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  • Question 1 - A woman presents with her child who has a congenital heart disease and...

    Incorrect

    • A woman presents with her child who has a congenital heart disease and was born prematurely at 34 weeks.

      Which of these statements is true in this situation?

      Your Answer: Vaccination should be delayed until the adjusted birth date not the actual birth date

      Correct Answer: Live vaccines can be given at the same time

      Explanation:

      Vaccination for Children with Congenital Heart Diseases

      Children with congenital heart diseases should be vaccinated in most situations. There is no contraindication to vaccination unless the child is actively febrile, and vaccination should not be deferred. Even if a child is born prematurely and not adjusted to the predicted date of birth, they should still be vaccinated per the normal schedule. Live vaccines, such as the measles, mumps, rubella vaccine (MMR), are given together and do not seem to reduce the immune response. However, single component vaccines for the MMR are not available through the NHS. It is important to prioritize vaccination for children with congenital heart diseases to protect them from preventable diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old male patient has just been prescribed clozapine by his psychiatrist for...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male patient has just been prescribed clozapine by his psychiatrist for his treatment-resistant schizophrenia. As he has not responded to conventional antipsychotic drugs in the past, he started taking clozapine last week. As his primary care physician, what additional monitoring should be done for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Full blood count once a week for 18 weeks

      Explanation:

      The need for weekly full blood counts for the first 18 weeks, followed by fortnightly checks for up to a year, and then monthly monitoring is necessary for clozapine due to the risk of agranulocytosis. Therefore, the other choices are inaccurate.

      Patients taking antipsychotic medication require extensive monitoring in addition to clinical follow-up. The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends regular testing of full blood count (FBC), urea and electrolytes (U&E), and liver function tests (LFT) at the start of therapy and annually thereafter. Clozapine requires more frequent monitoring of FBC, initially weekly. Lipids and weight should be tested at the start of therapy, at 3 months, and annually. Fasting blood glucose and prolactin should be tested at the start of therapy, at 6 months, and annually. Blood pressure should be monitored frequently during dose titration, and an electrocardiogram and cardiovascular risk assessment should be done at baseline and annually. The BNF provides specific recommendations for individual drugs, and patients should consult their healthcare provider for more information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 3 - A 60-year-old man has been diagnosed with heart failure and his cardiologist recommends...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man has been diagnosed with heart failure and his cardiologist recommends starting a beta-blocker along with other medications. He is currently stable hemodynamically. What is the most suitable beta-blocker to use in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Beta-Blockers for Heart Failure: Medications and Contraindications

      Heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to reduce mortality. Beta-blockers are a class of medications that have been shown to be effective in treating heart failure. Despite some relative contraindications, beta-blockers can be safely initiated in general practice. However, there are still absolute contraindications that should be considered before prescribing beta-blockers, such as asthma, second or third-degree heart block, sick sinus syndrome (without pacemaker), and sinus bradycardia (<50 bpm). Bisoprolol, carvedilol, and nebivolol are all licensed for the treatment of heart failure in the United Kingdom. Among these medications, bisoprolol is the recommended choice and should be started at a low dose of 1.25 mg daily and gradually increased to the maximum tolerated dose (up to 10 mg). Other beta-blockers such as labetalol, atenolol, propranolol, and sotalol have different indications and are not licensed for the treatment of heart failure. Labetalol is mainly used for hypertension in pregnancy, while atenolol is used for arrhythmias, angina, and hypertension. Propranolol is indicated for tachycardia linked to thyrotoxicosis, anxiety, migraine prophylaxis, and benign essential tremor. Sotalol is commonly used to treat atrial and ventricular arrhythmias, particularly atrial fibrillation. In summary, beta-blockers are an important class of medications for the treatment of heart failure. However, careful consideration of contraindications and appropriate medication selection is crucial for optimal patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old woman is seeking advice on switching from the progesterone-only pill to...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is seeking advice on switching from the progesterone-only pill to combined oral contraception due to irregular bleeding. She is concerned about the risk of blood clotting adverse effects but there are no contraindications to the combined pill. What advice should be given to her regarding additional contraception when making the switch?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 7-days of additional barrier contraception is needed

      Explanation:

      When switching from a traditional POP to COCP, 7 days of barrier contraception is needed. The safest option is to recommend 7 days of barrier contraception while commencing the combined oral contraceptive to prevent unwanted pregnancy. 10 or 14 days of additional barrier contraception is not required, and 3 days is too short. It is safest to recommend 7 days of additional contraception.

      Special Situations for Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      Concurrent Antibiotic Use:
      In the UK, doctors have previously advised that taking antibiotics concurrently with the combined oral contraceptive pill may interfere with the enterohepatic circulation of oestrogen, making the pill ineffective. As a result, extra precautions were advised during antibiotic treatment and for seven days afterwards. However, this approach is not taken in the US or most of mainland Europe. In 2011, the Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare updated their guidelines, abandoning the previous approach. The latest edition of the British National Formulary (BNF) has also been updated in line with this guidance. Precautions should still be taken with enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin.

      Switching Combined Oral Contraceptive Pills:
      The BNF and Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) appear to give contradictory advice on switching combined oral contraceptive pills. The Clinical Effectiveness Unit of the FSRH has stated in the Combined Oral Contraception guidelines that the pill-free interval doesn’t need to be omitted. However, the BNF advises missing the pill-free interval if the progesterone changes. Given the uncertainty, it is best to follow the BNF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 5 - A 14-year-old boy visits his General Practitioner, worried about his lack of normal...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy visits his General Practitioner, worried about his lack of normal development. He has not observed any growth of pubic or axillary hair or testicular growth.

      During the examination, the boy is found to have a short stature, a broad chest, a short, webbed neck, and no palpable testes.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Noonan syndrome

      Explanation:

      The correct diagnosis for this case is Noonan syndrome, a genetic disorder inherited in an autosomal-dominant manner and occurring in 1 in 1000 to 1 in 2500 children. It is characterized by multiple congenital abnormalities, including short stature, a high forehead, a webbed neck, a broad chest, and cryptorchidism. Bardet-Biedl syndrome (BBS) is an autosomal-recessive multisystemic genetic disorder that is not associated with the physical attributes seen in this case. Klinefelter syndrome is a chromosomal abnormality that causes delayed puberty and infertility, but it is not associated with the physical attributes seen in this case. Prader-Willi syndrome (PWS) is a genetic disorder characterized by developmental delay, obesity, hyperphagia, and cryptorchidism or hypogonadism, but it is not associated with the physical attributes seen in this case. Turner syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects phenotypic females and is characterized by short stature, a broad chest, widely spaced, hypoplastic or inverted nipples, a short, webbed neck, and short fourth and fifth metacarpals. While the physical attributes of Turner and Noonan syndrome are similar, Turner syndrome doesn’t fit with this case as the patient is phenotypically male.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
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  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old female with epilepsy is well controlled on sodium valproate 600 mg...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female with epilepsy is well controlled on sodium valproate 600 mg twice daily and had been taking oral contraceptives for three years.

      She presented to her general practitioner 12 weeks pregnant.

      Which of the following is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She is at increased risk of anaemia in pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Anticonvulsants and Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, taking Anticonvulsants can increase the risk of neural tube defects in the fetus. However, it is important to note that the benefits of preventing seizures outweigh the risks associated with treatment. Therefore, it is recommended that the drug be continued during pregnancy. To minimize the risks, it is advised to take folate supplements. It is also important to note that sodium valproate is not an enzyme inducer and will not speed up the metabolism of the pill.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 7 - Parents of a 7-year-old boy present concerned that their son may be carrying...

    Incorrect

    • Parents of a 7-year-old boy present concerned that their son may be carrying the gene for Huntington's disease.

      The father was diagnosed with the disease at age 32. The mother has been genetically screened and is not a carrier of the gene.

      What is the probability of their son developing Huntington's disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 in 2

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Genetics of Huntington’s Disease

      Huntington’s disease (HD) is a degenerative neurological disease that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. This means that only one copy of the faulty gene is required for an individual to develop the disease. In the case of a heterozygous father and a mother with no copies of the gene, there is a 50% chance that their offspring will inherit the faulty gene and develop the disease.

      Symptoms of HD typically appear in early middle age and include unsteady gait, involuntary movements, behavioral changes, and progressive dementia. The defective gene responsible for HD is located on chromosome 4, and a phenomenon known as genetic anticipation can occur, where the disease develops earlier in life in subsequent generations.

      Fortunately, genetic screening is now available to identify individuals who carry the faulty gene. This can help individuals make informed decisions about family planning and allow for early intervention and treatment. Understanding the genetics of HD is crucial in managing the disease and providing support for affected individuals and their families.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
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  • Question 8 - A 3-year-old boy has a seizure associated with a temperature of 38.5°C. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old boy has a seizure associated with a temperature of 38.5°C. The seizure lasts for three minutes and he regains consciousness. He has symptoms suggestive of an upper respiratory infection but has no abnormal physical signs.
      Which option is MOST LIKELY to influence a doctor in favour of managing him at home?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She had a similar febrile seizure six months ago

      Explanation:

      Managing Febrile Seizures in Children: Factors to Consider

      Febrile seizures are a common occurrence in young children, but certain factors must be considered when deciding on the appropriate management approach. Here are some key points to keep in mind:

      – If the child has fully recovered from the seizure within an hour, there is no likely serious cause for the fever, the child looks well, and the parents are able to manage the febrile episode, it may be reasonable to manage the child at home.
      – If the child has had a previous febrile seizure, an early review of their condition is desirable, as febrile seizures can recur in about 30% of children.
      – If the child is currently taking antibiotics or has recently been taking them, this may mask meningitis or other serious causes for the fever, so caution is advised.
      – If the parents are very anxious about the child, hospital admission may be appropriate, as they may not be able to cope with the illness at home.
      – If this is the child’s first febrile seizure, immediate paediatric assessment is indicated.
      – If the seizure was a complex febrile seizure (duration > 15 minutes, focal features, recurrence in the same illness, incomplete recovery after one hour), specialist assessment is appropriate. Other indications for specialist assessment include no obvious focus for infection and diagnostic uncertainty.

