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Question 1
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a two-week history of increasing abdominal swelling and discomfort. Over the past few days, she has also been experiencing nausea. The patient has no regular medications and no significant medical history. Upon examination, abdominal distension with shifting dullness to percussion and a demonstrable fluid wave are noted. After discussing the findings with your consultant, it is suggested to perform paracentesis and calculate the serum ascites albumin gradient (SAAG).
The SAAG is calculated as 1.3 g/dL (13g/L). Which underlying cause is most consistent with this finding?Your Answer: Portal hypertension
Explanation:If the serum ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) is greater than 1.1 g/dL (or >11 g/L), it means that the ascites is caused by portal hypertension. On the other hand, a low gradient SAAG (< 1.1 g/dL or <11 g/L) indicates that the ascites is not associated with increased portal pressure and may be caused by conditions such as tuberculosis, pancreatitis, infections, serositis, various types of peritoneal cancers (peritoneal carcinomatosis), and pulmonary infarcts. Further Reading: Cirrhosis is a condition where the liver undergoes structural changes, resulting in dysfunction of its normal functions. It can be classified as either compensated or decompensated. Compensated cirrhosis refers to a stage where the liver can still function effectively with minimal symptoms, while decompensated cirrhosis is when the liver damage is severe and clinical complications are present. Cirrhosis develops over a period of several years due to repeated insults to the liver. Risk factors for cirrhosis include alcohol misuse, hepatitis B and C infection, obesity, type 2 diabetes, autoimmune liver disease, genetic conditions, certain medications, and other rare conditions. The prognosis of cirrhosis can be assessed using the Child-Pugh score, which predicts mortality based on parameters such as bilirubin levels, albumin levels, INR, ascites, and encephalopathy. The score ranges from A to C, with higher scores indicating a poorer prognosis. Complications of cirrhosis include portal hypertension, ascites, hepatic encephalopathy, variceal hemorrhage, increased infection risk, hepatocellular carcinoma, and cardiovascular complications. Diagnosis of cirrhosis is typically done through liver function tests, blood tests, viral hepatitis screening, and imaging techniques such as transient elastography or acoustic radiation force impulse imaging. Liver biopsy may also be performed in some cases. Management of cirrhosis involves treating the underlying cause, controlling risk factors, and monitoring for complications. Complications such as ascites, spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, oesophageal varices, and hepatic encephalopathy require specific management strategies. Overall, cirrhosis is a progressive condition that requires ongoing monitoring and management to prevent further complications and improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 45 year old patient presents to the emergency department with a head laceration sustained following a fall while under the influence of alcohol. You determine to evaluate the patient's alcohol consumption. Which screening tool does NICE (National Institute for Health and Care Excellence) recommend for assessing risky drinking?
Your Answer: AUDIT
Explanation:The AUDIT screening tool is recommended by NICE for identifying patients who may be at risk of hazardous drinking.
Alcoholic liver disease (ALD) is a spectrum of disease that ranges from fatty liver at one end to alcoholic cirrhosis at the other. Fatty liver is generally benign and reversible with alcohol abstinence, while alcoholic cirrhosis is a more advanced and irreversible form of the disease. Alcoholic hepatitis, which involves inflammation of the liver, can lead to the development of fibrotic tissue and cirrhosis.
Several factors can increase the risk of progression of ALD, including female sex, genetics, advanced age, induction of liver enzymes by drugs, and co-existent viral hepatitis, especially hepatitis C.
The development of ALD is multifactorial and involves the metabolism of alcohol in the liver. Alcohol is metabolized to acetaldehyde and then acetate, which can result in the production of damaging reactive oxygen species. Genetic polymorphisms and co-existing hepatitis C infection can enhance the pathological effects of alcohol metabolism.
Patients with ALD may be asymptomatic or present with non-specific symptoms such as abdominal discomfort, vomiting, or anxiety. Those with alcoholic hepatitis may have fever, anorexia, and deranged liver function tests. Advanced liver disease can manifest with signs of portal hypertension and cirrhosis, such as ascites, varices, jaundice, and encephalopathy.
Screening tools such as the AUDIT questionnaire can be used to assess alcohol consumption and identify hazardous or harmful drinking patterns. Liver function tests, FBC, and imaging studies such as ultrasound or liver biopsy may be performed to evaluate liver damage.
Management of ALD involves providing advice on reducing alcohol intake, administering thiamine to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and addressing withdrawal symptoms with benzodiazepines. Complications of ALD, such as intoxication, encephalopathy, variceal bleeding, ascites, hypoglycemia, and coagulopathy, require specialized interventions.
Heavy alcohol use can also lead to thiamine deficiency and the development of Wernicke Korsakoff’s syndrome, characterized by confusion, ataxia, hypothermia, hypotension, nystagmus, and vomiting. Prompt treatment is necessary to prevent progression to Korsakoff’s psychosis.
In summary, alcoholic liver disease is a spectrum of disease that can range from benign fatty liver to irreversible cirrhosis. Risk factors for progression include female sex, genetics, advanced age, drug-induced liver enzyme induction, and co-existing liver conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) presents with a condition associated with IBD.
Which of the following conditions is NOT linked to Crohn's disease?Your Answer: Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
Correct Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Explanation:Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is a condition that affects the bile ducts, causing inflammation and blockage over time. This leads to recurrent episodes of cholangitis and progressive scarring of the bile ducts. Ultimately, PSC can result in liver cirrhosis, liver failure, and even hepatocellular carcinoma. It is commonly associated with ulcerative colitis, with more than 80% of PSC patients also having ulcerative colitis. However, there is no association between PSC and Crohn’s disease.
On the other hand, Crohn’s disease has its own set of recognized associations. For instance, there is an increased incidence of Crohn’s disease among smokers, with approximately 50-60% of Crohn’s patients being smokers. Other associations include the presence of aphthous ulcers, uveitis and episcleritis (eye inflammation), seronegative spondyloarthropathies (inflammatory joint diseases), erythema nodosum (painful skin nodules), pyoderma gangrenosum (skin ulceration), finger clubbing, autoimmune hemolytic anemia, cholelithiasis (gallstones), and osteoporosis.
It is important to note the distinct associations and characteristics of these two conditions, as they have different implications for diagnosis, treatment, and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 52 year old male presents to the emergency department complaining of worsening chest pain associated with shortness of breath and dizziness over the past 24 hours. You note the patient has a long history of smoking and has been diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). On examination you note decreased breath sounds on the left side and dullness to percussion. The patient's observations are shown below:
Blood pressure 120/80 mmHg
Pulse 92 bpm
Respiration rate 20 bpm
Temperature 37.2ºC
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Intravenous ceftriaxone
Explanation:Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) is a condition where bacteria infect the fluid in the abdomen, known as ascites. It is commonly seen in patients with ascites. Symptoms of SBP include fever, chills, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and mental confusion. To diagnose SBP, a procedure called paracentesis is done to analyze the fluid in the abdomen. If the neutrophil count in the fluid is higher than 250 cells/mm³, it confirms the diagnosis of SBP, regardless of whether bacteria are found in the culture. The initial treatment for acute community-acquired SBP is usually a 3rd generation cephalosporin antibiotic like cefotaxime or ceftriaxone. However, hospital-acquired SBP may require different antibiotics based on local resistance patterns. Patients who have had SBP in the past are at a high risk of recurrence and may need long-term antibiotic prophylaxis.
Further Reading:
Cirrhosis is a condition where the liver undergoes structural changes, resulting in dysfunction of its normal functions. It can be classified as either compensated or decompensated. Compensated cirrhosis refers to a stage where the liver can still function effectively with minimal symptoms, while decompensated cirrhosis is when the liver damage is severe and clinical complications are present.
Cirrhosis develops over a period of several years due to repeated insults to the liver. Risk factors for cirrhosis include alcohol misuse, hepatitis B and C infection, obesity, type 2 diabetes, autoimmune liver disease, genetic conditions, certain medications, and other rare conditions.
The prognosis of cirrhosis can be assessed using the Child-Pugh score, which predicts mortality based on parameters such as bilirubin levels, albumin levels, INR, ascites, and encephalopathy. The score ranges from A to C, with higher scores indicating a poorer prognosis.
Complications of cirrhosis include portal hypertension, ascites, hepatic encephalopathy, variceal hemorrhage, increased infection risk, hepatocellular carcinoma, and cardiovascular complications.
Diagnosis of cirrhosis is typically done through liver function tests, blood tests, viral hepatitis screening, and imaging techniques such as transient elastography or acoustic radiation force impulse imaging. Liver biopsy may also be performed in some cases.
Management of cirrhosis involves treating the underlying cause, controlling risk factors, and monitoring for complications. Complications such as ascites, spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, oesophageal varices, and hepatic encephalopathy require specific management strategies.
Overall, cirrhosis is a progressive condition that requires ongoing monitoring and management to prevent further complications and improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 47 year old female presents to the emergency department complaining of worsening abdominal pain and distension over the past 2 weeks. The patient has a history of alcohol dependence with multiple alcohol related visits to the hospital over the past 8 years. On examination, you observe a significantly swollen abdomen consistent with tense ascites which you suspect is due to liver cirrhosis. Which scoring system is utilized to evaluate the severity of liver cirrhosis and predict mortality?
Your Answer: Child Pugh score
Explanation:The scoring system utilized to evaluate the severity of liver cirrhosis and predict mortality is the Child Pugh score. This scoring system takes into account several factors including the patient’s bilirubin levels, albumin levels, prothrombin time, presence of ascites, and hepatic encephalopathy. Each factor is assigned a score and the total score is used to classify the severity of liver cirrhosis into three categories: A, B, or C. The higher the score, the more severe the liver cirrhosis and the higher the risk of mortality.
Further Reading:
Cirrhosis is a condition where the liver undergoes structural changes, resulting in dysfunction of its normal functions. It can be classified as either compensated or decompensated. Compensated cirrhosis refers to a stage where the liver can still function effectively with minimal symptoms, while decompensated cirrhosis is when the liver damage is severe and clinical complications are present.
Cirrhosis develops over a period of several years due to repeated insults to the liver. Risk factors for cirrhosis include alcohol misuse, hepatitis B and C infection, obesity, type 2 diabetes, autoimmune liver disease, genetic conditions, certain medications, and other rare conditions.
The prognosis of cirrhosis can be assessed using the Child-Pugh score, which predicts mortality based on parameters such as bilirubin levels, albumin levels, INR, ascites, and encephalopathy. The score ranges from A to C, with higher scores indicating a poorer prognosis.
Complications of cirrhosis include portal hypertension, ascites, hepatic encephalopathy, variceal hemorrhage, increased infection risk, hepatocellular carcinoma, and cardiovascular complications.
Diagnosis of cirrhosis is typically done through liver function tests, blood tests, viral hepatitis screening, and imaging techniques such as transient elastography or acoustic radiation force impulse imaging. Liver biopsy may also be performed in some cases.
Management of cirrhosis involves treating the underlying cause, controlling risk factors, and monitoring for complications. Complications such as ascites, spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, oesophageal varices, and hepatic encephalopathy require specific management strategies.
Overall, cirrhosis is a progressive condition that requires ongoing monitoring and management to prevent further complications and improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 6
Correct
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A patient presents with fatigue, loss of appetite, yellowing of the skin, and pain in the upper right side of the abdomen. The doctor suspects a diagnosis of acute hepatitis B.
Which of the following blood test results is most indicative of an acute hepatitis B infection?Your Answer: HBsAg positive, IgM anti-HBc positive
Explanation:Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) is a protein found on the surface of the hepatitis B virus. It can be detected in high levels in the blood during both acute and chronic hepatitis B virus infections. The presence of HBsAg indicates that the person is capable of spreading the infection to others. Normally, the body produces antibodies to HBsAg as part of the immune response to the infection. HBsAg is also used to create the hepatitis B vaccine.
Hepatitis B surface antibody (anti-HBs) indicates that a person has recovered from the hepatitis B virus infection and is now immune to it. This antibody can also develop in individuals who have been successfully vaccinated against hepatitis B.
Total hepatitis B core antibody (anti-HBc) appears when symptoms of acute hepatitis B begin and remains present for life. The presence of anti-HBc indicates that a person has either had a previous or ongoing infection with the hepatitis B virus, although the exact time frame cannot be determined. This antibody is not present in individuals who have received the hepatitis B vaccine.
IgM antibody to hepatitis B core antigen (IgM anti-HBc) indicates a recent infection or acute hepatitis B. If this antibody is present, it suggests that the infection occurred within the past six months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 35 year old accountant presents to the emergency department with a 3 day history of diarrhea, stomach cramps, and occasional vomiting. After evaluating the patient, you inform them that they are likely experiencing viral gastroenteritis and provide instructions for self-care at home. The patient inquires about when it would be appropriate for them to return to work.
Your Answer: Do NOT attend work or other institutional/social settings until at least 48 hours after the last episode of diarrhoea or vomiting.
Explanation:Individuals who have gastroenteritis should be instructed to refrain from going to work or participating in social activities until at least 48 hours have passed since their last episode of diarrhea or vomiting.
Further Reading:
Gastroenteritis is a transient disorder characterized by the sudden onset of diarrhea, with or without vomiting. It is caused by enteric infections with viruses, bacteria, or parasites. The most common viral causes of gastroenteritis in adults include norovirus, rotavirus, and adenovirus. Bacterial pathogens such as Campylobacter jejuni and coli, Escherichia coli, Clostridium perfringens, Bacillus cereus, Staphylococcus aureus, Salmonella typhi and paratyphi, and Shigella dysenteriae, flexneri, boydii, and sonnei can also cause gastroenteritis. Parasites such as Cryptosporidium, Entamoeba histolytica, and Giardia intestinalis or Giardia lamblia can also lead to diarrhea.
Diagnosis of gastroenteritis is usually based on clinical symptoms, and investigations are not required in many cases. However, stool culture may be indicated in certain situations, such as when the patient is systemically unwell or immunocompromised, has acute painful diarrhea or blood in the stool suggesting dysentery, has recently taken antibiotics or acid-suppressing medications, or has not resolved diarrhea by day 7 or has recurrent diarrhea.
Management of gastroenteritis in adults typically involves advice on oral rehydration. Intravenous rehydration and more intensive treatment may be necessary for patients who are systemically unwell, exhibit severe dehydration, or have intractable vomiting or high-output diarrhea. Antibiotics are not routinely required unless a specific organism is identified that requires treatment. Antidiarrheal drugs, antiemetics, and probiotics are not routinely recommended.
Complications of gastroenteritis can occur, particularly in young children, the elderly, pregnant women, and immunocompromised individuals. These complications include dehydration, electrolyte disturbance, acute kidney injury, haemorrhagic colitis, haemolytic uraemic syndrome, reactive arthritis, Reiter’s syndrome, aortitis, osteomyelitis, sepsis, toxic megacolon, pancreatitis, sclerosing cholangitis, liver cirrhosis, weight loss, chronic diarrhea, irritable bowel syndrome, inflammatory bowel disease, acquired lactose intolerance, Guillain-Barré syndrome, meningitis, invasive entamoeba infection, and liver abscesses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 65 year old male is brought into the emergency department by his concerned daughter. The patient has become increasingly confused and disoriented over the past week. Of note, the patient has a history of alcohol dependence and is currently being treated by the gastroenterologists for liver cirrhosis. The patient's daughter informs you that her father stopped drinking 10 months ago. The patient had complained of frequent urination and painful urination the day before his symptoms started.
You suspect the possibility of hepatic encephalopathy. Which of the following medications would be most appropriate to administer to this patient?Your Answer: Oral lactulose
Explanation:Lactulose and the oral antibiotic Rifaximin are commonly prescribed to patients with hepatic encephalopathy. The main goal of treatment for this condition is to identify and address any factors that may have triggered it. Lactulose is administered to relieve constipation, which can potentially lead to hepatic encephalopathy. On the other hand, Rifaximin is used to decrease the presence of enteric bacteria that produce ammonia.
Further Reading:
Cirrhosis is a condition where the liver undergoes structural changes, resulting in dysfunction of its normal functions. It can be classified as either compensated or decompensated. Compensated cirrhosis refers to a stage where the liver can still function effectively with minimal symptoms, while decompensated cirrhosis is when the liver damage is severe and clinical complications are present.
Cirrhosis develops over a period of several years due to repeated insults to the liver. Risk factors for cirrhosis include alcohol misuse, hepatitis B and C infection, obesity, type 2 diabetes, autoimmune liver disease, genetic conditions, certain medications, and other rare conditions.
