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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old female presents with fatigue and episodic palpitations.
She presents during one of these episodes and the ECG reveals atrial fibrillation which resolves within 30 minutes.
What would be the most appropriate next investigation for this patient?Your Answer: 24 hour ECG monitoring
Correct Answer: Thyroid function tests
Explanation:Paroxysmal Atrial Fibrillation: Possible Causes and Diagnostic Tests
Paroxysmal atrial fibrillation (AF) can have various underlying causes, including thyrotoxicosis, mitral stenosis, ischaemic heart disease, and alcohol consumption. Therefore, it is essential to conduct thyroid function tests to aid in the diagnosis of AF, as it can be challenging to identify based solely on clinical symptoms. Additionally, an echocardiogram should be requested to evaluate left ventricular function and valve function, which would be obtained from a cardiologist. However, coronary angiography is unlikely to be performed. A full blood count, calcium, erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), or lipid tests would not be useful in characterizing and treating AF. By conducting these diagnostic tests, healthcare professionals can identify the underlying cause of AF and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 2
Correct
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A 68-year-old man presents to the clinic with his wife. She is worried about his significant cognitive decline over the past few months. Throughout the day, his level of consciousness fluctuates greatly, and he often sleeps for two hours or more. One of your colleagues prescribed him benzodiazepines to aid his sleep, and he reportedly drinks a glass of whisky in the evening. Additionally, there are concerns about visual hallucinations. During the examination, you observe signs of Parkinsonism.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Lewy body dementia
Explanation:Understanding Lewy Body Dementia
Lewy body dementia is a unique type of dementia that shares characteristics with both dementia and Parkinson’s disease. Patients with Lewy body dementia often experience fluctuating levels of consciousness, with daytime somnolence lasting more than two hours per day. They may also experience visual hallucinations, Parkinsonian movement features, delusions, and syncopal attacks more commonly than other types of dementia.
It is important for healthcare professionals to be able to recognize the main features of Lewy body dementia and avoid prescribing traditional neuroleptics, which can significantly impact movement and even result in sudden death for patients with this disease. With an increased emphasis on the diagnosis and management of dementia in primary care, having an awareness of the different types of dementia and their respective aetiologies and risk factors is crucial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presents with a 10-day history of mucopurulent anal discharge, anal bleeding, and pain during defecation.
What is the MOST PROBABLE diagnosis?Your Answer: Crohn’s disease
Correct Answer: Gonorrhoea
Explanation:Symptoms and Causes of Rectal Infections
Rectal infections can have various symptoms and causes. Gonorrhoea, for instance, is often asymptomatic but may cause anal discharge or perianal/anal pain, pruritus, or bleeding. Primary syphilis, on the other hand, is characterized by a painless ulcer or chancre. Candidiasis is associated with a perianal intertrigenous rash, while Crohn’s disease may lead to perianal pendulous skin tags, abscesses, and fistulas. Salmonella infection, meanwhile, causes acute diarrhea, vomiting, abdominal cramps, and fever. It is important to seek medical attention if you experience any of these symptoms to receive proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 4
Correct
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A 72-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of jaundice and weight loss. He reports having pale coloured stool and dark urine. He denies experiencing any abdominal pain or fever. He has no significant medical or family history.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Pancreatic adenocarcinoma
Explanation:Diagnosing Pancreatic Adenocarcinoma: Understanding the Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis
Pancreatic adenocarcinoma is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. One of the key symptoms of this condition is painless jaundice, which is often accompanied by weight loss. This is due to the obstructive jaundice that occurs when the tumor is located at the head of the pancreas. Other symptoms may include pale stools and dark urine.
It is important to note that patients may present with these symptoms before experiencing abdominal pain. This is why it is crucial to refer any patient aged 40 years and over with jaundice for suspected pancreatic cancer, according to National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidance.
When considering a differential diagnosis, gallstone obstruction and cholecystitis can be ruled out due to the absence of severe abdominal pain. Chronic pancreatitis is also unlikely due to the lack of abdominal pain and the rarity of jaundice as a symptom. Hepatitis A may present with similar symptoms, but abdominal pain occurs in only 40% of patients.
In conclusion, understanding the symptoms and differential diagnosis of pancreatic adenocarcinoma is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment. Any patient with jaundice should be referred for suspected pancreatic cancer, regardless of other symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old lady is on warfarin for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation. She comes in with a significantly elevated INR. Which of the following drugs is the most probable cause?
Your Answer: St John's wort
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Drug Interactions with Warfarin
Ciprofloxacin, a cytochrome p450 inhibitor, can prolong the half-life of warfarin and increase the international normalized ratio (INR). However, the reaction is not always predictable, and susceptibility may be influenced by factors such as fever, infection, or malnutrition. While aspirin is known to increase the risk of bleeding due to its antiplatelet activity, it doesn’t have a clear relationship with INR.
