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  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old woman presented to her GP with a 3-week history of fatigue,...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presented to her GP with a 3-week history of fatigue, fever and muscle aches. A new murmur was detected in the mitral area.
      Which of the following is the most suitable initial investigation?

      Your Answer: Blood culture

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Infective Endocarditis: Choosing the Most Appropriate Initial Test

      When a patient presents with fever and a new murmur, infective endocarditis is a likely diagnosis until proven otherwise. The most appropriate initial investigation is a blood culture, with three samples taken from different sites before starting antibiotics. Positive blood cultures are a major criterion for diagnosing infective endocarditis.

      While other investigations may be useful in aiding diagnosis, they are not as specific as blood cultures. An ECG may show evidence of an aortic root abscess and its possible sequelae, such as AV block. A 24-hour ECG is helpful in diagnosing paroxysmal arrhythmias.

      C-reactive protein (CRP) and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) are non-specific markers that may be raised in infective endocarditis, but also in other conditions such as infection, malignancy, and pregnancy.

      In summary, when suspecting infective endocarditis, the most appropriate initial investigation is a blood culture. Other investigations may be useful in aiding diagnosis, but are not as specific as blood cultures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 28-year-old female patient contacts her GP seeking guidance on folic acid supplements....

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female patient contacts her GP seeking guidance on folic acid supplements. She and her partner are attempting to conceive, and she has never been pregnant before. She is in good health overall, with a history of asthma that she manages with a salbutamol inhaler as needed. Her BMI is 31 kg/m2, and she has no notable family medical history. What recommendations should she receive?

      Your Answer: 5mg folic acid from now until the 12th week of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women with obesity (BMI >30 kg/m2) are recommended to take a high dose of 5mg folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. This is because obesity puts them at a higher risk of neural tube defects. The suggestion of taking 400 micrograms would be for women who are not at a higher risk. Therefore, the other answers provided are incorrect.

      Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention

      Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.

      To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.

      In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which one of the following statements regarding the Holmes-Adie pupil is incorrect? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the Holmes-Adie pupil is incorrect?

      Your Answer: Bilateral in 80% of cases

      Explanation:

      Understanding Holmes-Adie Pupil

      Holmes-Adie pupil is a condition that is more commonly observed in women and is considered a benign condition. It is one of the possible causes of a dilated pupil. In about 80% of cases, it affects only one eye. The main characteristic of this condition is a dilated pupil that remains small for an unusually long time after it has constricted. The pupil also reacts slowly to accommodation but poorly or not at all to light.

      Holmes-Adie syndrome is a condition that is associated with Holmes-Adie pupil. It is characterized by the absence of ankle and knee reflexes. This condition is not harmful and does not require any treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 68-year-old man has been taking medication for psoriasis with arthropathy for a...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man has been taking medication for psoriasis with arthropathy for a prolonged period. He has recently experienced a dry cough and worsening shortness of breath with minimal activity.
      Which of the following medications is the most probable cause of his symptoms?
      Choose ONE option from the list provided.

      Your Answer: Methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Identifying the Probable Cause of Pulmonary Fibrosis

      Methotrexate is the correct answer as it is a well-known drug-related cause of pulmonary fibrosis, which is the probable cause of the patient’s symptoms. Hydroxychloroquine, azathioprine, ciclosporin, and penicillamine are not known to cause pulmonary fibrosis, although some of them have the potential to cause pneumonitis. Ciclosporin has been studied as a treatment for the disease, but it is not recommended by NICE. Therefore, it is important to identify the probable cause of pulmonary fibrosis to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 60-year-old woman has effort-related angina. She has no other cardiac risk factors...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman has effort-related angina. She has no other cardiac risk factors and no other relevant medical history. Her QRisk is calculated as 12.2%. She has already been prescribed a GTN spray which she can use for immediate relief of her symptoms.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment?

      Your Answer: Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor and statin

      Correct Answer: Beta blocker and statin

      Explanation:

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends using a β blocker or calcium channel blocker as the first-line treatment for angina, along with a statin. If a patient is intolerant to β blockers or not responding to a CCB alone, a long-acting nitrate can be added. An ACE inhibitor is not indicated for angina treatment. Beta blockers and CCBs can be used together if one alone does not control symptoms, but caution is needed to avoid conduction problems. Long-acting nitrates should only be used in isolation if CCB or β blocker use is contraindicated. Aspirin is recommended for secondary prevention, and short-acting nitrates can be used for symptom relief. The 4S study showed that statins significantly reduce the risk of MI in patients with angina and high cholesterol levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      76.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 70-year-old man presents with unexplained weight loss and episodes of passing blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with unexplained weight loss and episodes of passing blood in his stool for the past 3 months. Upon investigation, a CT scan reveals a T2N0M0 tumour just below the rectosigmoid junction. The patient has no significant medical history and is considered fit for surgery. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Abdominoperineal excision of the rectum

      Correct Answer: Anterior resection

      Explanation:

      Anterior resection is the most suitable surgical option for rectal tumors, except for those located in the lower rectum. When determining the appropriate surgery for colorectal cancer, it is crucial to consider the location of the tumor, its grade, and the feasibility of the operation. In the case of a tumor located just below the rectosigmoid junction, an anterior resection or abdominoperineal excision of the rectum are the two possible options. However, since the tumor is not invading the pelvic floor, anal canal, or anal sphincter, an anterior resection is the more appropriate choice. This procedure involves resection followed by anastomosis, with the creation of a temporary defunctioning ileostomy that can later be reversed to allow the bowel to heal. Abdominoperineal excision of the rectum is not suitable in this case, as it would require a lifelong stoma. Hartmann’s procedure is also not appropriate, as it is typically performed in emergency situations such as bowel perforation or obstruction. Similarly, left hemicolectomy is not suitable for this tumor, as it is located in the upper rectum.

      Colorectal cancer is typically diagnosed through CT scans and colonoscopies or CT colonography. Patients with tumors below the peritoneal reflection should also undergo MRI to evaluate their mesorectum. Once staging is complete, a treatment plan is formulated by a dedicated colorectal MDT meeting.

      For colon cancer, surgery is the primary treatment option, with resectional surgery being the only cure. The procedure is tailored to the patient and tumor location, with lymphatic chains being resected based on arterial supply. Anastomosis is the preferred method of restoring continuity, but in some cases, an end stoma may be necessary. Chemotherapy is often offered to patients with risk factors for disease recurrence.

      Rectal cancer management differs from colon cancer due to the rectum’s anatomical location. Tumors can be surgically resected with either an anterior resection or an abdomino-perineal excision of rectum (APER). A meticulous dissection of the mesorectal fat and lymph nodes is integral to the procedure. Neoadjuvant radiotherapy is often offered to patients prior to resectional surgery, and those with obstructing rectal cancer should have a defunctioning loop colostomy.

      Segmental resections based on blood supply and lymphatic drainage are the primary operations for cancer. The type of resection and anastomosis depend on the site of cancer. In emergency situations where the bowel has perforated, an end colostomy is often safer. Left-sided resections are more risky, but ileo-colic anastomoses are relatively safe even in the emergency setting and do not need to be defunctioned.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      35
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old female presents with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections over...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female presents with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections over the past year. An abdominal ultrasound is performed and the results indicate normal size kidneys and no abnormalities in the urinary tract. The liver, spleen, and pancreas are also normal. The right ovary and uterus appear normal, but a 4 cm simple ovarian cyst is noted on the left ovary. What would be the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Start a combined oral contraceptive pill

      Correct Answer: Repeat ultrasound in 12 weeks

      Explanation:

      Consider referral if the cyst remains after 12 weeks.

      Ovarian enlargement is typically diagnosed through ultrasound imaging, which can determine whether the cyst is simple or complex. Simple cysts are unilocular and more likely to be benign, while complex cysts are multilocular and more likely to be malignant. Management of ovarian enlargement depends on the patient’s age and symptoms. Younger women may be treated conservatively if the cyst is small and simple, with a repeat ultrasound scheduled in 8-12 weeks. Postmenopausal women, however, should always be referred to a gynecologist for assessment, as physiological cysts are unlikely in this population. It’s important to note that ovarian cancer can present with vague symptoms, leading to delayed diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      30.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with worsening epigastric pain and...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with worsening epigastric pain and water brash for the past few weeks. He has been taking ibandronic acid tablets for osteoporosis. There is no history of food sticking or significant weight loss.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Oesophagitis

      Explanation:

      Common Gastrointestinal Conditions and Their Symptoms

      Gastrointestinal conditions can present with a variety of symptoms, making diagnosis challenging. Here are some common conditions and their associated symptoms:

      Oesophagitis: Inflammation of the oesophagus can cause asymptomatic, epigastric or substernal burning pain, dysphagia, and increased discomfort when lying down or straining. It is often caused by gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, alcohol, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, bisphosphonates, smoking, or Candida albicans infection. Treatment involves eliminating precipitating causes and using proton-pump inhibitors.

      Oesophageal carcinoma: This type of cancer typically presents with worsening dysphagia, weight loss, heartburn, and changes in voice due to compression of the recurrent laryngeal nerve.

      Gastric carcinoma: Symptoms of gastric cancer are often non-specific and include weight loss, anorexia, and fatigue. Heartburn and indigestion are rare.

      Duodenal ulcer: Pain associated with duodenal ulcers is typically improved with eating and severe enough to impact nutritional intake, leading to weight loss. Patients at high risk of gastric ulceration due to medication use may be prescribed a proton-pump inhibitor.

      Pancreatic carcinoma: This type of cancer often presents very late with painless jaundice and weight loss, which are not seen in the presented case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old female patient complains of hypopigmented skin lesions on her chest and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female patient complains of hypopigmented skin lesions on her chest and back. She has just come back from a trip to Spain and has a tanned complexion. During examination, the lesions appear to be slightly scaly. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lyme disease

      Correct Answer: Pityriasis versicolor

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pityriasis Versicolor

      Pityriasis versicolor, also known as tinea versicolor, is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is caused by Malassezia furfur, which was previously known as Pityrosporum ovale. This condition is characterized by patches that may be hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and it is most commonly found on the trunk. The patches may become more noticeable following a suntan, and scaling is a common symptom. Mild pruritus may also occur.

      Pityriasis versicolor can affect healthy individuals, but it is more likely to occur in those who are immunosuppressed, malnourished, or have Cushing’s syndrome. Treatment typically involves the use of topical antifungal medications, with ketoconazole shampoo being the recommended option due to its cost-effectiveness for larger areas. If topical treatment fails, alternative diagnoses should be considered, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed. Scrapings may also be sent for confirmation of the diagnosis. Understanding the features, predisposing factors, and management of pityriasis versicolor can help individuals recognize and effectively treat this common fungal infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 29-year-old male complains of experiencing low back pain and stiffness for a...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old male complains of experiencing low back pain and stiffness for a few months now, with the worst symptoms occurring in the mornings. He reports that exercise helps alleviate the pain, but prolonged sitting at his desk exacerbates it. During the examination, there is limited lumbar flexion, and a pelvic X-ray reveals sacroiliitis. What is the best initial approach to managing this condition?

      Your Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      Ankylosing spondylitis, a spondyloarthropathy associated with HLA-B27 and commonly seen in men aged 20-30, can be managed with exercise regimes and NSAIDs as the first line of treatment. Pelvic X-rays are helpful in identifying subchondral erosions and sclerosis in the commonly affected sacroiliac joints. Physiotherapy and NSAIDs like ibuprofen are recommended as the initial management. Intra-articular corticosteroid injections are useful for unilateral joint symptoms, while methotrexate may be considered for peripheral joint involvement. Paracetamol can be used in conjunction with NSAIDs if needed, but ibuprofen should be the first-line option.

      Investigating and Managing Ankylosing Spondylitis

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in males aged 20-30 years old. Inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP are usually elevated, but normal levels do not necessarily rule out ankylosing spondylitis. HLA-B27 is not a reliable diagnostic tool as it can also be positive in normal individuals. The most effective way to diagnose ankylosing spondylitis is through a plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints. However, if the x-ray is negative but suspicion for AS remains high, an MRI can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis.

      Management of ankylosing spondylitis involves regular exercise, such as swimming, and the use of NSAIDs as the first-line treatment. Physiotherapy can also be helpful. Disease-modifying drugs used for rheumatoid arthritis, such as sulphasalazine, are only useful if there is peripheral joint involvement. Anti-TNF therapy, such as etanercept and adalimumab, should be given to patients with persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments, according to the 2010 EULAR guidelines. Ongoing research is being conducted to determine whether anti-TNF therapies should be used earlier in the course of the disease. Spirometry may show a restrictive defect due to a combination of pulmonary fibrosis, kyphosis, and ankylosis of the costovertebral joints.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - An older gentleman patient presents with arthritic pains. At the end of the...

    Correct

    • An older gentleman patient presents with arthritic pains. At the end of the consultation, he mentions that he recently visited a doctor at the memory clinic who diagnosed him with Alzheimer's dementia. However, he cannot recall why he was not prescribed any medication for this condition.

      Which of the following factors would be a potential relative contraindication to prescribing donepezil for this patient?

      Your Answer: Resting bradycardia

      Explanation:

      Managing Alzheimer’s Disease: Non-Pharmacological and Pharmacological Approaches

      Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that progressively affects the brain and is the most common form of dementia in the UK. To manage this condition, there are both non-pharmacological and pharmacological approaches available.

      Non-pharmacological management involves offering a range of activities that promote wellbeing and are tailored to the patient’s preferences. Group cognitive stimulation therapy is recommended for patients with mild to moderate dementia, while group reminiscence therapy and cognitive rehabilitation are also options to consider.

      Pharmacological management involves the use of medications. The three acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine) are options for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease. Memantine, an NMDA receptor antagonist, is considered a second-line treatment and is recommended for patients with moderate Alzheimer’s who are intolerant of or have a contraindication to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors. It can also be used as an add-on drug to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors for patients with moderate or severe Alzheimer’s or as monotherapy in severe Alzheimer’s.

      When managing non-cognitive symptoms, NICE does not recommend antidepressants for mild to moderate depression in patients with dementia. Antipsychotics should only be used for patients at risk of harming themselves or others or when the agitation, hallucinations, or delusions are causing them severe distress.

      It is important to note that donepezil is relatively contraindicated in patients with bradycardia, and adverse effects may include insomnia. By utilizing both non-pharmacological and pharmacological approaches, patients with Alzheimer’s disease can receive comprehensive care and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A newborn is delivered at term via vaginal delivery with no complications, however...

    Correct

    • A newborn is delivered at term via vaginal delivery with no complications, however she is not showing signs of breathing at one minute. Her heart rate is >110bpm, but she is floppy and has a blue colouration. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: 5 breaths of air via face mask

      Explanation:

      Performing airway suction should be avoided unless there is clear evidence of thick meconium causing obstruction, as it may lead to reflex bradycardia in infants. Chest compressions are not necessary if the heart rate (HR) is above 100 beats per minute (bpm). CPR should only be initiated if the HR drops below 60 bpm. If there are no signs of breathing due to fluid in the lungs, administering five breaths through a 250ml ambu bag is a more effective and hygienic approach than using mouth-to-mouth resuscitation in a hospital setting.

      The Apgar score is a tool used to evaluate the health of a newborn baby. It is recommended by NICE to be assessed at 1 and 5 minutes after birth, and again at 10 minutes if the initial score is low. The score is based on five factors: pulse, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, and reflex irritability. A score of 0-3 is considered very low, 4-6 is moderate low, and 7-10 indicates that the baby is in good health. The score helps healthcare professionals quickly identify any potential issues and provide appropriate care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 10-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her parents due to...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her parents due to ongoing disobedience towards her parents and other authority figures for the past three years. At school, she has frequently been involved in physical altercations with her peers and was recently reprimanded for damaging school property.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Conduct disorder

      Explanation:

      Understanding Conduct Disorder and Differential Diagnoses

      Conduct disorder is a psychiatric condition characterized by persistent and severe antisocial behaviors that violate social norms and the rights of others. These behaviors may include excessive fighting, cruelty to people or animals, destruction of property, persistent disobedience, and repeated lying. However, conduct disorder can be easily confused with other psychiatric conditions that present with similar symptoms. Here are some differential diagnoses to consider:

      Depression: While depressive disorders can present with oppositional symptoms, they are usually accompanied by disturbances to appetite, sleep, and anhedonia, which are not seen in conduct disorder. However, depression can coexist with conduct disorder.

      Adjustment reaction: Conduct disturbance can also be a reaction to an external stressor, such as divorce, bereavement, abuse, or trauma. However, these symptoms usually occur within three months of the stressor and can last up to six months. If there is no mention of an external stressor, conduct disorder is more likely.

      Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD): Children with ADHD exhibit symptoms of inattention associated with hyperactivity and impulsiveness, which can affect social and academic functioning. However, unlike conduct disorder, these behaviors do not usually violate societal norms or the rights of others. ADHD can also coexist with conduct disorder.

      Autism spectrum disorder: Children with autism spectrum disorder may present with emotional lability, aggressive outbursts, and destructive behavior, usually in response to an unexpected change in routine or sensory overload. However, there are typical features of autism, such as sensory hypersensitivity, that are not mentioned in conduct disorder. Autism can also coexist with conduct disorder.

      In conclusion, conduct disorder is a serious psychiatric condition that requires early identification and intervention. However, it is important to consider other differential diagnoses to ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 42-year-old woman has a history of excessive sweating, palpitations and weight loss...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman has a history of excessive sweating, palpitations and weight loss for the past six months. She now has a headache.
      On examination, her blood pressure is 230/130 mmHg, with a postural drop to 180/110 mmHg. Her pulse is bounding and 115 beats per minute and she has a tremor and looks pale. The rest of the examination is normal.
      Excess production of which of the following hormones is most likely to be the cause of this woman’s signs and symptoms?

      Your Answer: Thyroxine

      Correct Answer: Catecholamines

      Explanation:

      Explanation of Hypertension and Possible Causes

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, can have various underlying causes. In the case of this patient, their symptoms suggest a rare tumour called phaeochromocytoma, which secretes catecholamines and can lead to malignant hypertension. Hyperaldosteronism and excess cortisol production (Cushing’s syndrome) are other possible causes of hypertension, but they do not explain the patient’s symptoms. Abnormalities in renin, which regulates blood pressure, can also contribute to hypertension. Hyperthyroidism could explain most of the patient’s symptoms, but it is less likely to cause severe hypertension or headaches. Therefore, further investigation is needed to confirm the diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      40.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 42-year-old woman presents with a persistent history of acid reflux. She has...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with a persistent history of acid reflux. She has visited her primary care physician multiple times. A trial of low-dose proton pump inhibitor (PPI) and lifestyle changes has not improved her symptoms. She has been tested for Helicobacter pylori, and the results were negative. Her screening blood tests are normal.
      What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Do an upper gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy

      Explanation:

      Approaches to Managing Dyspepsia in Patients with Gastro-Oesophageal Reflux Disease

      Patients with chronic gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) are at risk of developing Barrett’s oesophagus and oesophageal cancer. Therefore, patients aged 50 years or older with a history of chronic GORD should undergo at least one upper gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy to screen for these conditions. In younger patients, long-term low-dose proton pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy may be considered, with dose adjustment if necessary. However, ongoing dyspepsia in a patient over 50 years old warrants further investigation to exclude serious pathology. Intermittent high-dose PPI therapy is currently only used in hospital for specific indications. Counselling with false reassurance should be avoided in patients with concerning symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 35-year-old female patient complains of indigestion for the past three months. She...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old female patient complains of indigestion for the past three months. She denies any weight loss, anorexia, dysphagia, vomiting, or alteration in bowel habits. Her abdominal examination is normal. What factor could potentially reduce the reliability of a 13C-urea breath test?