      In summary, managing febrile seizures in children requires careful consideration of various factors, including the child’s medical history, current medications, and parental support. Specialist assessment may be necessary in certain cases to ensure the best possible outcome for the child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 9 - A 6-year-old boy presents with a blanching rash that started on his abdomen...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy presents with a blanching rash that started on his abdomen and chest and has now spread throughout his body. The rash has a rough texture similar to sandpaper. He also complains of a sore throat and has a high fever of 38.5ºC. Scarlet fever is suspected, but the child is otherwise healthy and doesn't require hospitalization. However, he has a history of severe allergy to penicillin. What is the most suitable course of action for primary care management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Notify public health england (PHE) and commence 5 days of oral azithromycin

      Explanation:

      If a patient with scarlet fever has a penicillin allergy and doesn’t require hospitalization, they should be treated with oral azithromycin for 5 days, as per the current NICE CKS guidance. For patients without a penicillin allergy, a 10-day course of oral phenoxymethylpenicillin (penicillin V) or amoxicillin (if there are difficulties swallowing tablets) is recommended. Scarlet fever is a notifiable disease, and healthcare professionals should complete a notification form and send it to Public Health England (PHE) within 3 days if there is a suspicion of the disease.

      Scarlet fever is a condition caused by erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more common in children aged 2-6 years, with the highest incidence at 4 years. The disease is spread through respiratory droplets or direct contact with nose and throat discharges. The incubation period is 2-4 days, and symptoms include fever, malaise, headache, sore throat, ‘strawberry’ tongue, and a rash that appears first on the torso and spares the palms and soles. Scarlet fever is usually a mild illness, but it may be complicated by otitis media, rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis, or rare invasive complications.

      To diagnose scarlet fever, a throat swab is usually taken, but antibiotic treatment should be started immediately, rather than waiting for the results. Management involves oral penicillin V for ten days, while patients with a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin. Children can return to school 24 hours after starting antibiotics, and scarlet fever is a notifiable disease. Desquamation occurs later in the course of the illness, particularly around the fingers and toes. The rash is often described as having a rough ‘sandpaper’ texture, and children often have a flushed appearance with circumoral pallor. Invasive complications such as bacteraemia, meningitis, and necrotizing fasciitis are rare but may present acutely with life-threatening illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She is currently 28 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She is currently 28 weeks pregnant and has not experienced any complications thus far. During her booking appointment, her blood pressure was 112/78 mmHg, but today it has increased to 146/94 mmHg. Upon testing her urine, the results are as follows:

      Protein negative
      Leukocytes negative
      Blood negative

      What is the most suitable diagnosis for her current state?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gestational hypertension

      Explanation:

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common condition that can be managed effectively with proper care. In normal pregnancy, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, if a pregnant woman develops hypertension, it is usually defined as a systolic blood pressure of over 140 mmHg or a diastolic blood pressure of over 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from booking readings can also indicate hypertension.

      After confirming hypertension, the patient should be categorized into one of three groups: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), or pre-eclampsia. PIH, also known as gestational hypertension, occurs in 3-5% of pregnancies and is more common in older women. If a pregnant woman takes an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin II receptor blocker for pre-existing hypertension, it should be stopped immediately, and alternative antihypertensives should be started while awaiting specialist review.

      Pregnancy-induced hypertension in association with proteinuria, which occurs in around 5% of pregnancies, may also cause oedema. The 2010 NICE guidelines recommend oral labetalol as the first-line treatment for hypertension during pregnancy. Oral nifedipine and hydralazine may also be used, depending on the patient’s medical history. It is important to manage hypertension during pregnancy effectively to reduce the risk of complications and ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 11 - A 55-year-old man visited the dermatology clinic in the summer with a rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man visited the dermatology clinic in the summer with a rash on his forearms, shins and face. Which medication is most commonly associated with this type of photosensitive rash?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ezetimibe

      Explanation:

      Adverse Effects of Cardiology Drugs

      Photosensitivity is a frequently observed adverse effect of certain cardiology drugs, such as amiodarone and thiazide diuretics. This means that patients taking these medications may experience an increased sensitivity to sunlight, resulting in skin rashes or other skin reactions.

      Similarly, angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors and angiotensin 2 receptor blockers (A2RBs) are also known to cause rashes, some of which may be photosensitive. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential adverse effects and to advise patients to take appropriate precautions, such as wearing protective clothing and using sunscreen, when exposed to sunlight.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 12 - A 60-year-old man who was active all his life develops sudden severe anterior...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man who was active all his life develops sudden severe anterior chest pain that radiates to his back. Within minutes, he is unconscious.

      He has a history of hypertension, but a recent treadmill test had revealed no evidence for cardiac disease.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tear in the aortic intima

      Explanation:

      Aortic Dissection: A Probable Cause of Sudden Collapse with Acute Chest Pain

      The patient’s history is indicative of aortic dissection, which is a probable cause of sudden collapse accompanied by acute chest pain radiating to the back. Although other conditions may also lead to sudden collapse, they do not typically present with these symptoms in the presence of a recent normal exercise test. While acute myocardial infarction (MI) is a possibility, it is not the most likely explanation. For further information on the diagnosis and management of aortic dissection, please refer to the following references: BMJ Best Practice, BMJ Clinical Review, and eMedicine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 13 - A 45-year-old man is admitted with a myocardial infarction. His serum cholesterol concentration...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man is admitted with a myocardial infarction. His serum cholesterol concentration is 9.6 mmol/l. An underlying diagnosis of familial hypercholesterolaemia is suspected.
      Which of the following signs on examination of this patient would be most suggestive of this underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tendon xanthomas

      Explanation:

      Familial hypercholesterolaemia is a genetic disorder that causes high levels of cholesterol and low-density lipoprotein. Symptoms include corneal arcus, periorbital xanthelasmas, and tendon xanthomas, which are specific to this condition. Tendon xanthomas, particularly in the Achilles tendons and extensor tendons on the back of the hand, are a diagnostic criterion for familial hypercholesterolaemia. Corneal arcus, a white, grey, or blue opaque ring in the corneal margin caused by a lipid deposit, is also a diagnostic criterion, but only if present before the age of 45. Eruptive xanthomas, palmar xanthomas, and xanthelasma are also associated with hypercholesterolaemia, but may be seen in individuals with normal serum lipid levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 14 - A parent brings her 6-year-old daughter to the clinic with concerns about her...

    Incorrect

    • A parent brings her 6-year-old daughter to the clinic with concerns about her health since starting first grade. The child has developed various new symptoms, and the parent suspects a food allergy as the symptoms improve during breaks from school. Which of the following symptoms would suggest a non-IgE-mediated allergy rather than an IgE-mediated allergy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atopic eczema

      Explanation:

      A non-IgE mediated food allergy is indicated by the presence of atopic eczema.

      Food allergies in children and young people can be categorized as either IgE-mediated or non-IgE-mediated. It is important to note that food intolerance is not caused by immune system dysfunction and is not covered by the 2011 NICE guidelines. Symptoms of IgE-mediated allergies include skin reactions such as pruritus, erythema, urticaria, and angioedema, as well as gastrointestinal and respiratory symptoms. Non-IgE-mediated allergies may present with symptoms such as gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, loose or frequent stools, and abdominal pain. If the history suggests an IgE-mediated allergy, skin prick tests or blood tests for specific IgE antibodies to suspected foods and co-allergens should be offered. If the history suggests a non-IgE-mediated allergy, the suspected allergen should be eliminated for 2-6 weeks and then reintroduced, with consultation from a dietitian for nutritional adequacies, timings, and follow-up.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 15 - A 67-year-old female has been experiencing fatigue, itching, and yellowing of her skin....

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old female has been experiencing fatigue, itching, and yellowing of her skin. She denies any rashes and doesn't feel feverish or unwell. Her medical history includes well-controlled type 2 diabetes, hypertension, rheumatoid arthritis, and diverticulosis. On examination, she has scleral icterus, a clear chest, normal heart sounds, a soft and non-tender abdomen, and no peripheral edema. Which medication is the most probable culprit for her current symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gliclazide

      Explanation:

      Cholestasis is a known side effect of sulfonylureas, but not of ibuprofen, amlodipine, or senna.

      Side-Effects of Sulfonylureas

      Sulfonylureas are a class of medications used to treat type 2 diabetes by stimulating insulin secretion from the pancreas. However, like any medication, they can cause side-effects. The most common adverse effects of sulfonylureas are hypoglycaemic episodes, which are more common with long-acting preparations such as chlorpropamide. Another common side-effect is weight gain.