Drugs that are metabolized in the liver can induce hepatic microsomal enzymes, which can increase the rate of metabolism of another drug, resulting in lower plasma concentrations and a reduced effect. St. John’s wort is an enzyme inducer and can increase the metabolism of warfarin, making it less effective. It is important to be aware of potential drug interactions with warfarin to ensure its effectiveness and prevent adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Barbara is a 57-year-old woman who has come to see you after high blood pressure readings during a routine check with the nurse.
You take two blood pressure readings, the lower of which is 190/126 mmHg.
Barbara has no headache or chest pain. On examination of her cardiovascular and neurological systems, there are no abnormalities. Fundoscopy is normal.
What is the most crucial next step to take?Your Answer: Refer for specialist same-day assessment
Correct Answer: Urgently carry out investigations for target organ damage including ECG, urine dip and blood tests
Explanation:If Cynthia’s blood pressure is equal to or greater than 180/120 mmHg and she has no worrying signs, the first step is to urgently investigate for any damage to her organs.
According to NICE guidelines, if a person has severe hypertension but no symptoms or signs requiring immediate referral, investigations for target organ damage should be carried out as soon as possible. Since Cynthia has no such symptoms or signs, investigating for target organ damage is the correct option.
If target organ damage is found, antihypertensive drug treatment should be considered immediately, without waiting for the results of ABPM or HBPM. Therefore, prescribing a calcium channel blocker is not the correct answer as assessing for organ damage is the more urgent priority.
Repeating clinic blood pressure measurement within 7 days at this stage would not be helpful in guiding further management, as assessing for target organ damage is the priority. NICE recommends repeating clinic blood pressure measurement within 7 days only if no target organ damage is identified.
Assessing for target organ damage involves testing for protein and haematuria in the urine, measuring HbA1C, electrolytes, creatinine, estimated glomerular filtration rate, total cholesterol, and HDL cholesterol in the blood, examining the fundi for hypertensive retinopathy, and performing a 12-lead electrocardiograph.
NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines recommend classifying hypertension into stages and using ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension. This is because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM provide a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can help prevent overdiagnosis.
To diagnose hypertension, NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms and repeating the measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg. If the difference remains, subsequent blood pressures should be recorded from the arm with the higher reading. NICE also recommends taking a second reading during the consultation if the first reading is above 140/90 mmHg. ABPM or HBPM should be offered to any patient with a blood pressure above this level.
If the blood pressure is above 180/120 mmHg, NICE recommends admitting the patient for specialist assessment if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms such as new-onset confusion, chest pain, signs of heart failure, or acute kidney injury. Referral is also recommended if a phaeochromocytoma is suspected. If none of these apply, urgent investigations for end-organ damage should be arranged. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately. If no target organ damage is identified, clinic blood pressure measurement should be repeated within 7 days.
ABPM should involve at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours, with the average value of at least 14 measurements used. If ABPM is not tolerated or declined, HBPM should be offered. For HBPM, two consecutive measurements need to be taken for each blood pressure recording, at least 1 minute apart and with the person seated. Blood pressure should be recorded twice daily, ideally in the morning and evening, for at least 4 days, ideally for 7 days. The measurements taken on the first day should be discarded, and the average value of all the remaining measurements used.
Interpreting the results, ABPM/HBPM above 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension) should be
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man has previously been diagnosed with distal colitis and proctitis. He is not currently taking any medication. He has been symptom-free but now reports a recurrence of his diarrhea.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing his condition?Your Answer: Mesalazine tablets
Correct Answer: Mesalazine foam enema
Explanation:Treatment Options for Mild-to-Moderate Ulcerative Colitis
Ulcerative colitis is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that affects the colon and rectum. In mild-to-moderate cases, the recommended initial treatment is local application of an aminosalicylate, such as mesalazine foam enema. Corticosteroid enema or suppositories are alternatives but are less effective.
If there is no response to local treatment, oral mesalazine can be added. However, oral therapy alone with mesalazine is less effective than topical treatment for milder acute exacerbations of inflammatory bowel disease (proctitis). More severe exacerbations require oral steroids.
For adults with a mild to moderate first presentation or inflammatory exacerbation of left-sided or extensive ulcerative colitis, oral mesalazine is the first line choice to induce remission. Topical mesalazine or oral beclomethasone dipropionate may also be considered.
Managing Mild-to-Moderate Ulcerative Colitis: Treatment Options and Recommendations
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 8
Correct
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A depressed, 35-year-old woman presents with confusion, pinpoint pupils and bradycardia.
She has been found in a distressed state at the home of her terminally ill mother where she has access to a number of different analgesics. You suspect an overdose.