The prognosis of cirrhosis can be assessed using the Child-Pugh score, which predicts mortality based on parameters such as bilirubin levels, albumin levels, INR, ascites, and encephalopathy. The score ranges from A to C, with higher scores indicating a poorer prognosis.
Complications of cirrhosis include portal hypertension, ascites, hepatic encephalopathy, variceal hemorrhage, increased infection risk, hepatocellular carcinoma, and cardiovascular complications.
Diagnosis of cirrhosis is typically done through liver function tests, blood tests, viral hepatitis screening, and imaging techniques such as transient elastography or acoustic radiation force impulse imaging. Liver biopsy may also be performed in some cases.
Management of cirrhosis involves treating the underlying cause, controlling risk factors, and monitoring for complications. Complications such as ascites, spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, oesophageal varices, and hepatic encephalopathy require specific management strategies.
Overall, cirrhosis is a progressive condition that requires ongoing monitoring and management to prevent further complications and improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 52-year-old individual is brought into the emergency department after being discovered unresponsive on a park bench. The patient is a familiar face to the department, having had numerous previous visits related to alcohol abuse. Upon reviewing the patient's medical history, you observe a diagnosis of liver cirrhosis, which prompts a conversation with your consultant about the underlying mechanisms by which alcohol affects the liver. In terms of alcohol metabolism by the liver, what is the resulting product of acetaldehyde oxidation?
Your Answer: Acetate
Explanation:The process of alcohol oxidation involves two steps. Firstly, alcohol is converted into acetaldehyde, and then acetaldehyde is further converted into acetate. During the oxidation of acetaldehyde, reactive oxygen species are produced along with acetate. This oxidation process is facilitated by three enzyme systems: catalase, CYPE21, and alcohol dehydrogenase. NAD+ acts as a coenzyme for alcohol dehydrogenase during this entire process.
Further Reading:
Alcoholic liver disease (ALD) is a spectrum of disease that ranges from fatty liver at one end to alcoholic cirrhosis at the other. Fatty liver is generally benign and reversible with alcohol abstinence, while alcoholic cirrhosis is a more advanced and irreversible form of the disease. Alcoholic hepatitis, which involves inflammation of the liver, can lead to the development of fibrotic tissue and cirrhosis.
Several factors can increase the risk of progression of ALD, including female sex, genetics, advanced age, induction of liver enzymes by drugs, and co-existent viral hepatitis, especially hepatitis C.
The development of ALD is multifactorial and involves the metabolism of alcohol in the liver. Alcohol is metabolized to acetaldehyde and then acetate, which can result in the production of damaging reactive oxygen species. Genetic polymorphisms and co-existing hepatitis C infection can enhance the pathological effects of alcohol metabolism.
Patients with ALD may be asymptomatic or present with non-specific symptoms such as abdominal discomfort, vomiting, or anxiety. Those with alcoholic hepatitis may have fever, anorexia, and deranged liver function tests. Advanced liver disease can manifest with signs of portal hypertension and cirrhosis, such as ascites, varices, jaundice, and encephalopathy.
Screening tools such as the AUDIT questionnaire can be used to assess alcohol consumption and identify hazardous or harmful drinking patterns. Liver function tests, FBC, and imaging studies such as ultrasound or liver biopsy may be performed to evaluate liver damage.
Management of ALD involves providing advice on reducing alcohol intake, administering thiamine to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and addressing withdrawal symptoms with benzodiazepines. Complications of ALD, such as intoxication, encephalopathy, variceal bleeding, ascites, hypoglycemia, and coagulopathy, require specialized interventions.
Heavy alcohol use can also lead to thiamine deficiency and the development of Wernicke Korsakoff’s syndrome, characterized by confusion, ataxia, hypothermia, hypotension, nystagmus, and vomiting. Prompt treatment is necessary to prevent progression to Korsakoff’s psychosis.
In summary, alcoholic liver disease is a spectrum of disease that can range from benign fatty liver to irreversible cirrhosis. Risk factors for progression include female sex, genetics, advanced age, drug-induced liver enzyme induction, and co-existing liver conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 40-year-old woman who is currently experiencing a high level of stress comes in with abdominal pain. The pain intensifies at night but subsides when she gets up to have a glass of milk. The pain has gotten worse over the past few days, and she has had two instances of vomiting blood this morning.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Duodenal ulcer
Explanation:Peptic ulcer disease is a fairly common condition that can affect either the stomach or the duodenum. However, the duodenum is more commonly affected, and in these cases, it is caused by a break in the mucosal lining of the duodenum.
This condition is more prevalent in men and is most commonly seen in individuals between the ages of 20 and 60. In fact, over 95% of patients with duodenal ulcers are found to be infected with H. pylori. Additionally, chronic usage of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) is often associated with the development of duodenal ulcers.
When it comes to the location of duodenal ulcers, they are most likely to occur in the superior (first) part of the duodenum, which is positioned in front of the body of the L1 vertebra.
The typical clinical features of duodenal ulcers include experiencing epigastric pain that radiates to the back, with the pain often worsening at night. This pain typically occurs 2-3 hours after eating and is relieved by consuming food and drinking milk. It can also be triggered by skipping meals or experiencing stress.
Possible complications that can arise from duodenal ulcers include perforation, which can lead to peritonitis, as well as gastrointestinal hemorrhage. Gastrointestinal hemorrhage can manifest as haematemesis (vomiting blood), melaena (black, tarry stools), or occult bleeding. Strictures causing obstruction can also occur as a result of duodenal ulcers.
In cases where gastrointestinal hemorrhage occurs as a result of duodenal ulceration, it is usually due to erosion of the gastroduodenal artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man comes in with severe bloody diarrhea caused by a gastrointestinal infection.
Which organism is the SINGLE LEAST likely cause?Your Answer: Campylobacter jejuni
Correct Answer: Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli
Explanation:Enterotoxigenic E.coli is a strain that does not invade the body and does not lead to inflammation or bloody diarrhea. On the other hand, enterogenic strains result in excessive watery diarrhea and are typically not accompanied by abdominal cramping.
There are several infectious causes of bloody diarrhea, including Campylobacter spp., Shigella spp., Salmonella spp., Clostridium difficile, Enterohaemorrhagic Escherichia coli, Yersinia spp., Schistosomiasis, and Amoebiasis (Entamoeba histolytica).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 62 year old female is brought to the emergency department by her husband who is concerned that the patient has been experiencing abdominal pain and also appears slightly confused. He informs you that the patient is a heavy drinker and you observe that the patient was diagnosed with liver cirrhosis 8 months ago. The patient has difficulty focusing during the Abbreviated Mental Test Score (AMTS) but scores 7/10. Upon examination, you notice mild ascites. You suspect the patient has moderate (grade 2) hepatic encephalopathy secondary to liver cirrhosis. The patient's initial blood tests are as follows:
Bilirubin 45 µmol/l
ALP 210 u/l
ALT 300 u/l
γGT 160 u/l
Albumin 27 g/l
INR 1.9
What is this patient's Child Pugh score?Your Answer: 13
Explanation:This patient’s Child Pugh score is 9. The Child Pugh score is a scoring system used to assess the severity of liver disease and the prognosis of patients with cirrhosis. It takes into account five variables: bilirubin levels, albumin levels, INR (international normalized ratio), ascites, and hepatic encephalopathy. Each variable is assigned a score from 1 to 3, with 3 indicating the most severe impairment.
In this case, the patient’s bilirubin level is 45 µmol/l, which corresponds to a score of 2. The albumin level is 27 g/l, which also corresponds to a score of 3. The INR is 1.9, which corresponds to a score of 2. The presence of moderate ascites indicates a score of 3. Finally, the patient has moderate hepatic encephalopathy, which corresponds to a score of 3.
Adding up the scores for each variable, we get a total score of 13. This indicates that the patient has moderate to severe liver disease and a poorer prognosis.
Further Reading:
Cirrhosis is a condition where the liver undergoes structural changes, resulting in dysfunction of its normal functions. It can be classified as either compensated or decompensated. Compensated cirrhosis refers to a stage where the liver can still function effectively with minimal symptoms, while decompensated cirrhosis is when the liver damage is severe and clinical complications are present.Cirrhosis develops over a period of several years due to repeated insults to the liver. Risk factors for cirrhosis include alcohol misuse, hepatitis B and C infection, obesity, type 2 diabetes, autoimmune liver disease, genetic conditions, certain medications, and other rare conditions.
The prognosis of cirrhosis can be assessed using the Child-Pugh score, which predicts mortality based on parameters such as bilirubin levels, albumin levels, INR, ascites, and encephalopathy. The score ranges from A to C, with higher scores indicating a poorer prognosis.
Complications of cirrhosis include portal hypertension, ascites, hepatic encephalopathy, variceal hemorrhage, increased infection risk, hepatocellular carcinoma, and cardiovascular complications.
Diagnosis of cirrhosis is typically done through liver function tests, blood tests, viral hepatitis screening, and imaging techniques such as transient elastography or acoustic radiation force impulse imaging. Liver biopsy may also be performed in some cases.
Management of cirrhosis involves treating the underlying cause, controlling risk factors, and monitoring for complications. Complications such as ascites, spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, oesophageal varices, and hepatic encephalopathy require specific management strategies.
Overall, cirrhosis is a progressive condition that requires ongoing monitoring and management to prevent further complications and improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman comes in with a history of urgency, bloody diarrhea, and crampy abdominal pain for the past 8 weeks. She occasionally experiences pain before having a bowel movement, but it is relieved once the stool is passed. A sigmoidoscopy is conducted, and a rectal biopsy reveals the presence of inflammatory cell infiltrate and crypt abscesses.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Ulcerative colitis
Explanation:In a young patient who has been experiencing bloody diarrhea for more than 6 weeks, it is important to consider inflammatory bowel disease as a possible diagnosis. The challenge lies in distinguishing between ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease. In this case, a biopsy was performed and the results showed the presence of inflammatory cell infiltrate and crypt abscesses, which strongly suggests a diagnosis of ulcerative colitis.
Ulcerative colitis:
– Typically affects only the rectum and colon
– The terminal ileum may be affected if backwash ileitis occurs
– Does not have skip lesions (areas of normal mucosa between affected areas)
– Decreased incidence in smokers
– Common associations include liver conditions such as primary biliary cirrhosis, chronic active hepatitis, and primary sclerosing cholangitis
– Other systemic manifestations are less common compared to Crohn’s disease
– Pathological features include primarily affecting the mucosa and submucosa, presence of mucosal ulcers, inflammatory cell infiltrate, and crypt abscesses
– Clinical features include less prominent abdominal pain, bloody diarrhea in 90% of cases, passage of mucus, and possible fever
– Barium studies may show a granular appearance, button-shaped ulcers, and loss of normal haustral markings
– Complications include a 20-fold increase in the 20-year risk of colonic carcinoma, iron deficiency anemia, and rare occurrence of fistulaeCrohn’s disease:
– Can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract from the mouth to the anus
– May have skip lesions of normal mucosa between affected areas
– Increased incidence in smokers
– Systemic manifestations are more common compared to ulcerative colitis, including erythema nodosum, pyoderma gangrenosum, iritis/uveitis, cholelithiasis, and joint pain/arthropathy
– Pathological features include transmural inflammation, presence of lymphoid aggregates and neutrophil infiltrates, and non-caseating granulomas seen in 30% of cases
– Clinical features include more prominent abdominal pain, common occurrence of diarrhea (which can also be bloody), frequent and oral lesions, and possible fever
– Barium studies may show severe mucosal ulcers -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman presents with symptoms of chronic heartburn, difficulty swallowing, and occasional food blockage. She was recently given a short course of omeprazole but has not experienced any improvement in her symptoms. Her medical history includes asthma and seasonal allergies, for which she uses a salbutamol inhaler and steroid creams. She has not noticed any weight loss, has not experienced any episodes of vomiting blood, and overall feels healthy.
What is the most probable diagnosis in this scenario?Your Answer: Barrett’s oesophagus
Correct Answer: Eosinophilic oesophagitis
Explanation:Eosinophilic oesophagitis (EoE), also known as allergic inflammatory condition of the oesophagus, is characterized by the presence of eosinophils. It was identified as a clinical condition about two decades ago but has gained recognition more recently. EoE is most commonly observed in middle-aged individuals, with an average age of diagnosis ranging from 30 to 50 years. It is more prevalent in men, with a male-to-female ratio of 3:1. Allergic conditions, particularly atopy, are often associated with EoE.
The clinical manifestations of EoE vary depending on the age of the patient. In adults, common symptoms include dysphagia, food bolus obstruction, heartburn, and chest pain. On the other hand, children with EoE may present with failure to thrive, food refusal, difficulty feeding, vomiting, and abdominal pain.
To diagnose EoE, it is crucial to consider the possibility of this condition in patients who have persistent heartburn and/or difficulty swallowing, especially if they have a history of allergies or atopic disease. Diagnosis is confirmed by identifying more than 15 eosinophils per high-power field on an oesophageal biopsy. Allergy testing is not effective as EoE is not mediated by IgE.
There are three main management options for EoE, all of which are considered first-line treatments. The first option is proton pump inhibitors (PPIs), which are effective in approximately one-third of patients. If an endoscopic biopsy confirms the presence of eosinophils, an 8-week trial of PPIs can be initiated. After the trial, a repeat endoscopy and biopsy should be performed to assess for persistent eosinophils. Patients who respond to PPIs are diagnosed with PPI responsive oesophageal eosinophilia, while those who do not respond are diagnosed with true eosinophilic oesophagitis.
The second management option is dietary manipulation, which can be effective in both children and adults. It can be used as an initial treatment or in combination with pharmacological therapy. The six most commonly implicated food groups in EoE are cow’s milk, wheat, egg, soy, peanut/tree nut, and fish/shellfish. There are four main approaches to dietary manipulation: elemental diet, six food elimination diet (SFED), four food elimination diet (FFED),
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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You are requested to evaluate a 32-year-old male patient who has undergone an initial evaluation by one of the medical students. The medical student suspects that the patient may have irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which of the subsequent clinical characteristics is atypical for IBS and would raise concerns about a potentially more severe underlying condition in this patient?
Your Answer: Bloating
Correct Answer: Rectal bleeding
Explanation:If someone with IBS experiences unintentional weight loss or rectal bleeding, it is important to investigate further as these symptoms are not typical of IBS and may indicate a more serious underlying condition. Other alarm symptoms to watch out for include positive faecal immunochemical test (FIT), change in bowel habit after the age of 60, elevated faecal calprotectin levels, iron deficiency anaemia, persistent or frequent bloating in females (especially if over 50), the presence of an abdominal or rectal mass, or a family history of bowel cancer, ovarian cancer, coeliac disease, or inflammatory bowel disease.
Further Reading:
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a chronic disorder that affects the interaction between the gut and the brain. The exact cause of IBS is not fully understood, but factors such as genetics, drug use, enteric infections, diet, and psychosocial factors are believed to play a role. The main symptoms of IBS include abdominal pain, changes in stool form and/or frequency, and bloating. IBS can be classified into subtypes based on the predominant stool type, including diarrhea-predominant, constipation-predominant, mixed, and unclassified.
Diagnosing IBS involves using the Rome IV criteria, which includes recurrent abdominal pain associated with changes in stool frequency and form. It is important to rule out other more serious conditions that may mimic IBS through a thorough history, physical examination, and appropriate investigations. Treatment for IBS primarily involves diet and lifestyle modifications. Patients are advised to eat regular meals with a healthy, balanced diet and adjust their fiber intake based on symptoms. A low FODMAP diet may be trialed, and a dietician may be consulted for guidance. Regular physical activity and weight management are also recommended.
Psychosocial factors, such as stress, anxiety, and depression, should be addressed and managed appropriately. If constipation is a predominant symptom, soluble fiber supplements or foods high in soluble fiber may be recommended. Laxatives can be considered if constipation persists, and linaclotide may be tried if optimal doses of previous laxatives have not been effective. Antimotility drugs like loperamide can be used for diarrhea, and antispasmodic drugs or low-dose tricyclic antidepressants may be prescribed for abdominal pain. If symptoms persist or are refractory to treatment, alternative diagnoses should be considered, and referral to a specialist may be necessary.
Overall, the management of IBS should be individualized based on the patient’s symptoms and psychosocial situation. Clear explanation of the condition and providing resources for patient education, such as the NHS patient information leaflet and support from organizations like The IBS Network, can also be beneficial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 25-year-old male medical student presents with intense vomiting that began a couple of hours after consuming a microwaved Chinese takeout.
