to their healthcare provider. With proper management and monitoring, duloxetine can be an effective treatment option for depression and stress incontinence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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During a routine baby check, you observe a small, soft umbilical hernia in a 7 week-old baby boy. What steps should be taken?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Watch and wait
Explanation:It is common for babies to have small umbilical hernias, which typically resolve on their own by the time the child is 12 months old. Parents should not worry as treatment is usually not necessary. However, they should be aware of the signs of obstruction or strangulation, such as vomiting, pain, and the inability to push the hernia in. These symptoms are rare in infants. If the hernia is still present when the child is around 2 years old, parents should bring the child to a surgeon for referral. It is not helpful to try to treat the hernia by strapping or taping things over the area, as this can irritate the skin.
Understanding Umbilical Hernia in Children
Umbilical hernia is a common condition that can be found in children during their newborn exam. It is characterized by a bulge or protrusion near the belly button, caused by a weakness in the abdominal muscles. While it may cause concern for parents, it usually resolves on its own by the age of three and doesn’t require any treatment.
However, certain associations have been identified with umbilical hernia in children. Afro-Caribbean infants are more likely to develop this condition, as well as those with Down’s syndrome and mucopolysaccharide storage diseases. It is important for parents to be aware of these associations and to inform their healthcare provider if their child falls into any of these categories.
Overall, umbilical hernia in children is a common and usually harmless condition. With proper monitoring and awareness of any associated risk factors, parents can ensure their child’s health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 18
Incorrect
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You are asked to visit a nursing home where a 90-year-old man has diarrhoea and vomiting. When you see the patient, he has symptoms suggestive of norovirus infection.
Select the single most appropriate management option in this situation.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Barrier-nurse in isolation within the residential home
Explanation:Understanding Norovirus: Symptoms, Transmission, and Control Measures
Norovirus is a highly contagious virus that causes diarrhoea and vomiting. It spreads rapidly through person-to-person contact, aerosol, and contact with infected vomit or stool. The symptoms typically include diarrhoea and vomiting with fever and abdominal cramps, and the illness usually lasts for 12-60 hours.
Outbreaks of norovirus are common in restricted environments such as hospitals, nursing homes, schools, military establishments, and cruise ships. To prevent the spread of the virus, patients should be barrier-nursed and treated with fluid replacement and symptomatic treatment. It is important to note that these patients should not be admitted to hospitals unless absolutely necessary due to the highly infectious nature of the disease.
Key control measures for norovirus include frequent cleaning, environmental disinfection, and prompt clearance of soiling caused by vomit or faeces. Hygiene and hand-washing are also crucial in preventing the spread of the virus. Anyone who is infected should not prepare food for others until at least 3 days after symptoms have gone.
In conclusion, understanding the symptoms, transmission, and control measures of norovirus is crucial in preventing outbreaks and protecting public health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A mother has brought her 4-year-old son to see you as she is worried about a lump in his neck.
Which of the following characteristics would worry you the most and would warrant an urgent referral?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Firm, supraclavicular lymphadenopathy
Explanation:When to Worry About Lymph Node Enlargement in Children
Lymphadenopathy, or lymph node enlargement, is a common occurrence in children. In most cases, it is benign and resolves on its own. However, there are certain characteristics that warrant urgent referral to a healthcare provider. These include non-tender, firm or hard lymph nodes, nodes larger than 2 cm, progressively enlarging nodes, general ill-health, fever or weight loss, involvement of axillary nodes (in the absence of local infection or dermatitis), or involvement of supraclavicular nodes.