      Your Answer: Course of amoxicillin stopping 3 weeks ago

      Explanation:

      To undergo a urea breath test, one must not have taken antibiotics within the last four weeks and must not have taken any antisecretory drugs, such as PPI, within the last two weeks.

      Tests for Helicobacter pylori

      There are several tests available to diagnose Helicobacter pylori infection. One of the most common tests is the urea breath test, where patients consume a drink containing carbon isotope 13 (13C) enriched urea. The urea is broken down by H. pylori urease, and after 30 minutes, the patient exhales into a glass tube. Mass spectrometry analysis calculates the amount of 13C CO2, which indicates the presence of H. pylori. However, this test should not be performed within four weeks of treatment with an antibacterial or within two weeks of an antisecretory drug.

      Another test is the rapid urease test, also known as the CLO test. This involves mixing a biopsy sample with urea and a pH indicator. If there is a color change, it indicates the presence of H. pylori urease activity. Serum antibody tests can also be used, but they remain positive even after eradication. Culture of gastric biopsy can provide information on antibiotic sensitivity, while histological evaluation alone can be done through gastric biopsy. Lastly, the stool antigen test has a sensitivity of 90% and specificity of 95%.

      Overall, these tests have varying levels of sensitivity and specificity, and the choice of test depends on the patient’s clinical presentation and the availability of resources.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 25-year-old woman presents to the Genitourinary Medicine Clinic with a 1-week history...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to the Genitourinary Medicine Clinic with a 1-week history of lower abdominal pain and deep dyspareunia. She has also noticed a creamy foul-smelling vaginal discharge. There is no past medical history of note and she takes no regular medications.
      On examination, her temperature is 38.1 °C. The remainder of her observations are within normal limits. There is palpable lower abdominal tenderness and guarding in the left iliac fossa. Bimanual examination elicits bilateral adnexal tenderness. There is no inguinal lymphadenopathy.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate investigation to confirm the causative organism?

      Select ONE option only

      Your Answer: Nucleic acid amplification testing (NAAT)

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Pelvic Inflammatory Disease

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a condition that can cause deep dyspareunia and lower abdominal and adnexal tenderness. The most common cause of PID is Chlamydia trachomatis, which can be diagnosed through nucleic acid amplification testing (NAAT). This involves taking a urine sample and a swab from the vagina or cervix to test for the organism. While a blood culture may be considered for a febrile patient, it is not routinely used for diagnosing C. trachomatis. Vaginal microscopy and culture used to be the preferred method for diagnosis, but NAAT is now recommended. Testing vaginal pH is commonly used for vaginal infections, but is not useful for PID. Urine microscopy and culture is used for UTIs, but the presence of vaginal discharge and deep dyspareunia suggests PID instead.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      30.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 28-year-old male patient complains of a painful rash on his forehead that...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old male patient complains of a painful rash on his forehead that has been present for one day. The patient has no significant medical history. Upon examination, a vesicular rash is observed on the right side in the distribution of the ophthalmic nerve. There is no discharge or pus, and no ocular involvement is present. What is the recommended treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Oral acyclovir for 7-10 days

      Explanation:

      In the case of herpes zoster ophthalmicus, topical antiviral treatment is not recommended. The first line of treatment is oral acyclovir, which should be initiated promptly and continued for 7-10 days. If there are any indications of ocular involvement, the patient should be referred to an ophthalmologist immediately. While steroids can be administered concurrently, they do not decrease the likelihood of post-herpetic neuralgia. Topical mupirocin is not an appropriate treatment option.

      Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus: Symptoms, Treatment, and Complications

      Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) is a condition that occurs when the varicella-zoster virus reactivates in the area supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It is responsible for approximately 10% of shingles cases. The main symptom of HZO is a vesicular rash around the eye, which may or may not involve the eye itself. Hutchinson’s sign, a rash on the tip or side of the nose, is a strong indicator of nasociliary involvement and increases the risk of ocular involvement.

      Treatment for HZO involves oral antiviral medication for 7-10 days, ideally started within 72 hours of symptom onset. Intravenous antivirals may be necessary for severe infections or immunocompromised patients. Topical antiviral treatment is not recommended for HZO, but topical corticosteroids may be used to treat any secondary inflammation of the eye. Ocular involvement requires urgent ophthalmology review to prevent complications such as conjunctivitis, keratitis, episcleritis, anterior uveitis, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.

      In summary, HZO is a condition caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It presents with a vesicular rash around the eye and may involve the eye itself. Treatment involves oral antiviral medication and urgent ophthalmology review is necessary for ocular involvement. Complications of HZO include various eye conditions, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to her general practitioner by her mother, with...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to her general practitioner by her mother, with a 3-day history of fever up to 37.8 °C. She had no history of lesions on the buccal mucosa but developed a maculopapular rash across the face and trunk. A few days before the appearance of the rash, she complained of some eye pain, sore throat and general body aches. On physical examination, she has a discrete rose-pink maculopapular rash on the face, neck and trunk, low-grade fever and enlarged posterior auricular and suboccipital lymph nodes.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rubella

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Between Viral Diseases: Rubella, Mumps, Meningitis, Scarlet Fever, and Erythema Infectiosum

      Rubella, also known as German measles, is a typically mild viral disease that often goes unnoticed, with almost half of those infected showing no symptoms. However, it can have severe consequences for pregnant women, especially in the early stages of pregnancy. Symptoms include eye pain, sore throat, low-grade fever, and a rose-pink rash that starts on the face and spreads to the trunk and extremities within 24 hours.

      Mumps is another viral disease caused by rubulavirus. It typically presents with low-grade fever, malaise, headache, and myalgia, followed by painful swelling of the salivary glands and tender cervical lymphadenopathy. Mumps is highly contagious and has become less common in developing countries due to vaccination.

      Meningitis is a serious condition characterized by inflammation of the meninges. Symptoms include fever, headache, and neck stiffness, and it requires urgent medical attention.

      Scarlet fever is caused by group A β-hemolytic streptococci and presents with exudative pharyngitis, fever, and a bright red rash. It typically evolves from a tonsillar/pharyngeal focus and is uncommon without buccal lesions.

      Erythema infectiosum, also known as fifth disease, is a mild childhood illness caused by parvovirus B19. It presents with a bright red rash on the cheeks and may have atypical rashes in adults.

      It is important to distinguish between these viral diseases to ensure proper treatment and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 20 - A 43-year-old woman is diagnosed with premature ovarian failure and prescribed HRT for...

    Correct

    • A 43-year-old woman is diagnosed with premature ovarian failure and prescribed HRT for symptom relief and bone health. What other medical condition is she at a higher risk for?

      Your Answer: Ischaemic heart disease

      Explanation:

      Premature menopause is linked to higher mortality rates, including an increased risk of osteoporosis and cardiovascular disease, specifically ischaemic heart disease. Oestrogen is known to have protective effects on bone health and cardiovascular disease, making the increased risks associated with premature menopause particularly concerning. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is often recommended until the normal age of menopause, with a discussion of the risks and benefits of continuing HRT beyond that point. A 2015 NICE review found that the baseline risk of coronary heart disease and stroke for menopausal women varies based on individual cardiovascular risk factors. HRT with oestrogen alone is associated with no or reduced risk of coronary heart disease, while HRT with oestrogen and progestogen is linked to little or no increase in the risk of coronary heart disease. However, taking oral (but not transdermal) oestrogen is associated with a small increase in the risk of stroke.

      Premature Ovarian Insufficiency: Causes and Management

      Premature ovarian insufficiency is a condition where menopausal symptoms and elevated gonadotrophin levels occur before the age of 40. It affects approximately 1 in 100 women and can be caused by various factors such as idiopathic reasons, family history, bilateral oophorectomy, radiotherapy, chemotherapy, infection, autoimmune disorders, and resistant ovary syndrome. The symptoms of premature ovarian insufficiency are similar to those of normal menopause, including hot flushes, night sweats, infertility, secondary amenorrhoea, raised FSH and LH levels, and low oestradiol.

      Management of premature ovarian insufficiency involves hormone replacement therapy (HRT) or a combined oral contraceptive pill until the age of the average menopause, which is 51 years. It is important to note that HRT does not provide contraception in case spontaneous ovarian activity resumes. Early diagnosis and management of premature ovarian insufficiency can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life for affected women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 21 - A 32-year-old male patient visits the sexual health clinic complaining of a recent...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old male patient visits the sexual health clinic complaining of a recent genital lesion. The patient reports experiencing severe pain and first noticed the lesion one week ago. He admits to engaging in unprotected sexual activity with multiple partners within the past three months. Upon examination, a deep ulcer with a ragged border is observed on the penis shaft, accompanied by tenderness and inguinal lymphadenopathy. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chancroid

      Explanation:

      The man’s ulcer appears to be caused by chancroid, which is known for causing deep and painful genital ulcers accompanied by inguinal lymphadenopathy. Gonorrhoea is an unlikely diagnosis as it typically presents with penile discharge and no ulceration. Herpes simplex can also cause painful genital ulcers, but they are usually multiple and superficial, and inguinal lymphadenopathy is not as common as with chancroid. Lymphogranuloma venereum causes painless ulceration that heals quickly, while primary syphilis causes a painless ulcer called a chancre.

      Understanding Chancroid: A Painful Tropical Disease

      Chancroid is a disease that is commonly found in tropical regions and is caused by a bacterium called Haemophilus ducreyi. This disease is characterized by the development of painful genital ulcers that are often accompanied by painful swelling of the lymph nodes in the groin area. The ulcers themselves are typically easy to identify, as they have a distinct border that is ragged and undermined.

      Chancroid is a disease that can be quite painful and uncomfortable for those who are affected by it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      15.6
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  • Question 22 - A 35-year-old HIV positive man comes to your travel clinic seeking advice on...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old HIV positive man comes to your travel clinic seeking advice on vaccinations for his upcoming trip. He is currently on antiretroviral therapy and his most recent CD4 count is 180 cells/mm³. He has no other medical conditions and is feeling well.
      Which vaccines should be avoided in this individual?

      Your Answer: Tuberculosis (BCG)

      Explanation:

      Patients who are HIV positive should not receive live attenuated vaccines like BCG. Additionally, immunocompromised individuals should avoid other live attenuated vaccines such as yellow fever, oral polio, intranasal influenza, varicella, and measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR). This information is sourced from uptodate.

      Types of Vaccines and Their Characteristics

      Vaccines are essential in preventing the spread of infectious diseases. However, it is crucial to understand the different types of vaccines and their characteristics to ensure their safety and effectiveness. Live attenuated vaccines, such as BCG, MMR, and oral polio, may pose a risk to immunocompromised patients. In contrast, inactivated preparations, including rabies and hepatitis A, are safe for everyone. Toxoid vaccines, such as tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis, use inactivated toxins to generate an immune response. Subunit and conjugate vaccines, such as pneumococcus, haemophilus, meningococcus, hepatitis B, and human papillomavirus, use only part of the pathogen or link bacterial polysaccharide outer coats to proteins to make them more immunogenic. Influenza vaccines come in different types, including whole inactivated virus, split virion, and sub-unit. Cholera vaccine contains inactivated strains of Vibrio cholerae and recombinant B-subunit of the cholera toxin. Hepatitis B vaccine contains HBsAg adsorbed onto aluminium hydroxide adjuvant and is prepared from yeast cells using recombinant DNA technology. Understanding the different types of vaccines and their characteristics is crucial in making informed decisions about vaccination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 23 - Legionnaires' disease has several statements associated with it, but which one is true?...

    Correct

    • Legionnaires' disease has several statements associated with it, but which one is true?

      Your Answer: Hyponatremia occurs significantly more often in Legionnaires’ disease than in other pneumonias

      Explanation:

      Understanding Legionnaires’ Disease: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Legionnaires’ disease is a type of pneumonia that is caused by the Legionella bacteria. This disease is often overlooked as a possible cause of community-acquired pneumonia, but it is consistently ranked among the top three or four most common causes. The bacteria are found in water sources, and most patients contract the disease through aspiration.

      One of the key symptoms of Legionnaires’ disease is hyponatremia, which is a low level of sodium in the blood. This symptom is more commonly associated with Legionnaires’ disease than with other types of pneumonia. The disease is also more likely to occur in patients who are immunocompromised, as cell-mediated immunity appears to be the primary host defense mechanism against Legionella infection.

      The urinary antigen test is the preferred initial test for Legionnaires’ disease, but it has low sensitivity and is not particularly specific. The test detects only L. pneumophila serogroup 1, which causes most cases of the disease. Specific therapy includes antibiotics that can achieve high intracellular concentrations, such as macrolides, quinolones, or ketolides.

      Predisposing factors for Legionnaires’ disease include age over 50, cigarette smoking, excessive alcohol intake, chronic lung disease, and immunosuppression. High fever and gastrointestinal symptoms are clinical clues to this disease. It is important for healthcare providers to consider Legionnaires’ disease as a possible cause of pneumonia, especially in patients with these risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 24 - A 59-year-old woman comes in for a routine check-up with her primary care...

    Correct

    • A 59-year-old woman comes in for a routine check-up with her primary care physician. She has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and is currently taking metformin and sitagliptin. During her last visit, her blood pressure was measured at 161/88 mmHg and she was advised to undergo 7 days of ambulatory blood pressure monitoring.

      During this visit, her average ambulatory blood pressure is recorded as 158/74 mmHg. All other observations are stable and her cardiorespiratory examination is unremarkable. Her blood sugar level is 6.2 mmol/L.

      What medication would be recommended to manage this patient's blood pressure?

      Your Answer: Lisinopril

      Explanation:

      Regardless of age, ACE inhibitors/A2RBs are the first-line treatment for hypertension in diabetics.

      Blood Pressure Management in Diabetes Mellitus

      Patients with diabetes mellitus have traditionally been managed with lower blood pressure targets to reduce their overall cardiovascular risk. However, a 2013 Cochrane review found that there was little difference in outcomes between patients who had tight blood pressure control (targets < 130/85 mmHg) and those with more relaxed control (< 140-160/90-100 mmHg), except for a slightly reduced rate of stroke in the former group. As a result, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of < 140/90 mmHg for type 2 diabetics, the same as for patients without diabetes. For patients with type 1 diabetes, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of 135/85 mmHg unless they have albuminuria or two or more features of metabolic syndrome, in which case the target should be 130/80 mmHg. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin-II receptor antagonists (A2RBs) are the first-line antihypertensive regardless of age, as they have a renoprotective effect in diabetes. A2RBs are preferred for black African or African-Caribbean diabetic patients. Further management then follows that of non-diabetic patients. It is important to note that autonomic neuropathy may result in more postural symptoms in patients taking antihypertensive therapy. Therefore, the routine use of beta-blockers in uncomplicated hypertension should be avoided, particularly when given in combination with thiazides, as they may cause insulin resistance, impair insulin secretion, and alter the autonomic response to hypoglycemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      15.2
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  • Question 25 - A 45-year-old woman complains of a gritty sensation in her eyes and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman complains of a gritty sensation in her eyes and a dry mouth of several months’ duration. She has vague joint pains in her knees and ankles. Her husband mentions that she is also dyspnoeic on exertion and cannot keep up with him during their hikes.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Correct Answer: Sjögren syndrome

      Explanation:

      Sjögren syndrome is a condition characterized by dry eyes (keratoconjunctivitis sicca) and dryness in other areas such as the mouth, skin, or vagina. Enlargement of the salivary or parotid glands may also be present. Primary Sjögren syndrome occurs without any other autoimmune disease and is associated with HLA-B8/DR3 in about 50% of cases. Secondary Sjögren syndrome occurs in the presence of other autoimmune disorders, commonly rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Other symptoms may include arthralgia, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oesophageal dysmotility, vasculitis, polyneuropathy, and pulmonary diffusion defects and fibrosis. Diagnosis is based on the Schirmer tear test, Rose Bengal staining, and lab tests showing raised immunoglobulin levels, circulating immune complexes, and autoantibodies. Treatment is symptomatic with artificial tear and saliva replacement solutions, hydroxychloroquine, and corticosteroids if needed. Polymyositis, polyarteritis nodosa (PAN), mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD), and rheumatoid arthritis are other conditions that may present with similar symptoms but do not fit the clinical picture in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 26 - A 32-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant is curious about the anomaly...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant is curious about the anomaly scan after hearing about a friend's experience. She wants to know the earliest possible time she can have the scan.

      When can the anomaly scan be done at the earliest?

      Your Answer: 18 weeks

      Explanation:

      The earliest possible time for an anomaly scan is at 18 weeks, with the latest being at 20 weeks and 6 days. For a dating scan, the earliest possible time is at 8 weeks. As for a nuchal scan, it can be done at the earliest at 11 weeks.

      NICE guidelines recommend 10 antenatal visits for first pregnancies and 7 for subsequent pregnancies if uncomplicated. The purpose of each visit is outlined, including booking visits, scans, screening for Down’s syndrome, routine care for blood pressure and urine, and discussions about labour and birth plans. Rhesus negative women are offered anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks. The guidelines also recommend discussing options for prolonged pregnancy at 41 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      8
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  • Question 27 - A 50-year-old male is taking oral antibiotics for mild diverticulitis. He goes to...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male is taking oral antibiotics for mild diverticulitis. He goes to a wedding and later complains of palpitations, vomiting, headache, and flushing. His heart rate is 110 beats/min. He has no significant medical history and no known allergies to any medication or food. He denies using recreational drugs but admits to having one beer at the wedding. What antibiotic is he likely taking?

      Your Answer: Metronidazole

      Explanation:

      When metronidazole and ethanol are taken together, it can result in a disulfiram-like reaction, which can cause symptoms such as flushing in the head and neck, nausea, vomiting, sweating, headaches, and palpitations. Additionally, alcohol consumption should be avoided when taking cefoperazone, a cephalosporin, as it can also lead to a disulfiram-like reaction.

      Metronidazole is an antibiotic that functions by producing reactive cytotoxic metabolites within bacteria. This medication can cause adverse effects such as a disulfiram-like reaction when combined with alcohol and an increased anticoagulant effect when taken with warfarin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 28 - A 25-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of diarrhoea and vomiting after spending...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of diarrhoea and vomiting after spending Christmas with her family. Her sister has just informed her that she too is experiencing the same symptoms. The doctor suspects norovirus. What is the best way to prevent the spread of this virus?

      Your Answer: Wash hands with soap and water

      Explanation:

      Handwashing is more effective than alcohol gels in preventing the spread of norovirus.