What is the MOST LIKELY single causative organism?Your Answer: Bacillus cereus
Explanation:Bacillus cereus is a type of bacterium that is Gram-positive, rod-shaped, and beta-haemolytic. It is responsible for causing a condition known as ‘fried rice syndrome’.
The bacterium forms hardy spores that can withstand boiling temperatures and remain viable even when rice is left at room temperature for extended periods before being fried. When these spores germinate, they can lead to the development of the syndrome.
There are two types of strains associated with Bacillus cereus. The first type produces an emetic enterotoxin, which results in symptoms such as nausea and vomiting. These symptoms typically occur within 1 to 6 hours after consuming contaminated food and can be quite severe, lasting for about 6 to 24 hours.
The second type of strain produces a diarrheagenic enterotoxin. This strain is commonly associated with the ingestion of meat, vegetables, and dairy products. Symptoms of this type of infection include abdominal pain and vomiting, which usually begin 8 to 12 hours after ingestion and resolve within 12 to 24 hours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 17
Correct
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A new Emergency Department nurse is required to verify her immunity to hepatitis B before starting her position. She has received a hepatitis B vaccination series in the past but cannot remember the specific dates.
What ONE blood test result would indicate that she has developed immunity as a result of her hepatitis B vaccination?Your Answer: HBsAg negative, anti-HBs positive
Explanation:Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) is a protein found on the surface of the hepatitis B virus. It can be detected in high levels in the blood during both acute and chronic hepatitis B virus infections. The presence of HBsAg indicates that the person is capable of spreading the infection to others. Normally, the body produces antibodies to HBsAg as part of the immune response to the infection. HBsAg is also used to create the hepatitis B vaccine.
Hepatitis B surface antibody (anti-HBs) indicates that a person has recovered from the hepatitis B virus infection and is now immune to it. This antibody can also develop in individuals who have been successfully vaccinated against hepatitis B.
Total hepatitis B core antibody (anti-HBc) appears when symptoms of acute hepatitis B begin and remains present for life. The presence of anti-HBc indicates that a person has either had a previous or ongoing infection with the hepatitis B virus, although the exact time frame cannot be determined. This antibody is not present in individuals who have received the hepatitis B vaccine.
IgM antibody to hepatitis B core antigen (IgM anti-HBc) indicates a recent infection or acute hepatitis B. If this antibody is present, it suggests that the infection occurred within the past six months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 35-year-old individual presents to the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain that started approximately 30 minutes after consuming a spicy meal. The patient reports not taking any regular or over-the-counter medications and denies any recreational drug use. They mention experiencing abdominal pain after eating for a few weeks and recently visited their general practitioner (GP) who requested a stool sample for testing. The patient states that the pain has worsened since then and they are also experiencing nausea. Upon reviewing the pathology results, it is noted that the stool sample tested positive for helicobacter pylori. The suspicion is that the patient has an h.pylori associated peptic ulcer. According to NICE guidelines, what is the recommended first-line treatment for this condition?
Your Answer: Amoxicillin plus clarithromycin plus omeprazole for 7 days
Explanation:The recommended first-line antibiotics for eradicating H. pylori are amoxicillin in combination with either clarithromycin or metronidazole. According to NICE guidelines, for H. pylori-associated ulcers not caused by NSAID use, a 7-day eradication therapy is advised. This therapy consists of taking amoxicillin 1 g twice daily, along with either clarithromycin 500 mg twice daily or metronidazole 400 mg twice daily. Additionally, a proton pump inhibitor should be taken twice daily, with several options available. Please refer to the yellow box at the end of the notes for appropriate PPI choices.
Further Reading:
Peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is a condition characterized by a break in the mucosal lining of the stomach or duodenum. It is caused by an imbalance between factors that promote mucosal damage, such as gastric acid, pepsin, Helicobacter pylori infection, and NSAID drug use, and factors that maintain mucosal integrity, such as prostaglandins, mucus lining, bicarbonate, and mucosal blood flow.
The most common causes of peptic ulcers are H. pylori infection and NSAID use. Other factors that can contribute to the development of ulcers include smoking, alcohol consumption, certain medications (such as steroids), stress, autoimmune conditions, and tumors.
Diagnosis of peptic ulcers involves screening for H. pylori infection through breath or stool antigen tests, as well as upper gastrointestinal endoscopy. Complications of PUD include bleeding, perforation, and obstruction. Acute massive hemorrhage has a case fatality rate of 5-10%, while perforation can lead to peritonitis with a mortality rate of up to 20%.
The symptoms of peptic ulcers vary depending on their location. Duodenal ulcers typically cause pain that is relieved by eating, occurs 2-3 hours after eating and at night, and may be accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Gastric ulcers, on the other hand, cause pain that occurs 30 minutes after eating and may be associated with nausea and vomiting.
Management of peptic ulcers depends on the underlying cause and presentation. Patients with active gastrointestinal bleeding require risk stratification, volume resuscitation, endoscopy, and proton pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy. Those with perforated ulcers require resuscitation, antibiotic treatment, analgesia, PPI therapy, and urgent surgical review.
For stable patients with peptic ulcers, lifestyle modifications such as weight loss, avoiding trigger foods, eating smaller meals, quitting smoking, reducing alcohol consumption, and managing stress and anxiety are recommended. Medication review should be done to stop causative drugs if possible. PPI therapy, with or without H. pylori eradication therapy, is also prescribed. H. pylori testing is typically done using a carbon-13 urea breath test or stool antigen test, and eradication therapy involves a 7-day triple therapy regimen of antibiotics and PPI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 68 year old male is brought into the emergency department after a significant episode of haematemesis. The patient is transferred to the resuscitation bay upon arrival, and large bore intravenous access is established while blood samples are sent for analysis and cross matching. You observe that the patient has a medical history of liver cirrhosis and suspect a bleed from oesophageal varices.
Which of the following medications should be prioritized for administration, as it has been proven to enhance survival in patients with gastro-oesophageal variceal bleeding?Your Answer: Terlipressin
Explanation:Terlipressin, a vasopressin analogue, has been found to significantly enhance survival rates in cases of acute upper gastrointestinal variceal haemorrhage when compared to a placebo. Alternatively, somatostatin and its analogue octreotide have also demonstrated similar benefits and can be used as alternatives. It is not recommended to administer proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) before endoscopy in cases of acute upper GI bleeds, but they are advised after endoscopy for non-variceal upper GI bleeds. There is no consensus on whether PPIs improve outcomes in variceal bleeding. Recombinant factor Vlla should only be considered if other blood products have failed to correct coagulopathy. Studies indicate that tranexamic acid does not reduce mortality from upper GI bleeding and may actually increase the risk of thromboembolic events.
Further Reading:
Upper gastrointestinal bleeding (UGIB) refers to the loss of blood from the gastrointestinal tract, occurring in the upper part of the digestive system. It can present as haematemesis (vomiting blood), coffee-ground emesis, bright red blood in the nasogastric tube, or melaena (black, tarry stools). UGIB can lead to significant hemodynamic compromise and is a major health burden, accounting for approximately 70,000 hospital admissions each year in the UK with a mortality rate of 10%.
The causes of UGIB vary, with peptic ulcer disease being the most common cause, followed by gastritis/erosions, esophagitis, and other less common causes such as varices, Mallory Weiss tears, and malignancy. Swift assessment, hemodynamic resuscitation, and appropriate interventions are essential for the management of UGIB.
Assessment of patients with UGIB should follow an ABCDE approach, and scoring systems such as the Glasgow-Blatchford bleeding score (GBS) and the Rockall score are recommended to risk stratify patients and determine the urgency of endoscopy. Transfusion may be necessary for patients with massive hemorrhage, and platelet transfusion, fresh frozen plasma (FFP), and prothrombin complex concentrate may be offered based on specific criteria.
Endoscopy plays a crucial role in the management of UGIB. Unstable patients with severe acute UGIB should undergo endoscopy immediately after resuscitation, while all other patients should undergo endoscopy within 24 hours of admission. Endoscopic treatment of non-variceal bleeding may involve mechanical methods of hemostasis, thermal coagulation, or the use of fibrin or thrombin with adrenaline. Proton pump inhibitors should only be used after endoscopy.
Variceal bleeding requires specific management, including the use of terlipressin and prophylactic antibiotics. Oesophageal varices can be treated with band ligation or transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunts (TIPS), while gastric varices may be treated with endoscopic injection of N-butyl-2-cyanoacrylate or TIPS if bleeding is not controlled.
For patients taking NSAIDs, aspirin, or clopidogrel, low-dose aspirin can be continued once hemostasis is achieved, NSAIDs should be stopped in patients presenting with UGIB
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman with a long history of heavy alcohol abuse and liver cirrhosis comes in with a fever, abdominal pain, worsening ascites, and confusion. You suspect she may have spontaneous bacterial peritonitis and decide to perform an ascitic tap.
Which of the following is NOT a reason to avoid performing an ascitic tap?Your Answer: Severe bowel distension
Correct Answer: Platelet count of 40 x 103/µl
Explanation:Diagnosing spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) requires an abdominal paracentesis of ascitic tap. Other reasons for performing a diagnostic tap include determining the cause of ascites, distinguishing between transudate and exudate, and detecting cancerous cells. Additionally, a therapeutic paracentesis can be done to alleviate respiratory distress or abdominal pain caused by the ascites.
However, there are certain contraindications to consider. These include having an uncooperative patient, a skin infection at the proposed puncture site, being pregnant, or experiencing severe bowel distension. Relative contraindications involve having severe thrombocytopenia (platelet count less than 20 x 103/μL) or coagulopathy (INR greater than 2.0).
For patients with an INR greater than 2.0, it is recommended to administer fresh frozen plasma (FFP) before the procedure. One approach is to infuse one unit of fresh frozen plasma prior to the procedure and then proceed with the paracentesis while the second unit is being infused.
In the case of patients with a platelet count lower than 20 x 103/μL, it is advisable to provide a platelet infusion before the procedure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 67 year old male is brought into the emergency department by concerned neighbors. They inform you that the patient is frequently intoxicated, but this morning they discovered him wandering in the street and he appeared extremely disoriented and unstable, which is out of character for him. Upon reviewing the patient's medical records, you observe that he has been experiencing abnormal liver function tests for several years and a history of alcohol abuse has been documented. You suspect that the underlying cause of his condition is Wernicke's encephalopathy.
Your Answer: Vitamin B1 deficiency
Explanation:Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a sudden neurological condition that occurs due to a lack of thiamine (vitamin B1). It is characterized by symptoms such as confusion, difficulty with coordination, low body temperature, low blood pressure, involuntary eye movements, and vomiting.
Further Reading:
Alcoholic liver disease (ALD) is a spectrum of disease that ranges from fatty liver at one end to alcoholic cirrhosis at the other. Fatty liver is generally benign and reversible with alcohol abstinence, while alcoholic cirrhosis is a more advanced and irreversible form of the disease. Alcoholic hepatitis, which involves inflammation of the liver, can lead to the development of fibrotic tissue and cirrhosis.
Several factors can increase the risk of progression of ALD, including female sex, genetics, advanced age, induction of liver enzymes by drugs, and co-existent viral hepatitis, especially hepatitis C.
The development of ALD is multifactorial and involves the metabolism of alcohol in the liver. Alcohol is metabolized to acetaldehyde and then acetate, which can result in the production of damaging reactive oxygen species. Genetic polymorphisms and co-existing hepatitis C infection can enhance the pathological effects of alcohol metabolism.
Patients with ALD may be asymptomatic or present with non-specific symptoms such as abdominal discomfort, vomiting, or anxiety. Those with alcoholic hepatitis may have fever, anorexia, and deranged liver function tests. Advanced liver disease can manifest with signs of portal hypertension and cirrhosis, such as ascites, varices, jaundice, and encephalopathy.
Screening tools such as the AUDIT questionnaire can be used to assess alcohol consumption and identify hazardous or harmful drinking patterns. Liver function tests, FBC, and imaging studies such as ultrasound or liver biopsy may be performed to evaluate liver damage.
Management of ALD involves providing advice on reducing alcohol intake, administering thiamine to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and addressing withdrawal symptoms with benzodiazepines. Complications of ALD, such as intoxication, encephalopathy, variceal bleeding, ascites, hypoglycemia, and coagulopathy, require specialized interventions.
Heavy alcohol use can also lead to thiamine deficiency and the development of Wernicke Korsakoff’s syndrome, characterized by confusion, ataxia, hypothermia, hypotension, nystagmus, and vomiting. Prompt treatment is necessary to prevent progression to Korsakoff’s psychosis.
In summary, alcoholic liver disease is a spectrum of disease that can range from benign fatty liver to irreversible cirrhosis. Risk factors for progression include female sex, genetics, advanced age, drug-induced liver enzyme induction, and co-existing liver conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old construction worker presents with hematemesis. He consumed excessive alcohol with his colleagues the previous night and began vomiting towards the end of the evening. After forcefully retching and vomiting multiple times, he observed traces of blood in his vomit. He vomited once again this morning and is extremely worried as there was still blood present.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Oesophageal varices
Correct Answer: Mallory-Weiss syndrome
Explanation:Mallory-Weiss syndrome is a condition characterized by a tear in the lining of the esophagus, specifically near the junction where the esophagus meets the stomach. This tear is typically caused by forceful retching and vomiting and is often associated with behaviors such as binge drinking, eating disorders, and hyperemesis gravidarum. Fortunately, the bleeding usually stops within 24-48 hours and invasive procedures like endoscopy are rarely necessary.
It is important to note that Mallory-Weiss syndrome should not be confused with Boerhaave’s syndrome, which is the spontaneous rupture of a healthy esophagus, usually following intense vomiting. Patients with Boerhaave’s syndrome experience respiratory collapse, subcutaneous emphysema, and acute abdominal pain. While Boerhaave’s syndrome is rare, it is more commonly observed in individuals who abuse alcohol.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman with a long-standing history of heavy alcohol abuse and liver cirrhosis comes in with a fever, abdominal pain, worsening ascites, and confusion.
Which antibiotic should be administered in this case?Your Answer: Ceftriaxone
Explanation:Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) is a sudden bacterial infection of the fluid in the abdomen. It typically occurs in patients with high blood pressure in the portal vein, and about 70% of patients are classified as Child-Pugh class C. In any given year, around 30% of patients with ascites, a condition characterized by fluid buildup in the abdomen, will develop SBP.
SBP can present with a wide range of symptoms, so it’s important to be vigilant when caring for patients with ascites, especially if there is a sudden decline in their condition. Some patients may not show any symptoms at all.
Common clinical features of SBP include fever, chills, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, tenderness, worsening ascites, general malaise, and hepatic encephalopathy. Certain factors can increase the risk of developing SBP, such as severe liver disease, gastrointestinal bleeding, urinary tract infection, intestinal bacterial overgrowth, indwelling lines (e.g., central venous catheters or urinary catheters), previous episodes of SBP, and low levels of protein in the ascitic fluid.
To diagnose SBP, an abdominal paracentesis, also known as an ascitic tap, is performed. This involves locating the area of dullness on the flank, next to the rectus abdominis muscle, and performing the tap about 5 cm above and towards the midline from the anterior superior iliac spines.
Certain features on the analysis of the peritoneal fluid strongly suggest SBP, including a total white cell count in the ascitic fluid of more than 500 cells/µL, a total neutrophil count of more than 250 cells/µL, a lactate level in the ascitic fluid of more than 25 mg/dL, a pH of less than 7.35, and the presence of bacteria on Gram-stain.
Patients diagnosed with SBP should be admitted to the hospital and given broad-spectrum antibiotics. The preferred choice is an intravenous 3rd generation cephalosporin, such as ceftriaxone. If the patient is allergic to beta-lactam antibiotics, ciprofloxacin can be considered as an alternative. Administering intravenous albumin can help reduce the risk of kidney failure and mortality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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You evaluate a 7-year-old boy with a 4-month history of recurring episodes of abdominal pain. The pain has typically occurred 2-3 days per week during that time. There have been no changes in bowel movements or episodes of vomiting. He has missed some school days, but his parents note that the pain has also occurred on weekends. His physical examination is unremarkable, and a colleague recently ordered a series of blood tests, which were all normal. Upon reviewing his growth chart, you observe that his weight has remained consistent on the 50th percentile.
What is the MOST likely diagnosis in this case?Your Answer: Irritable bowel syndrome
Correct Answer: Functional abdominal pain
Explanation:Functional abdominal pain is a common issue among children in this age group. The pain can occur in episodes or be continuous. In order to diagnose functional abdominal pain, it is important to rule out any inflammatory, anatomical, metabolic, or neoplastic causes that could explain the symptoms. The criteria for diagnosis must be met at least once a week for a minimum of two months.