Which one of the following is most likely?Your Answer: Opiate
Explanation:Symptoms of Opiate Overdose
An opiate overdose can lead to confusion, coma, pinpoint pupils, and bradycardia. Other symptoms may include hypotension, hypothermia, and respiratory arrest.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 9
Correct
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A 2-year-old boy presents having had a seizure. His sister hit him; he became still and very pale, stiffened and fell to the floor. He was unresponsive for 20 seconds, with his eyes rolled up and with jerking of all four limbs. He did not wet himself or bite his tongue. He has no previous history and seems well now.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Reflex anoxic seizure
Explanation:A reflex anoxic seizure, also known as white reflex asystolic attacks, is not an epileptic seizure but is often misdiagnosed as one. It occurs due to increased vagal tone, resulting in transient reflex asystole. These seizures can occur from birth but are common between six months to two years of age and are triggered by shock, anxiety, or minor injury. Symptoms include pallor, loss of consciousness, stiffening, eye deviation, and vagal asystole, which may progress to a seizure. However, there is a rapid spontaneous recovery, and no treatment is required. Unlike epileptic seizures, patients having a reflex anoxic seizure do not usually bite their tongue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 73-year-old man who underwent bioprosthetic aortic valve replacement three years ago is being evaluated. What type of antithrombotic treatment is he expected to be receiving?
Your Answer: Warfarin: INR 3.0-4.0
Correct Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:For patients with prosthetic heart valves, antithrombotic therapy varies depending on the type of valve. Bioprosthetic valves typically require aspirin, while mechanical valves require a combination of warfarin and aspirin.
Prosthetic Heart Valves: Options and Considerations
Prosthetic heart valves are commonly used to replace damaged or diseased valves in the heart. The two main options for replacement are biological (bioprosthetic) or mechanical valves. Bioprosthetic valves are usually derived from bovine or porcine sources and are preferred for older patients. However, they have a major disadvantage of structural deterioration and calcification over time. On the other hand, mechanical valves have a low failure rate but require long-term anticoagulation due to the increased risk of thrombosis. Warfarin is still the preferred anticoagulant for patients with mechanical heart valves, and the target INR varies depending on the valve location. Aspirin is only given in addition if there is an additional indication, such as ischaemic heart disease.
It is important to consider the patient’s age, medical history, and lifestyle when choosing a prosthetic heart valve. While bioprosthetic valves may not require long-term anticoagulation, they may need to be replaced sooner than mechanical valves. Mechanical valves, on the other hand, may require lifelong anticoagulation, which can be challenging for some patients. Additionally, following the 2008 NICE guidelines, antibiotics are no longer recommended for common procedures such as dental work for prophylaxis of endocarditis. Therefore, it is crucial to weigh the benefits and risks of each option and make an informed decision with the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old female presents with shortness of breath. She is known to suffer from asthma and her usual best PEFR is 410 L/min.
Which of the following features would suggest that this is a severe asthma attack?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: PEFR 200 L/min
Explanation:Guidelines for Identifying Acute Severe and Life-Threatening Asthma
Guidelines from the British Thoracic Society suggest that certain symptoms may indicate acute severe asthma, including an inability to complete sentences, a tachycardia above 110 bpm, a respiratory rate above 25/minute, and a PEFR of 33-50% of the predicted value. It is important to note that the threshold for pulse is higher than expected at 110 bpm.
In contrast, life-threatening asthma is characterized by more severe symptoms such as a silent chest, bradycardia, hypotension, and hypoxia. These symptoms require immediate medical attention and intervention to prevent further complications. By recognizing the signs of acute severe and life-threatening asthma, individuals can seek appropriate medical care and potentially prevent serious health consequences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner complaining of shortness of breath during physical activity. He has a medical history of hypertension and has experienced a STEMI in the past. Upon examination, his pulse is 68 beats per minute, his blood pressure is 122/72 mmHg, and he displays bilateral pitting ankle edema. Which medication is most likely to decrease mortality in this patient? Choose ONE answer.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bisoprolol
Explanation:This man is experiencing heart failure due to ischaemic heart disease, which is a leading cause of death among men in the UK. Beta-blockers are the only medication proven to reduce all-cause mortality in patients with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction, and they can also help control hypertension. However, before starting treatment, his blood pressure and pulse should be checked to ensure that he is not at risk of bradycardia or hypotension. Spironolactone is not recommended for improving mortality in heart failure patients, but it can be used to treat hypertension and oedema. U&Es should be monitored regularly to avoid renal function deterioration and hyperkalaemia. Amlodipine and furosemide have not been shown to improve mortality in heart failure patients, but they can be used to control hypertension and oedema, respectively. U&Es should also be monitored regularly when using these medications. Ramipril has been shown to reduce hospital admissions in heart failure patients, but it can impair renal function and cause hyperkalaemia. U&Es should be checked regularly, and the medication should not be initiated if the patient’s potassium level is too high. Patients should also be advised to stop taking ramipril during diarrhoea or vomiting illnesses to avoid dehydration and acute kidney injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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You want to advise an elderly patient on a new treatment for angina; she brought a newspaper cutting about it and you have looked up the original paper.