      In addition to these common side-effects, there are rarer adverse effects that can occur with sulfonylureas. One such effect is the syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion, which can lead to low sodium levels in the blood. Another rare side-effect is bone marrow suppression, which can cause a decrease in the production of blood cells. Sulfonylureas can also cause liver damage, specifically cholestatic liver injury. Finally, peripheral neuropathy, which is damage to the nerves that control movement and sensation in the limbs, can occur as a side-effect of sulfonylureas.

      It is important to note that not everyone who takes sulfonylureas will experience these side-effects, and some people may experience different side-effects than those listed here.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 16 - A 45-year-old woman presents for a routine blood pressure check. During a recent...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents for a routine blood pressure check. During a recent blood test, she was found to have a blood pressure of 160/80 mmHg and her home blood pressure diary shows similar results. She has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications. Her BMI is 24kg/m2. Her blood results are as follows: Na+ 139 mmol/L (135 - 145), K+ 3.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0), Urea 5.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0), Creatinine 61 µmol/L (55 - 120), and TSH 1.2 mU/L (0.5-5.5). What investigation would be most appropriate to request?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renin-aldosterone ratio

      Explanation:

      The initial test to investigate primary hyperaldosteronism, the most common secondary cause of hypertension, is the plasma aldosterone/renin ratio. This condition is often referred to as Conn’s syndrome and is characterized by hypertension and hypokalaemia, although potassium levels may be normal. To obtain accurate results, the test should be performed when the patient is not taking any antihypertensive medication, except for doxazosin.

      If phaeochromocytoma is suspected, a 24-hour urinary metanephrines test can be performed to rule it out. However, as the patient doesn’t exhibit any symptoms such as tremors or headaches, it is less likely to be the cause of hypertension.

      Renal imaging may be necessary if there is a suspicion of structural renal disease, such as polycystic kidney disease, or renal artery stenosis. The latter may be indicated if there is a significant increase in serum creatinine levels in response to ACE-inhibitors/A2RB medications without a corresponding decrease in blood pressure.

      If Addison’s disease is suspected, a 9 am cortisol test may be performed. This condition is characterized by hypotension and hyperkalaemia. On the other hand, if Cushing’s syndrome is suspected, an overnight dexamethasone suppression test is required.

      Primary hyperaldosteronism is a condition characterized by hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. It was previously believed that adrenal adenoma, also known as Conn’s syndrome, was the most common cause of this condition. However, recent studies have shown that bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia is responsible for up to 70% of cases. It is important to differentiate between the two causes as it determines the appropriate treatment. Adrenal carcinoma is an extremely rare cause of primary hyperaldosteronism.

      To diagnose primary hyperaldosteronism, the 2016 Endocrine Society recommends a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio as the first-line investigation. This test should show high aldosterone levels alongside low renin levels due to negative feedback from sodium retention caused by aldosterone. If the results are positive, a high-resolution CT abdomen and adrenal vein sampling are used to differentiate between unilateral and bilateral sources of aldosterone excess. If the CT is normal, adrenal venous sampling (AVS) can be used to distinguish between unilateral adenoma and bilateral hyperplasia.

      The management of primary hyperaldosteronism depends on the underlying cause. Adrenal adenoma is treated with surgery, while bilateral adrenocortical hyperplasia is managed with an aldosterone antagonist such as spironolactone. It is important to accurately diagnose and manage primary hyperaldosteronism to prevent complications such as cardiovascular disease and stroke.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 17 - A 42-year-old woman has presented to you with a six month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman has presented to you with a six month history of amenorrhoea. On examination you diagnose a mid trimester pregnancy. An ultrasound reveals a single live foetus of approximately 24 weeks gestation with multiple congenital defects including left ventricular hypoplasia.

      She comes to you for further discussion, having talked to the gynaecologist and neonatal paediatrician. She decides that she wishes to be referred for a termination of pregnancy.

      Who must sign the HSA 1 Form before a termination of pregnancy may proceed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A gynaecologist and any other registered doctor

      Explanation:

      Abortion Laws in the UK

      Under the UK Abortion Act 1967, a registered medical practitioner may terminate a pregnancy if two other registered medical practitioners agree and sign in good faith that certain conditions relating to the woman or her unborn foetus apply. These conditions were updated in 1990, but the requirement for two signatures remains unchanged. It is important to note that this requirement applies regardless of the stage of the pregnancy.

      To comply with these laws, healthcare providers must complete the HSA1 and HSA2 abortion forms. These forms require detailed information about the woman’s medical history and the reasons for seeking an abortion. The forms must also include the signatures of the two medical practitioners who have agreed that the conditions for a legal abortion have been met.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
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  • Question 18 - A 30-year-old woman is experiencing a range of symptoms such as headaches and...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman is experiencing a range of symptoms such as headaches and tingling sensations on her skin. She is worried that she might be suffering from multiple sclerosis. What is the typical way that multiple sclerosis presents itself?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Optic neuritis

      Explanation:

      Features of Multiple Sclerosis

      Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a condition that can present with nonspecific features, such as significant lethargy in around 75% of patients. Diagnosis is based on two or more relapses and either objective clinical evidence of two or more lesions or objective clinical evidence of one lesion with reasonable historical evidence of a previous relapse.

      MS can affect various parts of the body, leading to different symptoms. Visual symptoms include optic neuritis, optic atrophy, Uhthoff’s phenomenon, and internuclear ophthalmoplegia. Sensory symptoms may include pins and needles, numbness, trigeminal neuralgia, and Lhermitte’s syndrome. Motor symptoms may include spastic weakness, which is most commonly seen in the legs. Cerebellar symptoms may include ataxia and tremor. Other symptoms may include urinary incontinence, sexual dysfunction, and intellectual deterioration.

      It is important to note that MS symptoms can vary greatly between individuals and may change over time. Therefore, it is crucial for patients to work closely with their healthcare providers to manage their symptoms and receive appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 19 - You assess a 65-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus in the diabetes...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 65-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus in the diabetes clinic. His current blood pressure is 150/86 mmHg. His diabetes is well managed and there is no indication of end-organ damage. What is the recommended target blood pressure for him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      For individuals with type 2 diabetes, NICE suggests the following target for blood pressure:

      Blood Pressure Management in Diabetes Mellitus

      Patients with diabetes mellitus have traditionally been managed with lower blood pressure targets to reduce their overall cardiovascular risk. However, a 2013 Cochrane review found that tighter blood pressure control did not significantly improve outcomes for patients with diabetes, except for a slightly reduced rate of stroke. As a result, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of < 140/90 mmHg for type 2 diabetics, the same as for patients without diabetes. For patients with type 1 diabetes, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of 135/85 mmHg unless they have albuminuria or two or more features of metabolic syndrome, in which case the target should be 130/80 mmHg. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin-II receptor antagonists (A2RBs) are the first-line antihypertensive regardless of age, as they have a renoprotective effect in diabetes. A2RBs are preferred for black African or African-Caribbean diabetic patients. However, autonomic neuropathy may result in more postural symptoms in patients taking antihypertensive therapy. It is important to note that the routine use of beta-blockers in uncomplicated hypertension should be avoided, especially when given in combination with thiazides, as they may cause insulin resistance, impair insulin secretion, and alter the autonomic response to hypoglycemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 20 - A 27-year-old woman who is 16 weeks pregnant arrives at the Emergency Department...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman who is 16 weeks pregnant arrives at the Emergency Department with a worsening of her asthma symptoms. After receiving nebulised salbutamol, she stabilises and you are requested to assess her before discharge. She reports using only a salbutamol inhaler (100 mcg) as needed and identifies grass pollen as the most common trigger. Her current peak flow is 380 l/min (predicted 440 l/min) and her inhaler technique is satisfactory. What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add inhaled beclomethasone 200mcg bd

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, it is safe to use short-acting/long-acting beta 2-agonists, inhaled and oral corticosteroids as recommended by the British Thoracic Society (BTS) guidelines, even if the patient has asthma that is not well-controlled with a SABA.

      The management of asthma in adults has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 British Thoracic Society (BTS) guidelines. One of the significant changes is in ‘step 3’, where patients on a SABA + ICS whose asthma is not well controlled should be offered a leukotriene receptor antagonist, not a LABA. NICE doesn’t follow the stepwise approach of the previous BTS guidelines, but to make the guidelines easier to follow, we have added our own steps. It should be noted that NICE doesn’t recommend changing treatment in patients who have well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidance.

      The steps for managing asthma in adults are as follows: for newly-diagnosed asthma, a short-acting beta agonist (SABA) is recommended. If the patient is not controlled on the previous step or has symptoms >= 3/week or night-time waking, a SABA + low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) is recommended. For step 3, a SABA + low-dose ICS + leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) is recommended. Step 4 involves a SABA + low-dose ICS + long-acting beta agonist (LABA), and LTRA should be continued depending on the patient’s response. Step 5 involves a SABA +/- LTRA, and switching ICS/LABA for a maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) that includes a low-dose ICS. Step 6 involves a SABA +/- LTRA + medium-dose ICS MART, or changing back to a fixed-dose of a moderate-dose ICS and a separate LABA. Step 7 involves a SABA +/- LTRA + one of the following options: increasing ICS to high-dose (only as part of a fixed-dose regime, not as a MART), a trial of an additional drug (for example, a long-acting muscarinic receptor antagonist or theophylline), or seeking advice from a healthcare professional with expertise in asthma.