      Norovirus, also known as the winter vomiting bug, is a common cause of gastroenteritis in the UK. It is a type of RNA virus that can cause symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea, as well as headaches, low-grade fevers, and myalgia. The virus is highly contagious and can be transmitted through the fecal-oral route, as well as through aerosolized particles from vomit or contaminated bodily fluids. Good hand hygiene and isolation of infected individuals are important measures to limit transmission. Diagnosis is typically made through clinical history and stool culture viral PCR. While the infection is self-limiting in most cases, dehydration and electrolyte imbalances can occur and require supportive management.

      Norovirus is a genus of non-encapsulated RNA virus species that can cause gastroenteritis. The CDC estimates that 1 in 5 cases of infectious gastroenteritis are caused by norovirus, with 685 million cases per year worldwide. Symptoms typically develop within 15-50 hours of infection and can include vomiting, diarrhea, headaches, low-grade fevers, and myalgia. The virus is highly contagious and can be transmitted through direct physical contact, contact with contaminated food, or through aerosolized particles from vomit or contaminated bodily fluids. Good hand hygiene and isolation of infected individuals are important measures to limit transmission. Diagnosis is typically made through clinical history and stool culture viral PCR. While the infection is self-limiting in most cases, dehydration and electrolyte imbalances can occur and require supportive management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 29 - A 40-year-old man with a history of alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency visits his GP complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man with a history of alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency visits his GP complaining of increased difficulty in breathing. The GP suspects that his lungs may be deteriorating and orders spirometry to aid in the diagnosis.
      What spirometry results would be anticipated for a patient with this condition?

      Your Answer: FEV1= 60% FEV1/FVC = 0.9

      Correct Answer: FEV1 = 60% FEV1/FVC = 0.65

      Explanation:

      What spirometry result is expected in alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency?

      Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency will result in an obstructive pattern on spirometry, similar to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The two important factors to consider in spirometry are the FEV1 and the FEV1/FVC ratio. In obstructive disease, the FEV1 is reduced due to narrowed airways, while the FVC remains normal. This results in a reduced FEV1/FVC ratio. Therefore, in alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency, we would expect to see a reduced FEV1 and FEV1/FVC ratio on spirometry.

      Understanding Alpha-1 Antitrypsin Deficiency

      Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is a genetic condition that occurs when the liver fails to produce enough of a protein called alpha-1 antitrypsin (A1AT). A1AT is responsible for protecting cells from enzymes that can cause damage, such as neutrophil elastase. This deficiency is inherited in an autosomal recessive or co-dominant fashion, with alleles classified by their electrophoretic mobility as M for normal, S for slow, and Z for very slow. The normal genotype is PiMM, while heterozygous individuals have PiMZ. Homozygous PiSS individuals have 50% normal A1AT levels, while homozygous PiZZ individuals have only 10% normal A1AT levels.

      The classic manifestation of A1AT deficiency is emphysema, which is a type of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. This condition is most commonly seen in young, non-smoking patients. However, the evidence base is conflicting regarding the risk of emphysema. Non-smokers with A1AT deficiency are at a lower risk of developing emphysema, but they may pass on the A1AT gene to their children. Patients with A1AT deficiency who manifest disease usually have the PiZZ genotype.

      In addition to emphysema, A1AT deficiency can also cause liver problems such as cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma in adults, and cholestasis in children. Diagnosis is made by measuring A1AT concentrations and performing spirometry, which typically shows an obstructive pattern. Management includes avoiding smoking, supportive measures such as bronchodilators and physiotherapy, and intravenous A1AT protein concentrates. In severe cases, lung volume reduction surgery or lung transplantation may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      40
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  • Question 30 - The combined contraceptive pill increases a woman's susceptibility to which of the following...

    Correct

    • The combined contraceptive pill increases a woman's susceptibility to which of the following conditions? Choose ONE option from the list provided.

      Your Answer: Venous thrombosis

      Explanation:

      Benefits and Risks of Oral Contraceptives

      Oral contraceptives, also known as birth control pills, are a popular form of contraception for women. They contain synthetic hormones that prevent pregnancy by inhibiting ovulation, thickening cervical mucus, and altering the lining of the uterus. While oral contraceptives have many benefits, they also carry some risks.

      Venous Thrombosis: The estrogen component of oral contraceptives can activate the blood-clotting mechanism, increasing the risk of venous thrombosis. However, low-dose oral contraceptives are associated with a lower risk of thromboembolism.

      Benign Breast Disease: Oral contraceptives can prevent benign breast disease, but their association with breast cancer in young women is controversial. While some studies suggest a slightly increased risk of breast cancer, the risk is small and the resulting tumors spread less aggressively than usual.

      Functional Ovarian Cysts: Oral contraceptives suppress ovarian stimulation, reducing the risk of developing functional ovarian cysts.

      Carcinoma of the Ovary or Uterus: Oral contraceptives can prevent epithelial ovarian and endometrial carcinoma. They are associated with a 40% reduced risk of malignant and borderline ovarian epithelial cancer and a 50% reduction in the risk of endometrial adenocarcinoma.

      Pelvic Inflammatory Disease: Oral contraceptives can prevent the development of pelvic inflammatory disease.

      Overall, oral contraceptives are reliable and reversible, reduce menstrual symptoms, and lower the risk of certain cancers and pelvic inflammatory disease. However, they carry some risks, including an increased risk of venous thrombosis and a controversial association with breast cancer. Women should discuss the benefits and risks of oral contraceptives with their healthcare provider to determine if they are a suitable form of contraception.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 31 - What is the failure rate of male sterilization? ...

    Correct

    • What is the failure rate of male sterilization?

      Your Answer: 1 in 2,000

      Explanation:

      Vasectomy: A Simple and Effective Male Sterilisation Method

      Vasectomy is a male sterilisation method that has a failure rate of 1 per 2,000, making it more effective than female sterilisation. The procedure is simple and can be done under local anesthesia, with some cases requiring general anesthesia. After the procedure, patients can go home after a couple of hours. However, it is important to note that vasectomy does not work immediately.

      To ensure the success of the procedure, semen analysis needs to be performed twice following a vasectomy before a man can have unprotected sex. This is usually done at 12 weeks after the procedure. While vasectomy is generally safe, there are some complications that may arise, such as bruising, hematoma, infection, sperm granuloma, and chronic testicular pain. This pain affects between 5-30% of men.

      In the event that a man wishes to reverse the procedure, the success rate of vasectomy reversal is up to 55% if done within 10 years. However, the success rate drops to approximately 25% after more than 10 years. Overall, vasectomy is a simple and effective method of male sterilisation, but it is important to consider the potential complications and the need for semen analysis before engaging in unprotected sex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      2.2
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  • Question 32 - As a young medical practitioner in the emergency department, you encounter a patient...

    Correct

    • As a young medical practitioner in the emergency department, you encounter a patient who has been in a severe road accident. The patient has suffered significant head injuries and is now reliant on mechanical ventilation, with no signs of responsiveness. You and your senior colleagues suspect that the patient may have experienced brain death. What is the process for confirming this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: By a minimum of two doctors on separate occasions

      Explanation:

      To minimize the risk of errors, brain death testing must be conducted by two experienced doctors on different occasions. The testing involves evaluating the patient’s history, pupil reactions, reflexes, pain response, and respiratory effort. Once brain death is confirmed, life support can be discontinued, and the patient may be considered for organ donation, which can take place before the withdrawal of life support.

      Criteria and Testing for Brain Stem Death

      Brain death occurs when the brain and brain stem cease to function, resulting in irreversible loss of consciousness and vital functions. To determine brain stem death, certain criteria must be met and specific tests must be performed. The patient must be in a deep coma of known cause, with reversible causes excluded and no sedation. Electrolyte levels must be normal.

      The testing for brain stem death involves several assessments. The pupils must be fixed and unresponsive to changes in light intensity. The corneal reflex must be absent, and there should be no response to supraorbital pressure. The oculo-vestibular reflexes must be absent, which is tested by injecting ice-cold water into each ear. There should be no cough reflex to bronchial stimulation or gagging response to pharyngeal stimulation. Finally, there should be no observed respiratory effort in response to disconnection from the ventilator for at least five minutes, with adequate oxygenation ensured.

      It is important that the testing is performed by two experienced doctors on two separate occasions, with at least one being a consultant. Neither doctor can be a member of the transplant team if organ donation is being considered. These criteria and tests are crucial in determining brain stem death and ensuring that the patient is beyond recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 33 - A 55-year-old woman had a recent acute myocardial infarction (MI).
    Which medication has been...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman had a recent acute myocardial infarction (MI).
      Which medication has been proven to reduce mortality after an MI?

      Your Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Medications for Post-Myocardial Infarction Patients

      Post-myocardial infarction (MI) patients require specific medications to prevent further cardiovascular disease and improve their overall health. One of the most important drugs to offer is a beta-blocker, such as bisoprolol, as soon as the patient is stable. This medication should be continued for at least 12 months after an MI in patients without left ventricular systolic dysfunction or heart failure, and indefinitely in those with left ventricular systolic dysfunction. While beta-blockers can reduce mortality and morbidity for up to a year after an MI, recent studies suggest that continuing treatment beyond a year may not provide any additional benefits. Other medications, such as amiodarone, isosorbide mononitrate, and nicorandil, offer symptom relief but do not reduce mortality or morbidity. Calcium-channel blockers, like diltiazem, may be considered for secondary prevention in patients without pulmonary congestion or left ventricular systolic dysfunction if beta-blockers are contraindicated or discontinued. However, current guidelines recommend offering all post-MI patients an ACE inhibitor, dual antiplatelet therapy, beta-blocker, and statin to improve their long-term health outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 34 - An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of difficulty breathing. He...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of difficulty breathing. He had been diagnosed with community-acquired pneumonia by his doctor and treated with antibiotics at home. However, his condition suddenly worsened, and he now has a heart rate of 120/min, respiratory rate of 22/min, oxygen saturation of 77%, and a temperature of 38°C. The patient has a medical history of COPD and is a carbon dioxide retainer. What is the best course of action to address his low oxygen saturation?

      Your Answer: BIPAP (bi-level positive airway pressure)

      Correct Answer: 28% Venturi mask at 4 litres/min

      Explanation:

      Guidelines for Emergency Oxygen Therapy

      The British Thoracic Society has updated its guidelines for emergency oxygen therapy in 2017. The guidelines recommend that in critically ill patients, such as those experiencing anaphylaxis or shock, oxygen should be administered via a reservoir mask at 15 l/min. However, certain conditions, such as stable myocardial infarction, are excluded from this recommendation.

      The guidelines also provide specific oxygen saturation targets for different patient groups. Acutely ill patients should aim for a saturation range of 94-98%, while patients at risk of hypercapnia, such as those with COPD, should aim for a lower range of 88-92%. Oxygen therapy should be reduced in stable patients with satisfactory oxygen saturation.

      For COPD patients, a 28% Venturi mask at 4 l/min should be used prior to availability of blood gases. The target oxygen saturation range for these patients should be 88-92% if they have risk factors for hypercapnia but no prior history of respiratory acidosis. If the pCO2 is normal, the target range can be adjusted to 94-98%.

      The guidelines also highlight situations where oxygen therapy should not be used routinely if there is no evidence of hypoxia. These include myocardial infarction and acute coronary syndromes, stroke, obstetric emergencies, and anxiety-related hyperventilation.

      Overall, these guidelines provide clear recommendations for the administration of emergency oxygen therapy in different patient groups and situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 35 - An 80-year-old male has been diagnosed with upper rectal cancer. The cancer is...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old male has been diagnosed with upper rectal cancer. The cancer is confined to the area and the medical team has decided to perform an anterior resection to remove it. The surgeon believes that to achieve the best long-term outcome, it is necessary to temporarily divert the colon to safeguard the colorectal anastomosis. What type of stoma would be most suitable?

      Your Answer: Loop ileostomy

      Explanation:

      A loop ileostomy is the appropriate procedure for defunctioning the colon to protect an anastomosis. This involves taking a loop of ileum, making a horizontal incision, and bringing it up to the skin. It is commonly used after rectal cancer surgery and can be reversed at a later time.

      An end colostomy is performed when an anastomosis is not possible or desirable, and the colon needs to be diverted or resected. The distal part of the colon is brought up to the skin in this procedure.

      An end ileostomy is typically done after the complete removal of the colon or when an ileocolic anastomosis is not planned. While it can be used to defunction the colon, it is more challenging to reverse.

      A gastrostomy is used for gastric decompression or feeding.

      A loop jejunostomy is used as a high-output stoma and may be performed after an emergency laparotomy with planned early closure.

      Abdominal stomas are created during various abdominal procedures to bring the lumen or contents of organs onto the skin. Typically, this involves the bowel, but other organs may also be diverted if necessary. The type and method of construction of the stoma will depend on the contents of the bowel. Small bowel stomas should be spouted to prevent irritant contents from coming into contact with the skin, while colonic stomas do not require spouting. Proper siting of the stoma is crucial to reduce the risk of leakage and subsequent maceration of the surrounding skin. The type and location of the stoma will vary depending on the purpose, such as defunctioning the colon or providing feeding access. Overall, abdominal stomas are a necessary medical intervention that requires careful consideration and planning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      61.1
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  • Question 36 - A 75-year-old woman with age-related macular degeneration (AMD) presented to the emergency department...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old woman with age-related macular degeneration (AMD) presented to the emergency department with a painless bloodshot right eye. She was very worried about her condition. The previous day, she had received an intravitreal injection for the treatment of AMD. Upon examination, her visual acuity had not decreased further, but there was bleeding under the conjunctiva around the injection site. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Subconjunctival haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      It is important to inform patients about the possibility of developing subconjunctival haemorrhage after receiving intravitreal injections, as it is a common iatrogenic complication. This condition causes a red eye but is not painful and typically resolves within a couple of weeks.

      Understanding Subconjunctival Haemorrhage

      Subconjunctival haemorrhage occurs when blood vessels bleed into the subconjunctival space, usually those that supply the conjunctiva or episclera. Trauma is the most common cause, followed by spontaneous idiopathic cases, Valsalva manoeuvres, and several systemic diseases. Although subconjunctival haemorrhages can look alarming, they are rarely an indicator of anything sinister.

      Subconjunctival haemorrhages are more common in women than in men when there has been no history of trauma. The annual incidence of non-traumatic subconjunctival haemorrhages is 0.6%, and the risk increases with age as the risk factors are more common in elderly patients. Newborns are also more susceptible. The incidence of both traumatic and non-traumatic subconjunctival haemorrhages is 2.6%.

      The most common causes of subconjunctival haemorrhages are trauma and contact lens usage, which are often the sole risk factor in younger patients. Other risk factors include idiopathic causes, Valsalva manoeuvre, hypertension, bleeding disorders, drugs such as aspirin, NSAIDs and anticoagulants, diabetes, arterial disease, and hyperlipidaemia.

      Subconjunctival haemorrhages are mostly asymptomatic, but patients may experience mild irritation. The main sign is a flat, red patch on the conjunctiva with well-defined edges and normal conjunctiva surrounding it. Traumatic haemorrhages are most common in the temporal region, with the inferior conjunctiva as the next most commonly affected area. Vision should be normal, including acuity, visual fields, and range of eye movements. On examination, the fundus should be normal.

      The diagnosis of a subconjunctival haemorrhage is a clinical one. If there is no obvious traumatic cause, check the patient’s blood pressure. If raised, refer the patient appropriately. If the patient is taking warfarin, check the INR. If raised, refer for appropriate adjustments to the dose to bring the INR back into the target range. Recurrent or spontaneous, bilateral subconjunctival haemorrhages warrant investigations for bleeding disorders or other pathology.

      Reassure the patient that subconjunctival haemorrhage is a benign condition that will resolve on its own in 2 to

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - You assess a 65-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who receives...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 65-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who receives approximately 7-8 rounds of oral prednisolone annually to manage infectious exacerbations of his condition. What is one of the potential negative consequences associated with prolonged steroid use?

      Your Answer: Osteomalacia

      Correct Answer: Avascular necrosis

      Explanation:

      Osteopaenia and osteoporosis are associated with prolonged use of corticosteroids, not osteomalacia.

      Understanding Corticosteroids and Their Side-Effects

      Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed therapies used to replace or augment the natural activity of endogenous steroids. They can be administered systemically or locally, depending on the condition being treated. However, the usage of corticosteroids is limited due to their numerous side-effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic therapy.

      Glucocorticoid side-effects include impaired glucose regulation, increased appetite and weight gain, hirsutism, hyperlipidaemia, Cushing’s syndrome, moon face, buffalo hump, striae, osteoporosis, proximal myopathy, avascular necrosis of the femoral head, immunosuppression, increased susceptibility to severe infection, reactivation of tuberculosis, insomnia, mania, depression, psychosis, peptic ulceration, acute pancreatitis, glaucoma, cataracts, suppression of growth in children, intracranial hypertension, and neutrophilia.

      On the other hand, mineralocorticoid side-effects include fluid retention and hypertension. It is important to note that patients on long-term steroids should have their doses doubled during intercurrent illness. Longer-term systemic corticosteroids suppress the natural production of endogenous steroids, so they should not be withdrawn abruptly as this may precipitate an Addisonian crisis. The British National Formulary suggests gradual withdrawal of systemic corticosteroids if patients have received more than 40mg prednisolone daily for more than one week, received more than three weeks of treatment, or recently received repeated courses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 45-year-old woman has been diagnosed with Addison's disease. What medications are typically...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman has been diagnosed with Addison's disease. What medications are typically prescribed in combination for this condition?

      Your Answer: Hydrocortisone + fludrocortisone

      Explanation:

      Addison’s disease is a condition that requires patients to undergo both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid replacement therapy. This treatment usually involves taking a combination of hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone. Hydrocortisone is typically given in 2 or 3 divided doses, with patients requiring 20-30 mg per day, mostly in the first half of the day. Patient education is crucial, and it is essential to emphasize the importance of not missing glucocorticoid doses. Additionally, patients should consider wearing MedicAlert bracelets and steroid cards, and they should be provided with hydrocortisone for injection with needles and syringes to treat an adrenal crisis.

      During an intercurrent illness, it is crucial to manage the glucocorticoid dose properly. In simple terms, the glucocorticoid dose should be doubled, while the fludrocortisone dose should remain the same. The Addison’s Clinical Advisory Panel has produced guidelines that detail specific scenarios, and patients should refer to these guidelines for more information. It is essential to discuss how to adjust the glucocorticoid dose during an intercurrent illness with a healthcare professional. Proper management of Addison’s disease is crucial to ensure that patients can lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 27-year-old woman with a BMI of 34 kg/m² presents to your GP...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman with a BMI of 34 kg/m² presents to your GP clinic with a small lump in her right breast. She is worried about the possibility of breast cancer, although she has noticed that the lump has decreased in size over the past two weeks. She denies any direct injury but mentions playing rugby recently. There is no family history of breast or gynaecological cancer. On examination, a small, firm, poorly mobile lump is found in the lower quadrant of the right breast.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Traumatic breast fat necrosis

      Explanation:

      Traumatic breast fat necrosis may develop following a minor or unnoticed injury in women with a high body mass index, although it is crucial to investigate any lump to exclude breast cancer. Nipple discharge is a common symptom of mammary duct ectasia, while a tender lymph node in the axilla is likely to be palpable. Paget’s disease is characterized by an eczema-like appearance of the nipple, not a lump. Fibroadenoma, also known as a breast mouse, is not attached.