The paper discusses the benefit of the new treatment in terms of number needed to treat (NNT).
What is the meaning of the term number needed to treat for a drug therapy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The number of patients that need to be treated with a therapy for one to benefit
Explanation:Understanding NNT: A Measure of Treatment Effectiveness
The NNT, or Number Needed to Treat, is a measure of treatment effectiveness that indicates the number of patients who need to be treated over a certain period of time in order for one patient to benefit from the treatment. A low NNT indicates a more effective treatment, as fewer patients need to be treated for one to benefit.
In other words, the NNT helps healthcare professionals and researchers understand the impact of a treatment on a group of patients. It is a useful tool for evaluating the effectiveness of different treatments and comparing their benefits and risks. By calculating the NNT, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions about which treatments to recommend to their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 14
Incorrect
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In which scenario will skin-prick allergy testing be most valuable?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A 2-year-old boy whose mother says he is allergic to milk, eggs and fish.
Explanation:Diagnosing Food Allergies and Intolerances: Importance of Symptom History and Testing
When dealing with a potential case of food allergy or intolerance, it is crucial to gather a detailed symptom history to identify possible allergens and determine if the reaction is IgE-mediated, which could lead to anaphylaxis. Symptoms such as acute urticaria, nausea, vomiting, abdominal colic, rhinorrhea, itchy eyes, or bronchospasm with a temporal relationship to the offending item may suggest an IgE-mediated reaction. However, it is important to note that many people attribute symptoms to food that are not actually caused by it.
To support or refute the mother’s suspicions, a skin-prick test and/or blood tests for specific IgE antibodies to the suspected foods can be performed in conjunction with the symptom history. However, it is essential to remember that there have been cases of systemic reactions and anaphylaxis in food allergen skin testing, so referral is necessary in most cases.
Hay fever is typically diagnosed clinically, so a skin-prick test is unnecessary. Acute urticaria usually resolves within six weeks, so testing is also unnecessary unless the patient can identify a possible trigger. Skin-prick testing is not typically performed on asthmatics unless there is a likely precipitant that could be eliminated. For hairdressers, who are prone to both irritant and allergic contact dermatitis, patch testing would be appropriate for diagnosing delayed hypersensitivity.
Diagnosing Food Allergies and Intolerances: Importance of Symptom History and Testing
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Sophie is a 70-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with chronic kidney disease secondary to hypertension. She has come to see her GP for a review. On examination her blood pressure is 140/85 mmHg. She has no other past medical history of note. Her recent investigation results are as follows:
Hb 130g/L Female: (120-160)
Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.5 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 7.8 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 135 µmol/L (55 - 120)
eGFR 60mL/min/1.73m2 (>90 mL/min/1.73m2)
Urine albumin:Creatinine ratio 30 mg/mmol (<3mg/mmol)
HbA1c 42 mmol/mol (<42 mmol/mol)
She currently takes lisinopril, atorvastatin and ferrous sulphate.
What additional medication should she be prescribed?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:Patients with chronic kidney disease and an albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) of more than 3 mg/mmol should be prescribed an ACE inhibitor. If co-existent diabetes is present, an ACE inhibitor should be prescribed regardless of ACR. If co-existent hypertension is present, an ACE inhibitor should be prescribed if ACR is >30 mg/mmol. If ACR is >70mg/mmol, an ACE inhibitor should also be prescribed. Therefore, ramipril is the appropriate medication. Bendroflumethiazide should be avoided as it may exacerbate renal failure. Aspirin may be used for secondary prevention of cardiovascular disease in accordance with guidelines, but not for primary prevention.
Proteinuria in Chronic Kidney Disease: Diagnosis and Management
Proteinuria is a significant indicator of chronic kidney disease, particularly in cases of diabetic nephropathy. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends using the albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) over the protein:creatinine ratio (PCR) for identifying patients with proteinuria due to its higher sensitivity. PCR can be used for quantification and monitoring of proteinuria, but ACR is preferred for diabetics. Urine reagent strips are not recommended unless they express the result as an ACR.
To collect an ACR sample, a first-pass morning urine specimen is preferred as it avoids the need to collect urine over a 24-hour period. If the initial ACR is between 3 mg/mmol and 70 mg/mmol, a subsequent early morning sample should confirm it. However, if the initial ACR is 70 mg/mmol or more, a repeat sample is unnecessary.
According to NICE guidelines, a confirmed ACR of 3 mg/mmol or more is considered clinically important proteinuria. Referral to a nephrologist is recommended for patients with a urinary ACR of 70 mg/mmol or more, unless it is known to be caused by diabetes and already appropriately treated. Referral is also necessary for patients with an ACR of 30 mg/mmol or more, along with persistent haematuria after exclusion of a urinary tract infection. For patients with an ACR between 3-29 mg/mmol and persistent haematuria, referral to a nephrologist is considered if they have other risk factors such as declining eGFR or cardiovascular disease.