If the pain is present for at least 25% of the time and there is a loss of daily functioning, it is referred to as functional abdominal pain syndrome. In this syndrome, additional somatic symptoms such as headache, limb pain, or sleep disturbance are often present.
For a diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome, the pain must also improve with defecation or be associated with changes in the frequency and form of stools.
School refusal is typically not associated with pain outside of school time. Since this child is experiencing pain on weekends, it makes the diagnosis of school refusal less likely.
Abdominal migraine is characterized by intense, acute periumbilical pain that occurs in paroxysmal episodes lasting over an hour. Patients generally have periods of wellness lasting weeks to months between attacks. The pain is often accompanied by anorexia, nausea, vomiting, headache, photophobia, and pallor.
Based on the child’s well-being, normal examination, and blood tests, a diagnosis of coeliac disease seems unlikely in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 45 year old male presents to the emergency department with intermittent abdominal pain over the past few weeks that has worsened in the last week. The patient reports that the pain is most severe at night and is relieved by eating, although the relief is only temporary. The patient provides a list of their current medications:
Medication & dose
Fluoxetine 40 mg once daily (long term)
Oxybutynin 5 mg twice daily (long term)
Ibuprofen 400 mg three times daily as needed (long term)
Prednisolone 30mg for 7 days
Amoxicillin 500 mg three times daily for 7 days
You suspect the patient may have a duodenal ulcer. Which medication is most commonly associated with the development of peptic ulcer disease?Your Answer: Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
Explanation:Peptic ulcer disease is most commonly caused by NSAIDs, making them the leading drug cause. However, h.pylori infection is the primary cause of peptic ulcers, with NSAIDs being the second most common cause.
Further Reading:
Peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is a condition characterized by a break in the mucosal lining of the stomach or duodenum. It is caused by an imbalance between factors that promote mucosal damage, such as gastric acid, pepsin, Helicobacter pylori infection, and NSAID drug use, and factors that maintain mucosal integrity, such as prostaglandins, mucus lining, bicarbonate, and mucosal blood flow.
The most common causes of peptic ulcers are H. pylori infection and NSAID use. Other factors that can contribute to the development of ulcers include smoking, alcohol consumption, certain medications (such as steroids), stress, autoimmune conditions, and tumors.
Diagnosis of peptic ulcers involves screening for H. pylori infection through breath or stool antigen tests, as well as upper gastrointestinal endoscopy. Complications of PUD include bleeding, perforation, and obstruction. Acute massive hemorrhage has a case fatality rate of 5-10%, while perforation can lead to peritonitis with a mortality rate of up to 20%.
The symptoms of peptic ulcers vary depending on their location. Duodenal ulcers typically cause pain that is relieved by eating, occurs 2-3 hours after eating and at night, and may be accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Gastric ulcers, on the other hand, cause pain that occurs 30 minutes after eating and may be associated with nausea and vomiting.
Management of peptic ulcers depends on the underlying cause and presentation. Patients with active gastrointestinal bleeding require risk stratification, volume resuscitation, endoscopy, and proton pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy. Those with perforated ulcers require resuscitation, antibiotic treatment, analgesia, PPI therapy, and urgent surgical review.
For stable patients with peptic ulcers, lifestyle modifications such as weight loss, avoiding trigger foods, eating smaller meals, quitting smoking, reducing alcohol consumption, and managing stress and anxiety are recommended. Medication review should be done to stop causative drugs if possible. PPI therapy, with or without H. pylori eradication therapy, is also prescribed. H. pylori testing is typically done using a carbon-13 urea breath test or stool antigen test, and eradication therapy involves a 7-day triple therapy regimen of antibiotics and PPI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 45 year old female visits the emergency department complaining of abdominal cramps and bloating that are alleviated by defecation. Blood tests and an abdominal X-ray are conducted, all of which come back normal. It is observed that the patient has visited the hospital twice in the past 4 months with similar symptoms and has also consulted her primary care physician regarding these recurring issues. The suspicion is that the patient may be suffering from irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). What diagnostic criteria would be most suitable for diagnosing IBS?
Your Answer: ROME IV
Explanation:The ROME IV criteria are utilized in secondary care to diagnose IBS, as recommended by NICE. The DSM-5 criteria are employed in diagnosing various mental health disorders. Coeliac disease diagnosis involves the use of modified marsh typing. Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease diagnosis relies on the Lyon Consensus.
Further Reading:
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a chronic disorder that affects the interaction between the gut and the brain. The exact cause of IBS is not fully understood, but factors such as genetics, drug use, enteric infections, diet, and psychosocial factors are believed to play a role. The main symptoms of IBS include abdominal pain, changes in stool form and/or frequency, and bloating. IBS can be classified into subtypes based on the predominant stool type, including diarrhea-predominant, constipation-predominant, mixed, and unclassified.
Diagnosing IBS involves using the Rome IV criteria, which includes recurrent abdominal pain associated with changes in stool frequency and form. It is important to rule out other more serious conditions that may mimic IBS through a thorough history, physical examination, and appropriate investigations. Treatment for IBS primarily involves diet and lifestyle modifications. Patients are advised to eat regular meals with a healthy, balanced diet and adjust their fiber intake based on symptoms. A low FODMAP diet may be trialed, and a dietician may be consulted for guidance. Regular physical activity and weight management are also recommended.
Psychosocial factors, such as stress, anxiety, and depression, should be addressed and managed appropriately. If constipation is a predominant symptom, soluble fiber supplements or foods high in soluble fiber may be recommended. Laxatives can be considered if constipation persists, and linaclotide may be tried if optimal doses of previous laxatives have not been effective. Antimotility drugs like loperamide can be used for diarrhea, and antispasmodic drugs or low-dose tricyclic antidepressants may be prescribed for abdominal pain. If symptoms persist or are refractory to treatment, alternative diagnoses should be considered, and referral to a specialist may be necessary.
Overall, the management of IBS should be individualized based on the patient’s symptoms and psychosocial situation. Clear explanation of the condition and providing resources for patient education, such as the NHS patient information leaflet and support from organizations like The IBS Network, can also be beneficial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man is brought to the resuscitation area of your Emergency Department by ambulance. He has become increasingly unwell over the past few days with vomiting and diarrhea. His wife tells you that he was started on a medication by his GP six months ago for pain and stiffness around his shoulders, upper arms, and hips. She describes this medication as being '6 small blue tablets.' He has been unable to take these tablets for the past few days. On examination, he is pale and sweaty and appears confused. His observations are as follows: temperature 36.9°C, HR 140 bpm, BP 83/42, RR 24, SaO2 98% on 2 L oxygen, GCS 14. He has intravenous access in situ, and his BM stick glucose is 2.1.
Which rheumatological condition is it most likely that his GP is treating?Your Answer: Osteoarthritis
Correct Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica
Explanation:This patient has presented with an Addisonian crisis, which is a rare but potentially catastrophic condition if not diagnosed promptly. The most likely underlying rheumatological diagnosis in this case is polymyalgia rheumatica, and it is likely that the GP started the patient on prednisolone medication.
Addison’s disease occurs when the adrenal glands underproduce steroid hormones, affecting the production of glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and sex steroids. The main causes of Addison’s disease include autoimmune adrenalitis (accounting for 80% of cases), bilateral adrenalectomy, Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome (hemorrhage into the adrenal glands), and tuberculosis.
An Addisonian crisis is most commonly triggered by the deliberate or accidental withdrawal of steroid therapy in patients with Addison’s disease. Other factors that can precipitate a crisis include infection, trauma, myocardial infarction, cerebral infarction, asthma, hypothermia, and alcohol abuse.
The clinical features of Addison’s disease include weakness, lethargy, hypotension (especially orthostatic hypotension), nausea, vomiting, weight loss, reduced axillary and pubic hair, depression, and hyperpigmentation (particularly in palmar creases, buccal mucosa, and exposed areas). In an Addisonian crisis, the main features are usually hypoglycemia and shock, characterized by tachycardia, peripheral vasoconstriction, hypotension, altered consciousness, and coma.
Biochemically, Addison’s disease is characterized by increased ACTH levels (as a compensatory response to stimulate the adrenal glands), elevated serum renin levels, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, hypercalcemia, hypoglycemia, and metabolic acidosis. Diagnostic investigations may include the Synacthen test, plasma ACTH level, plasma renin level, and adrenocortical antibodies.
Management of Addison’s disease should be overseen by an Endocrinologist. Typically, patients require hydrocortisone, fludrocortisone, and dehydroepiandrosterone. Some patients may also need thyroxine if there is hypothalamic-pituitary disease present. Treatment is lifelong, and patients should carry a steroid card and a MedicAlert bracelet, being aware of the possibility of an Addisonian crisis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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You evaluate a 60-year-old patient with hepatomegaly. He was recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus and is currently taking metformin 500 mg twice daily. He consumes approximately 25 units of alcohol per week and has a BMI of 30. His liver function tests are as follows:
- Bilirubin: 18 mmol (3-20)
- ALT: 320 IU/L (5-40)
- AST: 85 IU/L (5-40)
- ALP: 110 IU/L (20-40)
- GGT: 120 (5-40)
- ANA: positive
What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Autoimmune hepatitis
Correct Answer: Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis
Explanation:The diagnosis in this case is non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH), which is characterized by fatty infiltration of the liver and is commonly associated with obesity. It is the most frequent cause of persistently elevated ALT levels in patients without risk factors for chronic liver disease.
Risk factors for developing NASH include obesity, particularly truncal obesity, diabetes mellitus, and hypercholesterolemia.
The clinical features of NASH can vary, with many patients being completely asymptomatic. However, some may experience right upper quadrant pain, nausea and vomiting, and hepatomegaly (enlarged liver).
The typical biochemical profile seen in NASH includes elevated transaminases, with an AST:ALT ratio of less than 1. Often, there is an isolated elevation of ALT, and gamma-GT levels may be mildly elevated. In about one-third of patients, non-organ specific autoantibodies may be present. The presence of antinuclear antibodies (ANA) is associated with insulin resistance and indicates a higher risk of rapid progression to advanced liver disease.
If the AST level is significantly elevated or if the gamma-GT level is markedly elevated, further investigation for other potential causes should be considered. A markedly elevated gamma-GT level may suggest alcohol abuse, although it can also be elevated in NASH alone.
Diagnosis of NASH is confirmed through a liver biopsy, which will reveal increased fat deposition and a necro-inflammatory response within the hepatocytes.
Currently, there is no specific treatment for NASH. However, weight loss and medications that improve insulin resistance, such as metformin, may help slow down the progression of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 62 year old male is brought into the emergency department by concerned family members. They inform you that the patient is a heavy drinker but appeared very confused and disoriented, which is unusual for him. The patient scores 4/10 on the abbreviated mental test score (AMTS). Upon examination, you observe that the patient has yellowing of the eyes, shifting dullness on abdominal palpation, dilated abdominal veins, and asterixis. The patient's vital signs and initial blood tests are as follows:
Blood pressure: 122/80 mmHg
Pulse: 92 bpm
Respiration rate: 18 bpm
Temperature: 37.7ºC
Bilirubin: 68 µmol/l
ALP: 198 u/l
ALT: 274 u/l
Albumin: 26 g/l
INR: 1.7
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Hepatic encephalopathy
Explanation:Hepatic encephalopathy occurs when a person with liver disease experiences an episode where their brain function is affected. This happens because the liver is unable to properly process waste products, leading to an accumulation of nitrogenous waste in the body. These waste products then cross into the brain, where they cause changes in the brain’s osmotic pressure and disrupt neurotransmitter function. As a result, individuals may experience altered consciousness, behavior, and personality. Symptoms can range from confusion and forgetfulness to coma, and signs such as slurred speech and increased muscle tone may also be present. Hepatic encephalopathy is often triggered by factors like gastrointestinal bleeding, infections, or certain medications.
Further Reading:
Cirrhosis is a condition where the liver undergoes structural changes, resulting in dysfunction of its normal functions. It can be classified as either compensated or decompensated. Compensated cirrhosis refers to a stage where the liver can still function effectively with minimal symptoms, while decompensated cirrhosis is when the liver damage is severe and clinical complications are present.
Cirrhosis develops over a period of several years due to repeated insults to the liver. Risk factors for cirrhosis include alcohol misuse, hepatitis B and C infection, obesity, type 2 diabetes, autoimmune liver disease, genetic conditions, certain medications, and other rare conditions.
The prognosis of cirrhosis can be assessed using the Child-Pugh score, which predicts mortality based on parameters such as bilirubin levels, albumin levels, INR, ascites, and encephalopathy. The score ranges from A to C, with higher scores indicating a poorer prognosis.
Complications of cirrhosis include portal hypertension, ascites, hepatic encephalopathy, variceal hemorrhage, increased infection risk, hepatocellular carcinoma, and cardiovascular complications.
Diagnosis of cirrhosis is typically done through liver function tests, blood tests, viral hepatitis screening, and imaging techniques such as transient elastography or acoustic radiation force impulse imaging. Liver biopsy may also be performed in some cases.
Management of cirrhosis involves treating the underlying cause, controlling risk factors, and monitoring for complications. Complications such as ascites, spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, oesophageal varices, and hepatic encephalopathy require specific management strategies.
Overall, cirrhosis is a progressive condition that requires ongoing monitoring and management to prevent further complications and improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl is brought into the Emergency Department with stomach pain and throwing up. Her mom tells you that she has been losing weight lately and seems to be drinking a lot and peeing a lot. During the examination, she appears tired and you notice that she is dehydrated. She is breathing deeply and quickly. Her blood sugar levels are found to be very high when her blood is tested.
Which of the following tests will be most useful in confirming the diagnosis?Your Answer: Urea and electrolytes
Correct Answer: Urine dipstick
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this case is diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). To confirm the diagnosis, it is important to establish that his blood glucose levels are high, he has significant ketonuria or ketonaemia, and that he is experiencing acidosis. Therefore, out of the options provided, a urine dipstick test will be the most useful.
DKA is a life-threatening condition that occurs when there is a lack of insulin, leading to an inability to metabolize glucose. This results in hyperglycemia and an osmotic diuresis, causing excessive thirst and increased urine production. If the urine output exceeds the patient’s ability to drink, dehydration becomes inevitable. Additionally, without insulin, fat becomes the primary energy source, leading to the production of large amounts of ketones and metabolic acidosis.
DKA is characterized by three main factors:
1. Hyperglycemia (blood glucose > 11 mmol/l)
2. Ketonaemia (> 3 mmol/l) or significant ketonuria (> 2+ on urine dipstick)
3. Acidosis (bicarbonate < 15 mmol/l and/or venous pH < 7.3) The clinical features of DKA include nausea, vomiting, excessive thirst, excessive urine production, abdominal pain, signs of dehydration, a smell of ketones on the breath (similar to pear drops), deep and rapid respiration (Kussmaul breathing), confusion or reduced consciousness, and tachycardia, hypotension, and shock. The following investigations should be performed:
– Blood glucose measurement
– Urine dipstick test (will show marked glycosuria and ketonuria)
– Blood ketone assay (more sensitive and specific than urine dipstick)
– Blood tests including full blood count (FBC) and urea and electrolytes (U&Es)
– Arterial or venous blood gas analysis (to assess for metabolic acidosis)The principles of managing DKA are as follows:
– Fluid boluses should only be given to reverse signs of shock and should be administered slowly in 10 ml/kg aliquots. If there are no signs of shock, fluid boluses should not be given, and specialist advice should be sought if a second bolus is required.
– Rehydration should be done with replacement therapy over 48 hours after signs of shock have been reversed.
– The first 20 ml/kg of fluid resuscitation should be given in addition -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female presents to the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain accompanied by diarrhea. She states that she has experienced several similar episodes over the past year, with the diarrhea often being watery and bloody. The patient also reports feeling constantly fatigued recently. Upon examination, tenderness is noted upon deep palpation in both lower quadrants, but there is no guarding or rigidity. Bowel sounds are audible. The patient's vital signs and initial blood test results are as follows:
Blood pressure: 140/82 mmHg
Pulse: 93 bpm
Respiration rate: 16 bpm
Oxygen saturations: 98% on room air
Temperature: 37.3ºC
Hemoglobin: 111 g/l
Platelets: 324 * 109/l
White blood cells: 11.2 * 109/l
Mean corpuscular volume: 78 fL
Ferritin: 21 ng/mL
The patient has not traveled abroad in years due to COVID-19 and rarely consumes alcohol. Which of the following tests would be most helpful in confirming the suspected diagnosis?Your Answer: Fecal calprotectin
Correct Answer: Colonoscopy
Explanation:Colonoscopy with histology is a useful tool in determining the extent and severity of ulcerative colitis. Chronic bloody diarrhea, lasting for more than four weeks, can be caused by various conditions. In this age group, the top differentials include inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) and infective causes such as C.diff and giardia. Other potential causes include drug use (such as laxatives and alcohol), hyperthyroidism (usually accompanied by other signs), coeliac disease (although blood in the stool is not a common symptom), and malabsorption syndromes like pancreatic insufficiency.