      It is important to note that the definitions of what constitutes a low, moderate, or high-dose ICS have changed. For adults, <= 400 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is considered a low dose, 400 micrograms - 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is a moderate dose, and > 800 micrograms budes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 21 - As part of a community health initiative, you are tasked with developing a...

    Incorrect

    • As part of a community health initiative, you are tasked with developing a program to enhance the well-being of infants in the area. What is the leading cause of mortality among infants aged over one month but under 12 months?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sudden infant death syndrome

      Explanation:

      Accidents become the leading cause of death in children after they turn one year old.

      Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is the leading cause of death in infants during their first year of life, with the highest incidence occurring at three months of age. There are several major risk factors associated with SIDS, including placing the baby to sleep on their stomach, parental smoking, prematurity, bed sharing, and hyperthermia or head covering. These risk factors are additive, meaning that the more risk factors present, the higher the likelihood of SIDS. Other risk factors include male sex, multiple births, lower social classes, and maternal drug use. SIDS incidence also tends to increase during the winter months. However, there are protective factors that can reduce the risk of SIDS, such as breastfeeding, room sharing (but not bed sharing), and the use of pacifiers. In the event of a SIDS case, it is important to screen siblings for potential sepsis and inborn errors of metabolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 22 - A 42-year-old woman underwent a work medical and her 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) showed...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman underwent a work medical and her 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) showed a corrected QT interval (QTc) of 500 milliseconds. She has no symptoms and has a medical history of hypothyroidism, carpal tunnel syndrome, anxiety, and recurrent sinusitis. Which medication from her list is most likely responsible for the abnormal ECG finding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      The use of macrolides, such as erythromycin and clarithromycin, has been associated with QT interval prolongation. Other antimicrobials like fluoroquinolones (e.g. ciprofloxacin) and oral antifungals (e.g. fluconazole, ketoconazole) have also been implicated. Additionally, certain medications used for arrhythmias (e.g. amiodarone), psychiatric disorders (e.g. haloperidol), and depression (e.g. citalopram) can cause QT prolongation. However, doxycycline, propranolol, levothyroxine, and ibuprofen are not known to have this effect.

      Macrolides are a class of antibiotics that include erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin. They work by blocking translocation during bacterial protein synthesis, ultimately inhibiting bacterial growth. While they are generally considered bacteriostatic, their effectiveness can vary depending on the dose and type of organism being treated. Resistance to macrolides can occur through post-transcriptional methylation of the 23S bacterial ribosomal RNA.

      However, macrolides can also have adverse effects. They may cause prolongation of the QT interval and gastrointestinal side-effects, such as nausea. Cholestatic jaundice is a potential risk, but using erythromycin stearate may reduce this risk. Additionally, macrolides are known to inhibit the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP3A4, which metabolizes statins. Therefore, it is important to stop taking statins while on a course of macrolides to avoid the risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. Azithromycin is also associated with hearing loss and tinnitus.

      Overall, while macrolides can be effective antibiotics, they do come with potential risks and side-effects. It is important to weigh the benefits and risks before starting a course of treatment with these antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 23 - Each of the following can lead to cataract formation except for one. Which...

    Incorrect

    • Each of the following can lead to cataract formation except for one. Which one is it?

      Down's syndrome
      12%
      Hypercalcaemia
      28%
      Diabetes mellitus
      6%
      Long-term steroid use
      6%
      Uveitis
      48%

      Is it true that hypocalcaemia, not hypercalcaemia, is a contributing factor to cataract formation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypercalcaemia

      Explanation:

      Cataract formation is more likely to occur due to hypocalcaemia rather than hypercalcaemia.

      Understanding Cataracts

      A cataract is a common eye condition that occurs when the lens of the eye becomes cloudy, making it difficult for light to reach the retina and causing reduced or blurred vision. Cataracts are more common in women and increase in incidence with age, affecting 30% of individuals aged 65 and over. The most common cause of cataracts is the normal ageing process, but other possible causes include smoking, alcohol consumption, trauma, diabetes mellitus, long-term corticosteroids, radiation exposure, myotonic dystrophy, and metabolic disorders such as hypocalcaemia.

      Patients with cataracts typically experience a gradual onset of reduced vision, faded colour vision, glare, and halos around lights. Signs of cataracts include a defect in the red reflex, which is the reddish-orange reflection seen through an ophthalmoscope when a light is shone on the retina. Diagnosis is made through ophthalmoscopy and slit-lamp examination, which reveal a visible cataract.

      In the early stages, age-related cataracts can be managed conservatively with stronger glasses or contact lenses and brighter lighting. However, surgery is the only effective treatment for cataracts, involving the removal of the cloudy lens and replacement with an artificial one. Referral for surgery should be based on the presence of visual impairment, impact on quality of life, patient choice, and the risks and benefits of surgery. Complications following surgery may include posterior capsule opacification, retinal detachment, posterior capsule rupture, and endophthalmitis. Despite these risks, cataract surgery has a high success rate, with 85-90% of patients achieving corrected vision of 6/12 or better on a Snellen chart postoperatively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 24 - A 30-year-old man who is typically healthy comes in with a cough that...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man who is typically healthy comes in with a cough that produces clear sputum and feeling generally unwell for the past three days. The physician provides him with a prescription for antibiotics to be filled at a later time. What is the estimated percentage of patients who will ultimately take antibiotics using this approach?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 33%

      Explanation:

      The Debate on Delayed Prescribing for Antibiotics

      Delayed prescribing has been a topic of debate for many years, particularly in relation to reducing antibiotic prescriptions for respiratory tract infections. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) currently advocates for this strategy, but its effectiveness and acceptability among patients remain in question.

      In 2013, Cochrane conducted a review of 10 studies on the delayed prescription of antibiotics for acute respiratory tract infections. The review found that delayed prescribing reduced antibiotic use from 93% to 32%, regardless of the method used (e.g. post-dated script, same-day script with advice to use after 48 hours). However, patient satisfaction levels were not significantly affected by delayed prescribing.

      Critics of delayed prescribing argue that patient satisfaction levels were just as high for patients who were refused antibiotics. Despite the ongoing debate, delayed prescribing remains a potential strategy for reducing unnecessary antibiotic use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 25 - Ms Adebayo, a 26-year-old patient, presents with a complaint of feeling constantly tired....

    Incorrect

    • Ms Adebayo, a 26-year-old patient, presents with a complaint of feeling constantly tired. She believes this has been happening gradually over the past few months and has no other specific physical symptoms. She is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill, a non-smoker, and reports drinking a bottle of wine per week. Ms Adebayo has a family history of thyroid disease and wonders if she is developing a thyroid problem. She also mentions that she has been a vegan for a couple of years and asks if this could be related.

      After conducting various blood tests, an abnormal full blood count was discovered:

      Hb 91 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 220 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 6.7 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      MCV 109 fL (80-100)

      What is the likely underlying cause of Ms Adebayo's fatigue?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B12 deficiency

      Explanation:

      A deficiency in Vitamin B12 is a risk factor for megaloblastic anaemia, which is the most likely cause in this case. Vegans are particularly susceptible to B12 deficiency as it is only naturally found in animal products. To prevent this, vegans should consume B12 fortified products or take supplements.

      Excessive alcohol consumption can also lead to megaloblastic anaemia, but there is no indication in the patient’s history to suggest this as the cause.

      Iron deficiency is an incorrect answer as it causes microcytic anaemia. However, vegans should still ensure they consume enough iron in their diet.

      Hyperthyroidism is also an incorrect answer as it is hypothyroidism that causes macrocytic anaemia.

      Vitamin B12 is essential for the development of red blood cells and the maintenance of the nervous system. It is absorbed through the binding of intrinsic factor, which is secreted by parietal cells in the stomach, and actively absorbed in the terminal ileum. A deficiency in vitamin B12 can be caused by pernicious anaemia, post gastrectomy, a vegan or poor diet, disorders or surgery of the terminal ileum, Crohn’s disease, or metformin use.

      Symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency include macrocytic anaemia, a sore tongue and mouth, neurological symptoms, and neuropsychiatric symptoms such as mood disturbances. The dorsal column is usually affected first, leading to joint position and vibration issues before distal paraesthesia.

      Management of vitamin B12 deficiency involves administering 1 mg of IM hydroxocobalamin three times a week for two weeks, followed by once every three months if there is no neurological involvement. If a patient is also deficient in folic acid, it is important to treat the B12 deficiency first to avoid subacute combined degeneration of the cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 26 - A 60-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis presents with nephrotic syndrome. Minimal change disease...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis presents with nephrotic syndrome. Minimal change disease is diagnosed.
      Which of the following drugs is most likely to be responsible for this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gold

      Explanation:

      Side Effects of Commonly Used Medications

      Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by proteinuria, oedema, hyperlipidaemia, and hypoalbuminaemia. It can be caused by various primary and secondary glomerular diseases, as well as certain drugs. Some drugs that can cause nephrotic syndrome include non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, captopril, lithium, gold, diamorphine, interferon alfa, penicillamine, and probenecid.