The frequency of monitoring eGFR varies depending on the eGFR and ACR categories. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin II receptor blockers are key in managing proteinuria and should be used first-line in patients with coexistent hypertension and CKD if the ACR is > 30 mg/mmol. If the ACR is > 70 mg/mmol, they are indicated regardless of the patient’s blood pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Among the following options, which one has the most substantial evidence supporting the benefits of acupuncture?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tension headache
Explanation:Exploring the Benefits of Acupuncture: Cochrane Reviews
Cochrane reviews have extensively examined the potential benefits of acupuncture in various medical conditions. However, most of these reviews have concluded that there is insufficient evidence to support the use of acupuncture and that further high-quality research is necessary. This applies to conditions such as asthma, depression, irritable bowel syndrome, and smoking cessation.
Nonetheless, Cochrane reviews suggest that acupuncture may be a valuable non-pharmacological tool for patients with frequent episodic or chronic tension-type headaches. Studies also indicate that acupuncture may be as effective as, or even more effective than, prophylactic drug treatment for migraines, with fewer adverse effects.
Other areas where acupuncture has shown positive results include chronic neck pain, chronic low back pain, in vitro fertilisation, nausea and vomiting during chemotherapy, and postoperative nausea. Despite the need for further research, these findings suggest that acupuncture may have potential benefits in certain medical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of severe pain around his right eye. He has been experiencing these episodes once or twice a day for the past week, with each episode lasting around 30 minutes. Although the pain is severe, it has not been getting worse. His girlfriend reports that during an attack, his eye becomes red and starts to water. Upon examination, his eye appears normal, and his visual acuity is intact. He is currently pain-free, with his last episode occurring about 3 hours ago. What would be the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Discuss with a neurologist the need for neuroimaging
Explanation:These headaches are classified as cluster headaches. It is recommended to consult with a specialist and consider neuroimaging as this is the first occurrence. Simple pain relief medication is not effective for treating cluster headaches.
Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain is typically sharp and stabbing, and it occurs around one eye. Patients may experience redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, nasal stuffiness, and miosis and ptosis in some cases.
To manage cluster headaches, acute treatment options include 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan. Prophylaxis involves using verapamil as the drug of choice, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old overweight woman complains of fatigue and frequent urination. Her physician orders a fasting blood glucose test:
Fasting glucose level: 8.2 mmol/l
The patient is advised on dietary changes and the doctor decides to initiate metformin treatment.
What is the best course of action for prescribing metformin?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metformin 500mg od with food for 14 days then metformin 500mg bd for 14 days then review
Explanation:To minimize the risk of gastrointestinal side-effects, it is recommended to gradually increase the dose of metformin and wait for at least a week before making any further adjustments, according to the BNF.
Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin doesn’t cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of headaches. She reports experiencing throbbing headaches on one side of her head every few weeks, which would subside after resting in a dark room. The patient resorted to taking paracetamol, ibuprofen, and codeine regularly to alleviate the pain. However, she now experiences a constant headache that affects her entire head and doesn't improve with rest in a dark room. The patient's neurological examination shows no abnormalities. What is the best course of action for managing her condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wean down dose of codeine and stop paracetamol/ibuprofen immediately
Explanation:The correct approach for treating medication overuse headache depends on the type of analgesia being used. Simple analgesia and triptans should be stopped abruptly, while opioid analgesia requires gradual withdrawal. In the case of this patient, who developed medication overuse headache after using daily analgesia for migraine-like symptoms, the paracetamol and ibuprofen can be stopped immediately, but the codeine must be gradually reduced to avoid withdrawal symptoms.
Stopping all analgesia immediately is not recommended, as codeine withdrawal can cause discomfort. Tapering off current analgesia while introducing propranolol or topiramate is also not appropriate at this stage, as medication overuse headache must be treated first by stopping the current analgesia. Once the analgesia has been withdrawn, migraine prophylaxis can be considered, with propranolol being the preferred option for this patient due to the risk of teratogenicity associated with topiramate in females of childbearing age.
Understanding Medication Overuse Headache
Medication overuse headache is a common cause of chronic daily headache that affects up to 1 in 50 people. It is characterized by headaches that occur for 15 days or more per month and are worsened by regular use of symptomatic medication. Patients who use opioids and triptans are at the highest risk of developing this condition. Additionally, there may be psychiatric comorbidity associated with medication overuse headache.