When IBD is suspected, fecal calprotectin is often tested and typically found to be elevated. This test is usually performed before colonoscopy and biopsy in individuals under 40 years old. However, in those over 40, a colonoscopy is often the initial investigation to assess for possible underlying malignancy. It is important to note that calprotectin is not specific to IBD and can also be elevated in other conditions such as infectious enteritis and colorectal neoplasia, which limits its diagnostic value. NICE guidelines advise against using calprotectin in individuals with bloody diarrhea.
Initial investigations for chronic bloody diarrhea should include thyroid function testing, coeliac screening, and stool analysis for microscopy and culture. It is worth noting that different hospitals may vary in the specific tests included in stool microscopy and culture, but most labs will typically test for ova, cysts, and parasites. Stool antigen tests are commonly used to detect H.pylori. Vitamin B12 testing may also be appropriate, although deficiency in this vitamin usually leads to a macrocytic anemia and is therefore unlikely to contribute significantly to the diagnosis.
Further Reading:
Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a chronic condition characterized by inflammation of the intestinal tract and an imbalance of the intestinal microbiota. The two main forms of IBD are Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis (UC). In some cases, it is not possible to differentiate between Crohn’s disease and UC, and the term inflammatory bowel disease type-unclassified may be used.
Crohn’s disease is a chronic, relapsing-remitting inflammatory disease that can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract, from the mouth to the anus. It most commonly involves the ileum and colon. The inflammation in Crohn’s disease affects all layers of the intestinal wall, leading to complications such as strictures, fistulas, and adhesions. Risk factors for developing Crohn’s disease include a family history, smoking, infectious gastroenteritis, appendicectomy, and the use of NSAIDs and oral contraceptive drugs. Symptoms of Crohn’s disease can vary but often include diarrhea, abdominal pain, weight loss, and perianal disease. Extraintestinal features, such as arthritis, erythema nodosum, and uveitis, can also occur.
Ulcerative colitis is a chronic, relapsing-remitting inflammatory disease that primarily affects the large bowel. The inflammation in UC is limited to the intestinal mucosa and does not involve skip lesions like in Crohn’s disease. Risk factors for developing UC include a family history, not smoking, and no appendix. Symptoms of UC include bloody diarrhea, urgency, tenesmus, and abdominal pain. Extraintestinal features, such as arthritis and uveitis, can also occur. Complications of UC include toxic megacolon, bowel obstruction, bowel perforation, strictures, fistula formation, anemia, malnutrition, and colorectal cancer.
Diagnosing IBD involves various investigations, including blood tests, stool microscopy and culture, fecal calprotectin testing, endoscopy with biopsy, and imaging modalities such as CT and MR enterography. The management of Crohn’s disease and UC is complex and may involve corticosteroids, immunosuppressive drugs, biologic therapy, surgery, and nutritional support. Patients with IBD should also be monitored for nutritional deficiencies, colorectal cancer, and osteoporosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 32
Correct
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A 75-year-old man is brought to the resuscitation area of your Emergency Department by ambulance. He has become increasingly unwell over the past few weeks with vomiting and diarrhea. His wife tells you that he was started on a medication by his GP six months ago for pain and stiffness around his shoulders, upper arms, and hips. She describes this medication as being '6 small blue tablets.' He has been unable to take these tablets for the past few days. On examination, he is pale and sweaty and appears confused. His observations are as follows: temperature 37.2°C, HR 130 bpm, BP 90/50, RR 22, SaO2 97% on 2 L oxygen, GCS 13. He has intravenous access in situ, and his BM stick glucose is 2.5.
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Addisonian crisis
Explanation:This patient has presented with an Addisonian crisis, which is a rare but potentially catastrophic condition if not diagnosed promptly. The most likely underlying rheumatological diagnosis in this case is polymyalgia rheumatica, and it is likely that the GP started the patient on prednisolone medication.
Addison’s disease occurs when the adrenal glands underproduce steroid hormones, affecting the production of glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and sex steroids. The main causes of Addison’s disease include autoimmune adrenalitis (accounting for 80% of cases), bilateral adrenalectomy, Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome (hemorrhage into the adrenal glands), and tuberculosis.
An Addisonian crisis is most commonly triggered by the deliberate or accidental withdrawal of steroid therapy in patients with Addison’s disease. Other factors that can precipitate a crisis include infection, trauma, myocardial infarction, cerebral infarction, asthma, hypothermia, and alcohol abuse.
The clinical features of Addison’s disease include weakness, lethargy, hypotension (especially orthostatic hypotension), nausea, vomiting, weight loss, reduced axillary and pubic hair, depression, and hyperpigmentation (particularly in palmar creases, buccal mucosa, and exposed areas). In an Addisonian crisis, the main features are usually hypoglycemia and shock, characterized by tachycardia, peripheral vasoconstriction, hypotension, altered consciousness, and coma.
Biochemically, Addison’s disease is characterized by increased ACTH levels (as a compensatory response to stimulate the adrenal glands), elevated serum renin levels, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, hypercalcemia, hypoglycemia, and metabolic acidosis. Diagnostic investigations may include the Synacthen test, plasma ACTH level, plasma renin level, and adrenocortical antibodies.
Management of Addison’s disease should be overseen by an Endocrinologist. Typically, patients require hydrocortisone, fludrocortisone, and dehydroepiandrosterone. Some patients may also need thyroxine if there is hypothalamic-pituitary disease present. Treatment is lifelong, and patients should carry a steroid card and a MedicAlert bracelet, being aware of the possibility of an Addisonian crisis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 33
Correct
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A 48-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain and noticeable abdominal distension. Upon examination, you discover that the patient has a longstanding history of alcohol abuse. After conducting a thorough clinical assessment, you diagnose the patient with significant ascites, most likely caused by alcoholic liver disease. In terms of liver damage resulting from alcohol abuse, which of the following enzymes is primarily responsible for the oxidative metabolism of alcohol (ethanol) in the liver?
Your Answer: Alcohol dehydrogenase
Explanation:The primary route of ethanol oxidation in the liver is through the alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH) pathway. Additionally, the accessory pathways of cytochrome P450 2E1 (CYP2E1) and catalase also play a role in the oxidative metabolism of alcohol.
Further Reading:
Alcoholic liver disease (ALD) is a spectrum of disease that ranges from fatty liver at one end to alcoholic cirrhosis at the other. Fatty liver is generally benign and reversible with alcohol abstinence, while alcoholic cirrhosis is a more advanced and irreversible form of the disease. Alcoholic hepatitis, which involves inflammation of the liver, can lead to the development of fibrotic tissue and cirrhosis.
Several factors can increase the risk of progression of ALD, including female sex, genetics, advanced age, induction of liver enzymes by drugs, and co-existent viral hepatitis, especially hepatitis C.
The development of ALD is multifactorial and involves the metabolism of alcohol in the liver. Alcohol is metabolized to acetaldehyde and then acetate, which can result in the production of damaging reactive oxygen species. Genetic polymorphisms and co-existing hepatitis C infection can enhance the pathological effects of alcohol metabolism.
Patients with ALD may be asymptomatic or present with non-specific symptoms such as abdominal discomfort, vomiting, or anxiety. Those with alcoholic hepatitis may have fever, anorexia, and deranged liver function tests. Advanced liver disease can manifest with signs of portal hypertension and cirrhosis, such as ascites, varices, jaundice, and encephalopathy.
Screening tools such as the AUDIT questionnaire can be used to assess alcohol consumption and identify hazardous or harmful drinking patterns. Liver function tests, FBC, and imaging studies such as ultrasound or liver biopsy may be performed to evaluate liver damage.
Management of ALD involves providing advice on reducing alcohol intake, administering thiamine to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and addressing withdrawal symptoms with benzodiazepines. Complications of ALD, such as intoxication, encephalopathy, variceal bleeding, ascites, hypoglycemia, and coagulopathy, require specialized interventions.
Heavy alcohol use can also lead to thiamine deficiency and the development of Wernicke Korsakoff’s syndrome, characterized by confusion, ataxia, hypothermia, hypotension, nystagmus, and vomiting. Prompt treatment is necessary to prevent progression to Korsakoff’s psychosis.
In summary, alcoholic liver disease is a spectrum of disease that can range from benign fatty liver to irreversible cirrhosis. Risk factors for progression include female sex, genetics, advanced age, drug-induced liver enzyme induction, and co-existing liver conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man presents with visible jaundice, fatigue, and intense itching. He has noticed that his stools float and that they have become pale, foul-smelling, and oily in appearance. He has no history of abdominal pain. He has a past medical history of Crohn's disease, which has been controlled with mesalazine. On examination, you notice yellowish pigmentation of the skin, sclerae, and mucous membranes. His abdomen is soft but can palpate a firm liver edge 5 cm below the costal margin. He also has numerous scratch marks covering his abdomen and upper thighs. His liver function tests are shown below:
Bilirubin 102 mmol (3-20)
ALT 235 IU/L (5-40)
ALP: 1501 IU/L (20-140)
pANCA: positive
cANCA: negative
ANA: negative
SMA: negative
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Autoimmune hepatitis
Correct Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Explanation:This woman is showing signs of obstructive jaundice along with a history of ulcerative colitis. The most probable diagnosis in this case is primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC). PSC is a condition that causes inflammation and blockage of the bile ducts, leading to progressive damage. It is characterized by recurrent episodes of cholangitis and the development of scar tissue in the bile ducts. In severe cases, it can lead to liver cirrhosis, liver failure, and even liver cancer. PSC is commonly associated with ulcerative colitis, with more than 80% of PSC patients also having ulcerative colitis.
The underlying cause of PSC is believed to be autoimmune in nature. Around 80% of patients with PSC test positive for p-ANCA antibodies, which are associated with autoimmune diseases. Other antibodies such as antinuclear antibodies (ANA) and anti-smooth muscle antibodies may also be present, but they are only found in about one-third of PSC patients.
Autoimmune hepatitis, on the other hand, is a liver inflammation caused by a decrease in regulatory T-cells (Treg cells), leading to the production of autoantibodies against hepatocyte surface antigens. It primarily affects women (70%) between the ages of 15 and 40. The condition causes chronic and progressive hepatitis, often presenting in the later stages when the patient is severely unwell and jaundiced. Liver function tests typically show significantly elevated levels of transaminases (ALT and AST), often more than ten times the normal range. Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) levels may be normal or slightly elevated. Antinuclear antibodies (ANA) are positive in approximately 80% of cases, while smooth muscle antibodies (SMA) are positive in about 70% of cases. Antimitochondrial antibodies are usually low or absent.
Primary biliary cirrhosis is another autoimmune liver disease that leads to the progressive destruction of the small bile ducts in the liver, primarily affecting the intralobular ducts. This results in cholestatic jaundice, liver fibrosis, and eventually cirrhosis. The condition is more common in women (90%) and typically occurs between the ages of 30 and 65. Liver function tests show predominantly elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase (ALP), often before any symptoms or signs of the disease appear.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 35
Correct
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A 35-year-old man with a known history of alcohol dependency (consuming over 1L of whisky daily) and liver cirrhosis comes to the hospital with worsening ascites and abdominal pain. He is experiencing encephalopathy and has had multiple episodes of diarrhea today. His vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 116, blood pressure of 100/68, and a temperature of 38.9oC. Upon examination, he has significant ascites and generalized abdominal tenderness.
What is the most likely diagnosis in this case?Your Answer: Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
Explanation:Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) is a sudden bacterial infection of the fluid in the abdomen. It typically occurs in patients with high blood pressure in the portal vein, and about 70% of cases are seen in patients with severe liver disease. In any given year, around 30% of patients with fluid buildup in the abdomen will develop SBP.
SBP can present with a wide range of symptoms, so it’s important to be vigilant when caring for patients with fluid buildup in the abdomen, especially if there is a sudden decline in their condition. Some patients may not show any symptoms at all.
Common clinical features of SBP include fever (80% of cases), abdominal pain (70% of cases), worsening or unexplained confusion due to liver dysfunction, diarrhea, nausea and vomiting, and bowel obstruction.
There are several factors that increase the risk of developing SBP, including severe liver disease (Child-Pugh class C), gastrointestinal bleeding, urinary tract infection, excessive growth of bacteria in the intestines, presence of indwelling lines such as central venous catheters or urinary catheters, previous episodes of SBP, and low levels of protein in the fluid buildup in the abdomen.
To diagnose SBP, a procedure called abdominal paracentesis is performed to collect fluid from the abdomen. The following findings on fluid analysis strongly suggest SBP: total white blood cell count in the fluid greater than 500 cells/µL, total neutrophil count in the fluid greater than 250 cells/µL, lactate level in the fluid higher than 25 mg/dL, pH of the fluid below 7.35, and presence of bacteria on Gram-stain.
Patients with SBP should be admitted to the hospital and treated with broad-spectrum antibiotics. The preferred antibiotic is an intravenous third-generation cephalosporin, such as Ceftriaxone. If the patient is allergic to beta-lactam antibiotics, ciprofloxacin can be considered as an alternative. Administration of intravenous albumin has been shown to reduce the risk of kidney failure and death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 36
Correct
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A 5-year-old girl is brought into the Emergency Department with stomach pain and throwing up. Her mom tells you that she has been losing weight lately and seems to be drinking a lot and peeing a lot. During the examination, she appears tired and you notice that she is dehydrated. She is breathing deeply and quickly. Her blood sugar levels are found to be extremely high when her blood is tested.
What is the MOST likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis
Explanation:Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a life-threatening condition that occurs when there is a lack of insulin, leading to an inability to process glucose. This results in high blood sugar levels and excessive thirst. As the body tries to eliminate the excess glucose through urine, dehydration becomes inevitable. Without insulin, the body starts using fat as its main energy source, which leads to the production of ketones and a buildup of acid in the blood.
The main characteristics of DKA are high blood sugar levels (above 11 mmol/l), the presence of ketones in the blood or urine, and acidosis (low bicarbonate levels and/or low venous pH). Symptoms of DKA include nausea, vomiting, excessive thirst, frequent urination, abdominal pain, signs of dehydration, a distinct smell of ketones on the breath, rapid and deep breathing, confusion or reduced consciousness, and cardiovascular symptoms like rapid heartbeat, low blood pressure, and shock.
To diagnose DKA, various tests should be performed, including blood glucose measurement, urine dipstick test (which shows high levels of glucose and ketones), blood ketone assay (more accurate than urine dipstick), complete blood count, and electrolyte levels. Arterial or venous blood gas analysis can confirm the presence of metabolic acidosis.
The management of DKA involves careful fluid administration and insulin replacement. Fluid boluses should only be given if there are signs of shock and should be administered slowly in 10 ml/kg increments. Once shock is resolved, rehydration should be done over 48 hours. The first 20 ml/kg of fluid given for resuscitation should not be subtracted from the total fluid volume calculated for the 48-hour replacement. In cases of hypotensive shock, consultation with a pediatric intensive care specialist may be necessary.
Insulin replacement should begin 1-2 hours after starting intravenous fluid therapy. A soluble insulin infusion should be used at a dosage of 0.05-0.1 units/kg/hour. The goal is to bring blood glucose levels close to normal. Regular monitoring of electrolytes and blood glucose levels is important to prevent imbalances and rapid changes in serum osmolarity. Identifying and treating the underlying cause of DKA is also crucial.