It is important to note that these characteristics are particularly concerning if there is no evidence of local infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman has advanced ovarian cancer with peritoneal metastases and ascites. She is experiencing nausea, vomiting, abdominal colic and constipation. During examination, her General Practitioner notes hyperactive bowel sounds. Which treatment option is most likely to provide relief for her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cyclizine
Explanation:The woman in question is likely suffering from intestinal obstruction, a condition that affects 3% of all cancer patients and up to 25% of those with advanced ovarian cancer. This can be caused by peristaltic failure due to opioid drugs or nerve damage, or by mechanical factors such as bowel wall infiltration, compression, or constipation. The presence of painful colic and hyperactive bowel sounds suggests a mechanical obstruction. To address her nausea and vomiting, a sequence of subcutaneous infusions of cyclizine, haloperidol, and levomepromazine may be tried until the most effective agent is found. However, stimulant laxatives like senna should be avoided due to the patient’s colic, and all oral laxatives should be stopped if there is complete obstruction. Bisacodyl, another stimulant laxative, should also be avoided in patients with colic, with sodium docusate being the preferred laxative for constipation. Metoclopramide, a prokinetic agent, is the drug of choice for functional obstruction but is contraindicated in the presence of colic and mechanical obstruction. For pain relief, continuous subcutaneous morphine/diamorphine or a fentanyl patch may be used, but the patient would benefit more from an antiemetic and addressing the underlying cause if possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman presents with fatigue over the past two weeks. Upon examination, there are no notable findings. She has a medical history of polymyalgia rheumatica and ischemic heart disease. After conducting screening blood tests, the full blood count results are as follows:
- Hemoglobin (Hb): 129 g/l
- Platelets (Plt): 158 * 109/l
- White blood cells (WBC): 19.0 * 109/l
- Neutrophils (Neuts): 4.2 * 109/l
- Lymphocytes (Lymphs): 14.1 * 109/l
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
Explanation:It is highly probable that chronic lymphocytic leukemia is the cause of lymphocytosis in an elderly patient. Neutrophilia is typically caused by steroids. An elderly person experiencing a significant lymphocytosis due to a viral illness would be uncommon.
Understanding Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. It is caused by the abnormal growth of B-cells, a type of white blood cell. CLL is the most common form of leukaemia in adults and is often asymptomatic, meaning it may be discovered incidentally during routine blood tests. However, some patients may experience symptoms such as weight loss, anorexia, bleeding, infections, and lymphadenopathy.
To diagnose CLL, doctors typically perform a full blood count to check for lymphocytosis, a condition where there is an abnormally high number of lymphocytes in the blood. Patients may also have anaemia or thrombocytopenia, which can occur due to bone marrow replacement or autoimmune hemolytic anaemia. A blood film may also be taken to look for smudge cells, which are abnormal lymphocytes that appear broken or fragmented.
The key investigation for CLL diagnosis is immunophenotyping, which involves using a panel of antibodies specific for CD5, CD19, CD20, and CD23. This test helps to identify the type of lymphocyte involved in the cancer and can confirm the diagnosis of CLL. With early detection and proper treatment, patients with CLL can manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman who is 12 weeks pregnant presents with a 2-day history of dysuria, urinary frequency, and urgency. She appears to be in good health and is only taking folic acid. Upon examination, her vital signs are stable, and her abdomen is soft and non-tender. A urine dip test reveals positive results for leucocytes and nitrates but negative for ketones and glucose. As the healthcare provider, you decide to initiate antibiotic therapy. What is the most suitable duration of treatment for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 7 days
Explanation:For pregnant women with a UTI, a 7-day course of antibiotics is necessary. During the first trimester, nitrofurantoin is the preferred antibiotic, given as 100 mg modified-release twice a day for the entire duration. However, it should be avoided during the term as it may cause neonatal haemolysis. Uncomplicated UTIs in non-pregnant patients can be treated with a 3-day course of antibiotics. For simple lower respiratory tract infections or skin infections, a 5-day course of antibiotics is recommended. Previously, men with UTIs were advised to undergo a 10-14 day treatment, but the latest NICE guidance in 2018 recommends a 7-day course of either trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for suspected lower urinary tract infections in men.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Conjunctivitis has only one correct statement. What is it?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Simple bacterial conjunctivitis commonly resolves without treatment
Explanation:Managing Conjunctivitis in Children: Antibiotics Not Always Necessary
As of April 2010, ophthalmia neonatorum is no longer a notifiable disease. A randomized controlled trial published in the Lancet in 2005 compared placebo with chloramphenicol drops in children with conjunctivitis and concluded that prescribing antibiotic drops for conjunctivitis in children should be stopped. Instead, children should be advised to keep the eye clean and return for review if no better after one week. The Health Professionals Alliance’s guidance on infection control in schools and other childcare settings doesn’t recommend any time away for children with conjunctivitis. Simple bacterial conjunctivitis usually lasts 10-14 days and is self-limiting. A review if no better at one week to exclude corneal involvement or other complications is recommended. Adenoviral conjunctivitis is highly contagious and often rapidly becomes bilateral.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A father attends with his 6-year-old child. The child sustained an uncomplicated closed fracture of the tibia following a playground accident and is expected to wear a cast for 8 weeks.