      Understanding Fat Necrosis of the Breast

      Fat necrosis of the breast is a condition that affects up to 40% of cases and is often caused by trauma. This condition can be mistaken for breast cancer due to its physical features, such as a mass that may initially increase in size. It is important to understand that fat necrosis is not cancerous and can be treated with proper care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 42-year-old man comes in with an ongoing itchy rash that has been...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man comes in with an ongoing itchy rash that has been present for a few weeks. During examination, he displays erythematous, scaly lesions beneath his eyebrows, around his nose, and at the top of his chest. He also has a history of dandruff that he manages well with over-the-counter shampoos. What is the best course of treatment for the lesions on his face and trunk?

      Your Answer: Topical ketoconazole

      Explanation:

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is typically characterized by a scaly rash around the peri-orbital and nasolabial areas, as well as dandruff. The recommended initial treatment is topical ketoconazole.

      Understanding Seborrhoeic Dermatitis in Adults

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a chronic skin condition that affects around 2% of the general population. It is caused by an inflammatory reaction related to the overgrowth of a fungus called Malassezia furfur, which is a normal inhabitant of the skin. The condition is characterized by eczematous lesions that appear on the sebum-rich areas of the body, such as the scalp, periorbital, auricular, and nasolabial folds. It can also lead to the development of otitis externa and blepharitis.

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is often associated with other medical conditions, such as HIV and Parkinson’s disease. The management of the condition depends on the affected area. For scalp disease, over-the-counter preparations containing zinc pyrithione and tar are usually the first-line treatment. If these are not effective, ketoconazole is the preferred second-line agent. Selenium sulphide and topical corticosteroids may also be useful.

      For the face and body, topical antifungals such as ketoconazole and topical steroids are often used. However, it is important to use steroids for short periods only to avoid side effects. Seborrhoeic dermatitis can be difficult to treat, and recurrences are common. Therefore, it is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to manage the condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      32.7
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 35-year-old man is being monitored by his general practitioner for primary prevention...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man is being monitored by his general practitioner for primary prevention of cardiovascular disease. He is a smoker and has a strong family history of premature death from ischaemic heart disease. Following lifestyle modifications, his fasting cholesterol concentration is 7.2 mmol/l. Upon consulting the local guidelines, it is found that his Qrisk2 score is > 17%. What drug therapy would you recommend?

      Your Answer: Statin

      Explanation:

      New NICE Guidelines for Lipid Modification: Statins as First-Line Treatment for Cardiovascular Risk

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines for lipid modification, recommending statins as the first-line treatment for patients with a cardiovascular risk of over 10%. Atorvastatin 20 mg is the preferred statin for these patients.

      Cholestyramine, a previously used medication for hypercholesterolaemia, is no longer recommended. Instead, dietary advice should be offered alongside statin therapy. Fibrates and nicotinic acid may be used as second-line options for patients with high triglyceride levels or those who cannot tolerate multiple statins.

      Under the new guidelines, patients with a QRISK2 score of over 10% should be offered statin therapy to reduce their 10-year risk for cardiovascular disease. After three months, lipids should be rechecked, with a focus on non-HDL cholesterol and aiming for a 40% reduction in non-HDL cholesterol.

      In addition to medication, patients should be offered interventions to address modifiable risk factors such as smoking cessation, alcohol moderation, and weight reduction where appropriate. These new guidelines aim to improve the management of lipid disorders and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      57.1
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - An older woman with advanced breast cancer has been discharged from the hospital...

    Correct

    • An older woman with advanced breast cancer has been discharged from the hospital for palliative care at home. She was prescribed oral morphine at a dose of 10mg four times a day to manage her pain from bony metastases. This dosage was effective in controlling her pain.

      However, the patient's condition has worsened, and she is now experiencing difficulty swallowing, making it impossible to take the medication orally. The GP has recommended converting the morphine to a subcutaneous injection, which will be administered by the district nurses.

      What is the appropriate subcutaneous morphine dose for this patient?

      Your Answer: 5mg four times daily

      Explanation:

      To convert from oral to subcutaneous morphine, divide the oral dose by two. In this case, the recommended subcutaneous morphine dose is 5mg four times daily, which is equivalent to 10mg of oral morphine four times daily. As the patient’s pain is currently well controlled, there is no need to adjust the analgesia dose.

      Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

      Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      16.8
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  • Question 43 - A 67-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of severe mucosal ulceration...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of severe mucosal ulceration and blistering lesions on her torso and arms. Upon examination, the blisters are flaccid and rupture easily upon contact. What is the most appropriate course of action for this likely diagnosis? Choose the BEST management option from the list below.

      Your Answer: Topical clobetasone butyrate

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to dermatology

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral to Dermatology for Pemphigus Vulgaris Treatment

      Pemphigus vulgaris requires urgent referral to the Dermatology Team for investigation and treatment. Supportive measures include wound care and antiseptic regimens to reduce the risk of secondary infection. Patients should also avoid activities that may traumatize the skin and mucous membranes during active phases. Topical steroids are used in milder cases, while systemic corticosteroids with topical treatments are preferred in advanced cases. Emollients and oral antihistamines are not first-line treatments. Topical clobetasone butyrate can be used in mild cases, but referral to Dermatology is still necessary. Topical clotrimazole is not a first-line treatment, and topical dapsone should not be started immediately without further investigation and treatment from Dermatology.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      29
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - Nosocomial wound infections are often caused by various factors. However, which of the...

    Correct

    • Nosocomial wound infections are often caused by various factors. However, which of the following is the most frequent cause of such infections?

      Your Answer: Inadequate hand disinfection

      Explanation:

      Preventing Hospital-Acquired Wound Infections: Common Causes and Solutions

      Hospital-acquired wound infections are a serious concern for patients and healthcare providers alike. While all wounds are contaminated by microbes, proper hygiene and disinfection can greatly reduce the risk of infection. However, there are several common causes of hospital-acquired wound infections that must be addressed to prevent their occurrence.

      The most frequent cause of nosocomial wound infection is inadequate hand disinfection. Hands are a major source of transmission for hospital infections, and compliance with handwashing protocols can be suboptimal for a variety of reasons. These include lack of accessible equipment, insufficient knowledge of staff about risks and procedures, and too long a duration recommended for washing.

      Inadequate instrument disinfection is another common cause of hospital-acquired wound infections. Different levels of disinfection are recommended for patient equipment depending on the type of care, with surgical instruments presenting a critical level of risk. Sterilisation or high-level disinfection is necessary to minimise the risk of infection.

      While strict schedules for cleaning and disinfection of rooms are in place in hospitals, inadequate room disinfection is still a concern. However, this is not the main cause of surgical wound infection.

      The use of wrong disinfectants during skin disinfection can also contribute to hospital-acquired wound infections. Specific hand disinfectants are used for skin disinfection, including alcoholic rubs and emollient gels.

      Finally, too frequent skin disinfection can lead to the destruction of the normal skin flora, which can increase the risk of infection. Disinfecting agents must be chosen with care to avoid sensitisation or irritation of the skin.

      In conclusion, preventing hospital-acquired wound infections requires a multifaceted approach that addresses the common causes of infection. Proper hand hygiene, instrument disinfection, and skin disinfection are all essential components of a comprehensive infection prevention program.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      24.1
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  • Question 45 - A 62-year-old woman visits the clinic complaining of unpleasant breath and gurgling sounds...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old woman visits the clinic complaining of unpleasant breath and gurgling sounds while swallowing. She reports no other symptoms or changes in her health.
      What is the MOST probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pharyngeal pouch

      Explanation:

      Pharyngeal Pouch and Hiatus Hernia: Two Common Causes of Oesophageal Symptoms

      Pharyngeal pouch and hiatus hernia are two common conditions that can cause symptoms related to the oesophagus. A pharyngeal pouch is a diverticulum that forms in the posterior aspect of the oesophagus due to herniation between two muscles that constrict the inferior part of the pharynx. This pouch can trap food and cause halitosis, regurgitation of food or gurgling noises, and sometimes a palpable lump on the side of the neck. Treatment involves surgery to correct the herniation or sometimes to close the diverticulum.

      Hiatus hernia, on the other hand, occurs when part of the stomach protrudes through the diaphragm into the chest cavity, leading to a retrosternal burning sensation, gastro-oesophageal reflux, and dysphagia. This condition is more common in older people and those with obesity or a history of smoking. Treatment may involve lifestyle changes, such as weight loss and avoiding trigger foods, as well as medications to reduce acid production or strengthen the lower oesophageal sphincter.

      Other possible causes of oesophageal symptoms include gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), oesophageal candidiasis, and oesophageal carcinoma. GORD is a chronic condition that involves reflux of gastric contents into the oesophagus, causing symptoms of heartburn and acid regurgitation. Oesophageal candidiasis is a fungal infection that usually affects people with weakened immune systems. Oesophageal carcinoma is a type of cancer that can develop in the lining of the oesophagus, often with symptoms such as weight loss, dysphagia, abdominal pain, and dyspepsia. However, based on the history provided, pharyngeal pouch and hiatus hernia are more likely causes of the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 45-year-old woman has been using diphenhydramine (Benadryl) for allergy relief. She reports...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman has been using diphenhydramine (Benadryl) for allergy relief. She reports using it frequently and her doctor suspects she may be experiencing symptoms of the anticholinergic syndrome (ACS).
      Which of the following statements accurately describes the anticholinergic syndrome?

      Your Answer: Hot, dry skin occurs

      Explanation:

      Understanding Anticholinergic Syndrome: Symptoms and Treatment

      Anticholinergic syndrome is a condition that occurs when there is an inhibition of cholinergic neurotransmission at muscarinic receptor sites. It can be caused by the ingestion of various medications, intentional overdose, inadvertent ingestion, medical non-compliance, or geriatric polypharmacy. The syndrome produces central nervous system effects, peripheral nervous system effects, or both, resulting in a range of symptoms.

      Symptoms of anticholinergic syndrome include flushing, dry skin and mucous membranes, mydriasis with loss of accommodation, altered mental status, fever, sinus tachycardia, decreased bowel sounds, functional ileus, urinary retention, hypertension, tremulousness, and myoclonic jerking. Hot, dry skin and constricted pupils are also common manifestations.

      Treatment for anticholinergic syndrome involves stabilizing the patient in A&E and removing the toxin from the gastrointestinal tract. This can be done with a single dose of activated charcoal by mouth or nasogastric tube. Gastric lavage, followed by activated charcoal administration, is acceptable for patients presenting with altered mental state and within 1 hour of ingestion.

      Physostigmine salicylate is the classic antidote for anticholinergic toxicity. While most patients can be safely treated without it, it is recommended when tachydysrhythmia is present. However, physostigmine is contraindicated in patients with cardiac conduction disturbances on ECG.

      In conclusion, understanding the symptoms and treatment of anticholinergic syndrome is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care for patients who may present with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      28.7
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  • Question 47 - A 45-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with symptoms of nausea, upper...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with symptoms of nausea, upper abdominal discomfort and distension. She has been taking aspirin regularly for the past 8 weeks due to a chronic back pain. She has been tested for Helicobacter pylori and was negative so the aspirin has been discontinued. A gastroscopy is performed which reveals the presence of gastritis and a benign duodenal ulcer that is not actively bleeding.
      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Start intravenous proton-pump inhibitors (PPIs)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Gastric Ulcers

      Gastric ulcers can be caused by long-term use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and can lead to severe symptoms requiring hospitalization. Treatment options for gastric ulcers include intravenous proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) followed by long-term oral PPIs. A repeat gastroscopy is usually carried out to ensure that the ulcer has healed. In cases where the ulcer has perforated or is malignant, a partial gastrectomy may be indicated. Retesting for H. pylori may be necessary if the patient had previously tested positive. Adrenalin injection is only indicated for bleeding gastric ulcers. Placing the patient nil by mouth is not necessary for healing the ulcer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - You are requested to assess a premature infant born at 34 weeks, 48...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to assess a premature infant born at 34 weeks, 48 hours after delivery without any complications. During the examination, you observe a continuous 'machinery-like' murmur and a left subclavicular thrill. Additionally, you notice a bounding pulse and a widened pulse pressure. There are no indications of cyanosis or crackles on auscultation. The mother confirms that there were no complications during pregnancy, and antenatal scans and screening did not reveal any abnormalities. There is no family history of significant illnesses. What would be the most appropriate management option for this probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Give prostaglandin E1 to the neonate

      Correct Answer: Give indomethacin to the neonate

      Explanation:

      To promote closure of patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), indomethacin or ibuprofen is administered to the neonate. This is the correct course of action based on the examination findings. The ductus arteriosus typically closes naturally with the first breaths, but if it remains open, prostaglandin synthesis can be inhibited with medication. Administering indomethacin to the mother would not be effective. Prostaglandin would have the opposite effect and maintain the PDA’s patency, which is not desirable in this scenario. Involving surgeons or monitoring the baby without treatment would also not be appropriate. If left untreated, PDA can lead to serious complications such as pulmonary hypertension or Eisenmenger’s syndrome.

      Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is typically classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left untreated, it can eventually lead to late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is known as differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta that fails to close with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow that enhances prostaglandins clearance. Patent ductus arteriosus is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy.

      The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, a large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, a wide pulse pressure, and a heaving apex beat. To manage this condition, indomethacin or ibuprofen is given to the neonate, which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and closes the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect that is amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      49.3
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  • Question 49 - A 35-year-old woman has Addison’s disease.
    Which of the following medications is she likely...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman has Addison’s disease.
      Which of the following medications is she likely to be taking long term?

      Your Answer: Hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone

      Explanation:

      Common Medications for Adrenal Disorders

      Adrenal disorders such as Addison’s disease and Cushing’s syndrome require specific medications for treatment. Here are some commonly used drugs and their indications:

      Hydrocortisone and Fludrocortisone: These are the mainstays of treatment for Addison’s disease, as they replace the deficient glucocorticosteroids and mineralocorticoids.

      Phenoxybenzamine: This medication is used to treat phaeochromocytoma before surgery.

      Metyrapone: It can be used to diagnose or treat Cushing’s syndrome by reducing the amount of aldosterone and cortisol in the body.

      Prednisolone and Levothyroxine: Prednisolone can be used instead of hydrocortisone in Addison’s disease to avoid peaks and troughs. However, levothyroxine is not used to treat Addison’s disease, but it’s important to check for concurrent thyroid disease.

      Spironolactone: It’s used to treat Conn’s disease, which causes hyperaldosteronism. It’s not appropriate for Addison’s disease treatment, as both can cause hyperkalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 42-year-old man presents for follow-up. He was prescribed paroxetine for depression six...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man presents for follow-up. He was prescribed paroxetine for depression six months ago, but stopped taking it five days ago due to perceived lack of efficacy. He has a history of asthma but no other significant medical history. Over the past two days, he has been experiencing heightened anxiety, sweating, headaches, and a sensation of needles in his head. During the appointment, he is restless and pacing. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor`discontinuation syndrome

      Explanation:

      Compared to other selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, paroxetine has a greater likelihood of causing discontinuation symptoms.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - A 60-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of worsening psoriasis. He reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of worsening psoriasis. He reports feeling more stressed lately and suspects it may be contributing to his flare-up. Additionally, he has recently started taking a new medication. During the physical examination, scaly plaques on the extensor surfaces and trunk that are erythematous are observed. Which of the following medications could potentially trigger exacerbations in his condition?

      Your Answer: Amiodarone

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      The medication lithium has been known to worsen psoriasis in some patients and can even cause psoriasis in those who did not previously have it, even at normal therapeutic levels. It is important to inform both the patient and their psychiatrist of this potential effect. Furosemide, on the other hand, does not typically worsen or cause drug-induced psoriasis, but can lead to electrolyte imbalances. Amiodarone also does not worsen or cause drug-induced psoriasis, but can cause a bluish discoloration of the skin.

      Psoriasis can be worsened by various factors. These include physical trauma, consumption of alcohol, and certain medications such as beta blockers, lithium, antimalarials (chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine), NSAIDs and ACE inhibitors, and infliximab. Additionally, stopping the use of systemic steroids can also exacerbate psoriasis. It is important to note that streptococcal infection can trigger guttate psoriasis, a type of psoriasis characterized by small, drop-like lesions on the skin. Therefore, individuals with psoriasis should be aware of these exacerbating factors and take necessary precautions to manage their condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      42
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A 20-year-old male college student visits the first seizure clinic after his roommate...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old male college student visits the first seizure clinic after his roommate expresses concern that he had a seizure early in the morning following a night out. This is the first seizure he has ever experienced. He does not consume alcohol or use recreational drugs, but he did feel sleep-deprived and dizzy before the seizure. The roommate provides a video that shows the seizure to be tonic-clonic in nature, affecting the arms and legs, with no incontinence, tongue-biting, or postictal drowsiness. Blood tests, lumbar puncture, CT head, MRI brain, and electroencephalogram (EEG) are all normal.

      What is the recommended duration for this patient to refrain from driving?

      Your Answer: 12 months

      Correct Answer: 6 months

      Explanation:

      After a first unprovoked or isolated seizure, patients with normal brain imaging and EEG cannot drive for a period of 6 months. However, if the seizure is most likely a result of vasovagal syncope due to exhaustion and sleep deprivation, it may not be an epileptic seizure and may not have associated symptoms such as incontinence, tongue-biting or postictal confusion. In such cases, the patient must still adhere to the 6-month driving ban. The options of 1 month and 3 months are incorrect as they are not valid periods for a driving ban for any type of seizure.

      The DVLA has guidelines for drivers with neurological disorders. Those with epilepsy/seizures must not drive and must inform the DVLA. The length of time off driving varies depending on the type and frequency of seizures. Those with syncope may need time off driving depending on the cause and number of episodes. Those with other conditions such as stroke, craniotomy, pituitary tumor, narcolepsy/cataplexy, and chronic neurological disorders should inform the DVLA and may need time off driving.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      32.8
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - During a routine check-up, a 7 week-old baby boy is seen. His mother...

    Correct

    • During a routine check-up, a 7 week-old baby boy is seen. His mother has a history of asthma and used inhaled steroids while pregnant. He was delivered via planned Caesarian at 39 weeks due to breech presentation and weighed 3.1kg at birth. What condition is he at a higher risk for?

      Your Answer: Developmental dysplasia of the hip

      Explanation:

      If a baby was in a breech presentation, it is important to ensure that they have been referred for screening for developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) as it is a risk factor for this condition. The Department of Health recommends that all babies who were breech at any point from 36 weeks (even if not breech at birth), babies born before 36 weeks who were in a breech presentation, and all babies with a first degree relative who had a hip problem in early life, should undergo ultrasound screening for hip dysplasia. If one twin was breech, both should be screened. Some hospitals also refer babies with other conditions such as oligohydramnios, high birth weight, torticollis, congenital talipes calcaneovalgus, and metatarsus adductus for screening. For more information on screening for DDH, please refer to the link provided.

      Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects 1-3% of newborns and is more common in females, firstborn children, and those with a positive family history or breech presentation. It used to be called congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH). DDH is more often found in the left hip and can be bilateral in 20% of cases. Screening for DDH is recommended for infants with certain risk factors, and all infants are screened using the Barlow and Ortolani tests at the newborn and six-week baby check. Clinical examination includes testing for leg length symmetry, restricted hip abduction, and knee level when hips and knees are flexed. Ultrasound is used to confirm the diagnosis if clinically suspected, but x-ray is the first line investigation for infants over 4.5 months. Management includes the use of a Pavlik harness for children under 4-5 months and surgery for older children with unstable hips.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      19.3
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  • Question 54 - A young lady requests for the 'morning after pill'. Within what timeframe after...

    Correct

    • A young lady requests for the 'morning after pill'. Within what timeframe after sexual intercourse is levonorgestrel approved for use?

      Your Answer: 72 hours

      Explanation:

      Levonorgestrel should be taken within 72 hours of unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI). Administration of a single dose of levonorgestrel after this time is not licensed but may be considered.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      5.8
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  • Question 55 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-month history of...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-month history of lethargy and generalised weakness. On examination, she is found to have a blood pressure of 170/100 mmHg. The rest of the examination is unremarkable.
      Routine blood tests show a hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis, along with a hypernatraemia of 152 mmol/l (135–145 mmol/l). Primary aldosteronism is suspected and investigations reveal bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia.
      Which of the following is the best treatment option?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate treatment from the list below.

      Your Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      The patient’s hypertension, hypokalaemia, and hypernatremia suggest a diagnosis of hyperaldosteronism, where high levels of aldosterone cause increased water and sodium reabsorption in the kidneys and potassium loss. The recommended treatment for primary hyperaldosteronism due to bilateral adrenal disease is a mineralocorticoid antagonist, with spironolactone as the primary agent and eplerenone as an alternative. Losartan, an angiotensin receptor blocker, is an alternative to angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors for managing primary hypertension in patients under 55 years of age who are not Afro-Caribbean or diabetic. Nifedipine, a calcium-channel blocker, is a first-line drug for essential hypertension in patients aged 55 years or older or Afro-Caribbean patients. Perindopril, an ACEi, is a first-line drug for managing primary hypertension in patients under 55 years of age who are not Afro-Caribbean or diabetic. However, it is not appropriate for treating hyperaldosteronism, where spironolactone is the preferred option. Unilateral laparoscopic adrenalectomy is recommended for cases of hyperaldosteronism due to unilateral adrenal diseases, but not for bilateral adrenal disease like in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      32.3
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - A 35-year-old man visits the clinic with complaints of decreased hearing and ringing...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man visits the clinic with complaints of decreased hearing and ringing in his right ear, which feels congested, and he experiences frequent bouts of vertigo lasting up to a few hours at a time. There are no abnormalities found during the neurological examination.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ménière’s disease

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Vertigo Conditions: Ménière’s Disease, Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo, Central Vertigo, Labyrinthitis, and Vestibular Neuronitis

      Vertigo is a common symptom that can be caused by various conditions. Ménière’s disease, for instance, is characterized by fluctuant hearing loss, vertigo, tinnitus, and aural fullness. Patients are advised to undergo vestibular rehabilitation and avoid risky activities. Prochlorperazine is recommended for acute attacks, while betahistine is used for preventive treatment. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo, on the other hand, presents with brief episodes of vertigo triggered by movement, without tinnitus, hearing loss, or ear fullness. Central vertigo has a sudden onset, constant symptoms, and possible neurological abnormalities, requiring urgent hospital admission. Labyrinthitis causes acute vertigo and hearing loss, but the presence of ear fullness suggests Ménière’s disease. Vestibular neuronitis, caused by viral infection, results in isolated and prolonged episodes of vertigo without tinnitus or ear fullness. Accurate diagnosis and appropriate management are crucial in addressing vertigo and its underlying conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      7.8
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  • Question 57 - A 57-year-old male patient with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old male patient with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension is admitted to a surgical ward for a routine cholecystectomy. He is currently taking metformin 500mg BD, gliclazide 120 mg BD, ramipril 5mg, and atorvastatin 20 mg. The nurse on the morning drug round asks the doctor if they should administer the morning dose of gliclazide, as the surgery is scheduled for 9 am. What should the doctor advise the nurse?

      Your Answer: The morning dose of gliclazide should be held but the afternoon dose can be given

      Explanation:

      On the day of surgery, sulfonylureas should be omitted, except for patients who take them twice a day. In this case, the morning dose should be withheld, and the afternoon dose given after the surgery. This is because there is a risk of hypoglycemia in the fasted state before surgery. Withholding both doses or withholding for 24 or 48 hours is incorrect. The BNF website provides a comprehensive guide for managing diabetic patients on insulin and anti-diabetic drugs during surgery, including information on when to introduce variable rate insulin infusions and withholding anti-diabetic medications.

      Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      32.2
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  • Question 58 - An 80-year-old male presents to the low-risk chest pain clinic with intermittent substernal...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old male presents to the low-risk chest pain clinic with intermittent substernal chest pains. The pain typically comes on with exertion and improves with rest. A trial of GTN has been given by his GP which helps with his pain. He is a known ex-smoker of 35 pack-years. He has no diabetes, hyperlipidaemia, hypertension, and no family history of coronary artery disease.

      During examination, his observations are stable. On auscultations of his chest, his first and second heart sounds are audible with no added sounds and his lungs are clear.

      What investigation should be prioritized given his risk for coronary artery disease?

      Your Answer: No further investigations

      Correct Answer: Contrast-enhanced coronary CT angiography

      Explanation:

      The preferred initial diagnostic test for individuals with stable chest pain suspected to be caused by coronary artery disease is a CT coronary angiogram with contrast enhancement.

      Assessment of Patients with Suspected Cardiac Chest Pain

      When it comes to assessing patients with suspected cardiac chest pain, NICE has updated its guidelines in 2016. For patients presenting with acute chest pain, immediate management of suspected acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is crucial. This includes administering glyceryl trinitrate and aspirin 300 mg, but not other antiplatelet agents like Clopidogrel outside of the hospital. Oxygen therapy should not be routinely given, but only if sats are less than 94%. Referral depends on the timing of chest pain and ECG results. For patients presenting with stable chest pain, NICE defines anginal pain as constricting discomfort in the front of the chest, neck, shoulders, jaw, or arms, precipitated by physical exertion, and relieved by rest or GTN in about 5 minutes. Non-invasive functional imaging is recommended for patients in whom stable angina cannot be excluded by clinical assessment alone. Examples of non-invasive functional imaging include myocardial perfusion scintigraphy with single photon emission computed tomography (MPS with SPECT), stress echocardiography, first-pass contrast-enhanced magnetic resonance (MR) perfusion, or MR imaging for stress-induced wall motion abnormalities.

      In summary, assessing patients with suspected cardiac chest pain requires immediate management for acute chest pain and referral based on timing and ECG results. For stable chest pain, NICE defines anginal pain and recommends non-invasive functional imaging for patients in whom stable angina cannot be excluded by clinical assessment alone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      56.8
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - Which of the following statements is true for prostate cancer? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true for prostate cancer?

      Your Answer: There is currently no screening programme for prostate cancer in the UK.

      Explanation:

      Prostate Cancer: Facts and Controversies

      Prostate cancer is the second most common cancer in men in developed countries, with an estimated one in six men being diagnosed with it in their lifetime. However, there is currently no screening programme for prostate cancer in the UK due to the controversial nature of PSA testing. PSA tests can yield unreliable results and may lead to unnecessary treatment for slow-growing tumours that may never cause symptoms or shorten life. Although treating prostate cancer in its early stages can be beneficial, the potential side effects of treatment may cause men to delay treatment until it is absolutely necessary.

      The 5-year relative survival rates for prostate cancer vary depending on the stage of the cancer at diagnosis, with local or regional prostate cancer having a survival rate of over 99%, while distant disease has a survival rate of 29%. The Gleason grade, tumour volume, and presence of capsular penetration or margin positivity are important indicators of prognosis for prostate cancer.

      Prostate cancer is also the second most common cause of cancer death in men, accounting for 8% of cancer deaths. Advanced prostate cancer may not involve pain, but can result in a range of symptoms including weight loss, anorexia, bone pain, neurological deficits, and lower extremity pain and oedema.

      Overall, prostate cancer remains a complex and controversial disease, with ongoing debates surrounding screening and treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - A 49-year-old male presents to the neurology clinic with concerns about increasing numbness...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old male presents to the neurology clinic with concerns about increasing numbness in his fingers and soles of his feet. He was diagnosed with epilepsy in his early twenties and has been managing his seizures effectively. Which medication is most likely responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Sodium valproate

      Correct Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      Phenytoin is recognized to cause peripheral neuropathy as a side effect.

      Phenytoin: Mechanism of Action and Adverse Effects

      Phenytoin is a medication used to manage seizures. Its mechanism of action involves binding to sodium channels, which increases their refractory period. However, the drug is associated with a large number of adverse effects, which can be categorized as acute, chronic, idiosyncratic, and teratogenic. Acute effects include dizziness, diplopia, nystagmus, slurred speech, ataxia, confusion, and seizures. Chronic effects include gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism, coarsening of facial features, drowsiness, megaloblastic anemia, peripheral neuropathy, enhanced vitamin D metabolism causing osteomalacia, lymphadenopathy, and dyskinesia. Idiosyncratic effects include fever, rashes, hepatitis, Dupuytren’s contracture, aplastic anemia, and drug-induced lupus. Teratogenic effects are associated with cleft palate and congenital heart disease. Although routine monitoring of phenytoin levels is not necessary, trough levels should be checked before dosing in cases of dose adjustment, suspected toxicity, or non-adherence to the prescribed medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      24.6
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  • Question 61 - A 65-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by ambulance due to...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by ambulance due to worsening shortness of breath and palpitations. Upon examination, bilateral crepitations are heard in her lungs and she has bilateral ankle edema. An ECG shows atrial fibrillation with a fast ventricular response, with a heart rate of 157 bpm. A chest x-ray reveals pulmonary edema. Blood tests show normal levels of Hb, platelets, WBC, Na+, K+, urea, creatinine, CRP, magnesium, troponin, and TSH. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Synchronised DC cardioversion

      Explanation:

      Patients who exhibit tachycardia along with symptoms of shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, or heart failure should be administered up to three synchronised DC shocks. Synchronised DC cardioversion is recommended for tachycardia with haemodynamic instability, signs of myocardial ischaemia, heart failure, or syncope. In this case, the patient is displaying signs of heart failure, and the elevated troponin levels are likely due to tachycardia rather than acute myocardial infarction (MI). Adenosine is not suitable for this situation as it is used to manage supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) that is not associated with shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, or heart failure. Amiodarone may be considered in atrial fibrillation with a fast ventricular response if synchronised DC cardioversion is ineffective, but it would not be the most appropriate management option at this time. IV metoprolol (or oral bisoprolol) is used in fast atrial fibrillation not associated with shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, or heart failure. However, since this patient is exhibiting signs of heart failure, this is not the correct course of action.

      Management of Peri-Arrest Tachycardias

      The Resuscitation Council (UK) guidelines for the management of peri-arrest tachycardias have been simplified in the 2015 update. The previous separate algorithms for broad-complex tachycardia, narrow complex tachycardia, and atrial fibrillation have been replaced by a unified treatment algorithm. After basic ABC assessment, patients are classified as stable or unstable based on the presence of adverse signs such as hypotension, pallor, sweating, confusion, or impaired consciousness. If any of these signs are present, synchronised DC shocks should be given, up to a maximum of three shocks.

      The treatment following this is based on whether the QRS complex is narrow or broad and whether the rhythm is regular or irregular. For broad-complex tachycardia, a loading dose of amiodarone followed by a 24-hour infusion is given if the rhythm is regular. If the rhythm is irregular, expert help should be sought as it could be due to atrial fibrillation with bundle branch block, atrial fibrillation with ventricular pre-excitation, or torsade de pointes.

      For narrow-complex tachycardia, vagal manoeuvres followed by IV adenosine are given if the rhythm is regular. If unsuccessful, atrial flutter is considered, and rate control is achieved with beta-blockers. If the rhythm is irregular, it is likely due to atrial fibrillation, and electrical or chemical cardioversion is considered if the onset is less than 48 hours. Beta-blockers are usually the first-line treatment for rate control unless contraindicated. The full treatment algorithm can be found on the Resuscitation Council website.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      54.6
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  • Question 62 - A 67-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of feeling generally unwell...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of feeling generally unwell and feverish for 3 days. During the examination, coarse crackles and dullness to percussion were detected in the right lung base.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lobar pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Lobar Pneumonia from Other Respiratory Conditions

      Lobar pneumonia is the most common cause of focal crackles and dullness in the lower zone. However, it is important to differentiate it from other respiratory conditions with similar symptoms. Empyema, for example, is associated with high fevers, night sweats, chest pain, cough, breathlessness, and fatigue. Bronchiectasis, on the other hand, is characterized by a persistent dry cough with copious purulent sputum and occasional haemoptysis. Congestive cardiac failure usually causes bilateral crepitations and peripheral oedema, while pulmonary embolism may cause reduced breath sounds and acute breathlessness, pleuritic chest pain, haemoptysis, dizziness, or syncope. By carefully assessing the patient’s symptoms and conducting appropriate tests, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat respiratory conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - Which of the following is not typically associated with hirsutism in individuals? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not typically associated with hirsutism in individuals?

      Your Answer: Porphyria cutanea tarda

      Explanation:

      Hypertrichosis is the result of Porphyria cutanea tarda, not hirsutism.

      Understanding Hirsutism and Hypertrichosis

      Hirsutism and hypertrichosis are two conditions that involve excessive hair growth in women. Hirsutism is typically caused by androgen-dependent hair growth, while hypertrichosis is caused by androgen-independent hair growth. The most common cause of hirsutism is polycystic ovarian syndrome, but it can also be caused by other conditions such as Cushing’s syndrome, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, and obesity. Hypertrichosis, on the other hand, can be caused by drugs like minoxidil and ciclosporin, as well as congenital conditions like hypertrichosis lanuginosa and terminalis.

      To assess hirsutism, doctors use the Ferriman-Gallwey scoring system, which assigns scores to nine different body areas. A score of over 15 is considered to indicate moderate or severe hirsutism. Management of hirsutism typically involves weight loss if the patient is overweight, as well as cosmetic techniques like waxing and bleaching. Combined oral contraceptive pills like co-cyprindiol and ethinylestradiol and drospirenone may also be used, but co-cyprindiol should not be used long-term due to the increased risk of venous thromboembolism. For facial hirsutism, topical eflornithine may be used, but it is contraindicated in pregnancy and breastfeeding.

      Overall, understanding the causes and management of hirsutism and hypertrichosis is important for women who experience excessive hair growth. By working with their doctors, they can find the best treatment options to manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      8.2
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  • Question 64 - An 85-year-old woman presents with a history of falls. She has a medical...

    Incorrect

    • An 85-year-old woman presents with a history of falls. She has a medical history of osteoporosis, constipation, frequent urinary tract infections, ischaemic heart disease, and urge incontinence. Upon conducting a comprehensive assessment, you determine that her falls are likely due to a combination of physical frailty, poor balance, and medication burden. Which medication should be discontinued first?

      Your Answer: Trimethoprim

      Correct Answer: Oxybutynin

      Explanation:

      To avoid the risk of falls, it is not recommended to administer oxybutynin to frail elderly individuals. Instead, safer alternatives such as solifenacin and tolterodine should be considered. Mirabegron, a newer medication, may also be a viable option as it is believed to have fewer anti-cholinergic side effects. Discontinuing laxatives may not be helpful if the patient is still experiencing constipation. However, prescribing alendronic acid for osteoporosis and aspirin for ischaemic heart disease is appropriate given the patient’s medical history and risk of falls. While the use of trimethoprim as long-term prophylaxis for urinary tract infections is controversial, it should not be the first intervention to be discontinued.

      Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management

      Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.

      In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      97.6
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  • Question 65 - An 80-year-old man presents to ophthalmology with complaints of progressive vision loss over...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man presents to ophthalmology with complaints of progressive vision loss over the past few months, which has worsened suddenly in the last week. On visual field testing, a central scotoma is noted, and fundoscopy reveals well-defined red patches on the retina. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Wet age-related macular degeneration

      Explanation:

      If a patient experiences a gradual decline in vision over several months, along with metamorphopsia and a central scotoma, it is highly likely that they have wet age-related macular degeneration (ARMD). This condition is characterized by a sudden deterioration in vision, red patches on the retina during fundoscopy, and leakage of serous fluid and blood. Acute angle-closure glaucoma, on the other hand, presents with severe headaches, vomiting, and mid-dilated or irregularly shaped pupils. Dry ARMD also causes a slow decline in vision, but it does not result in sudden deterioration or red patches on the retina. Retinal detachment causes a painless loss of vision that starts peripherally and progresses centrally, while vitreous hemorrhage is a common cause of sudden visual loss in diabetics, characterized by dark spots in the vision and a hemorrhage within the vitreous cavity during fundoscopy.

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.

      To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.

      In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 66 - A 70-year-old man has been admitted to the stroke ward due to experiencing...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man has been admitted to the stroke ward due to experiencing dense right-sided weakness and facial droop. The stroke team has treated him for an acute stroke, and he has been making good progress with the help of the physiotherapy and occupational therapy team. Although the CT head did not reveal any abnormalities, the team has arranged for an MRI head and a Doppler ultrasound of the carotid arteries. The MRI head has shown a left-sided infarct, and the carotid doppler has revealed severe stenosis of the left carotid artery. What should be the next appropriate plan for the stroke team?

      Your Answer: Refer to the vascular surgeons for consideration of carotid artery endarterectomy

      Explanation:

      If a patient experiences a stroke or TIA in the carotid territory and is not severely disabled, carotid artery endarterectomy may be a viable option. Additionally, if the patient is making positive strides with physiotherapy and has significant carotid stenosis, they should be evaluated by the surgical team for potential endarterectomy. At this time, there is no need for involvement from the cardiology team as it is unclear what cardiac investigations have already been conducted. An MRI of the C-spine would not provide any additional information for the management plan, and there is no indication for repeat blood tests.

      The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      32.3
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  • Question 67 - During a routine opticians appointment, corneal opacities are observed in a 65-year-old woman....

    Incorrect

    • During a routine opticians appointment, corneal opacities are observed in a 65-year-old woman. Her vision is not affected. Which medication is the most probable culprit for this condition?

      Your Answer: Sodium valproate

      Correct Answer: Amiodarone

      Explanation:

      Both corneal opacities and optic neuritis can be caused by amiodarone therapy.

      There are certain drugs that can cause problems with the eyes. For example, steroids can lead to the development of cataracts, while amiodarone and indomethacin can cause corneal opacities. Ethambutol, amiodarone, and metronidazole are known to cause optic neuritis. Additionally, chloroquine and quinine can result in retinopathy. It’s important to note that sildenafil, a medication used to treat erectile dysfunction, can cause both blue discoloration and non-arteritic anterior ischemic neuropathy. It’s crucial to be aware of these potential side effects and to speak with a healthcare provider if any ocular problems arise while taking these medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      24.7
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  • Question 68 - A 35-year-old expectant mother seeks guidance regarding the likelihood of her child inheriting...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old expectant mother seeks guidance regarding the likelihood of her child inheriting polycystic kidney disease. Despite her diagnosis, she is presently in good health. Her father, who also has the condition, is currently undergoing dialysis. What is the probability that her offspring will develop the disease?