When calculating fluid requirements for children and young people with DKA, assume a 5% fluid deficit for mild-to-moderate cases (blood pH of 7.1 or above) and a 10% fluid deficit in severe DKA (indicated by a blood pH below 7.1). The total replacement fluid to be given over 48 hours is calculated as follows: Hourly rate = (deficit/48 hours) + maintenance per hour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 37
Correct
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A 28 year old male presents to the emergency department after experiencing 4 days of severe vomiting and diarrhea. A peripheral cannula is inserted, and blood samples are taken, revealing the following results:
Na+ 135 mmol/L
K+ 2.3 mmol/L
Ur 8.8 mmol/L
Cr 123 umol/L
The medical team decides to administer intravenous fluids. They plan to infuse a 1 liter bag of 0.9% saline with 40 mmol of potassium chloride. What would be the most appropriate duration for this infusion?Your Answer: 4 hours
Explanation:The recommended maximum infusion rate for IV fluids containing potassium is 10 mmol/hr in normal circumstances outside of the HDU/ICU setting, according to NHS SPS. However, in certain situations, higher infusion rates may be used. The BNF advises a maximum infusion rate of 20 mmol/hr for saline containing KCl, which is commonly administered to patients with DKA. If infusion rates exceed 10 mmol/hr, it is recommended to administer the fluids ideally in a HDU/level 2/ICU setting, through a central line, using an infusion pump, and with cardiac monitoring in place.
Further Reading:
Vasoactive drugs can be classified into three categories: inotropes, vasopressors, and unclassified. Inotropes are drugs that alter the force of muscular contraction, particularly in the heart. They primarily stimulate adrenergic receptors and increase myocardial contractility. Commonly used inotropes include adrenaline, dobutamine, dopamine, isoprenaline, and ephedrine.
Vasopressors, on the other hand, increase systemic vascular resistance (SVR) by stimulating alpha-1 receptors, causing vasoconstriction. This leads to an increase in blood pressure. Commonly used vasopressors include norepinephrine, metaraminol, phenylephrine, and vasopressin.
Electrolytes, such as potassium, are essential for proper bodily function. Solutions containing potassium are often given to patients to prevent or treat hypokalemia (low potassium levels). However, administering too much potassium can lead to hyperkalemia (high potassium levels), which can cause dangerous arrhythmias. It is important to monitor potassium levels and administer it at a controlled rate to avoid complications.
Hyperkalemia can be caused by various factors, including excessive potassium intake, decreased renal excretion, endocrine disorders, certain medications, metabolic acidosis, tissue destruction, and massive blood transfusion. It can present with cardiovascular, respiratory, gastrointestinal, and neuromuscular symptoms. ECG changes, such as tall tented T-waves, prolonged PR interval, flat P-waves, widened QRS complex, and sine wave, are also characteristic of hyperkalemia.
In summary, vasoactive drugs can be categorized as inotropes, vasopressors, or unclassified. Inotropes increase myocardial contractility, while vasopressors increase systemic vascular resistance. Electrolytes, particularly potassium, are important for bodily function, but administering too much can lead to hyperkalemia. Monitoring potassium levels and ECG changes is crucial in managing hyperkalemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents with watery diarrhea that has been present since her return from a hiking trip in Peru 8 weeks ago. She has also experienced abdominal cramps and bloating and excessive gas. Stool cultures were done, which came back negative. She was referred to a gastroenterologist and had a small bowel tissue biopsy, which showed subtotal villous atrophy.
What is the SINGLE most suitable next step in management?Your Answer: Commence gluten free diet
Correct Answer: Commence metronidazole
Explanation:This patient is displaying symptoms consistent with a malabsorption syndrome, which is supported by the findings of subtotal villous atrophy in his small bowel biopsy. Based on this information, the possible causes can be narrowed down to tropical sprue, coeliac disease, and giardiasis.
Considering that the patient was previously healthy before his trip to Nepal, it is unlikely that he has coeliac disease. Additionally, tropical sprue is rare outside of the regions around the equator and is uncommon in Nepal. On the other hand, giardiasis is prevalent in Nepal and is the most probable cause of the patient’s symptoms.
Giardiasis is a chronic diarrheal illness caused by a parasite called Giardia lamblia. Infection occurs when individuals ingest cysts present in contaminated food or water. Common symptoms associated with giardiasis include chronic diarrhea, weakness, abdominal cramps, flatulence, smelly and greasy stools, nausea, vomiting, and weight loss.
Stool culture often yields negative results, so the preferred diagnostic test is a stool ova and parasite (O&P) examination. This test should be repeated three times for accuracy. Additionally, the small bowel biopsy should be re-evaluated to check for the presence of Giardia lamblia.
The standard treatment for giardiasis involves antibiotic therapy with a nitroimidazole antibiotic, such as metronidazole.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man is being investigated for a potential acute hepatitis B infection. What is the earliest sign of acute infection in acute hepatitis B?
Your Answer: IgM antibody to hepatitis B core antigen
Correct Answer: Hepatitis B surface Ag
Explanation:Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) is a protein found on the surface of the hepatitis B virus. It is the first marker to appear in the blood after exposure to the virus, usually within 1 to 2 weeks. Symptoms of hepatitis B typically develop around 4 weeks after exposure. HBsAg can be detected in high levels in the blood during both acute and chronic hepatitis B infections. Its presence indicates that the person is infectious and can transmit the virus to others. The body naturally produces antibodies to HBsAg as part of the immune response to the infection. In fact, HBsAg is used to create the hepatitis B vaccine.
Hepatitis B surface antibody (anti-HBs) indicates that a person has recovered from a hepatitis B infection and is now immune to the virus. It can also develop in individuals who have been successfully vaccinated against hepatitis B.
Total hepatitis B core antibody (anti-HBc) appears at the onset of symptoms in acute hepatitis B and remains detectable for life. Its presence indicates that a person has either had a previous or ongoing infection with the hepatitis B virus, although the exact timing of the infection cannot be determined. Anti-HBc is not present in individuals who have received the hepatitis B vaccine.
IgM antibody to hepatitis B core antigen (IgM anti-HBc) indicates a recent or acute infection with the hepatitis B virus, typically within the past 6 months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 40
Correct
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A 32-year-old individual presents to the emergency department with complaints of intermittent abdominal pain over the past 6 weeks, which appears to be worsening. The patient reports that eating food partially relieves the pain, but it returns to its worst state after 2-3 hours. Additionally, the pain is particularly severe at night. The patient has attempted using over-the-counter pain relievers but found them to be ineffective. Based on these symptoms, what is the primary cause of duodenal ulcers?
Your Answer: Helicobacter pylori infection
Explanation:Most duodenal ulcers are caused by H. pylori infection, while peptic ulcers not associated with H. pylori are typically caused by the use of NSAIDs.
Further Reading:
Peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is a condition characterized by a break in the mucosal lining of the stomach or duodenum. It is caused by an imbalance between factors that promote mucosal damage, such as gastric acid, pepsin, Helicobacter pylori infection, and NSAID drug use, and factors that maintain mucosal integrity, such as prostaglandins, mucus lining, bicarbonate, and mucosal blood flow.
The most common causes of peptic ulcers are H. pylori infection and NSAID use. Other factors that can contribute to the development of ulcers include smoking, alcohol consumption, certain medications (such as steroids), stress, autoimmune conditions, and tumors.
Diagnosis of peptic ulcers involves screening for H. pylori infection through breath or stool antigen tests, as well as upper gastrointestinal endoscopy. Complications of PUD include bleeding, perforation, and obstruction. Acute massive hemorrhage has a case fatality rate of 5-10%, while perforation can lead to peritonitis with a mortality rate of up to 20%.
The symptoms of peptic ulcers vary depending on their location. Duodenal ulcers typically cause pain that is relieved by eating, occurs 2-3 hours after eating and at night, and may be accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Gastric ulcers, on the other hand, cause pain that occurs 30 minutes after eating and may be associated with nausea and vomiting.
Management of peptic ulcers depends on the underlying cause and presentation. Patients with active gastrointestinal bleeding require risk stratification, volume resuscitation, endoscopy, and proton pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy. Those with perforated ulcers require resuscitation, antibiotic treatment, analgesia, PPI therapy, and urgent surgical review.
For stable patients with peptic ulcers, lifestyle modifications such as weight loss, avoiding trigger foods, eating smaller meals, quitting smoking, reducing alcohol consumption, and managing stress and anxiety are recommended. Medication review should be done to stop causative drugs if possible. PPI therapy, with or without H. pylori eradication therapy, is also prescribed. H. pylori testing is typically done using a carbon-13 urea breath test or stool antigen test, and eradication therapy involves a 7-day triple therapy regimen of antibiotics and PPI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 41
Correct
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A 5 year old girl is brought into the emergency department by worried parents. The child mentioned having stomach pain and feeling nauseous yesterday but began vomiting this morning and now appears sleepy. After evaluating her, you examine the results of the venous blood gas and glucose (provided below):
pH 7.25
Bicarbonate 13 mmol/l
Glucose 28 mmol/l
The girl weighs 20kg. What is the calculated fluid deficit for this patient?Your Answer: 1000ml
Explanation:Fluid deficit in children and young people with severe diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is determined by measuring their blood pH and bicarbonate levels. If the blood pH is below 7.1 and/or the bicarbonate level is below 5, it indicates a fluid deficit. This simplified explanation uses a cutoff value of 5 to determine the severity of the fluid deficit in DKA.
Further Reading:
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that occurs due to a lack of insulin in the body. It is most commonly seen in individuals with type 1 diabetes but can also occur in type 2 diabetes. DKA is characterized by hyperglycemia, acidosis, and ketonaemia.
The pathophysiology of DKA involves insulin deficiency, which leads to increased glucose production and decreased glucose uptake by cells. This results in hyperglycemia and osmotic diuresis, leading to dehydration. Insulin deficiency also leads to increased lipolysis and the production of ketone bodies, which are acidic. The body attempts to buffer the pH change through metabolic and respiratory compensation, resulting in metabolic acidosis.
DKA can be precipitated by factors such as infection, physiological stress, non-compliance with insulin therapy, acute medical conditions, and certain medications. The clinical features of DKA include polydipsia, polyuria, signs of dehydration, ketotic breath smell, tachypnea, confusion, headache, nausea, vomiting, lethargy, and abdominal pain.
The diagnosis of DKA is based on the presence of ketonaemia or ketonuria, blood glucose levels above 11 mmol/L or known diabetes mellitus, and a blood pH below 7.3 or bicarbonate levels below 15 mmol/L. Initial investigations include blood gas analysis, urine dipstick for glucose and ketones, blood glucose measurement, and electrolyte levels.
Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, electrolyte correction, insulin therapy, and treatment of any underlying cause. Fluid replacement is typically done with isotonic saline, and potassium may need to be added depending on the patient’s levels. Insulin therapy is initiated with an intravenous infusion, and the rate is adjusted based on blood glucose levels. Monitoring of blood glucose, ketones, bicarbonate, and electrolytes is essential, and the insulin infusion is discontinued once ketones are below 0.3 mmol/L, pH is above 7.3, and bicarbonate is above 18 mmol/L.
Complications of DKA and its treatment include gastric stasis, thromboembolism, electrolyte disturbances, cerebral edema, hypoglycemia, acute respiratory distress syndrome, and acute kidney injury. Prompt medical intervention is crucial in managing DKA to prevent potentially fatal outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man who has recently finished a course of antibiotics for a respiratory infection comes in with excessive, foul-smelling diarrhea. After conducting tests, the patient is diagnosed with Clostridium Difficile diarrhea.
What is the most effective measure to minimize transmission to other patients?Your Answer: Isolation to a side room
Correct Answer: Hand washing
Explanation:Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is Gram-positive, anaerobic, and capable of forming spores. When individuals take broad-spectrum antibiotics, it can disrupt the normal bacteria in their intestines, allowing C. difficile to multiply and cause C. difficile associated diarrhea (CDAD). This condition leads to inflammation and bleeding of the large intestine, resulting in a distinct pseudomembranous appearance. The main symptoms include abdominal cramps, bloody and/or watery diarrhea, and fever. It is worth noting that the majority of C. difficile infections occur in individuals aged 65 and above.
To prevent the spread of C. difficile, it is crucial to practice proper hand hygiene. This involves washing hands with water and plain or antibacterial soap for 15 to 30 seconds after using the bathroom and before eating. Paying attention to areas such as the fingernails, between the fingers, and the wrists is essential. Thoroughly rinsing hands and drying them with a single-use towel is also recommended. Additionally, patients and their family members should remind healthcare providers to wash their hands regularly.
While alcohol-based hand rubs can be effective against many bacteria, they may be less effective against C. difficile. Therefore, during an outbreak of C. difficile infection, it is advisable to use soap and running water instead.
Taking precautions such as wearing an apron and gloves and isolating patients in separate rooms are important measures to prevent contact transmission. However, it is crucial to remember that these precautions will be ineffective if proper hand washing is neglected. Hand hygiene remains the primary and most crucial step in preventing the spread of C. difficile.
When it comes to treatment, oral vancomycin is the recommended first-line option for C. difficile associated diarrhea. However, it is important to note that this treatment does not limit the spread of the bacteria from one patient to another.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 43
Correct
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A 60-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department following an episode of hematemesis. You assess her risk using a scoring system to determine whether or not she can be discharged.
Which of the following scoring systems is most suitable to use in this scenario?Your Answer: Glasgow-Blatchford score
Explanation:The Glasgow-Blatchford Score (GBS) is a helpful tool for determining whether patients with acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding (AUGIB) can be discharged from emergency departments. Patients with scores of less than 1 can be considered for discharge. Unlike the full Rockall score, the GBS does not rely on endoscopic findings. The full Rockall score is also used to assess risk in patients with AUGIB, but it relies on endoscopic findings and is not suitable for use during initial assessment. The Oakland score, on the other hand, is an assessment tool specifically designed for evaluating risk in patients with acute lower gastrointestinal bleeding (ALGIB). The EVendo scoring system is used to predict the presence and size of oesophageal varices before screening endoscopy in patients over 18 years old with known or suspected liver cirrhosis. Lastly, the HAS-BLED scoring system is used to estimate the risk of major bleeding in patients on anticoagulation therapy, helping to assess the risk-benefit in atrial fibrillation care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 44
Correct
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A 68 year old male visits the emergency department on a Saturday night complaining of severe watery diarrhea that has been ongoing for the past five days. The patient mentions that he saw his primary care physician a few days ago regarding the diarrhea, and the physician sent a stool sample for testing. The patient informs you that his physician was concerned because he had recently completed two courses of antibiotics, which may have triggered the diarrhea. Upon reviewing the pathology results, you observe that the stool has tested positive for clostridium difficile cytotoxin.
Which of the following antibiotics is most likely responsible for causing this patient's diarrhea?Your Answer: Clindamycin
Explanation:C. difficile infection is often linked to the use of certain antibiotics such as clindamycin, cephalosporins (particularly third and fourth generation), fluoroquinolones, and broad-spectrum penicillins. To treat C. difficile diarrhea, metronidazole and vancomycin are commonly prescribed.
Further Reading:
Clostridium difficile (C.diff) is a gram positive rod commonly found in hospitals. Some strains of C.diff produce exotoxins that can cause intestinal damage, leading to pseudomembranous colitis. This infection can range from mild diarrhea to severe illness. Antibiotic-associated diarrhea is often caused by C.diff, with 20-30% of cases being attributed to this bacteria. Antibiotics such as clindamycin, cephalosporins, fluoroquinolones, and broad-spectrum penicillins are frequently associated with C.diff infection.
Clinical features of C.diff infection include diarrhea, distinctive smell, abdominal pain, raised white blood cell count, and in severe cases, toxic megacolon. In some severe cases, diarrhea may be absent due to the infection causing paralytic ileus. Diagnosis is made by detecting Clostridium difficile toxin (CDT) in the stool. There are two types of exotoxins produced by C.diff, toxin A and toxin B, which cause mucosal damage and the formation of a pseudomembrane in the colon.
Risk factors for developing C.diff infection include age over 65, antibiotic treatment, previous C.diff infection, exposure to infected individuals, proton pump inhibitor or H2 receptor antagonist use, prolonged hospitalization or residence in a nursing home, and chronic disease or immunosuppression. Complications of C.diff infection can include toxic megacolon, colon perforation, sepsis, and even death, especially in frail elderly individuals.
Management of C.diff infection involves stopping the causative antibiotic if possible, optimizing hydration with IV fluids if necessary, and assessing the severity of the infection. Treatment options vary based on severity, ranging from no antibiotics for mild cases to vancomycin or fidaxomicin for moderate cases, and hospital protocol antibiotics (such as oral vancomycin with IV metronidazole) for severe or life-threatening cases. Severe cases may require admission under gastroenterology or GI surgeons.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 45
Incorrect
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You assess a patient with a past medical history of ulcerative colitis. She expresses significant worry about the potential risk of developing colon cancer due to her condition.