      Gold, specifically sodium aurothiomalate, is used to treat active progressive rheumatoid arthritis. However, it can cause immune complex nephritis, leading to unexplained proteinuria above 300 mg/l, and blood dyscrasias and gastrointestinal bleeding.

      Chloroquine is associated with several side effects, such as visual disturbances, skin reactions, nausea and vomiting, hepatitis, and abdominal pain. However, nephrotic syndrome and renal impairment are not known complications.

      Methotrexate can cause various blood dyscrasias and liver toxicity, but nephropathy is a rare complication.

      Paracetamol, when used in its oral form, has rare side effects. However, overdose can lead to liver damage, but kidney damage is infrequent.

      Prednisolone is associated with numerous side effects, including anxiety, abnormal behavior, cataracts, cognitive impairment, Cushing syndrome, hypertension, increased risk of infection, and weight gain. Renal complications are not commonly associated with prednisolone use.

      In summary, while these medications can be effective in treating certain conditions, it is important to be aware of their potential side effects and to monitor for any adverse reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 27 - A 42 year old patient is undergoing quadruple therapy (rifampicin, isoniazid, ethambutol and...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 year old patient is undergoing quadruple therapy (rifampicin, isoniazid, ethambutol and pyrizinamide) for pulmonary tuberculosis. The patient also takes sertraline for a history of depression. The patient reports a decline in vision, specifically a decrease in color vibrancy. Which medication is the most likely culprit?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ethambutol

      Explanation:

      The use of ethambutol has been linked to optic neuropathy and the onset of color blindness. If these symptoms occur, the medication should be stopped. To prevent these adverse effects, pyridoxine (vitamin B6) is often administered alongside ethambutol in medical settings.

      Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that can be treated with a combination of drugs. Each drug has a specific mechanism of action and can also cause side-effects. Rifampicin works by inhibiting bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. However, it is a potent liver enzyme inducer and can cause hepatitis, orange secretions, and flu-like symptoms.

      Isoniazid, on the other hand, inhibits mycolic acid synthesis. It can cause peripheral neuropathy, which can be prevented with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). It can also cause hepatitis and agranulocytosis, but it is a liver enzyme inhibitor.

      Pyrazinamide is converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid, which inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I. However, it can cause hyperuricaemia, leading to gout, as well as arthralgia and myalgia. It can also cause hepatitis.

      Finally, Ethambutol inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase, which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan. However, it can cause optic neuritis, so it is important to check visual acuity before and during treatment. The dose also needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 28 - A 16-year-old girl is brought in by her parents who are concerned about...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl is brought in by her parents who are concerned about her delayed onset of menstruation. They have noticed that all her peers have already started their periods and are worried that there may be an underlying issue.

      Blood tests reveal the following results:

      FSH 10 IU/L (4-8)
      LH 11 IU/L (4-8)

      What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Turner syndrome

      Explanation:

      If a patient with primary amenorrhea has elevated FSH/LH levels, it may indicate gonadal dysgenesis, such as Turner’s syndrome.

      Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management

      Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls with no secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.

      The causes of amenorrhoea vary depending on the type. Primary amenorrhoea may be caused by gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, and thyrotoxicosis. Meanwhile, secondary amenorrhoea may be caused by stress, excessive exercise, PCOS, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and other underlying medical conditions.

      To diagnose amenorrhoea, initial investigations may include pregnancy tests, full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels. Management of amenorrhoea involves treating the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause and treat the underlying cause accordingly. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis and other complications.

      In conclusion, amenorrhoea is a condition that requires proper diagnosis and management. Understanding the causes and appropriate investigations can help in providing the necessary treatment and care for women experiencing this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 29 - You come across a 16-year-old girl who complains of a painful and red...

    Incorrect

    • You come across a 16-year-old girl who complains of a painful and red right eye. She has been experiencing discomfort for the past two days and feels like there is something in her eye. She cannot recall anything entering her eye, and her vision seems to be affected. She has no history of facial herpes and is in good health otherwise.

      Upon examination, her visual acuity is reduced in the affected eye as she has removed her contact lenses this morning. The eye is watering and red, but the pupil reaction is normal. The anterior chamber appears normal, but there is a small superficial corneal injury visible upon staining the eye.

      Based on the most probable diagnosis, what would be the most appropriate course of treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for same day ophthalmology assessment

      Explanation:

      If a contact lens wearer experiences a minor injury to their cornea, it is important to refer them urgently to secondary care. This is because contact lens use increases the risk of Pseudomonas infection, which can cause serious damage to the eyes and requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Therefore, it is recommended that the patient be referred for immediate ophthalmology assessment.

      Corneal abrasions occur when there is damage to the outer layer of the cornea, often caused by physical trauma such as scratching or rubbing the eye. Symptoms include eye pain, tearing, sensitivity to light, a feeling of something in the eye, and reduced vision in the affected eye. Diagnosis is made through the use of fluorescein staining, which highlights the damaged area. Treatment typically involves the use of topical antibiotics to prevent infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 30 - A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a sleep disorder. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a sleep disorder. He reports experiencing a creeping, crawling sensation in his legs, which is so intense that he feels the need to constantly rub his legs together to relieve the sensation. He also has an irresistible urge to move around. He feels chronically sleep deprived, only able to sleep in the early hours of the morning and often falling asleep during the day. He recently started taking thyroxine replacement and has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and steatohepatitis, for which he takes amlodipine, ramipril, and gliclazide. On examination, his blood pressure is 145/82 mmg, and his respiratory, cardiovascular, and neurological examinations are normal. What is the most likely factor in his medical history associated with his presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Restless Legs Syndrome: Causes and Treatment

      Restless legs syndrome (RLS) is a condition characterized by an irresistible urge to move the legs, often accompanied by uncomfortable sensations. While RLS may be idiopathic, it can also be caused by underlying conditions such as hypothyroidism, anaemias, renal failure, polyneuropathies, rheumatoid arthritis, Sjögren’s syndrome, and amyloidosis. Treating any underlying secondary cause can improve symptoms, as can dopamine agonists. However, clinicians may dismiss the seriousness of RLS in the absence of demonstrable neurology, despite the significant impact on quality of life that sleep disturbance can have. It is important to recognize and address RLS to improve patients’ overall well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 31 - A 33-year-old male patient with a history of paranoid schizophrenia was admitted under...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old male patient with a history of paranoid schizophrenia was admitted under the Mental Health Act due to a decline in his mental health. During his inpatient stay, it was decided that Clozapine would be the most appropriate Antipsychotic for him and he was started on this medication. After his mental state stabilized, he was transferred to a rehabilitation unit. However, it was discovered that he had missed his Clozapine doses for two consecutive days. What is the recommended course of action to address these missed doses of Clozapine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Re-titrate the Clozapine doses again slowly

      Explanation:

      If a patient misses their clozapine doses for more than 48 hours, they will need to slowly restart their dose as if they were starting the medication for the first time. This process should be supervised by a Psychiatrist. Restarting clozapine after a break of more than 48 hours can exacerbate side effects such as changes in blood pressure, drowsiness, and dizziness. If the treatment gap exceeds 72 hours, the patient may require more frequent blood tests for a brief period.

      Patients taking antipsychotic medication require extensive monitoring in addition to clinical follow-up. The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends regular testing of full blood count (FBC), urea and electrolytes (U&E), and liver function tests (LFT) at the start of therapy and annually thereafter. Clozapine requires more frequent monitoring of FBC, initially weekly. Lipids and weight should be tested at the start of therapy, at 3 months, and annually. Fasting blood glucose and prolactin should be tested at the start of therapy, at 6 months, and annually. Blood pressure should be monitored frequently during dose titration, and an electrocardiogram and cardiovascular risk assessment should be done at baseline and annually. The BNF provides specific recommendations for individual drugs, and patients should consult their healthcare provider for more information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 32 - A 42-year-old male has recently been diagnosed with prostate cancer and is considering...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old male has recently been diagnosed with prostate cancer and is considering a new chemotherapeutic agent that is currently in a trial phase. However, there are concerns that the drug may increase the risk of developing thrombocytopenia. The patient wants to know his risk of developing thrombocytopenia if he decides to take this new drug.

      In a randomized study of age and sex-matched prostate cancer patients, 245 patients out of 800 patients who were taking the new agent did not develop thrombocytopenia. In the 1,500 patients who did not take the new agent, 1,100 developed thrombocytopenia.

      What is the relative risk of developing thrombocytopenia following treatment with this new chemotherapeutic agent?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1.3

      Explanation:

      The relative risk is the ratio of the proportion of individuals who develop the disease in the exposed group compared to those who develop the disease in the non-exposed group. In this case, the exposed group consists of 1,026 individuals and the non-exposed group consists of 2,017 individuals. Out of the exposed group, 710 individuals developed the disease, while in the non-exposed group, 1,059 individuals developed the disease.

      The calculation for the relative risk is (710/1,026)/(1,059/2,017), which equals 1.3. This means that individuals who were exposed to the new agent have a 1.3 times higher chance of developing aplastic anaemia compared to those who were not exposed.

      It is important to note that if the calculation was done as the ratio of the proportion of individuals who develop the disease in the non-exposed group compared to those who develop the disease in the exposed group, the result would be the reciprocal of the relative risk. Additionally, calculating the odds ratio would provide a different measure of the association between exposure and disease outcome.