      Your Answer: 100%

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) is a prevalent genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 1,000 Caucasians. The disease is caused by mutations in two genes, PKD1 and PKD2, which produce polycystin-1 and polycystin-2, respectively. ADPKD type 1 accounts for 85% of cases, while ADPKD type 2 accounts for the remaining 15%. Individuals with ADPKD develop multiple fluid-filled cysts in their kidneys, which can lead to renal failure.

      To diagnose ADPKD in individuals with a positive family history, an abdominal ultrasound is typically performed. The diagnostic criteria for ultrasound include the presence of two cysts, either unilateral or bilateral, in individuals under 30 years of age, two cysts in both kidneys for those aged 30-59 years, and four cysts in both kidneys for those over 60 years of age.

      Management of ADPKD may involve the use of tolvaptan, a vasopressin receptor 2 antagonist, for select patients. Tolvaptan has been recommended by NICE as an option for treating ADPKD in adults with chronic kidney disease stage 2 or 3 at the start of treatment, evidence of rapidly progressing disease, and if the company provides it with the agreed discount in the patient access scheme. The goal of treatment is to slow the progression of cyst development and renal insufficiency. An enlarged kidney with extensive cysts is a common finding in individuals with ADPKD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - A 25-year-old football player comes to the GP clinic complaining of a loss...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old football player comes to the GP clinic complaining of a loss of motor function in his left leg. He denies any specific injuries and has an important game next week that he's been anxious about. He enters the room using crutches. During the examination, it is found that he has 0/5 power in his left knee, ankle, and toes. The rest of the neurological and musculoskeletal examination is unremarkable. Blood tests and a lumbar MRI come back normal, making an organic cause for his symptoms unlikely. He is eager to know the reason behind his condition so that he can resume his training.
      What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Conversion disorder

      Explanation:

      It is probable that the patient is experiencing conversion disorder, which is often triggered by stress and involves the loss of motor or sensory function. The potential grand final rugby game may have been the stressor in this case.

      Somatisation disorder is unlikely as it requires the presence of multiple physical symptoms for at least two years, whereas this patient has only one acute onset symptom. Dissociative disorder is also improbable as there are no evident psychiatric symptoms such as amnesia, stupor, or fugue. The patient remembers clearly that he has a football game and has not sustained any recent injuries.

      However, factitious disorder cannot be ruled out entirely. It is possible that the patient is feigning the symptom to avoid playing the game, but further investigation is necessary. The patient claims to be eager to return to playing, which does not support the notion of factitious disorder.

      Psychiatric Terms for Unexplained Symptoms

      There are various psychiatric terms used to describe patients who exhibit symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. One such disorder is somatisation disorder, which involves the presence of multiple physical symptoms for at least two years, and the patient’s refusal to accept reassurance or negative test results. Another disorder is illness anxiety disorder, which is characterized by a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results.

      Conversion disorder is another condition that involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient does not consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Patients with this disorder may be indifferent to their apparent disorder, a phenomenon known as la belle indifference. Dissociative disorder, on the other hand, involves the process of ‘separating off’ certain memories from normal consciousness, and may manifest as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is the most severe form of dissociative disorder and was previously known as multiple personality disorder.

      Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms. Finally, malingering is the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or other gain. Understanding these psychiatric terms can help healthcare professionals better diagnose and treat patients with unexplained symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      38
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - A 72-year-old man presents to the cardiology clinic with symptomatic aortic stenosis. Despite...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents to the cardiology clinic with symptomatic aortic stenosis. Despite his overall good health, he is eager for intervention. What intervention is most likely to be recommended for him?

      Your Answer: Annual echocardiography, intervention when valve gradient > 75 mmHg

      Correct Answer: Bioprosthetic aortic valve replacement

      Explanation:

      Mechanical valves are typically preferred for younger patients as they have a longer lifespan compared to other types of prosthetic heart valves.

      Prosthetic Heart Valves: Options for Replacement

      Prosthetic heart valves are commonly used to replace damaged aortic and mitral valves. There are two main options for replacement: biological (bioprosthetic) or mechanical. Biological valves are usually sourced from bovine or porcine origins and are commonly used in older patients. However, they have a major disadvantage of structural deterioration and calcification over time. On the other hand, mechanical valves have a low failure rate but require long-term anticoagulation due to the increased risk of thrombosis. Warfarin is still the preferred anticoagulant for patients with mechanical heart valves, and the target INR varies depending on the valve type. Aspirin is only given in addition if there is an additional indication, such as ischaemic heart disease. Following the 2008 NICE guidelines, antibiotics are no longer recommended for common procedures such as dental work for prophylaxis of endocarditis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - A 30-year-old female patient visits the GP clinic with a tiny lump in...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old female patient visits the GP clinic with a tiny lump in her right breast. Upon examination, a smooth fluctuant lump is found in the right upper quadrant of the breast. The patient is referred to the breast clinic for an ultrasound scan, which reveals a 2cm cyst in the right upper quadrant of the breast. What is the most suitable course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Aspiration of the cyst

      Explanation:

      Aspirating breast cysts is necessary due to the potential risk of breast cancer, particularly in younger women. Merely monitoring the cysts with ultrasound or mammogram without aspiration is not a suitable approach. There is no need for wide local excision at this point. Providing false reassurance to the patient is not advisable.

      Benign breast lesions have different features and treatments. Fibroadenomas are firm, mobile lumps that develop from a whole lobule and usually do not increase the risk of malignancy. Breast cysts are smooth, discrete lumps that may be aspirated, but blood-stained or persistently refilling cysts should be biopsied or excised. Sclerosing adenosis, radial scars, and complex sclerosing lesions cause mammographic changes that may mimic carcinoma, but do not increase the risk of malignancy. Epithelial hyperplasia may present as general lumpiness or a discrete lump, and atypical features and family history of breast cancer increase the risk of malignancy. Fat necrosis may mimic carcinoma and requires imaging and core biopsy. Duct papillomas usually present with nipple discharge and may require microdochectomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      33.2
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - A 15-year-old Afro-Caribbean girl arrives at the emergency department with complaints of left...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old Afro-Caribbean girl arrives at the emergency department with complaints of left hip pain. There is no history of recent trauma, but the patient has a medical history of sickle cell disease and has been admitted multiple times in the past with similar symptoms. What is the appropriate management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Painkillers, oxygen and IV fluids

      Explanation:

      To effectively manage sickle cell crisis, it is essential to administer analgesia, oxygen, and IV fluids. In addition, antibiotics may be necessary if an infection is suspected, and transfusion may be required if the patient’s Hb levels are low.

      It is not advisable to simply monitor patients without providing any treatment, as this would result in significant pain and discomfort.

      The most effective approach involves a combination of oxygen, fluids, and analgesia. Pain management is crucial, as the blockage of blood vessels by sickle-shaped red blood cells prevents the delivery of oxygen and blood to the tissues, resulting in pain. Oxygen supplementation is necessary to alleviate this pain, and IV fluids can help to slow or halt the sickling process. None of these components alone would be sufficient in managing pain, but together they form a comprehensive approach to pain management.

      Managing Sickle-Cell Crises

      Sickle-cell crises can be managed through various interventions. General management includes providing analgesia, rehydration, and oxygen. Antibiotics may also be considered if there is evidence of infection. Blood transfusion may be necessary for severe or symptomatic anemia, pregnancy, or pre-operative cases. However, it is important not to rapidly reduce the percentage of Hb S containing cells.

      In cases of acute vaso-occlusive crisis, such as stroke, acute chest syndrome, multiorgan failure, or splenic sequestration crisis, exchange transfusion may be necessary. This involves rapidly reducing the percentage of Hb S containing cells. It is important to note that the management of sickle-cell crises should be tailored to the individual patient’s needs and medical history. Proper management can help alleviate symptoms and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - A 55-year-old man presents with right-sided hemianopia and is currently undergoing investigations for...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man presents with right-sided hemianopia and is currently undergoing investigations for a possible stroke. The stroke specialist has clinically diagnosed him with a POCI, indicating a posterior circulation infarct. Which specific area of the brain is affected by this type of stroke?

      Your Answer: The vertebrobasilar arteries

      Explanation:

      A POCI (posterior circulation infarct) typically affects the vertebrobasilar arteries. In contrast, a TACI involves the middle and anterior cerebral arteries, a PACI affects the smaller arteries of anterior circulation, and a LACI involves the perforating arteries around the internal capsule, thalamus, and basal ganglia.

      Stroke can be classified based on the initial symptoms using the Oxford Stroke Classification, also known as the Bamford Classification. The criteria assessed include unilateral hemiparesis and/or hemisensory loss of the face, arm, and leg, homonymous hemianopia, and higher cognitive dysfunction such as dysphasia.

      Total anterior circulation infarcts (TACI) involve the middle and anterior cerebral arteries and present with all three criteria mentioned above. Partial anterior circulation infarcts (PACI) involve smaller arteries of the anterior circulation and present with two of the criteria. Lacunar infarcts (LACI) involve perforating arteries around the internal capsule, thalamus, and basal ganglia and present with one of three symptoms: unilateral weakness (and/or sensory deficit) of face and arm, arm and leg, or all three; pure sensory stroke; or ataxic hemiparesis.

      Posterior circulation infarcts (POCI) involve vertebrobasilar arteries and present with one of three symptoms: cerebellar or brainstem syndromes, loss of consciousness, or isolated homonymous hemianopia. Other recognized patterns of stroke include lateral medullary syndrome (posterior inferior cerebellar artery), also known as Wallenberg’s syndrome, which presents with ipsilateral ataxia, nystagmus, dysphagia, facial numbness, cranial nerve palsy (e.g., Horner’s), and contralateral limb sensory loss. Weber’s syndrome presents with ipsilateral III palsy and contralateral weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - A 75-year-old man is prescribed oral alendronate after a hip fracture. Can you...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man is prescribed oral alendronate after a hip fracture. Can you provide instructions on how to take the tablet?

      Your Answer: Take at least 30 minutes after a main meal + sit-upright for 30 minutes following

      Correct Answer: Take at least 30 minutes before breakfast with plenty of water + sit-upright for 30 minutes following

      Explanation:

      Bisphosphonates: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue. This reduces the risk of bone fractures and can be used to treat conditions such as osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.

      However, bisphosphonates can have adverse effects, including oesophageal reactions such as oesophagitis and ulcers, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which can cause fever, myalgia, and arthralgia. Hypocalcemia, or low calcium levels, can also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually not clinically significant.

      To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or other oral medications and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment, and calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate. The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the patient’s level of risk, and some authorities recommend stopping treatment after five years for low-risk patients with a femoral neck T-score of > -2.5.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      27.3
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - A 28-year-old female patient complains of sudden hearing loss in her left ear,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient complains of sudden hearing loss in her left ear, accompanied by dizziness and a sensation of pressure in the affected ear. What results would you anticipate from the Rinne and Weber tests?

      Your Answer: Weber: louder in the left ear. Rinne: bone conduction louder than air in the left ear

      Correct Answer: Weber: louder in the right ear: Rinne air conduction louder than bone in the left ear

      Explanation:

      To diagnose sensorineural hearing loss, Rinne and Weber tests can be used. In this type of hearing loss, air conduction will be louder than bone on Rinne test and Weber test will lateralise away from the affected ear. However, before making a diagnosis, it is important to correctly identify the symptoms. For example, sudden hearing loss accompanied by dizziness and pressure in the ear may indicate Meniere’s disease, which causes sensorineural hearing loss in the affected ear. If the symptoms suggest sensorineural hearing loss in the left ear, the results of the tests should show air conduction louder than bone on Rinne test and Weber test lateralising away from the left ear. If the results show different patterns, they may suggest conductive or mixed hearing loss in one or both ears.

      Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness

      Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are two diagnostic tools used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test suggests conductive deafness if BC is greater than AC.

      On the other hand, Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.

      To interpret the results of Rinne’s and Weber’s tests, a normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally, and the sound is midline in Weber’s test. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear, while AC is greater than BC in the unaffected ear, and the sound lateralizes to the affected ear in Weber’s test. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, and the sound lateralizes to the unaffected ear in Weber’s test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      38.5
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - You are advising a 26-year-old woman who has recently discovered she is expecting...

    Correct

    • You are advising a 26-year-old woman who has recently discovered she is expecting a baby. She is a smoker and consumes 20 cigarettes per day. What is the primary risk factor linked to smoking while pregnant?

      Your Answer: Increased risk of pre-term labour

      Explanation:

      Risks of Smoking, Alcohol, and Illegal Drugs During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, drug use can have serious consequences for both the mother and the developing fetus. Smoking during pregnancy increases the risk of miscarriage, pre-term labor, stillbirth, and sudden unexpected death in infancy. Alcohol consumption can lead to fetal alcohol syndrome, which can cause learning difficulties, characteristic facial features, and growth restrictions. Binge drinking is a major risk factor for fetal alcohol syndrome. Cannabis use poses similar risks to smoking due to the tobacco content. Cocaine use can lead to hypertension in pregnancy, including pre-eclampsia, and placental abruption. Fetal risks include prematurity and neonatal abstinence syndrome. Heroin use can result in neonatal abstinence syndrome. It is important for pregnant women to avoid drug use to ensure the health and well-being of both themselves and their unborn child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - A 25 year old woman and her partner visit a fertility clinic due...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old woman and her partner visit a fertility clinic due to her complaints of oligomenorrhoea and galactorrhea. Despite 18 months of regular unprotected intercourse, they have been unable to conceive. Blood tests reveal a serum prolactin level of 6000 mIU/l (normal <500 mIU/l) and a pituitary MRI shows a microprolactinoma. What is the initial treatment option that is likely to be offered to her?

      Your Answer: Trans-sphenoidal hypophysectomy

      Correct Answer: Bromocriptine

      Explanation:

      When it comes to treating prolactinomas, dopamine agonists like cabergoline and bromocriptine are typically the first choice, even if the patient is experiencing significant neurological complications. Surgery may be necessary for those who cannot tolerate or do not respond to medical treatment, with a trans-sphenoidal approach being the preferred method unless there is extensive extra-pituitary extension. Radiotherapy is not commonly used, and octreotide, a somatostatin analogue, is primarily used to treat acromegaly.

      Understanding Prolactinoma: A Type of Pituitary Adenoma

      Prolactinoma is a type of pituitary adenoma, which is a non-cancerous tumor that develops in the pituitary gland. These tumors can be classified based on their size and hormonal status. Prolactinomas are the most common type of pituitary adenoma and are characterized by the overproduction of prolactin. This condition can cause a range of symptoms in both men and women.

      In women, excess prolactin can lead to amenorrhea, infertility, and galactorrhea. Men with prolactinoma may experience impotence, loss of libido, and galactorrhea. Macroadenomas, which are larger tumors, can cause additional symptoms such as headaches, visual disturbances, and signs of hypopituitarism.

      Diagnosis of prolactinoma is typically done through MRI imaging. Treatment for symptomatic patients usually involves the use of dopamine agonists, such as cabergoline or bromocriptine, which help to inhibit the release of prolactin from the pituitary gland. In cases where medical therapy is not effective or well-tolerated, surgery may be necessary. A trans-sphenoidal approach is often preferred for surgical intervention, unless there is significant extra-pituitary extension.

      Overall, understanding prolactinoma and its symptoms is important for early diagnosis and effective management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - A 38-year-old woman complains of itching and yellowing of the skin.
    Blood tests reveal:
    Bilirubin...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman complains of itching and yellowing of the skin.
      Blood tests reveal:
      Bilirubin 45 µmol/L (3 - 17)
      ALP 326 u/L (30 - 100)
      ALT 72 u/L (3 - 40)
      Positive anti-mitochondrial antibodies.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary biliary cholangitis

      Explanation:

      Primary biliary cholangitis is a likely diagnosis for a middle-aged female patient with an obstructive liver injury picture and positive anti-mitochondrial antibodies, M2 subtype. This differential is important to consider, as alcohol abuse may not always be obvious and gallstones could produce a similar result on liver function tests. However, the absence of pain and positive anti-mitochondrial antibodies make these less likely. Paracetamol overdose is also a potential differential, but the liver function profile in this case is more consistent with an obstructive picture, with a higher ALP and bilirubin and a modest increase in ALT. Additionally, anti-mitochondrial antibodies are not associated with paracetamol overdose.

      Primary Biliary Cholangitis: A Chronic Liver Disorder

      Primary biliary cholangitis, previously known as primary biliary cirrhosis, is a chronic liver disorder that is commonly observed in middle-aged women. The exact cause of this condition is not yet fully understood, but it is believed to be an autoimmune disease. The disease is characterized by the progressive damage of interlobular bile ducts due to chronic inflammation, leading to cholestasis and eventually cirrhosis. The most common symptom of primary biliary cholangitis is itching in middle-aged women.

      This condition is often associated with other autoimmune diseases such as Sjogren’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic sclerosis, and thyroid disease. Early symptoms of primary biliary cholangitis may be asymptomatic or may include fatigue, pruritus, and cholestatic jaundice. Late symptoms may progress to liver failure. Diagnosis of primary biliary cholangitis involves immunology tests such as anti-mitochondrial antibodies (AMA) M2 subtype and smooth muscle antibodies, as well as imaging tests to exclude an extrahepatic biliary obstruction.

      The first-line treatment for primary biliary cholangitis is ursodeoxycholic acid, which slows down the progression of the disease and improves symptoms. Cholestyramine is used to alleviate pruritus, and fat-soluble vitamin supplementation is recommended. In severe cases, liver transplantation may be necessary, especially if bilirubin levels exceed 100. However, recurrence in the graft can occur, but it is not usually a problem. Complications of primary biliary cholangitis include cirrhosis, portal hypertension, ascites, variceal hemorrhage, osteomalacia, osteoporosis, and an increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - A 64-year-old male with a history of mitral regurgitation is scheduled for dental...

    Correct

    • A 64-year-old male with a history of mitral regurgitation is scheduled for dental polishing. He has a documented penicillin allergy. What is the recommended prophylaxis for preventing infective endocarditis?

      Your Answer: No antibiotic prophylaxis needed

      Explanation:

      In the UK, it is no longer standard practice to use antibiotics as a preventative measure against infective endocarditis during dental or other procedures, as per the 2008 NICE guidelines which have brought about a significant shift in approach.

      Infective endocarditis is a serious infection of the heart lining and valves. The 2008 guidelines from NICE have changed the list of procedures for which antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended. According to NICE, dental procedures, gastrointestinal, genitourinary, and respiratory tract procedures do not require prophylaxis. However, if a person at risk of infective endocarditis is receiving antimicrobial therapy because they are undergoing a gastrointestinal or genitourinary procedure at a site where there is a suspected infection, they should be given an antibiotic that covers organisms that cause infective endocarditis. It is important to note that these recommendations differ from the American Heart Association/European Society of Cardiology guidelines, which still advocate antibiotic prophylaxis for high-risk patients undergoing dental procedures.