Which ONE statement accurately addresses this concern?Your Answer: All patients suffering with ulcerative colitis will go on to develop colon cancer if left untreated
Correct Answer: The longer that the patient has ulcerative colitis the greater the risk of colon cancer
Explanation:Patients diagnosed with ulcerative colitis face a significantly heightened risk of developing colon cancer. It is crucial for these individuals, especially those with severe or extensive disease, to undergo regular monitoring to detect any potential signs of colon cancer. The risk of developing colon cancer increases as the duration of ulcerative colitis progresses. After 10 years, the risk stands at 1 in 50. After 20 years, the risk increases to 1 in 12. And after 30 years, the risk further rises to 1 in 6. While Crohn’s disease also carries a risk of colonic carcinoma, it is comparatively smaller than that associated with ulcerative colitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 46
Correct
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A 62 year old female presents to the emergency department with a three day history of nausea and upper abdominal pain. The patient is concerned as the nausea became severe enough to cause her to vomit today and she noticed dark blood in the vomitus. The patient takes simvastatin daily for high cholesterol and has recently been taking ibuprofen to treat knee pain. You are able to schedule her for an endoscopy today.
Upon returning to the ED, you decide to conduct a risk assessment for upper gastrointestinal bleeding. Which of the following tools would be the most appropriate to use?Your Answer: Full Rockall score
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, when evaluating patients with acute upper GI bleeding, it is recommended to use the Blatchford score during the initial assessment and the full Rockall score after endoscopy. The Rockall score is specifically designed to assess the risk of re-bleeding or death in these patients. If a patient’s post-endoscopic Rockall score is less than 3, they are considered to have a low risk of re-bleeding or death and may be eligible for early discharge.
Further Reading:
Upper gastrointestinal bleeding (UGIB) refers to the loss of blood from the gastrointestinal tract, occurring in the upper part of the digestive system. It can present as haematemesis (vomiting blood), coffee-ground emesis, bright red blood in the nasogastric tube, or melaena (black, tarry stools). UGIB can lead to significant hemodynamic compromise and is a major health burden, accounting for approximately 70,000 hospital admissions each year in the UK with a mortality rate of 10%.
The causes of UGIB vary, with peptic ulcer disease being the most common cause, followed by gastritis/erosions, esophagitis, and other less common causes such as varices, Mallory Weiss tears, and malignancy. Swift assessment, hemodynamic resuscitation, and appropriate interventions are essential for the management of UGIB.
Assessment of patients with UGIB should follow an ABCDE approach, and scoring systems such as the Glasgow-Blatchford bleeding score (GBS) and the Rockall score are recommended to risk stratify patients and determine the urgency of endoscopy. Transfusion may be necessary for patients with massive hemorrhage, and platelet transfusion, fresh frozen plasma (FFP), and prothrombin complex concentrate may be offered based on specific criteria.
Endoscopy plays a crucial role in the management of UGIB. Unstable patients with severe acute UGIB should undergo endoscopy immediately after resuscitation, while all other patients should undergo endoscopy within 24 hours of admission. Endoscopic treatment of non-variceal bleeding may involve mechanical methods of hemostasis, thermal coagulation, or the use of fibrin or thrombin with adrenaline. Proton pump inhibitors should only be used after endoscopy.
Variceal bleeding requires specific management, including the use of terlipressin and prophylactic antibiotics. Oesophageal varices can be treated with band ligation or transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunts (TIPS), while gastric varices may be treated with endoscopic injection of N-butyl-2-cyanoacrylate or TIPS if bleeding is not controlled.
For patients taking NSAIDs, aspirin, or clopidogrel, low-dose aspirin can be continued once hemostasis is achieved, NSAIDs should be stopped in patients presenting with UGIB.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 47
Correct
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A 35 year old female presents to the emergency department complaining of abdominal cramps and bloating. She informs you that she has not had a bowel movement for 2 days. Blood tests are conducted, but all results come back within normal ranges. The patient's vital signs are all normal, and she does not have a fever. She discloses that she has been experiencing recurrent abdominal pain and bloating for the past 6-9 months and has consulted her primary care physician about it. Based on the symptoms, you suspect constipation predominant irritable bowel syndrome and decide to prescribe a laxative. However, you need to be cautious about prescribing certain medications for patients with irritable bowel syndrome. Which of the following medications should be avoided in these patients?
Your Answer: Lactulose
Explanation:In this scenario, a 35-year-old female presents to the emergency department with complaints of abdominal cramps and bloating. She mentions that she has not had a bowel movement for 2 days. After conducting blood tests, which all come back normal, and assessing her vital signs, which are also normal, it is suspected that she may have constipation predominant irritable bowel syndrome. This suspicion is based on her history of recurrent abdominal pain and bloating over the past 6-9 months, for which she has already consulted her primary care physician.
To address the constipation symptoms, a laxative is considered as a potential treatment option. However, it is important to exercise caution when prescribing medications for patients with irritable bowel syndrome. One medication that should be avoided in these patients is lactulose.
Further Reading:
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a chronic disorder that affects the interaction between the gut and the brain. The exact cause of IBS is not fully understood, but factors such as genetics, drug use, enteric infections, diet, and psychosocial factors are believed to play a role. The main symptoms of IBS include abdominal pain, changes in stool form and/or frequency, and bloating. IBS can be classified into subtypes based on the predominant stool type, including diarrhea-predominant, constipation-predominant, mixed, and unclassified.
Diagnosing IBS involves using the Rome IV criteria, which includes recurrent abdominal pain associated with changes in stool frequency and form. It is important to rule out other more serious conditions that may mimic IBS through a thorough history, physical examination, and appropriate investigations. Treatment for IBS primarily involves diet and lifestyle modifications. Patients are advised to eat regular meals with a healthy, balanced diet and adjust their fiber intake based on symptoms. A low FODMAP diet may be trialed, and a dietician may be consulted for guidance. Regular physical activity and weight management are also recommended.
Psychosocial factors, such as stress, anxiety, and depression, should be addressed and managed appropriately. If constipation is a predominant symptom, soluble fiber supplements or foods high in soluble fiber may be recommended. Laxatives can be considered if constipation persists, and linaclotide may be tried if optimal doses of previous laxatives have not been effective. Antimotility drugs like loperamide can be used for diarrhea, and antispasmodic drugs or low-dose tricyclic antidepressants may be prescribed for abdominal pain. If symptoms persist or are refractory to treatment, alternative diagnoses should be considered, and referral to a specialist may be necessary.
Overall, the management of IBS should be individualized based on the patient’s symptoms and psychosocial situation. Clear explanation of the condition and providing resources for patient education, such as the NHS patient information leaflet and support from organizations like The IBS Network, can also be beneficial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old doctor that works in your department has recently come back from a visit to India and has been having diarrhea 5-10 times per day for the past week. They are also experiencing mild stomach cramps and occasional fevers but have not vomited.
What is the SINGLE most probable causative organism?Your Answer: Entamoeba histolytica
Correct Answer: Escherichia coli
Explanation:Traveller’s diarrhoea (TD) is a prevalent illness that affects travellers all around the globe. It is estimated that up to 50% of Europeans who spend two or more weeks in developing regions experience this condition. TD is characterized by the passage of three or more loose stools within a 24-hour period. Alongside this, individuals often experience abdominal cramps, nausea, and bloating.
Bacteria are the primary culprits behind approximately 80% of TD cases, while viruses and protozoa account for the remaining cases. Among the various organisms, Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC) is the most frequently identified cause.
In summary, TD is a common ailment that affects travellers, manifesting as loose stools, abdominal discomfort, and other associated symptoms. Bacterial infections, particularly ETEC, are the leading cause of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old individual arrives at the emergency department complaining of bloody diarrhea that has been ongoing for two days. The patient mentions experiencing a similar episode six months ago, although it was less severe and resolved within a week. The possibility of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) crosses your mind. Which of the following statements about IBD is accurate?
Your Answer: The risk of developing ulcerative colitis is increased following appendicectomy
Correct Answer: The terminal ileum is the most common site affected by Crohn's
Explanation:Crohn’s disease is characterized by skip lesions, which are not present in ulcerative colitis. Unlike ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease causes inflammation throughout the entire thickness of the intestinal wall, not just the mucosa. Interestingly, smoking increases the risk of developing Crohn’s disease but decreases the risk of ulcerative colitis. Additionally, having an appendicectomy before adulthood is believed to protect against ulcerative colitis, whereas it actually increases the risk of developing Crohn’s disease for about 5 years after the surgery.
Further Reading:
Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a chronic condition characterized by inflammation of the intestinal tract and an imbalance of the intestinal microbiota. The two main forms of IBD are Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis (UC). In some cases, it is not possible to differentiate between Crohn’s disease and UC, and the term inflammatory bowel disease type-unclassified may be used.
Crohn’s disease is a chronic, relapsing-remitting inflammatory disease that can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract, from the mouth to the anus. It most commonly involves the ileum and colon. The inflammation in Crohn’s disease affects all layers of the intestinal wall, leading to complications such as strictures, fistulas, and adhesions. Risk factors for developing Crohn’s disease include a family history, smoking, infectious gastroenteritis, appendicectomy, and the use of NSAIDs and oral contraceptive drugs. Symptoms of Crohn’s disease can vary but often include diarrhea, abdominal pain, weight loss, and perianal disease. Extraintestinal features, such as arthritis, erythema nodosum, and uveitis, can also occur.
Ulcerative colitis is a chronic, relapsing-remitting inflammatory disease that primarily affects the large bowel. The inflammation in UC is limited to the intestinal mucosa and does not involve skip lesions like in Crohn’s disease. Risk factors for developing UC include a family history, not smoking, and no appendix. Symptoms of UC include bloody diarrhea, urgency, tenesmus, and abdominal pain. Extraintestinal features, such as arthritis and uveitis, can also occur. Complications of UC include toxic megacolon, bowel obstruction, bowel perforation, strictures, fistula formation, anemia, malnutrition, and colorectal cancer.
Diagnosing IBD involves various investigations, including blood tests, stool microscopy and culture, fecal calprotectin testing, endoscopy with biopsy, and imaging modalities such as CT and MR enterography. The management of Crohn’s disease and UC is complex and may involve corticosteroids, immunosuppressive drugs, biologic therapy, surgery, and nutritional support. Patients with IBD should also be monitored for nutritional deficiencies, colorectal cancer, and osteoporosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 50
Correct
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You treat a 65-year-old woman for a urinary tract infection with nitrofurantoin. She returns one week later with severe, foul-smelling diarrhea and abdominal pain. Her urinary tract infection has resolved. You are concerned that she may have developed Clostridium difficile associated diarrhea (CDAD).
Which SINGLE statement is true regarding this diagnosis?Your Answer: The gold standard for the diagnosis of Clostridium difficile colitis is cytotoxin assay
Explanation:Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is Gram-positive, anaerobic, and capable of forming spores. It is commonly associated with diarrhoea, which occurs after the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics. These antibiotics disrupt the normal bacteria flora in the bowel, allowing Clostridium difficile to multiply. As a result, the mucosa of the large intestine becomes inflamed and bleeds, leading to a distinct ‘pseudomembranous appearance’. The main symptoms of Clostridium difficile infection include abdominal cramps, bloody and/or watery diarrhoea, and fever. It is worth noting that over 80% of Clostridium difficile infections are reported in individuals aged 65 and above.
The cytotoxin assay is currently considered the gold standard for diagnosing Clostridium difficile colitis. However, this test has its drawbacks, as it can be challenging to perform and the results may take up to 48 hours to be available. An alternative laboratory test commonly used for diagnosis is an enzyme-mediated immunoassay that detects toxins A and B. This test has a specificity ranging from 93% to 100% and a sensitivity ranging from 63% to 99%.
It is important to note that alcohol hand gel is ineffective against Clostridium difficile spores. Therefore, healthcare providers who come into contact with this bacteria must wash their hands with soap and water to ensure proper hygiene.
Lastly, it is estimated that approximately 3% of healthy adults carry Clostridium difficile in their gut, according to the 2012 UK HPA estimates.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 51
Correct
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A 5 year old male is brought into the emergency department by his parents. They inform you that the patient started experiencing diarrhea and vomiting 3 days ago. The vomiting stopped yesterday, but the diarrhea has persisted and the parents are worried because the patient seems restless and not acting like himself. There is no recent history of traveling abroad, no significant medical history, the patient is up to date with vaccinations, and the parents have not noticed any blood or mucus in the stool. During the clinical examination, you observe jittery movements in the limbs and head, increased muscle tone, and exaggerated reflexes in the limbs. There is some tenderness upon deep palpation of the abdomen, but no guarding. The central and peripheral capillary refill time is approximately 3 seconds, and the extremities feel warm.
What investigation would be most beneficial for this patient?Your Answer: Urea & electrolytes
Explanation:Children with gastroenteritis who exhibit jittery movements, increased muscle tone, hyper-reflexia, or convulsions should be suspected of having hypernatraemic dehydration. This condition occurs when there is an excessive amount of sodium in the body. In this case, the patient’s history aligns with gastroenteritis, which puts them at risk for hypernatraemia. The presence of jittery movements, increased muscle tone, and hyper-reflexia further support this suspicion. To confirm the diagnosis, it is recommended to send a sample for urea and electrolyte testing to assess the patient’s sodium levels.
Further Reading:
Gastroenteritis is a common condition in children, particularly those under the age of 5. It is characterized by the sudden onset of diarrhea, with or without vomiting. The most common cause of gastroenteritis in infants and young children is rotavirus, although other viruses, bacteria, and parasites can also be responsible. Prior to the introduction of the rotavirus vaccine in 2013, rotavirus was the leading cause of gastroenteritis in children under 5 in the UK. However, the vaccine has led to a significant decrease in cases, with a drop of over 70% in subsequent years.
Norovirus is the most common cause of gastroenteritis in adults, but it also accounts for a significant number of cases in children. In England & Wales, there are approximately 8,000 cases of norovirus each year, with 15-20% of these cases occurring in children under 9.
When assessing a child with gastroenteritis, it is important to consider whether there may be another more serious underlying cause for their symptoms. Dehydration assessment is also crucial, as some children may require intravenous fluids. The NICE traffic light system can be used to identify the risk of serious illness in children under 5.
In terms of investigations, stool microbiological testing may be indicated in certain cases, such as when the patient has been abroad, if diarrhea lasts for more than 7 days, or if there is uncertainty over the diagnosis. U&Es may be necessary if intravenous fluid therapy is required or if there are symptoms and/or signs suggestive of hypernatremia. Blood cultures may be indicated if sepsis is suspected or if antibiotic therapy is planned.
Fluid management is a key aspect of treating children with gastroenteritis. In children without clinical dehydration, normal oral fluid intake should be encouraged, and oral rehydration solution (ORS) supplements may be considered. For children with dehydration, ORS solution is the preferred method of rehydration, unless intravenous fluid therapy is necessary. Intravenous fluids may be required for children with shock or those who are unable to tolerate ORS solution.
Antibiotics are generally not required for gastroenteritis in children, as most cases are viral or self-limiting. However, there are some exceptions, such as suspected or confirmed sepsis, Extraintestinal spread of bacterial infection, or specific infections like Clostridium difficile-associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis or giardiasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 52
Correct
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A 60-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of abdominal pain. He has a past medical history of a duodenal ulcer. During his visit, he experiences two episodes of vomiting blood.
Which blood vessel is most likely to be involved?Your Answer: Gastroduodenal artery
Explanation:Peptic ulcer disease is a fairly common condition that can affect either the stomach or the duodenum. However, the duodenum is more commonly affected, and in these cases, it is caused by a break in the mucosal lining of the duodenum.
This condition is more prevalent in men and is most commonly seen in individuals between the ages of 20 and 60. In fact, over 95% of patients with duodenal ulcers are found to be infected with H. pylori. Additionally, chronic usage of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) is often associated with the development of duodenal ulcers.
When it comes to the location of duodenal ulcers, they are most likely to occur in the superior (first) part of the duodenum, which is positioned in front of the body of the L1 vertebra.
The typical clinical features of duodenal ulcers include experiencing epigastric pain that radiates to the back, with the pain often worsening at night. This pain typically occurs 2-3 hours after eating and is relieved by consuming food and drinking milk. It can also be triggered by skipping meals or experiencing stress.
Possible complications that can arise from duodenal ulcers include perforation, which can lead to peritonitis, as well as gastrointestinal hemorrhage. Gastrointestinal hemorrhage can manifest as haematemesis (vomiting blood), melaena (black, tarry stools), or occult bleeding. Strictures causing obstruction can also occur as a result of duodenal ulcers.