The child's father says that he will need help with bathing and transport to school and wonders about financial assistance because domestic finances are tight.
Regarding the Disability Living Allowance (DLA) for under 16s, what advice would you give him?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The child must have needed care for the preceding month to be eligible
Explanation:Disability Living Allowance (DLA) and Personal Independence Payment (PIP)
Disability Living Allowance (DLA) is a tax-free benefit that assists with the additional expenses of caring for a child who requires assistance due to a disability or health condition. The benefit is paid to the child’s parent or caregiver, such as a step-parent, guardian, grandparent, foster parent, or older sibling over the age of 18. To qualify for DLA, the child must require more day-to-day assistance than other children of the same age without a disability, and the assistance must have been necessary for at least three months and expected to continue for at least six months. DLA is made up of a care component and a mobility component, with varying rates for each.
Personal Independence Payment (PIP) is gradually replacing DLA for individuals aged 16 or older who have not yet reached State Pension age. PIP is designed to assist with the additional expenses of living with a disability or health condition and is based on an individual’s ability to carry out daily living activities and mobility. PIP is also tax-free and is made up of two components: daily living and mobility. The daily living component is paid at either the standard or enhanced rate, while the mobility component is paid at either the standard or enhanced rate.
Overall, both DLA and PIP are essential benefits that provide financial assistance to those who require additional support due to a disability or health condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A worried mother brings her two-week-old baby to the clinic due to poor feeding. The baby was born at 37 weeks gestation without any complications. No central cyanosis is observed, but the baby has a slightly elevated heart rate, rapid breathing, and high blood pressure in the upper extremities. Oxygen saturation levels are at 99% on air. Upon chest auscultation, a systolic murmur is heard loudest at the left sternal edge. Additionally, the baby has weak bilateral femoral pulses. What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coarctation of the aorta
Explanation:Coarctation of the Aorta: A Narrowing of the Descending Aorta
Coarctation of the aorta is a congenital condition that affects the descending aorta, causing it to narrow. This condition is more common in males, despite its association with Turner’s syndrome. In infancy, coarctation of the aorta can lead to heart failure, while in adults, it can cause hypertension. Other features of this condition include radio-femoral delay, a mid systolic murmur that is maximal over the back, and an apical click from the aortic valve. Notching of the inferior border of the ribs, which is caused by collateral vessels, is not seen in young children. Coarctation of the aorta is often associated with other conditions, such as bicuspid aortic valve, berry aneurysms, and neurofibromatosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man with advanced pancreatic cancer is experiencing bothersome widespread pruritus. He is also jaundiced and has refused a biliary stent. Despite trying various emollients, including one with menthol, he has not found relief.
What medication would be the most suitable to test for this patient's pruritus symptoms?
Choose ONE answer only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hydroxyzine
Explanation:Treatment Options for Pruritus in Palliative Care Patients
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends treating the underlying cause of pruritus if possible. However, in palliative care patients, symptom management is the primary focus. For widespread pruritus, sedating antihistamines like hydroxyzine or chlorphenamine may be used. Gamma-aminobutyric (GABA) drugs like gabapentin and pregabalin may also be considered, but consultation with a specialist is recommended. Topical calamine lotion has limited evidence for effectiveness and is not recommended by NICE. Hydralazine, a vasodilator antihypertensive drug, has no indication for use in pruritus and is not appropriate for palliative care patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Who among these women needs anti-D prophylaxis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rhesus positive woman with an antepartum bleed
Explanation:Rhesus Negative Pregnancy and Anti-D Prophylaxis
A rhesus negative pregnant woman should receive anti-D prophylaxis after any sensitising event during pregnancy to prevent the production of antibodies that could cause rhesus haemolytic disease in the baby. Sensitisation can occur if RhD-positive blood cells enter the bloodstream of a RhD-negative woman, which can happen during an antepartum bleed, an invasive procedure, an abdominal injury, or at delivery. Rhesus disease can be avoided if sensitisation is prevented.