      The guidelines suggest that any episodes of infection in people at risk of infective endocarditis should be investigated and treated promptly to reduce the risk of endocarditis developing. It is crucial to follow these guidelines to prevent the development of infective endocarditis, which can lead to severe complications and even death. It is also important to note that these guidelines may change over time as new research and evidence become available. Therefore, healthcare professionals should stay up-to-date with the latest recommendations to provide the best possible care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - A 27-year-old female patient presents to her doctor seeking guidance on pregnancy and...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old female patient presents to her doctor seeking guidance on pregnancy and the postpartum period. She is currently 12 weeks pregnant and has not experienced any complications thus far. The patient has a history of HIV and is currently taking antiretroviral medication. She has expressed a desire to breastfeed her baby once it is born.

      What recommendations should be given to this patient?

      Your Answer: She should not breastfeed

      Explanation:

      In the UK, it is recommended that all women who are HIV-positive should not breastfeed their babies. This advice remains the same even if the mother’s viral load is undetectable. The decision should not be left to the HIV consultant as the national guidelines are clear on this matter. Although breastfeeding may reduce the risk of transmission if the maternal viral load is less than 50 copies/ml, there is still a risk involved. Therefore, the advice remains not to breastfeed. Continuing with antiretroviral therapy is expected regardless of the decision not to breastfeed as it significantly reduces the risk of vertical transmission during pregnancy. Babies born to HIV-positive mothers are given antiretroviral therapy, either zidovudine alone if the maternal viral load is less than 50 copies/ml or triple-therapy if it is higher. However, this does not change the advice to avoid breastfeeding.

      HIV and Pregnancy: Guidelines for Minimizing Vertical Transmission

      With the increasing prevalence of HIV infection among heterosexual individuals, there has been a rise in the number of HIV-positive women giving birth in the UK. In fact, in London alone, the incidence may be as high as 0.4% of pregnant women. The primary goal of treating HIV-positive women during pregnancy is to minimize harm to both the mother and fetus, and to reduce the chance of vertical transmission.

      To achieve this goal, various factors must be considered. Firstly, all pregnant women should be offered HIV screening, according to NICE guidelines. Additionally, antiretroviral therapy should be offered to all pregnant women, regardless of whether they were taking it previously. This therapy has been shown to significantly reduce vertical transmission rates, which can range from 25-30% to just 2%.

      The mode of delivery is also an important consideration. Vaginal delivery is recommended if the viral load is less than 50 copies/ml at 36 weeks. If the viral load is higher, a caesarean section is recommended, and a zidovudine infusion should be started four hours before the procedure. Neonatal antiretroviral therapy is also typically administered to the newborn, with zidovudine being the preferred medication if the maternal viral load is less than 50 copies/ml. If the viral load is higher, triple ART should be used, and therapy should be continued for 4-6 weeks.

      Finally, infant feeding is an important consideration. In the UK, all women should be advised not to breastfeed, as this can increase the risk of vertical transmission. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can help to minimize the risk of vertical transmission and ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - A 45-year-old male dental practice nurse is admitted for elective surgery. During induction...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old male dental practice nurse is admitted for elective surgery. During induction with a general anaesthetic, he develops tachycardia, rash and diffuse wheeze. He mentioned that he had a rash when assisting with an anaesthetic case at work.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
      Select the SINGLE most likely diagnosis from the list below. Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Anaphylaxis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Allergic Reactions: Types and Symptoms

      Allergic reactions can take many forms, each with its own set of symptoms and causes. Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening reaction that can occur in response to drugs, insect stings, or certain foods. It is characterized by rapid onset of airway, breathing, and circulation problems, as well as skin and mucosal changes. Systemic mastocytosis is another type of allergic reaction that can cause symptoms such as itching, abdominal cramping, and even shock. Pseudoallergy, on the other hand, can mimic true allergies but has different underlying causes, such as altered histamine metabolism or food intolerance.

      Serum sickness is a self-limited allergic reaction that occurs after exposure to foreign proteins. It is a type III hypersensitivity reaction that can cause fever, skin rash, and joint symptoms. Contact dermatitis is an inflammatory skin reaction that can be caused by either an irritant or an allergen. Allergic contact dermatitis is a type IV delayed hypersensitivity reaction that occurs after sensitization and subsequent re-exposure to an allergen, while irritant contact dermatitis is an inflammatory response that occurs after damage to the skin by chemicals.

      It is important to recognize the symptoms of these different types of allergic reactions and seek medical attention if necessary. Anaphylaxis, in particular, is a medical emergency that can lead to death if not treated promptly. By understanding the different types of allergic reactions and their causes, we can take steps to prevent them and manage their symptoms effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      28.3
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - A 65-year-old patient with a history of migraines presents to you after being...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old patient with a history of migraines presents to you after being discharged from the stroke unit following a posterior circulation stroke. She is distressed as she believes there was a considerable delay in her diagnosis. Initially diagnosed with a severe migraine, she was not referred to the hospital until her symptoms persisted for several days.

      What is the primary symptom that typically presents in a posterior circulation stroke?

      Your Answer: Dizziness

      Explanation:

      Dizziness is the most prevalent indication of a posterior circulation stroke, although other symptoms such as double vision, disorientation, visual disturbance, confusion, and memory loss are also significant. Roughly 33% of posterior circulation strokes are misdiagnosed as migraines, which can cause temporary neurological deficits even without a headache. Additionally, individuals who suffer from migraines are more likely to experience a headache as a result of brain ischemia, which can further complicate the diagnosis. Patients who experience new vertigo or headaches, dizziness, or a change in the nature of their migraines should be evaluated for a posterior circulation stroke.

      Understanding Stroke: A Basic Overview

      Stroke is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality, with over 150,000 cases reported annually in the UK alone. It is the fourth leading cause of death in the country, killing twice as many women as breast cancer each year. However, the prevention and treatment of strokes have undergone significant changes in the past decade. What was once considered an untreatable condition is now viewed as a brain attack that requires emergency assessment to determine if patients can benefit from new treatments such as thrombolysis.

      A stroke, also known as a cerebrovascular accident (CVA), occurs when there is a sudden interruption in the vascular supply of the brain. This interruption can lead to irreversible damage as neural tissue is entirely dependent on aerobic metabolism. There are two main types of strokes: ischaemic and haemorrhagic. Ischaemic strokes occur when there is a blockage in the blood vessel that stops blood flow, while haemorrhagic strokes happen when a blood vessel bursts, leading to a reduction in blood flow.

      Symptoms of a stroke include motor weakness, speech problems, swallowing difficulties, visual field defects, and balance problems. The Oxford Stroke Classification is a formal system used to classify strokes based on initial symptoms. Patients with suspected stroke require emergency neuroimaging to determine if they are suitable for thrombolytic therapy to treat early ischaemic strokes. If the stroke is haemorrhagic, neurosurgical consultation should be considered for advice on further management.

      In conclusion, understanding the basics of stroke is crucial in identifying and managing the condition. Early intervention and treatment can significantly improve outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - A 68-year-old man presents with 'burning' chest pain, halitosis and frequent belching. An...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents with 'burning' chest pain, halitosis and frequent belching. An oesophagogastroduodenoscopy reveals a 3 cm sliding hiatus hernia. The patient has a BMI of 34 kg/m² and does not smoke or drink alcohol. What is the best course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Omeprazole and referral for laparoscopic fundoplication

      Correct Answer: Lifestyle advice and omeprazole

      Explanation:

      Surgical repair is not necessary for the majority of patients with hiatus hernias. Instead, lifestyle advice and omeprazole are the recommended management options. In the case of a symptomatic hiatus hernia, such as acid reflux, ‘burning’ pain, halitosis, and frequent belching, pharmacological treatment is likely to be beneficial. While lifestyle advice is important, it should be combined with medication for symptom relief. Omeprazole alone is not sufficient, and patients should also be advised on the benefits of weight loss and dietary changes. Referral for laparoscopic fundoplication is not necessary for most patients with hiatus hernias, and initial management should focus on PPIs and lifestyle modifications.

      Understanding Hiatus Hernia

      Hiatus hernia is a medical condition that occurs when part of the stomach protrudes above the diaphragm. There are two types of hiatus hernia, namely sliding and rolling. The sliding type is the most common, accounting for 95% of cases, and occurs when the gastroesophageal junction moves above the diaphragm. On the other hand, the rolling type occurs when a separate part of the stomach herniates through the esophageal hiatus, while the gastroesophageal junction remains below the diaphragm.

      Several risk factors can increase the likelihood of developing hiatus hernia, including obesity and increased intraabdominal pressure. Common symptoms of hiatus hernia include heartburn, dysphagia, regurgitation, and chest pain. To diagnose the condition, a barium swallow is the most sensitive test, although many patients undergo an endoscopy as a first-line investigation, with the hernia being found incidentally.

      Conservative management, such as weight loss, is beneficial for all patients with hiatus hernia. Medical management involves proton pump inhibitor therapy, while surgical management is only necessary for symptomatic paraesophageal hernias. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and management options for hiatus hernia is crucial for effective treatment and improved quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - A 32-year-old woman who lives with her husband comes to you for advice....

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman who lives with her husband comes to you for advice. She has been experiencing anal discharge and itching for the past 4 days. She also has some symptoms of painful urination. A urethral smear shows intracellular diplococci.

      What is the most probable infectious agent that matches this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae

      Explanation:

      Common Sexually Transmitted Infections and Diagnostic Methods

      Sexually transmitted infections (STIs) are a major public health concern worldwide. Here are some common STIs and their diagnostic methods:

      Neisseria gonorrhoeae: This bacterium causes gonorrhoea, which is a purulent infection of the mucous membranes. In men, symptoms include urethritis, acute epididymitis, and rectal infection. A Gram stain is the method of choice for detecting gonorrhoea in symptomatic men.

      Treponema pallidum: This spirochaete bacterium causes syphilis. Serologic testing is the standard method of detection for all stages of syphilis.

      Chlamydia trachomatis: This bacterium is an obligate intracellular micro-organism that infects squamocolumnar epithelial cells. Nucleic acid amplification testing (NAAT) is the most sensitive test for detecting C. trachomatis infection, and a urine sample is an effective specimen for this test.

      Herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1): This virus is typically associated with orofacial disease. Tissue culture isolation and immunofluorescent staining can be used to diagnose HSV-1.

      Herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2): This virus is typically associated with urogenital disease. Tissue culture isolation and immunofluorescent staining can be used to diagnose HSV-2.

      Common STIs and Their Diagnostic Methods

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      13.9
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  • Question 85 - During a cardiorespiratory exam, a 5-year-old boy is found to have pectus excavatum...

    Incorrect

    • During a cardiorespiratory exam, a 5-year-old boy is found to have pectus excavatum and pulmonary stenosis. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: William's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Noonan syndrome

      Explanation:

      Noonan syndrome is diagnosed in a young boy who exhibits a webbed neck, pulmonary stenosis, ptosis, and short stature, despite having a normal karyotype.

      Childhood syndromes are a group of medical conditions that affect children and are characterized by a set of common features. Patau syndrome, also known as trisomy 13, is a syndrome that is characterized by microcephaly, small eyes, cleft lip/palate, polydactyly, and scalp lesions. Edward’s syndrome, also known as trisomy 18, is characterized by micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping of fingers. Fragile X syndrome is characterized by learning difficulties, macrocephaly, long face, large ears, and macro-orchidism. Noonan syndrome is characterized by a webbed neck, pectus excavatum, short stature, and pulmonary stenosis. Pierre-Robin syndrome is characterized by micrognathia, posterior displacement of the tongue, and cleft palate. Prader-Willi syndrome is characterized by hypotonia, hypogonadism, and obesity. William’s syndrome is characterized by short stature, learning difficulties, friendly, extrovert personality, and transient neonatal hypercalcaemia. Cri du chat syndrome, also known as chromosome 5p deletion syndrome, is characterized by a characteristic cry, feeding difficulties and poor weight gain, learning difficulties, microcephaly and micrognathism, and hypertelorism. It is important to note that Treacher-Collins syndrome is similar to Pierre-Robin syndrome, but it is autosomal dominant and usually has a family history of similar problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      20.3
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  • Question 86 - A 25-year-old homeless person is brought into the general practice surgery, having been...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old homeless person is brought into the general practice surgery, having been found nearby in a disoriented state.
      On examination, they have neck stiffness and a non-blanching rash on their arms. Their vital signs are stable except for fever and tachycardia. They score 13/15 on the Glasgow Coma Scale. An ambulance has been called to transfer them to the hospital.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate action to perform while awaiting the ambulance?

      Your Answer: Notify the regional Public Health consultant

      Correct Answer: Administer a dose of parenteral benzylpenicillin

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Actions for Suspected Bacterial Meningitis with Non-Blanching Rash

      When a patient presents with suspected bacterial meningitis and a non-blanching rash, it is crucial to take appropriate actions promptly. Administering a single dose of parenteral benzylpenicillin at the earliest opportunity is recommended, but this should not delay the transfer to the hospital. It is also important to notify the regional Public Health consultant about the suspected case.

      While administering paracetamol for fever and starting the patient on high-flow oxygen may be necessary in some cases, they would not take priority over the administration of parenteral benzylpenicillin. Additionally, an IV fluid bolus is not indicated unless the patient’s vital signs are unstable. By taking these appropriate actions, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcome for patients with suspected bacterial meningitis and non-blanching rash.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - A 47-year-old man presents with recurrent, intense pain in his right flank area....

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old man presents with recurrent, intense pain in his right flank area. A urine dipstick reveals the presence of blood and a CT KUB confirms the presence of a 7mm stone in the right ureter. The patient is administered intramuscular diclofenac to alleviate the pain. What other type of medication could potentially be helpful in this situation?

      Your Answer: Nitrate

      Correct Answer: Alpha-adrenergic blocker

      Explanation:

      Calcium channel blockers may be utilized to assist in the natural passage of the stone.

      The management of renal stones involves initial medication and investigations, including an NSAID for analgesia and a non-contrast CT KUB for imaging. Stones less than 5mm may pass spontaneously, but more intensive treatment is needed for ureteric obstruction or renal abnormalities. Treatment options include shockwave lithotripsy, ureteroscopy, and percutaneous nephrolithotomy. Prevention strategies include high fluid intake, low animal protein and salt diet, and medication such as thiazides diuretics for hypercalciuria and allopurinol for uric acid stones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      26.3
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  • Question 88 - A 43-year-old woman complains of muscle cramps and fatigue. Upon examination, her neck's...

    Correct

    • A 43-year-old woman complains of muscle cramps and fatigue. Upon examination, her neck's front is tender and swollen to touch. She has no medical history and does not take any regular medication. Her blood results show a TSH level of 12.3 mU/L (0.5-5.5) and a free T4 level of 4.2 pmol/L (9.0 - 18). What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Subacute thyroiditis (de Quervain's)

      Explanation:

      Subacute thyroiditis can be differentiated from Hashimoto’s thyroiditis as a cause of hypothyroidism by the presence of tenderness in the thyroid gland. The symptoms are indicative of hypothyroidism, which is confirmed by elevated TSH levels and low T4 levels in the thyroid function tests. The occurrence of a painful goitre points towards subacute thyroiditis as the most probable diagnosis. Graves’ disease, on the other hand, leads to hyperthyroidism and not hypothyroidism. Although Hashimoto’s thyroiditis can also cause hypothyroidism, it is typically painless. Riedel thyroiditis can cause hypothyroidism and may be painful, but it is less likely than subacute thyroiditis.

      Understanding the Causes of Hypothyroidism

      Hypothyroidism is a condition that affects a small percentage of women in the UK, with females being more susceptible than males. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, an autoimmune disease that may be associated with other conditions such as IDDM, Addison’s or pernicious anaemia. Other causes of hypothyroidism include subacute thyroiditis, Riedel thyroiditis, thyroidectomy or radioiodine treatment, drug therapy, and dietary iodine deficiency. It is important to note that some of these causes may have an initial thyrotoxic phase.

      In rare cases, hypothyroidism may also be caused by pituitary failure, which is known as secondary hypothyroidism. Additionally, there are certain conditions that may be associated with hypothyroidism, such as Down’s syndrome, Turner’s syndrome, and coeliac disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      11.9
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  • Question 89 - A 72-year-old man is brought in by ambulance after being found on the...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man is brought in by ambulance after being found on the floor early in the morning. He states that he tripped and fell in the evening and could not get up or get help. The following U&Es were taken:

      Na+ 135 mmol/l
      K+ 5.7 mmol/l
      Creatinine 347 mmol/l
      Urea 9.8 mmol/l
      Creatine kinase 14,550 I/U

      What could be the possible reason for this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer: Rhabdomyolysis

      Explanation:

      If someone is stuck on the ground for an extended period after falling, they may develop rhabdomyolysis. This condition occurs when myoglobin, a toxic substance released from muscle tissue, damages the kidneys and causes acute kidney injury. Elevated levels of creatinine kinase and potassium are common indicators of rhabdomyolysis.

      Rhabdomyolysis is a condition that may be presented in an exam scenario where a patient has experienced a fall or prolonged epileptic seizure and is discovered to have an acute kidney injury upon admission. The condition is characterized by a disproportionately elevated creatinine level, elevated creatine kinase (CK), myoglobinuria, hypocalcaemia (as myoglobin binds calcium), elevated phosphate (released from myocytes), hyperkalaemia (which may develop before renal failure), and metabolic acidosis. The causes of rhabdomyolysis include seizure, collapse or coma (such as an elderly patient collapsing at home and being found eight hours later), ecstasy use, crush injury, McArdle’s syndrome, and certain drugs, such as statins (especially if co-prescribed with clarithromycin).

      The management of rhabdomyolysis involves administering intravenous fluids to maintain good urine output, and urinary alkalinization may be used in some cases. It is important to recognize the signs and symptoms of rhabdomyolysis early on to prevent further complications and ensure prompt treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      7.4
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  • Question 90 - A 65-year-old female presents to her GP with a 4-week history of bilateral...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old female presents to her GP with a 4-week history of bilateral shoulder pain. She also experiences stiffness in her shoulders in the morning which improves throughout the day. She reports feeling generally fatigued. No other joints are affected. The patient has a history of osteoarthritis in her left knee.

      During examination, the patient's observations are normal. There is no swelling or redness in the shoulders, and she has a full range of motion bilaterally. Upper limb power is 5/5 bilaterally with normal sensation.

      Based on the patient's history and examination, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms are suggestive of polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR), which is a common inflammatory condition in older adults. The sudden onset of pain and stiffness in the shoulders and hips, along with systemic symptoms such as fatigue and anorexia, are typical of PMR. Osteoarthritis, fibromyalgia, hypothyroidism, and adhesive capsulitis are less likely diagnoses, as they do not typically present with acute onset of symptoms or systemic involvement. However, it is important to rule out hypothyroidism by checking thyroid function. Frozen shoulder may cause shoulder pain and stiffness, but it is usually associated with restricted range of motion and does not typically cause systemic symptoms.

      Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Muscle Stiffness in Older People

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common condition that affects older people. It is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arteritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects patients over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, usually within a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      To diagnose PMR, doctors look for raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR of over 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are normal. Treatment for PMR involves prednisolone, usually at a dose of 15mg/od. Patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      9.3
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  • Question 91 - A typically healthy 68-year-old man visits the doctor's office complaining of feeling unwell....