      Understanding Relative Risk in Clinical Trials

      Relative risk (RR) is a measure used in clinical trials to compare the risk of an event occurring in the experimental group to the risk in the control group. It is calculated by dividing the experimental event rate (EER) by the control event rate (CER). If the resulting ratio is greater than 1, it means that the event is more likely to occur in the experimental group than in the control group. Conversely, if the ratio is less than 1, the event is less likely to occur in the experimental group.

      To calculate the relative risk reduction (RRR) or relative risk increase (RRI), the absolute risk change is divided by the control event rate. This provides a percentage that indicates the magnitude of the difference between the two groups. Understanding relative risk is important in evaluating the effectiveness of interventions and treatments in clinical trials. By comparing the risk of an event in the experimental group to the control group, researchers can determine whether the intervention is beneficial or not.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 33 - A 32-year-old male is brought to your clinic by his sister. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male is brought to your clinic by his sister. He has been convinced that aliens are monitoring his every move for 4 months, without any history of substance abuse. He claims to have heard their voices in his head and believes that they are planning to abduct him. His sister is worried that he might harm himself and reports that he has been talking about ways to escape from the aliens. When asked directly, the patient denies having suicidal thoughts but says he will do whatever it takes to avoid being taken by the aliens. He appears to have a blunted affect but is otherwise calm.

      What is the percentage of patients with this diagnosis who complete suicide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10%

      Explanation:

      It is common for individuals with schizophrenia to make statements about doing what it takes to avoid their perceived pursuers, such as taking a cyanide pill. However, these statements may not necessarily indicate overt suicidal plans or thoughts, but rather stem from delusions. Therefore, a comprehensive assessment of their mental state and other risk factors is necessary to accurately evaluate their level of risk for suicide.

      The risk of suicide in psychiatric patients is often stratified into high, medium, or low risk categories, but there is limited evidence on the positive predictive value of individual risk factors. A review in the BMJ concluded that these assessments may not be useful in guiding decision making, as 50% of suicides occur in patients deemed low risk. However, certain factors have been associated with an increased risk of suicide, such as male sex, history of deliberate self-harm, alcohol or drug misuse, mental illness, depression, schizophrenia, chronic disease, advancing age, unemployment or social isolation, and being unmarried, divorced, or widowed.

      If a patient has attempted suicide, there are additional factors that increase the risk of completed suicide in the future, such as efforts to avoid discovery, planning, leaving a written note, final acts such as sorting out finances, and using a violent method. On the other hand, there are protective factors that can reduce the risk of suicide, such as having family support, having children at home, and having a religious belief.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 34 - A 28-year-old woman is 32 weeks pregnant. She visits surgery with worries about...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is 32 weeks pregnant. She visits surgery with worries about reduced fetal movement. You decide to refer her to the maternal health unit.

      What would be the most suitable initial investigation to perform?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Handheld Doppler for fetal heartbeat

      Explanation:

      When a pregnant woman reports reduced fetal movements, it is important to investigate the cause as it can indicate a risk of stillbirth and fetal growth restriction. The first step in this investigation should be to use a handheld Doppler to confirm the presence of a fetal heartbeat.

      If a fetal heartbeat is detected with the handheld Doppler and the pregnancy is over 28 weeks gestation, a CTG should be used to monitor the fetal heart rate for at least 20 minutes to assess for any fetal compromise.

      The guidelines recommend assessing fetal movements based on the subjective perception of the mother. If a mother reports reduced fetal movements, there is no need for further counting of fetal movements.

      If no fetal heartbeat is detected with the handheld Doppler, an immediate ultrasound should be offered. If there is still concern about reduced fetal movements despite a normal CTG, an urgent ultrasound can be used to assess abdominal circumference or estimated fetal weight and amniotic fluid volume measurement, rather than ultrasound with Doppler.

      Understanding Reduced Fetal Movements

      Reduced fetal movements can indicate fetal distress and are a cause for concern as they can lead to stillbirth and fetal growth restriction. It is believed that there may also be a link between reduced fetal movements and placental insufficiency. Fetal movements usually start between 18-20 weeks gestation and increase until 32 weeks gestation, after which the frequency of movement tends to plateau. Multiparous women may experience fetal movements sooner, from 16-18 weeks gestation. Fetal movements should not reduce towards the end of pregnancy.

      There is no established definition for what constitutes reduced fetal movements, but the RCOG considers less than 10 movements within 2 hours (in pregnancies past 28 weeks gestation) an indication for further assessment. Reduced fetal movements are a fairly common presentation, affecting up to 15% of pregnancies. Risk factors for reduced fetal movements include posture, distraction, placental position, medication, fetal position, body habitus, amniotic fluid volume, and fetal size.

      Investigations for reduced fetal movements are dependent on gestation at onset. If past 28 weeks gestation, handheld Doppler should be used to confirm fetal heartbeat. If no fetal heartbeat is detectable, immediate ultrasound should be offered. If fetal heartbeat is present, CTG should be used for at least 20 minutes to monitor fetal heart rate which can assist in excluding fetal compromise. If concern remains, despite normal CTG, urgent (within 24 hours) ultrasound can be used. If between 24 and 28 weeks gestation, a handheld Doppler should be used to confirm the presence of fetal heartbeat. If below 24 weeks gestation, and fetal movements have previously been felt, a handheld Doppler should be used. If fetal movements have not yet been felt by 24 weeks, onward referral should be made to a maternal fetal medicine unit.

      While reduced fetal movements can be a cause for concern, in 70% of pregnancies with a single episode of reduced fetal movement, there is no onward complication. However, between 40-55% of women who suffer from stillbirth experience reduced fetal movements prior to diagnosis. Therefore, it is important for expectant mothers to be aware of their baby’s movements and seek medical attention if they notice a decrease in fetal movements.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 35 - A 16-year-old girl is worried that she might have an underlying endocrine issue....

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl is worried that she might have an underlying endocrine issue. She is a bright student and has secured a place at college. She weighs 37 kg (5 stone 11 pounds) and is 1.75 m (5ft 9 inches) tall. She appears malnourished, her skin is dry, and she has excessive growth of fine soft body hair. She has not had her period for six months. Her cortisol level is elevated, and her free thyroxine (T4) is normal. She is not anemic but has a decreased white cell and platelet count.
      What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anorexia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Endocrine Findings in Anorexia Nervosa Compared to Other Conditions

      Anorexia nervosa is a condition characterized by severe weight loss due to self-imposed starvation. Endocrine findings in anorexia nervosa include decreased levels of follicular-stimulating hormone (FSH), luteinising hormone (LH), and oestrogens, as well as urinary 17-hydroxy-corticosteroids. However, T4 and thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels are usually normal, while growth hormone and cortisol levels may be elevated. Other possible findings include reduced white cell and platelet count, hypoglycaemia, metabolic alkalosis, hypocalcaemia, hypokalaemia, and hypomagnesaemia.

      On the other hand, Addison’s disease, which also causes weight loss, is characterized by reduced cortisol levels. HIV infection may lead to endocrine disorders such as hypogonadism, hypothyroidism, and adrenal excess or insufficiency, but there is no information to support this diagnosis in the given case. Hypothyroidism, which may cause weight gain, is characterized by reduced T4 levels, but this is not the case in anorexia nervosa. Finally, occult carcinoma, which may cause weight loss, is not likely in this case, as the weight loss is chronic and typical of anorexia nervosa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 36 - Multiple myeloma is a monoclonal gammopathy that is characterised by proliferation of a...

    Incorrect

    • Multiple myeloma is a monoclonal gammopathy that is characterised by proliferation of a single clone of plasma cells that produce a homogeneous M protein (paraprotein).
      Select from the list the single correct statement relating to M protein in individuals over the age of 60.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It produces a distinctive spike on electrophoresis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Multiple Myeloma: A Clonal Disorder of Plasma Cells

      Multiple myeloma is a rare but serious type of cancer that affects plasma cells in the bone marrow. It is characterized by the presence of monoclonal immunoglobulin, which can be detected through serum electrophoresis. Patients with multiple myeloma often experience painful bone lesions, recurrent infections, weakness, renal failure, and hypercalcemia.

      Plasma cells produce heavy and light chains separately, and an excess of free light chains can enter the bloodstream and be filtered by the kidneys. In cases of multiple myeloma, the amount of monoclonal free light chains can become too high for the kidneys to reabsorb, leading to the presence of Bence Jones protein in the urine.

      While monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance can also cause a spike-like peak in the γ-globulin zone, the levels of antibody are lower and there are no other features of myeloma. Some cases of myeloma may secrete only light chains or no detectable immunoglobulin at all.

      The amount of M protein present can be used to assess the amount of myeloma at diagnosis and track the disease throughout treatment. Understanding the characteristics and detection of multiple myeloma is crucial for effective management and care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 37 - A 44-year-old woman has experienced a spontaneous iliofemoral venous thrombosis. She has tested...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old woman has experienced a spontaneous iliofemoral venous thrombosis. She has tested positive for the lupus anticoagulant and her anticardiolipin antibodies are elevated to > 50 U/l. What is the appropriate duration of anticoagulant therapy and what INR level should be targeted?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2.5 Lifelong

      Explanation:

      INR Targets for Antiphospholipid Syndrome

      Antiphospholipid syndrome (APS) is a condition characterized by the presence of lupus anticoagulant and anticardiolipin antibody, and it increases the risk of thrombotic events. The appropriate target for international normalized ratio (INR) varies depending on the patient’s history and risk factors.