According to the 2008 SIGN guidelines, the management of medication overuse headache involves abruptly withdrawing simple analgesics and triptans, which may initially worsen headaches. On the other hand, opioid analgesics should be gradually withdrawn. However, withdrawal symptoms such as vomiting, hypotension, tachycardia, restlessness, sleep disturbances, and anxiety may occur when medication is stopped. Therefore, it is important to seek medical advice before discontinuing any medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man visits his doctor after his family complains about his hearing loss. He claims that they speak too softly, but admits that he struggles to hear in noisy settings. The patient reports feeling generally healthy, but has a history of hypertension and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
During the examination, the doctor discovers bilateral sensorineural hearing loss. Presbycusis is suspected as the cause and the patient is referred for audiometric testing.
What is the expected audiogram pattern for this individual?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bilateral high-frequency hearing loss. Air conduction better than bone
Explanation:Presbycusis is characterized by a bilateral loss of high-frequency hearing. This type of age-related hearing loss affects the inner ear and is often accompanied by difficulty hearing in noisy environments. In sensorineural hearing loss, air conduction is more effective than bone conduction, which is the opposite of conductive hearing loss. Therefore, the correct answer is ‘Bilateral high-frequency hearing loss. Air conduction is more effective than bone conduction.’
Understanding Presbycusis: Age-Related Hearing Loss
Presbycusis is a type of hearing loss that affects older individuals. It is a sensorineural hearing loss that typically affects high-frequency hearing bilaterally, leading to difficulties in understanding conversations, especially in noisy environments. The condition progresses slowly as the sensory hair cells and neurons in the cochlea atrophy over time. Although certain factors are associated with presbycusis, it is distinct from noise-related hearing loss.
The prevalence of presbycusis increases with age, with an estimated 25-30% of 65-74 year-olds and 40-50% of those over 75 years experiencing impaired hearing in the USA. The exact cause of presbycusis is unknown, but it is likely multifactorial. Arteriosclerosis, diabetes, accumulated exposure to noise, drug exposure, stress, and genetics are some of the factors that may contribute to the development of presbycusis.
Patients with presbycusis typically present with a chronic, slowly progressing history of difficulty understanding speech, increased volume needed for television or radio, difficulty using the telephone, loss of directionality of sound, and worsening of symptoms in noisy environments. Hyperacusis, a heightened sensitivity to certain frequencies of sound, and tinnitus, a ringing or buzzing in the ears, may also occur but are less common.
To diagnose presbycusis, otoscopy is performed to rule out other causes of hearing loss, such as otosclerosis or conductive hearing loss. Tympanometry is used to assess middle ear function, and audiometry is used to confirm bilateral sensorineural hearing loss. Blood tests may also be performed to rule out other underlying conditions.
In summary, presbycusis is an age-related hearing loss that affects a significant portion of the elderly population. Although the exact cause is unknown, it is likely due to a combination of factors. Patients with presbycusis may experience difficulty understanding speech, increased volume needed for audio devices, and other symptoms. Diagnosis is made through a combination of physical examination and hearing tests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 55-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis and intractable spasticity that has not responded to traditional treatment. During her visit with her GP, she expresses interest in obtaining a medical cannabis prescription after reading about its success in treating similar conditions online.
What should the GP do in response to Samantha's request?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ask the patient’s consultant to consider initiating medicinal cannabis
Explanation:Current guidelines dictate that cannabis-based products without a license can only be prescribed by doctors who are registered specialists with the General Medical Council. Furthermore, doctors should only prescribe these products for disorders within their area of expertise when there is clear evidence or published guidelines to support it.
The first prescription of cannabis-based medicinal products must be initiated by a specialist medical practitioner in a hospital setting.
There is evidence supporting the efficacy of cannabis-based products, which is why the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) supports their prescription.
The THC:CBD spray is available on the NHS in certain situations. It is inappropriate to advise patients to purchase it online as the safety and quality of the product cannot be guaranteed.
While the THC:CBD spray is the appropriate treatment, it should not be initiated in primary care.
Cannabis-Based Medicinal Products: Guidelines and Available Products
Cannabis-based medicinal products can now be prescribed for therapeutic use under specialist supervision, following a Department of Health review in 2018. These products are defined as medicinal preparations or products that contain cannabis, cannabis resin, cannabinol, or a cannabinol derivative, and are produced for use in humans. Initial prescriptions must be made by a specialist medical practitioner with experience in the condition being treated, and subsequent prescriptions can be issued by another practitioner under a shared care agreement.
Cannabis-based medicinal products can be used to manage various conditions, including chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting, chronic pain, spasticity in adults with multiple sclerosis, and severe-treatment resistant epilepsy. However, current NICE guidance advises against using cannabis-based medicines for chronic pain, except if already initiated and under specialist supervision until appropriate to stop.
Several cannabis-based products and cannabinoids are available, including Bedrocan, Tilray, Sativex, Epidiolex, Dronabinol, and Nabilone. However, unlicensed cannabis-based products can only be prescribed by doctors on the General Medical Council Specialist Register, and doctors should prescribe products only for disorders within their specialty when there is clear evidence or published guidelines.