    Correct

    • A typically healthy 68-year-old man visits the doctor's office complaining of feeling unwell. He mentions experiencing a sharp ache in his right groin. After three days, he develops a strip of painful, red blisters on the top of his right foot.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Herpes zoster

      Explanation:

      This individual is experiencing shingles, which is caused by the herpes zoster virus and is characterized by a unique distribution along a specific dermatome.

      Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The rash is well demarcated by the affected dermatome and may be accompanied by fever and lethargy. Treatment includes analgesia, antivirals, and potentially oral corticosteroids. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, ocular and ear complications. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the risk of post-herpetic neuralgia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      19.8
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  • Question 92 - A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, low mood, and...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, low mood, and difficulty passing stools. Upon conducting a set of initial blood tests, the following results are obtained:
      Calcium 3.2 mmol/l
      Albumin 38 g/l
      What is the most effective diagnostic test to identify the underlying reason for his elevated calcium levels?

      Your Answer: Parathyroid hormone

      Explanation:

      Parathyroid hormone levels serve as a valuable tool in identifying the underlying causes of hypercalcaemia, with malignancy and primary hyperparathyroidism being the most prevalent culprits. If the parathyroid hormone levels are normal or elevated, it indicates the presence of primary hyperparathyroidism.

      Understanding the Causes of Hypercalcaemia

      Hypercalcaemia is a medical condition characterized by high levels of calcium in the blood. In most cases, two conditions account for 90% of hypercalcaemia cases. The first is primary hyperparathyroidism, which is the most common cause in non-hospitalized patients. The second is malignancy, which is the most common cause in hospitalized patients. Malignancy-related hypercalcaemia may be due to various processes, including PTHrP from the tumor, bone metastases, and myeloma. For this reason, measuring parathyroid hormone levels is crucial when investigating patients with hypercalcaemia.

      Other causes of hypercalcaemia include sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, histoplasmosis, vitamin D intoxication, acromegaly, thyrotoxicosis, milk-alkali syndrome, drugs such as thiazides and calcium-containing antacids, dehydration, Addison’s disease, and Paget’s disease of the bone. It is important to note that hypercalcaemia may occur with prolonged immobilization in patients with Paget’s disease of the bone, although this condition is usually normal.

      In summary, hypercalcaemia can be caused by various medical conditions, with primary hyperparathyroidism and malignancy being the most common. Measuring parathyroid hormone levels is essential in investigating patients with hypercalcaemia. Other causes of hypercalcaemia include sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, histoplasmosis, vitamin D intoxication, acromegaly, thyrotoxicosis, milk-alkali syndrome, drugs, dehydration, Addison’s disease, and Paget’s disease of the bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      15.9
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  • Question 93 - A 25-year-old man presents to the GP with a swelling in his scrotum....

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the GP with a swelling in his scrotum. He is feeling well otherwise. Upon examination, there is a soft swelling on the right side of the scrotum that is painless and illuminates brightly with a pen torch. The swelling is localized to the scrotum, and the rest of the scrotum can be palpated above the mass. The testicle is palpable with no apparent mass. The patient is particularly concerned about the possibility of having testicular cancer.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hydrocele

      Explanation:

      Scrotal swelling caused by an accumulation of fluid in the tunica vaginalis is known as a hydrocele. This condition can be identified by its ability to transilluminate brightly with a pen torch and is confined to the scrotum. While epididymo-orchitis can also cause unilateral swelling, it is typically tender and accompanied by systemic symptoms. Testicular cancer may lead to a hydrocele, but if the testis is palpable and normal, it is less likely to be the cause of the swelling. In cases where the testis is not palpable, patients should be referred for a testicular ultrasound.

      Common Scrotal Problems and Their Features

      Epididymal cysts, hydroceles, and varicoceles are the most common scrotal problems seen in primary care. Epididymal cysts are usually found posterior to the testicle and are separate from the body of the testicle. They may be associated with conditions such as polycystic kidney disease, cystic fibrosis, and von Hippel-Lindau syndrome. Diagnosis is confirmed by ultrasound, and management is usually supportive, although surgical removal or sclerotherapy may be attempted for larger or symptomatic cysts.

      Hydroceles, on the other hand, describe the accumulation of fluid within the tunica vaginalis. They may be communicating or non-communicating, and may develop secondary to conditions such as epididymo-orchitis, testicular torsion, or testicular tumors. Hydroceles are usually soft, non-tender swellings of the hemi-scrotum that transilluminate with a pen torch. Diagnosis may be clinical, but ultrasound is required if there is any doubt about the diagnosis or if the underlying testis cannot be palpated. Management depends on the severity of the presentation, with infantile hydroceles generally repaired if they do not resolve spontaneously by the age of 1-2 years.

      Varicoceles, on the other hand, are abnormal enlargements of the testicular veins that are usually asymptomatic but may be associated with subfertility. They are much more common on the left side and are classically described as a bag of worms. Diagnosis is confirmed by ultrasound with Doppler studies, and management is usually conservative, although surgery may be required if the patient is troubled by pain. There is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery to treat infertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      46.4
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - A 68-year-old diabetic man presents with a stiff and painful left shoulder that...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old diabetic man presents with a stiff and painful left shoulder that limits all movements. He is left-handed and can no longer participate in his favorite hobbies due to the discomfort. Adhesive capsulitis is suspected. What factors are linked to this condition?

      Your Answer: History of diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      Adhesive capsulitis is a condition that may occur in diabetic patients, as well as those with a history of myocardial infarction, lung disease, or neck disease. It is more common in females aged 40-60 years, and typically affects the non-dominant hand. Prolonged immobilization or disuse of the arm due to pain from another cause may also lead to adhesive capsulitis. There is no known correlation with activity.

      Understanding Adhesive Capsulitis (Frozen Shoulder)

      Adhesive capsulitis, commonly known as frozen shoulder, is a prevalent cause of shoulder pain that primarily affects middle-aged women. The exact cause of this condition is not yet fully understood. However, studies have shown that up to 20% of diabetics may experience an episode of frozen shoulder. Symptoms typically develop over several days, with external rotation being more affected than internal rotation or abduction. Both active and passive movement are affected, and patients usually experience a painful freezing phase, an adhesive phase, and a recovery phase. In some cases, the condition may affect both shoulders, which occurs in up to 20% of patients. The episode typically lasts between 6 months and 2 years.

      Diagnosis of adhesive capsulitis is usually clinical, although imaging may be necessary for atypical or persistent symptoms. Unfortunately, no single intervention has been proven to improve the outcome in the long-term. However, there are several treatment options available, including nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), physiotherapy, oral corticosteroids, and intra-articular corticosteroids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      11.7
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  • Question 95 - A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic after being released from the acute...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic after being released from the acute medical unit 14 days ago. She was admitted due to pleuritic chest pain and shortness of breath, and was diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism. Apixaban was started during her hospital stay. The patient has a clean medical history and is generally healthy. What is the appropriate duration of anticoagulation therapy for this individual?

      Your Answer: 3 months

      Correct Answer: 6 months

      Explanation:

      Patients with ‘unprovoked’ pulmonary embolisms usually require anticoagulation treatment for a duration of 6 months, as there are no temporary risk factors for venous thromboembolism.

      Management of Pulmonary Embolism: NICE Guidelines

      Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a serious condition that requires prompt management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on the management of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in 2020, with some key changes. One of the significant changes is the recommendation to use direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as the first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including those with active cancer. Another change is the increasing use of outpatient treatment for low-risk PE patients, determined by a validated risk stratification tool.

      Anticoagulant therapy is the cornerstone of VTE management, and the guidelines recommend using apixaban or rivaroxaban as the first-line treatment following the diagnosis of a PE. If neither of these is suitable, LMWH followed by dabigatran or edoxaban or LMWH followed by a vitamin K antagonist (VKA) can be used. For patients with active cancer, DOACs are now recommended instead of LMWH. The length of anticoagulation is determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked, with treatment typically stopped after 3-6 months for provoked VTE and continued for up to 6 months for unprovoked VTE.

      In cases of haemodynamic instability, thrombolysis is recommended as the first-line treatment for massive PE with circulatory failure. Patients who have repeat pulmonary embolisms, despite adequate anticoagulation, may be considered for inferior vena cava (IVC) filters. However, the evidence base for IVC filter use is weak.

      Overall, the updated NICE guidelines provide clear recommendations for the management of PE, including the use of DOACs as first-line treatment and outpatient management for low-risk patients. The guidelines also emphasize the importance of individualized treatment based on risk stratification and balancing the risks of VTE recurrence and bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      27.5
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  • Question 96 - A 60-year-old African American male presents with widespread bone pain and muscle weakness....

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old African American male presents with widespread bone pain and muscle weakness. Upon investigation, the following results were obtained:
      Calcium 2.05 mmol/l
      Phosphate 0.68 mmol/l
      ALP 340 U/l
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteomalacia

      Explanation:

      Osteomalacia may be indicated by bone pain, tenderness, and proximal myopathy (resulting in a waddling gait), as well as low levels of calcium and phosphate and elevated alkaline phosphatase.

      Understanding Osteomalacia

      Osteomalacia is a condition that occurs when the bones become soft due to low levels of vitamin D, which leads to a decrease in bone mineral content. This condition is commonly seen in adults, while in growing children, it is referred to as rickets. The causes of osteomalacia include vitamin D deficiency, malabsorption, lack of sunlight, chronic kidney disease, drug-induced factors, inherited conditions, liver disease, and coeliac disease.

      The symptoms of osteomalacia include bone pain, muscle tenderness, fractures, especially in the femoral neck, and proximal myopathy, which may lead to a waddling gait. To diagnose osteomalacia, blood tests are conducted to check for low vitamin D levels, low calcium and phosphate levels, and raised alkaline phosphatase levels. X-rays may also show translucent bands known as Looser’s zones or pseudofractures.

      The treatment for osteomalacia involves vitamin D supplementation, with a loading dose often needed initially. Calcium supplementation may also be necessary if dietary calcium intake is inadequate. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for osteomalacia is crucial in managing this condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      140.4
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  • Question 97 - A 47-year-old woman attends to discuss hormone replacement therapy (HRT) because she believes...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old woman attends to discuss hormone replacement therapy (HRT) because she believes she is experiencing symptoms of menopause.

      What is the PRIMARY MOTIVATION for starting HRT in a woman who is experiencing perimenopause?

      Your Answer: Reduce vasomotor symptoms

      Explanation:

      Benefits and Risks of Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT)

      Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT) is a treatment used to alleviate the symptoms of menopause, such as hot flushes, sweating, and palpitations. It has been proven effective in placebo-controlled randomized studies. HRT can also improve vaginal dryness, superficial dyspareunia, and urinary frequency and urgency. Long-term therapy is required to achieve these benefits, and symptoms may recur after stopping HRT.

      HRT is commonly prescribed to prevent osteoporosis, particularly if started within the first five years after menopause onset. Women with decreased bone mineral density and those with a history of osteoporotic fractures also benefit from HRT. However, protection may be lost after stopping the hormones. HRT can reduce the incidence of hip fractures by about one case per 1000 women aged <70 years and by about 8 cases per 1000 women aged 70–79 years. The Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study revealed an increased annual risk of heart attacks in women who took combined HRT compared to those who took estrogen only. HRT may also prevent and treat dementia and related disorders by enhancing cholinergic neurotransmission and preventing oxidative cell damage, neuronal atrophy, and glucocorticoid-induced neuronal damage. However, studies have failed to provide a consensus on this aspect due to issues of selection bias and extreme heterogeneity in study participants, treatments, cognitive function tests applied, and doses of HRT. In conclusion, HRT can provide relief for menopausal symptoms, improve vaginal health, prevent osteoporosis, and reduce the risk of heart attacks. However, it may increase the risk of dementia, particularly in women aged 65 years who take combination HRT and have relatively low cognitive function at the start of treatment. Therefore, the benefits and risks of HRT should be carefully considered before starting treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      8.3
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  • Question 98 - A 42-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset of...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset of severe headache at the back of her head, vomiting, and sensitivity to light. A CT scan reveals a subarachnoid hemorrhage, and a subsequent CT angiogram shows an aneurysmal bleed on the posterior cerebral artery. Assuming that the patient's vital signs and Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score remain stable, what is the definitive treatment plan for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Coiling of the aneurysm

      Explanation:

      After a subarachnoid haemorrhage, the preferred treatment for most intracranial aneurysms is coiling by an interventional neuroradiologist. This is the most probable course of action given the patient’s stable condition. If the patient showed signs of raised intracranial pressure, such as haemodynamic instability or a change in GCS, craniotomy and clipping of the aneurysm might be considered. However, regardless of whether the aneurysm is coiled or clipped, the primary objective is to prevent further bleeding by mechanically occluding the aneurysm, preferably within the first 24 hours. Therefore, the other options are unlikely to be the correct and definitive management for the patient’s condition.

      A subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) is a type of bleeding that occurs within the subarachnoid space of the meninges in the brain. It can be caused by head injury or occur spontaneously. Spontaneous SAH is often caused by an intracranial aneurysm, which accounts for around 85% of cases. Other causes include arteriovenous malformation, pituitary apoplexy, and mycotic aneurysms. The classic symptoms of SAH include a sudden and severe headache, nausea and vomiting, meningism, coma, seizures, and ECG changes.

      The first-line investigation for SAH is a non-contrast CT head, which can detect acute blood in the basal cisterns, sulci, and ventricular system. If the CT is normal within 6 hours of symptom onset, a lumbar puncture is not recommended. However, if the CT is normal after 6 hours, a lumbar puncture should be performed at least 12 hours after symptom onset to check for xanthochromia and other CSF findings consistent with SAH. If SAH is confirmed, referral to neurosurgery is necessary to identify the underlying cause and provide urgent treatment.

      Management of aneurysmal SAH involves supportive care, such as bed rest, analgesia, and venous thromboembolism prophylaxis. Vasospasm is prevented with oral nimodipine, and intracranial aneurysms require prompt intervention to prevent rebleeding. Most aneurysms are treated with a coil by interventional neuroradiologists, but some require a craniotomy and clipping by a neurosurgeon. Complications of aneurysmal SAH include re-bleeding, hydrocephalus, vasospasm, and hyponatraemia. Predictive factors for SAH include conscious level on admission, age, and amount of blood visible on CT head.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      22.2
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  • Question 99 - A 75-year-old man with known type 2 diabetes presents with a 1-week history...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man with known type 2 diabetes presents with a 1-week history of polydipsia, feeling generally unwell and drowsy. On examination, he looks very dehydrated and is difficult to rouse. He appears confused when he does talk to you.

      Admission bloods show:
      Na+ 149 mmol/l
      K+ 5.2 mmol/l
      Urea 22.1 mmol/l
      Creatinine 254 µmol/l
      His blood glucose is 36 mmol/L.

      What is the most important initial step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Rehydrate with 0.9% Saline

      Explanation:

      Complications of the hyperosmolar state, such as rhabdomyolysis, venous thromboembolism, lactic acidosis, hypertriglyceridemia, renal failure, stroke, and cerebral edema, contribute to the mortality of HONK. Identifying precipitants, such as a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes, infection, high-dose steroids, myocardial infarction, vomiting, stroke, thromboembolism, and poor treatment compliance, is crucial.

      Supportive care and slow metabolic resolution are the mainstays of HONK management. Patients with HONK often have a fluid deficit of over 8 liters, and caution should be exercised to avoid rapid fluid replacement, which can cause cerebral edema due to rapid osmolar shifts. In this scenario, fluid resuscitation should be the top priority, followed closely by initiating a sliding scale. Some experts recommend waiting for an hour before starting insulin to prevent rapid changes and pontine myelinolysis. However, the fluid alone can lower blood sugar levels, and some argue that administering insulin immediately can cause a precipitous drop in osmolality.

      Understanding Hyperosmolar Hyperglycaemic State

      Hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state (HHS) is a medical emergency that can be life-threatening and difficult to manage. It is characterized by severe dehydration, electrolyte deficiencies, and osmotic diuresis resulting from hyperglycaemia. HHS typically affects elderly individuals with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM).

      The pathophysiology of HHS involves hyperglycaemia leading to increased serum osmolality, osmotic diuresis, and severe volume depletion. Precipitating factors include intercurrent illness, sedative drugs, and dementia. Clinical features of HHS include polyuria, polydipsia, signs of dehydration, lethargy, nausea, vomiting, altered level of consciousness, and focal neurological deficits.

      Diagnosis of HHS is based on the presence of hypovolaemia, marked hyperglycaemia, significantly raised serum osmolarity, no significant hyperketonaemia, and no significant acidosis. Management of HHS involves fluid replacement with IV 0.9% sodium chloride solution, potassium monitoring, and insulin administration only if blood glucose stops falling while giving IV fluids. Patients with HHS are at risk of thrombosis due to hyperviscosity, and venous thromboembolism prophylaxis is recommended.

      Complications of HHS include vascular complications such as myocardial infarction and stroke. It is important to recognize the clinical features of HHS and manage it promptly to prevent mortality.

      Overall, HHS is a serious medical condition that requires urgent attention and management. Understanding its pathophysiology, clinical features, and management is crucial in providing appropriate care to patients with HHS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 100 - John is a 35-year-old male who has been detained by the police under...

    Incorrect

    • John is a 35-year-old male who has been detained by the police under a section of the Mental Health Act. He was seen running in and out of traffic in a public area, openly responding to unseen stimuli and avoiding social interaction.
      Regarding the section he has likely been placed under, which of the following is true?

      Your Answer: It lasts up to 72 hours

      Correct Answer: It lasts up to 24 hours

      Explanation:

      The police can utilize Section 136 to transport individuals who may be exhibiting indications of mental illness and pose a danger to themselves or others to a secure location. This section is only valid for a maximum of 24 hours, during which time a Mental Health Act Assessment can be scheduled. In rare cases, it may be extended by an additional 12 hours. It is only applicable to individuals in public areas, not in their own or someone else’s residence – Section 135 is required for this. It does not authorize involuntary treatment. A secure location can be a hospital, the individual’s home or a friend’s home, or, if no other option is available, a police station.

      Sectioning under the Mental Health Act is a legal process used for individuals who refuse voluntary admission. This process excludes patients who are under the influence of drugs or alcohol. There are several sections under the Mental Health Act that allow for different types of admission and treatment.

      Section 2 allows for admission for assessment for up to 28 days, which is not renewable. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the nearest relative (NR) can make the application on the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom should be an approved consultant psychiatrist. Treatment can be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 3 allows for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, which can be renewed. An AMHP and two doctors, both of whom must have seen the patient within the past 24 hours, can make the application. Treatment can also be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 4 is used as an emergency 72-hour assessment order when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay. A GP and an AMHP or NR can make the application, which is often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at the hospital.

      Section 5(2) allows a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in hospital for 72 hours, while section 5(4) allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient for 6 hours.

      Section 17a allows for Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order) and can be used to recall a patient to the hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community, such as taking medication.

      Section 135 allows for a court order to be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety. Section 136 allows for someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder to be taken by the police to a Place of Safety. This section can only be used for up to 24 hours while a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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