Rhesus disease affects the baby by causing haemolysis of red blood cells and anaemia. It occurs when a pregnant mother is RhD negative, the baby is RhD positive, and sensitisation has previously occurred. An injection of anti-D immunoglobulin can prevent sensitisation in a RhD-negative woman by neutralising any fetal RhD-positive antigens that have entered her blood.
A rhesus negative woman with a rhesus negative partner cannot have a rhesus positive baby and is not at risk. A rhesus negative baby will not introduce rhesus positive antigens into the mother’s blood, so anti-D is not required in this case.
Routine antenatal anti-D prophylaxis (RAADP) is administered during the third trimester of pregnancy to prevent sensitisation. This can be a single dose at 28-30 weeks or a two-dose treatment at 28 and 34 weeks. If RAADP is not given, the woman will be offered an injection of anti-D immunoglobulin within 72 hours of giving birth if the baby is RhD positive. This significantly decreases the risk of her next baby having rhesus disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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You see a 4-year-old boy with his mother. She reported that he slipped while being bathed and hit his head on the side of the bathtub. She reports he cried afterwards but returned to normal soon after. He had no other symptoms such as vomiting, loss of consciousness, or drowsiness. The examination was normal.
Which of the following features would alert you most to the possibility of child maltreatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A delayed presentation to healthcare services
Explanation:Signs of Child Maltreatment in Healthcare Settings
Young children may exhibit shyness and clinginess to their parents during consultations, which is a normal behavior. However, excessive clinginess may be a sign of child maltreatment. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of this possibility and to observe the child’s behavior during consultations.
Children may also be difficult to console during illness or after an injury, which is not necessarily an indicator of maltreatment. However, healthcare providers should be alert to any unusual patterns of presentation, such as frequent attendance or unusually late presentations, which may suggest the possibility of maltreatment.
Head injuries are common in children due to their high activity levels and poor sense of danger. Healthcare providers should be aware of the possibility of maltreatment if the child presents with repeated head injuries.
Finally, failure to ensure access to appropriate medical care, such as missing hospital appointments or not giving essential medications, should also raise suspicion of maltreatment. It is important for healthcare providers to be vigilant and to report any concerns to the appropriate authorities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man with metastatic prostate cancer is experiencing increased pain and frequent vomiting while taking oral modified-release morphine sulphate 60mg bd. It has been decided to switch to subcutaneous administration. What is the appropriate dosage of morphine for a continuous subcutaneous infusion over a 24-hour period?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 60mg
Explanation:In this scenario, the BNF suggests administering half the usual oral dose of morphine.
When morphine is given through injection (subcutaneous, intramuscular, or intravenous), the recommended dose is approximately half of the oral dose. If the patient is no longer able to swallow, a continuous subcutaneous infusion of morphine is typically used.
Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects include nausea, drowsiness, and constipation, which are usually transient but may persist. Denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain in addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old girl has had a cold and a raised temperature for 4 days but now has a red rash on both sides of her face and a diffuse macular rash elsewhere.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erythema infectiosum
Explanation:Erythema Infectiosum: Symptoms, Causes, and Risks During Pregnancy
Erythema infectiosum, commonly known as ‘slapped cheek’ disease or fifth disease, is caused by parvovirus B19. It is called fifth disease because it is the fifth of the classic exanthems. The infection may be asymptomatic or present with nonspecific coryzal symptoms. It is most common between ages 3-15 years.
The prodromal symptoms of erythema infectiosum are mild and may include headache, rhinitis, low-grade fever, and malaise. In some cases, nausea, diarrhea, abdominal pain, or arthropathy may develop. After 3-7 days, the classic ‘slapped cheek’ rash appears as erythema on the cheeks, sparing the nose, perioral, and periorbital regions. This rash disappears after 2-4 days. About 1-4 days after the facial rash appears, an erythematous macular rash develops on the extremities, mainly on the extensor surfaces. This rash gradually fades but may take up to 3 weeks and can recur.
Any arthropathy associated with erythema infectiosum is symmetrical and affects the hands, wrists, knees, and ankles. It usually resolves within a few days but in some cases persists for 2 months or longer. It may appear like rheumatoid arthritis.
Identification of parvovirus B19 infection in a pregnant woman is crucial, as parvovirus infection in the first half of pregnancy may cause fetal hydrops. The outcome of fetal hydrops can be improved by intrauterine transfusion. Therefore, pregnant women should take extra precautions to avoid exposure to erythema infectiosum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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