      For patients with a single episode of venous thromboembolism (VTE) while being anticoagulated, the target INR should be 2.5. Treatment for significant thrombotic events in patients with APS is generally Lifelong, and the target INR should be maintained at 2.5.

      Patients who experience recurrent thrombotic events while well anticoagulated may require an INR of 3.5. This higher target is appropriate for patients with arterial thrombosis or recurrent VTE despite adequate anticoagulation. In these cases, Lifelong anticoagulation is necessary, given that the risk of VTE is ongoing.

      In high-risk situations, such as surgery or prolonged immobilization, thromboprophylaxis may be necessary in addition to maintaining the appropriate INR target. Close monitoring and individualized treatment plans are essential for managing APS and preventing thrombotic events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 38 - A 25-year-old woman comes in seeking to switch from her current Microgynon 30...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes in seeking to switch from her current Microgynon 30 COC to another option due to experiencing mood swings. The decision is made to start her on Marvelon. What guidance should be provided regarding transitioning to a new COC?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Finish the current pill packet and the start the new COC without a pill free interval

      Explanation:

      There is conflicting advice from the BNF and Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) regarding the omission of the pill free interval. The FSRH’s Clinical Effectiveness Unit has stated that the pill free interval doesn’t need to be skipped, while the BNF recommends skipping it if there are changes in progesterone. As there is no clear consensus, it is advisable to follow the BNF’s recommendation.

      Special Situations for Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      Concurrent Antibiotic Use:
      In the UK, doctors have previously advised that taking antibiotics concurrently with the combined oral contraceptive pill may interfere with the enterohepatic circulation of oestrogen, making the pill ineffective. As a result, extra precautions were advised during antibiotic treatment and for seven days afterwards. However, this approach is not taken in the US or most of mainland Europe. In 2011, the Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare updated their guidelines, abandoning the previous approach. The latest edition of the British National Formulary (BNF) has also been updated in line with this guidance. Precautions should still be taken with enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin.

      Switching Combined Oral Contraceptive Pills:
      The BNF and Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) appear to give contradictory advice on switching combined oral contraceptive pills. The Clinical Effectiveness Unit of the FSRH has stated in the Combined Oral Contraception guidelines that the pill-free interval doesn’t need to be omitted. However, the BNF advises missing the pill-free interval if the progesterone changes. Given the uncertainty, it is best to follow the BNF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 39 - Which statement accurately describes chest pain? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes chest pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pleuritic pain is sharp and localised and aggravated by coughing

      Explanation:

      Pain and Innervation in the Diaphragm, Lungs, and Pericardium

      The diaphragm is innervated by the phrenic nerve, which only supplies the central portion of the muscle. Therefore, pain originating in the outer diaphragm will not be referred to the tip of the shoulder. Additionally, the lung parenchyma and visceral pleura are insensitive to pain, meaning that any discomfort felt in these areas is likely due to surrounding structures.

      Pericarditis, inflammation of the pericardium surrounding the heart, can cause chest pain. However, this pain is typically relieved by sitting forward. This is because the pericardium is attached to the diaphragm and sternum, and sitting forward can reduce pressure on these structures, alleviating the pain. Understanding the innervation and sensitivity of these structures can aid in the diagnosis and management of chest pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 40 - Which of the following patients is most likely to develop nasal polyps? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following patients is most likely to develop nasal polyps?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 40-year-old man

      Explanation:

      Male adults are the most commonly affected by nasal polyps.

      Understanding Nasal Polyps

      Nasal polyps are a relatively uncommon condition affecting around 1% of adults in the UK. They are more commonly seen in men and are not typically found in children or the elderly. There are several associations with nasal polyps, including asthma (particularly late-onset asthma), aspirin sensitivity, infective sinusitis, cystic fibrosis, Kartagener’s syndrome, and Churg-Strauss syndrome. When asthma, aspirin sensitivity, and nasal polyposis occur together, it is known as Samter’s triad.

      The most common features of nasal polyps include nasal obstruction, rhinorrhoea, sneezing, and a poor sense of taste and smell. However, if a patient experiences unilateral symptoms or bleeding, further investigation is always necessary.

      If a patient is suspected of having nasal polyps, they should be referred to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist for a full examination. Treatment typically involves the use of topical corticosteroids, which can shrink polyp size in around 80% of patients. With proper management, most patients with nasal polyps can experience relief from their symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 41 - A 15-year-old sustains an injury playing football and presents with pain in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old sustains an injury playing football and presents with pain in the thigh and a shorter leg.

      Possible diagnoses include which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Slipped femoral epiphysis

      Explanation:

      Slipped Upper Femoral Epiphysis

      Slipped upper femoral epiphysis is a condition that primarily affects boys aged 10 to 15. It occurs when the upper femoral epiphysis slips in a posterior inferior direction with respect to the femur. The exact cause of this condition is unclear, but it has been suggested that hormonal or calcification abnormalities may play a role. Obese children with delayed secondary sexual development or tall thin boys are particularly susceptible.

      Symptoms of slipped upper femoral epiphysis include rest pain, limp, pain on movement, reduced range of abduction and internal rotation, and an externally rotated and shortened affected leg. It is important to note that musculoskeletal disease doesn’t typically present with a shortened leg.

      Other conditions that may be mistaken for slipped upper femoral epiphysis include Perthes’ disease, Osgood-Schlatter syndrome, and chondromalacia patellae. Perthes’ disease is avascular necrosis of the femoral head in childhood, while Osgood-Schlatter syndrome is an overuse syndrome associated with physical exertion before skeletal maturity. Chondromalacia patellae is softening of the articular cartilage of the patella usually caused by indirect trauma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 42 - A 28-year-old female comes to the clinic with a worsening of her asthma...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female comes to the clinic with a worsening of her asthma symptoms. During the examination, her peak flow is measured at 300 l/min (normally 450 l/min) and she is able to speak in full sentences. Her pulse is 90 bpm and her respiratory rate is 18 / min. Upon chest examination, bilateral expiratory wheezing is detected, but there are no other notable findings. What is the best course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nebulised salbutamol + prednisolone + allow home if settles with follow-up review

      Explanation:

      Asthma Assessment and Management in Primary Care

      Asthma is a chronic respiratory condition that affects millions of people worldwide. In primary care, patients with acute asthma are stratified into moderate, severe, or life-threatening categories based on their symptoms. For moderate asthma, treatment involves the use of beta 2 agonists such as salbutamol, either nebulized or via a spacer. If the patient’s peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) is between 50-75%, prednisolone 40-50 mg may also be prescribed.

      For severe asthma, admission may be necessary, and oxygen should be given to hypoxemic patients to maintain a SpO2 of 94-98%. Beta 2 agonists such as salbutamol, either nebulized or via a spacer, and prednisolone 40-50 mg should also be administered. If there is no response to treatment, admission is recommended.

      In life-threatening asthma cases, immediate admission should be arranged through a 999 call. Oxygen should be given to hypoxemic patients to maintain a SpO2 of 94-98%, and nebulized beta 2 agonists (e.g. Salbutamol) + ipratropium should be administered. Prednisolone 40-50 mg or IV hydrocortisone 100 mg may also be prescribed.

      In summary, the management of asthma in primary care involves stratifying patients based on their symptoms and administering appropriate treatment based on their category. It is important to closely monitor patients and adjust treatment as necessary to prevent exacerbations and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 43 - A 5-year-old child is seen in surgery with malaise and a rash.

    What features...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old child is seen in surgery with malaise and a rash.

      What features would lead you to suspect that this child has measles?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Violaceous papules on the wrists

      Explanation:

      Understanding Koplik Spots in Measles Diagnosis

      Koplik spots are a crucial clinical sign of measles infection, named after the American Paediatrician, Henry Koplik, who first described them in 1896. These spots appear as red spots with a bluish-white central dot on erythematous buccal mucosa, often described as looking like grains of salt on a wet background. They typically appear 1-2 days before the rash and may persist for a further 1-2 days afterwards.

      It is essential for healthcare professionals to recognize Koplik spots as a pathognomonic feature of measles infection. However, fewer doctors may know how to identify them. Other clinical signs, such as herald patches, sub occipital lymph nodes, oral ulceration, and violaceous papules on the wrist, are not specific to measles and may lead to misdiagnosis.

      In addition to accurate diagnosis, infection control measures should be considered in the GP surgery/OOH setting. For example, scheduling appointments for suspected measles patients at the end of surgery to avoid sharing a waiting room with vulnerable individuals. It is also crucial for healthcare workers and carers to ensure they are immune or have received 2 × MMR vaccines themselves to prevent the spread of measles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 44 - A 35-year-old man has been admitted to the hospital for investigation of worsening...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man has been admitted to the hospital for investigation of worsening muscle weakness in his upper and lower limbs over the last 10 years. The patient says he had never been interested in sports at school and that his father had problems with his gait for years. On examination, cognition, bulbar function and cranial nerves are all normal. Examination of the limbs shows distal symmetrical wasting and weakness in his arms and legs. There is areflexia. Tone is normal. There are no visible fasciculation. Vibration, pain and temperature are impaired in both hands and feet. There is kyphoscoliosis and bilateral pes cavus.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Charcot–Marie–Tooth disease

      Explanation:

      Neurological Disorders: A Comparison

      When presented with a patient exhibiting neuromuscular symptoms and signs, it is important to consider various possible diagnoses. In this case, the presence of musculoskeletal deformities and a family history of gait difficulties suggest a hereditary basis for the patient’s condition. The following are some potential diagnoses to consider:

      Charcot-Marie-Tooth Disease (CMT): This is the most common inherited polyneuropathy, affecting approximately 1 in 2500 people. It typically presents with distal limb muscle wasting and sensory loss, with proximal progression over time. However, the disease course can vary greatly.