It is important to consider current available evidence, interactions with other prescribed or non-prescribed medication, and the potential for patients to seek or use non-medicinal products lacking safety and quality assurance when considering prescribing cannabis-based products. Patients should also be advised of the risks of impaired driving, as cannabis-based products may impair a patient’s ability to drive safely.
Common side effects associated with cannabis-based medicines include disorientation, dizziness, euphoria, confusion, dry mouth, nausea, somnolence, fatigue, vomiting, drowsiness, loss of balance, and hallucination. Rare adverse events include psychosis and seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Oliver is a 25-year-old man, who was diagnosed with coeliac disease when he was aged five having been referred to the paediatricians with failure to thrive and anaemia.
He is very aware of foods that may cause problems, but wants to know if there are any drinks that should be avoided when he goes out clubbing with friends.
Which one of the following drinks can he safely ingest?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Whiskey
Explanation:Coeliac Disease and Gluten-Free Alcohol
Patients with coeliac disease must avoid consuming foodstuffs that contain gluten. This means that anything made with wheat, barley, and oats (in some cases) should be avoided. When it comes to alcohol, beers, lagers, stouts, and real ales, whether alcoholic or not, must be avoided due to their gluten content. However, there are now several gluten-free beers and lagers available in the market.
On the other hand, wine, champagne, port, sherry, ciders, liqueurs, and spirits, including whiskey, are all gluten-free. Although whiskey is initially made from barley, the distilling process involved in its production removes the gluten, making it safe for coeliacs to consume. It is essential for individuals with coeliac disease to be mindful of their alcohol intake and to choose gluten-free options to avoid any adverse reactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old female has been referred for management of a chronic ulcer above the left medial malleolus. The ankle-brachial pressure index readings are as follows:
Right 0.98
Left 0.98
The ulcer has been treated with standard dressings by the District Nurse. What is the most suitable approach to increase the chances of healing the ulcer?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Compression bandaging
Explanation:Compression bandaging is recommended for the management of venous ulceration, as the ankle-brachial pressure index readings suggest that the ulcers are caused by venous insufficiency rather than arterial issues.
Venous ulceration is a type of ulcer that is commonly found above the medial malleolus. To determine the cause of non-healing ulcers, it is important to conduct an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) test. A normal ABPI value is between 0.9 to 1.2, while values below 0.9 indicate arterial disease. However, values above 1.3 may also indicate arterial disease due to arterial calcification, especially in diabetic patients.
The most effective treatment for venous ulceration is compression bandaging, specifically four-layer bandaging. Oral pentoxifylline, a peripheral vasodilator, can also improve the healing rate of venous ulcers. While there is some evidence supporting the use of flavonoids, there is little evidence to suggest the benefit of hydrocolloid dressings, topical growth factors, ultrasound therapy, and intermittent pneumatic compression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old woman is curious about maintaining a healthy diet. She currently weighs 106 Kg and stands at a height of 1.76m. What is her approximate body mass index (BMI) rounded to the nearest decimal point?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 28
Explanation:BMI Calculation and Interpretation
Body: Body Mass Index (BMI) is a measure of body fat based on a person’s weight and height. It is calculated by dividing the weight in kilograms by the square of the height in meters. For instance, if a person weighs 106 kilograms and is 1.76 meters tall, their BMI would be 34.22 kg/m2. This value falls within the obese range, indicating that the person may have an increased risk of developing health problems such as heart disease, diabetes, and high blood pressure. It is important to note that BMI is not a perfect measure of body fatness and should be used in conjunction with other health indicators to assess an individual’s overall health status.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old lady comes to the clinic seeking guidance regarding her potential risk of developing cancer. She has received proper treatment for CIN II, is a former smoker, and currently takes the combined oral contraceptive pill. Her two paternal aunts passed away from ovarian carcinoma at ages 40 and 48. What is the primary predisposing factor for ovarian cancer in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral contraceptive therapy
Explanation:Understanding the Risk Factors for Developing Breast Cancer
Breast cancer is a prevalent disease that affects 1.4% of the overall population. However, the risk of developing breast cancer increases with a family history of the disease. The number of affected first-degree relatives and their age at diagnosis can significantly impact the risk. For instance, having one affected first-degree relative increases the risk to 4-5%, while having two close relatives affected raises the risk to 7%.
Women with BRCA1 mutation have a 40% carrier risk of developing carcinoma, while those with BRCA2 have a 25% risk. Additionally, women who have had many ovulations, early menarche, and nullipara are more likely to develop breast cancer. However, the use of the combined oral contraceptive pill is associated with a reduced risk of developing the disease.