In cases where gastrointestinal hemorrhage occurs as a result of duodenal ulceration, it is usually due to erosion of the gastroduodenal artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 53
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man comes in with abdominal cramps and severe bloody diarrhoea due to a gastrointestinal infection.
What is the MOST LIKELY single causative organism?Your Answer: Giardia lamblia
Correct Answer: Entamoeba histolytica
Explanation:Infectious causes of bloody diarrhea include Campylobacter spp., Shigella spp., Salmonella spp., Clostridium difficile, Enterohaemorrhagic Escherichia coli, Yersinia spp., Schistosomiasis, and Amoebiasis (Entamoeba histolytica). Enterotoxigenic E.coli is a non-invasive strain that does not cause inflammation or bloody diarrhea. Instead, it typically presents with profuse watery diarrhea and is not usually associated with abdominal cramping. The other organisms mentioned in this question are associated with watery diarrhea, but not bloody diarrhea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 54
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents with fatigue and nausea following a recent viral illness. She experienced flu-like symptoms for four days and had difficulty eating during that time. She visited the Emergency Department with these symptoms but was discharged with instructions to rest in bed and take regular paracetamol. Her blood tests today reveal the following results:
- Bilirubin: 50 mmol (3-20)
- ALT: 34 IU/L (5-40)
- ALP: 103 IU/L (20-140)
- LDH: 150 IU/L (100-330)
How is the condition typically inherited in this patient?Your Answer: Autosomal dominant
Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive
Explanation:Gilbert’s syndrome is the most common hereditary cause of elevated bilirubin levels and can be found in up to 5% of the population. It is characterized by an isolated increase in unconjugated bilirubin without any detectable liver disease. In most cases, it is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner, although there have been some instances of autosomal dominant inheritance, particularly in Asian populations.
The elevated bilirubin levels in Gilbert’s syndrome do not have any serious consequences and typically occur during times of stress, physical exertion, fasting, or infection. While it is often asymptomatic, some individuals may experience symptoms such as fatigue, decreased appetite, nausea, and abdominal pain.
The underlying cause of the elevated bilirubin levels is a decrease in the activity of the enzyme glucuronyltransferase, which is responsible for conjugating bilirubin. In Gilbert’s syndrome, the bilirubin levels are generally less than three times the upper limit of normal, with more than 70% of the bilirubin being unconjugated. Liver function tests and LDH (lactate dehydrogenase) levels are typically within the normal range.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A 68 year old male presents to the emergency department with a 4 day history of colicky abdominal pain and diarrhea. The patient reports feeling worse in the past 24 hours, although the diarrhea has stopped as he last had a bowel movement more than 12 hours ago. The patient visited his primary care physician 2 days ago, who requested a stool sample. The patient's vital signs are as follows:
Temperature: 38.8ºC
Blood pressure: 98/78 mmHg
Pulse: 106 bpm
Respiration rate: 18
Upon reviewing the pathology results, it is noted that the stool sample has tested positive for clostridium difficile. Additionally, the patient's complete blood count, which was sent by the triage nurse, is available and shown below:
Hemoglobin: 12.4 g/l
Platelets: 388 * 109/l
White blood cells: 23.7 * 109/l
How would you classify the severity of this patient's clostridium difficile infection?Your Answer: Severe
Correct Answer: Life threatening
Explanation:Clostridium difficile (C.diff) is a gram positive rod commonly found in hospitals. Some strains of C.diff produce exotoxins that can cause intestinal damage, leading to pseudomembranous colitis. This infection can range from mild diarrhea to severe illness. Antibiotic-associated diarrhea is often caused by C.diff, with 20-30% of cases being attributed to this bacteria. Antibiotics such as clindamycin, cephalosporins, fluoroquinolones, and broad-spectrum penicillins are frequently associated with C.diff infection.
Clinical features of C.diff infection include diarrhea, distinctive smell, abdominal pain, raised white blood cell count, and in severe cases, toxic megacolon. In some severe cases, diarrhea may be absent due to the infection causing paralytic ileus. Diagnosis is made by detecting Clostridium difficile toxin (CDT) in the stool. There are two types of exotoxins produced by C.diff, toxin A and toxin B, which cause mucosal damage and the formation of a pseudomembrane in the colon.
Risk factors for developing C.diff infection include age over 65, antibiotic treatment, previous C.diff infection, exposure to infected individuals, proton pump inhibitor or H2 receptor antagonist use, prolonged hospitalization or residence in a nursing home, and chronic disease or immunosuppression. Complications of C.diff infection can include toxic megacolon, colon perforation, sepsis, and even death, especially in frail elderly individuals.
Management of C.diff infection involves stopping the causative antibiotic if possible, optimizing hydration with IV fluids if necessary, and assessing the severity of the infection. Treatment options vary based on severity, ranging from no antibiotics for mild cases to vancomycin or fidaxomicin for moderate cases, and hospital protocol antibiotics (such as oral vancomycin with IV metronidazole) for severe or life-threatening cases. Severe cases may require admission under gastroenterology or GI surgeons.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 56
Correct
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A 45-year-old male smoker presents with unintentional weight loss and difficulty swallowing along with occasional vomiting. During the examination, you observe a lump in the left lower abdomen and can also feel a swelling in the right lower abdomen. An ultrasound scan is scheduled, which reveals bilateral, solid masses in the ovaries, displaying distinct and well-defined boundaries.
What is the MOST PROBABLE single underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: Gastric carcinoma
Explanation:This patient is diagnosed with Krukenberg tumors, also known as carcinoma microcellulare. These tumors are ovarian malignancies that have spread from a primary site. The most common source of these tumors is gastric adenocarcinoma, which aligns with the patient’s history of weight loss, dysphagia, and intermittent vomiting.
Other primary cancers that can serve as the origin for Krukenberg tumors include colorectal carcinoma, breast cancer, lung cancer, contralateral ovarian carcinoma, and cholangiocarcinoma.
During an ultrasound, a solid and well-defined ovarian mass is typically observed, often affecting both ovaries. Further evaluation through a CT scan or MRI can provide additional helpful information. A biopsy is necessary to confirm the diagnosis, and histological examination will reveal the presence of mucin-secreting signet-rings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 57
Correct
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A 35 year old male intravenous drug user who frequently visits the emergency department presents with abdominal pain. Upon examination, the patient exhibits clinical signs of jaundice. The patient reveals that he was diagnosed with hepatitis B approximately 10 months ago but did not follow up on the recommended treatment. You decide to repeat his hepatitis serology.
What findings would be anticipated in a patient with chronic hepatitis B infection?Your Answer: Anti-HBc positive and HBsAg positive
Explanation:In a patient with chronic hepatitis B, the typical serology results would show positive anti-HBc and positive HBsAg. This indicates that the patient has a long-term infection with hepatitis B. The presence of IgG anti-HBc indicates that the infection will persist for life, while IgM anti-HBc will only be present for about 6 months.
If a patient has positive anti-HBs but all other serological markers are negative, it suggests that they have been previously immunized against hepatitis B. On the other hand, if a patient has positive anti-HBs along with positive anti-HBc, it indicates that they have developed immunity following a past infection.
In the case of an acute hepatitis B infection that has been cleared more than 6 months ago, the serology results would typically show positive anti-HBc but negative HBsAg. This indicates that the infection has been successfully cleared by the immune system.
Further Reading:
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that is transmitted through exposure to infected blood or body fluids. It can also be passed from mother to child during childbirth. The incubation period for hepatitis B is typically 6-20 weeks. Common symptoms of hepatitis B include fever, jaundice, and elevated liver transaminases.
Complications of hepatitis B infection can include chronic hepatitis, which occurs in 5-10% of cases, fulminant liver failure, hepatocellular carcinoma, glomerulonephritis, polyarteritis nodosa, and cryoglobulinemia.
Immunization against hepatitis B is recommended for various at-risk groups, including healthcare workers, intravenous drug users, sex workers, close family contacts of infected individuals, and those with chronic liver disease or kidney disease. The vaccine contains HBsAg adsorbed onto an aluminum hydroxide adjuvant and is prepared using recombinant DNA technology. Most vaccination schedules involve three doses of the vaccine, with a booster recommended after 5 years.
Around 10-15% of adults may not respond adequately to the vaccine. Risk factors for poor response include age over 40, obesity, smoking, alcohol excess, and immunosuppression. Testing for anti-HBs levels is recommended for healthcare workers and patients with chronic kidney disease. Interpretation of anti-HBs levels can help determine the need for further vaccination or testing for infection.
In terms of serology, the presence of HBsAg indicates acute disease if present for 1-6 months, and chronic disease if present for more than 6 months. Anti-HBs indicates immunity, either through exposure or immunization. Anti-HBc indicates previous or current infection, with IgM anti-HBc appearing during acute or recent infection and IgG anti-HBc persisting. HbeAg is a marker of infectivity.
Management of hepatitis B involves notifying the Health Protection Unit for surveillance and contact tracing. Patients should be advised to avoid alcohol and take precautions to minimize transmission to partners and contacts. Referral to a gastroenterologist or hepatologist is recommended for all patients. Symptoms such as pain, nausea, and itch can be managed with appropriate drug treatment. Pegylated interferon-alpha and other antiviral medications like tenofovir and entecavir may be used to suppress viral replication in chronic carriers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 58
Correct
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A 4 year old girl is brought into the emergency department with a two day history of sudden onset watery diarrhea accompanied by stomach cramps and feelings of nausea. Your consultant inquires if you intend to submit a stool sample for microbiological analysis. What would be a reason to send a stool sample for microbiological testing?
Your Answer: Mucus present in stool
Explanation:Stool samples are recommended for children with diarrhea who have recently traveled, show signs of mucus or blood in their stools, or have had diarrhea for more than a week. This patient’s symptoms align with gastroenteritis. While stool microbiological testing is not typically necessary, it should be conducted if any of the following conditions are present: recent travel, prolonged diarrhea, immunocompromised state, suspected septicemia, presence of blood and/or mucus in the stool, or uncertainty regarding the diagnosis.
Further Reading:
Gastroenteritis is a common condition in children, particularly those under the age of 5. It is characterized by the sudden onset of diarrhea, with or without vomiting. The most common cause of gastroenteritis in infants and young children is rotavirus, although other viruses, bacteria, and parasites can also be responsible. Prior to the introduction of the rotavirus vaccine in 2013, rotavirus was the leading cause of gastroenteritis in children under 5 in the UK. However, the vaccine has led to a significant decrease in cases, with a drop of over 70% in subsequent years.
Norovirus is the most common cause of gastroenteritis in adults, but it also accounts for a significant number of cases in children. In England & Wales, there are approximately 8,000 cases of norovirus each year, with 15-20% of these cases occurring in children under 9.
When assessing a child with gastroenteritis, it is important to consider whether there may be another more serious underlying cause for their symptoms. Dehydration assessment is also crucial, as some children may require intravenous fluids. The NICE traffic light system can be used to identify the risk of serious illness in children under 5.
In terms of investigations, stool microbiological testing may be indicated in certain cases, such as when the patient has been abroad, if diarrhea lasts for more than 7 days, or if there is uncertainty over the diagnosis. U&Es may be necessary if intravenous fluid therapy is required or if there are symptoms and/or signs suggestive of hypernatremia. Blood cultures may be indicated if sepsis is suspected or if antibiotic therapy is planned.
Fluid management is a key aspect of treating children with gastroenteritis. In children without clinical dehydration, normal oral fluid intake should be encouraged, and oral rehydration solution (ORS) supplements may be considered. For children with dehydration, ORS solution is the preferred method of rehydration, unless intravenous fluid therapy is necessary. Intravenous fluids may be required for children with shock or those who are unable to tolerate ORS solution.
Antibiotics are generally not required for gastroenteritis in children, as most cases are viral or self-limiting. However, there are some exceptions, such as suspected or confirmed sepsis, Extraintestinal spread of bacterial infection, or specific infections like Clostridium difficile-associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis or giardiasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 59
Correct
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A 45-year-old man presents with severe nausea and recurrent vomiting. The vomiting episodes occur every few weeks and are accompanied by colicky abdominal pain. However, his bowel movements are normal. He reports that the only relief he gets during these episodes is by taking hot baths. He has no significant medical history but admits to being a heavy and regular cannabis user. A complete set of blood tests and an abdominal X-ray are performed, both of which come back normal.
What is the most probable diagnosis in this case?Your Answer: Cannabinoid hyperemesis syndrome
Explanation:Cannabinoid hyperemesis syndrome (CHS) is an extremely rare form of cannabinoid toxicity that occurs in chronic smokers. It is characterized by recurring episodes of severe nausea and vomiting. One distinctive feature of this syndrome is that individuals who suffer from it often find relief from their symptoms by taking hot baths or showers, and they may compulsively bathe during episodes of nausea and vomiting.
CHS typically develops in heavy, long-term cannabis users who consume the drug multiple times a day for many years. On average, symptoms appear after about 16 years of cannabis use, although some patients may experience symptoms after as little as three years.
In 2009, Sontineni and colleagues established criteria for diagnosing cannabinoid hyperemesis syndrome. These criteria include essential factors such as long-term cannabis use, major factors like severe nausea and vomiting that occur in a cyclic pattern over months, and resolution of symptoms after discontinuing cannabis use. Supportive criteria include compulsive hot baths with symptom relief, colicky abdominal pain, and no evidence of inflammation in the gallbladder or pancreas.
The exact cause of CHS is not fully understood, but there are two main theories. One theory suggests that the syndrome is a result of a build-up of cannabinoids in the body, which leads to toxicity. Another theory proposes that the functionality of cannabinoid receptors in the brain, particularly in the hypothalamus, is affected, resulting in CHS.
Most conventional anti-emetic drugs are effective in treating the vomiting phase of CHS. During acute episodes, it is important to monitor the patient’s hydration status as the combination of hot baths and prolonged vomiting can lead to cannabinoid hyperemesis acute renal failure (CHARF). This can be easily prevented and treated with intravenous fluids.
Once the acute episode of vomiting and dehydration has been addressed, the condition can be easily cured by discontinuing cannabis consumption.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 60
Correct
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A 72-year-old male visits the emergency department on a weekend complaining of colicky abdominal pain and frequent episodes of diarrhea. The patient mentions that he had given a stool sample to his GP earlier in the week, but he is worried because the diarrhea has worsened. The pathology report confirms the presence of clostridium difficile toxin in the stool sample. Which of the medications the patient regularly takes are known to increase the risk of clostridium difficile diarrhea?
Your Answer: Lansoprazole
Explanation:Regular use of medications that decrease gastric acid secretion, such as proton pump inhibitors (esomeprazole, lansoprazole, omeprazole, pantoprazole, and rabeprazole) and H2 receptor antagonists like ranitidine, can increase the risk of developing clostridium difficile diarrhoea. However, it is important to note that antibiotics are the most common cause of this condition.
Further Reading:
Clostridium difficile (C.diff) is a gram positive rod commonly found in hospitals. Some strains of C.diff produce exotoxins that can cause intestinal damage, leading to pseudomembranous colitis. This infection can range from mild diarrhea to severe illness. Antibiotic-associated diarrhea is often caused by C.diff, with 20-30% of cases being attributed to this bacteria. Antibiotics such as clindamycin, cephalosporins, fluoroquinolones, and broad-spectrum penicillins are frequently associated with C.diff infection.
Clinical features of C.diff infection include diarrhea, distinctive smell, abdominal pain, raised white blood cell count, and in severe cases, toxic megacolon. In some severe cases, diarrhea may be absent due to the infection causing paralytic ileus. Diagnosis is made by detecting Clostridium difficile toxin (CDT) in the stool. There are two types of exotoxins produced by C.diff, toxin A and toxin B, which cause mucosal damage and the formation of a pseudomembrane in the colon.
Risk factors for developing C.diff infection include age over 65, antibiotic treatment, previous C.diff infection, exposure to infected individuals, proton pump inhibitor or H2 receptor antagonist use, prolonged hospitalization or residence in a nursing home, and chronic disease or immunosuppression. Complications of C.diff infection can include toxic megacolon, colon perforation, sepsis, and even death, especially in frail elderly individuals.
Management of C.diff infection involves stopping the causative antibiotic if possible, optimizing hydration with IV fluids if necessary, and assessing the severity of the infection. Treatment options vary based on severity, ranging from no antibiotics for mild cases to vancomycin or fidaxomicin for moderate cases, and hospital protocol antibiotics (such as oral vancomycin with IV metronidazole) for severe or life-threatening cases. Severe cases may require admission under gastroenterology or GI surgeons.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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