      Vitamin B12 Deficiency: Neurological features of this deficiency may include peripheral neuropathy and subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord. However, skeletal defects will be absent.

      Acquired Chronic Inflammatory Demyelinating Polyneuropathy (CIDP): This is a chronically progressive or relapsing symmetric sensorimotor disorder that lacks the skeletal deformities of CMT.

      Motor Neurone Disease (MND): This tends to present with early signs of weakness in an ankle or leg, or a weak grip. It then progresses, leading to problems with slurred speech or swallowing. However, this patient’s relatively young age and symptoms suggest an inherited neurological problem rather than MND.

      Spinal Muscular Atrophy: This is a spectrum of genetically inherited disorders that present with muscle weakness and wasting. It lacks the sensory loss of CMT.

      In conclusion, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s symptoms and medical history is necessary to determine the most likely diagnosis and appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 45 - A 42-year-old woman visits the GP clinic complaining of feeling easily fatigued. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman visits the GP clinic complaining of feeling easily fatigued. Upon further inquiry, it is discovered that she experiences double vision towards the end of the day and that her level of tiredness increases with physical activity. During the examination, she reports that her hands feel exhausted after repeatedly opening and closing them for 5 minutes. What is the most conclusive test for diagnosing this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-acetylcholine receptor antibodies

      Explanation:

      Myasthenia gravis is a condition that affects a significant number of patients and is often associated with the presence of Antimuscarinic antibodies. Thymomas are typically linked to the presence of anti-striational receptor antibodies. While MRI scanning is important in ruling out other potential causes of symptoms, it is not a diagnostic tool. Lumbar puncture is not useful in diagnosing myasthenia gravis, but it can help eliminate infection as a potential cause when there is a mixed clinical presentation.

      Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that results in muscle weakness and fatigue, particularly in the eyes, face, neck, and limbs. It is more common in women and is associated with thymomas and other autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis is made through electromyography and testing for antibodies to acetylcholine receptors. Treatment includes acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and immunosuppression, and in severe cases, plasmapheresis or intravenous immunoglobulins may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 46 - A 14-year-old girl comes to the clinic with her parents who are worried...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl comes to the clinic with her parents who are worried about her experiencing recurrent episodes of abdominal pain, loss of appetite, and nausea for the past two months. Upon further inquiry, the pain is severe, occurs in the mornings, is intermittent, and can happen during vacations. Her weight is at the 50th percentile, and there are no abnormalities found during the examination. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abdominal migraine

      Explanation:

      Abdominal Migraine: Recurrent Episodes of Midline Abdominal Pain in Children

      Abdominal migraine is a disorder that mainly affects children and is characterized by recurrent episodes of midline abdominal pain. The pain can last from 1-72 hours and is of moderate to severe intensity. During the attacks, patients may experience anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. Marked pallor is commonly noted, and some patients may appear flushed. The pain is severe enough to interfere with normal daily activities, and many children describe their mood during the attack as one of intense misery. However, patients are completely symptom-free between attacks.

      Abdominal migraine is an idiopathic disorder, meaning that the cause is unknown. It is unlikely to be school avoidance as the symptoms are episodic and can occur outside of school times.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 47 - A 16-year-old boy is diagnosed with Norwegian scabies.

    Which of the following statements regarding...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy is diagnosed with Norwegian scabies.

      Which of the following statements regarding Norwegian scabies is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is caused by Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Scabies: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Scabies is a skin infestation caused by the microscopic mite Sarcoptes scabiei. It is a common condition that affects people of all races and social classes worldwide. Scabies spreads rapidly in crowded conditions where there is frequent skin-to-skin contact, such as in hospitals, institutions, child-care facilities, and nursing homes. The infestation can be easily spread to sexual partners and household members, and may also occur by sharing clothing, towels, and bedding.

      The symptoms of scabies include papular-like irritations, burrows, or rash of the skin, particularly in the webbing between the fingers, skin folds on the wrist, elbow, or knee, the penis, breast, and shoulder blades. Treatment options for scabies include permethrin ointment, benzyl benzoate, and oral ivermectin for resistant cases. Antihistamines and calamine lotion may also be used to alleviate itching.

      It is important to note that whilst common scabies is not associated with eosinophilia, Norwegian scabies is associated with massive infestation, and as such, eosinophilia is a common finding. Norwegian scabies also carries a very high level of infectivity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 48 - A 44-year-old man comes to your clinic with a complaint of diplopia on...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old man comes to your clinic with a complaint of diplopia on left, right and down gaze for the past three months. He reports that this symptom worsens towards the end of the day. Additionally, he mentions that his family members have noticed that his speech has become more slurred over the last three months. He also reports difficulty drinking water over the past month. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this man's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Referral to a physician urgently

      Explanation:

      Myasthenia: A Medical Emergency

      This case presents with diplopia that worsens towards the end of the day, without following any pattern of cranial nerve palsies. This suggests fatigue and raises the possibility of myasthenia. The patient also experiences slurring speech and difficulties in swallowing, indicating that the extraocular muscles and bulbar function are affected.

      Myasthenia is a medical emergency that requires urgent referral to a physician or neurologist for further investigations and treatment. Failure to do so may result in aspiration pneumonia, which can be life-threatening. Therefore, prompt action is necessary to prevent complications and ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 49 - A woman who is 16 weeks pregnant is planning to travel with her...

    Incorrect

    • A woman who is 16 weeks pregnant is planning to travel with her husband to the Middle East and South America for his job. She wants to know which vaccinations are safe to receive during pregnancy.

      Which of the following vaccinations can be given without significant risk to the woman and her developing fetus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Yellow fever

      Explanation:

      Vaccinations for Travelers

      Hepatitis A and B vaccinations are made from viral antigens and do not contain any living hepatitis virus component. For individuals traveling to countries with a high risk of hepatitis A, vaccination may be recommended. However, it is important to note that the other vaccines listed, such as polio, are live vaccinations. The polio vaccine can be administered orally or through an intramuscular injection, depending on the preparation used. It is crucial for travelers to consult with a healthcare professional to determine which vaccinations are necessary for their specific travel plans.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 50 - As a salaried GP working in a GP surgery, you recently had a...

    Incorrect

    • As a salaried GP working in a GP surgery, you recently had a consultation with a 75-year-old man who presented with an unsightly left hallux toenail. The nail was thickened and had a yellowish tinge, leading you to suspect a fungal toenail infection. After arranging nail scrapings and sending them off to the laboratory for analysis, the results have returned positive for Trichophyton rubrum. You call the patient to discuss the results and he is eager to know what treatment options are available.

      What would be the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral terbinafine, taken once daily for 3-6 months

      Explanation:

      Fungal toenail infections caused by Trichophyton rubrum are challenging to treat and require extended courses of oral antifungal medication. Terbinafine is the preferred option and treatment usually lasts for 3-6 months. However, terbinafine can have harmful effects on the liver, so liver function tests should be conducted regularly during treatment. Oral itraconazole is another option, but it is typically used for fungal nail infections caused by yeasts and given as pulsed therapy. Topical creams are not effective for treating fungal toenail infections. In this case, the patient’s asymptomatic fungal toenail doesn’t require urgent surgical removal. A podiatrist referral may be considered if the patient has a high-risk foot or difficulty caring for their nails, but an urgent referral is not necessary.

      Fungal Nail Infections: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Fungal nail infections, also known as onychomycosis, can affect any part of the nail or the entire nail unit. However, toenails are more susceptible to infection than fingernails. The primary cause of fungal nail infections is dermatophytes, with Trichophyton rubrum being the most common. Yeasts, such as Candida, and non-dermatophyte molds can also cause fungal nail infections. Risk factors for developing a fungal nail infection include increasing age, diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and repeated nail trauma.

      The most common symptom of a fungal nail infection is thickened, rough, and opaque nails. Patients may present with unsightly nails, which can be a source of embarrassment. Differential diagnoses include psoriasis, repeated trauma, lichen planus, and yellow nail syndrome. To confirm a fungal nail infection, nail clippings or scrapings of the affected nail should be examined under a microscope and cultured. However, the false-negative rate for cultures is around 30%, so repeat samples may be necessary if clinical suspicion is high.

      Asymptomatic fungal nail infections do not require treatment unless the patient is bothered by the appearance. Topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer is recommended for limited involvement, while oral terbinafine is the first-line treatment for more extensive involvement due to a dermatophyte infection. Fingernail infections require 6 weeks to 3 months of therapy, while toenails should be treated for 3 to 6 months. Oral itraconazole is recommended for more extensive involvement due to a Candida infection, with pulsed weekly therapy being the preferred method.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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