In summary, understanding the risk factors for developing breast cancer is crucial in taking preventive measures and seeking early diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old woman has been treated for six months for reflux oesophagitis. She also has a history of hypertension, Raynaud syndrome and telangiectasia. Autoimmune screening reveals a positive antinuclear antibody test and positive extractable nuclear antibody to Scl-70 (anti-topoisomerase-1). Renal function testing reveals a creatinine of 215 µmol/l (50–120 µmol/l).
What is the most probable reason for this patient's kidney dysfunction? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Systemic sclerosis
Explanation:The patient is likely suffering from systemic sclerosis, a connective tissue disease that affects multiple systems in the body. Symptoms such as oesophageal dysmotility, telangiectasia, Raynaud’s phenomenon, and renal dysfunction are all indicative of this condition. Treatment can be challenging, especially if there is associated pulmonary fibrosis, hypertension, and cardiac fibrosis. Renal involvement in systemic sclerosis carries a poor prognosis, and renal failure is a common outcome. The presence of positive anti-SCL-70 antibodies strongly supports a diagnosis of systemic sclerosis. Other conditions such as membranous glomerulonephritis, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, and granulomatosis with polyangiitis are less likely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old male is found to have a Hb of 17.8 g/dL. What is the least probable reason for this finding?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemochromatosis
Explanation:Polycythaemia is a condition that can be classified as relative, primary (polycythaemia rubra vera), or secondary. Relative polycythaemia can be caused by dehydration or stress, such as in Gaisbock syndrome. Primary polycythaemia rubra vera is a rare blood disorder that causes the bone marrow to produce too many red blood cells. Secondary polycythaemia can be caused by conditions such as COPD, altitude, obstructive sleep apnoea, or excessive erythropoietin production due to certain tumors or growths. To distinguish between true polycythaemia and relative polycythaemia, red cell mass studies may be used. In true polycythaemia, the total red cell mass in males is greater than 35 ml/kg and in women is greater than 32 ml/kg. Uterine fibroids may also cause polycythaemia indirectly by causing menorrhagia, but this is rarely a clinical problem.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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You assess a 65-year-old man with motor neuron disease. He mentions that he intends to travel to Switzerland for euthanasia if his condition worsens. What would be your initial response?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Discuss his fears about the terminal phase
Explanation:In recent years, the issue of assisted suicide has gained relevance as UK patients have been travelling to Switzerland ‘Dignitas’ clinic. However, aiding someone to commit suicide is currently illegal. As a healthcare professional, it is important to address the patient’s fears about the terminal phase and discuss the advancements in palliative care. It may also be helpful for the patient to speak with others who have gone through similar experiences for reassurance. If the patient still insists on travelling to Switzerland, it is necessary to inform them of the legal implications of aiding suicide by providing information about appropriate clinics. It is important to note that the ‘double-effect’ principle only applies to accepting the side-effects of pain relief and not to intentionally hastening death. Implying otherwise is inappropriate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which statement about obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) is accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Is associated with thyroid dysfunction
Explanation:Treatment Options and Risks for Obstructive Sleep Apnoea
Obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) is a condition that affects breathing during sleep, leading to interrupted sleep and daytime fatigue. In the UK, the Uvulopalatopharyngoplasty (UPPP) treatment is used for simple snoring, while in the USA, it is used to treat OSA with a success rate of around 65%. Tonsillectomy can also benefit some cases. However, successful treatment with continuous positive airways pressure (CPAP) is the most effective way to reduce the risk of road traffic accidents (RTA) to normal levels and doesn’t exclude the sufferer from holding any type of driving licence. The risk of RTA, untreated, is estimated to be eight times normal. OSA is also associated with hypothyroidism and acromegaly, according to a study published in the Medicine Journal in May 2008. It is important to consider the various treatment options and risks associated with OSA to manage the condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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You review a discharge summary from your local emergency department about a 40-year-old man on your practice list who presented to their department following an episode of haemoptysis. The patient smokes 20 cigarettes a day, there were no signs of infection and they have a past medical history of asthma. A chest X-ray, full blood count, and CRP were normal.
What course of action should be taken based on this discharge summary?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2-week wait referral to respiratory team
Explanation:If a patient who is 40 years old or older presents with unexplained haemoptysis, it is important to refer them using the suspected cancer pathway within 2 weeks to rule out lung cancer. Even if a chest X-ray appears normal, it should not be used to dismiss the referral.
While an asthma review may be necessary, it would not address the issue of unexplained haemoptysis. Similarly, advising the patient to quit smoking is important for reducing the risk of multiple malignancies, but it doesn’t address the immediate concern.
Delaying the referral for a face-to-face follow-up in 2 weeks is not appropriate, as it would only delay further investigation of the haemoptysis. Additionally, waiting 6 weeks to perform a repeat chest X-ray would be appropriate for pneumonia consolidation, but it would unnecessarily delay further investigation of the haemoptysis in this case.
Referral Guidelines for Lung Cancer
Lung cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. The 2015 NICE cancer referral guidelines provide clear advice on when to refer patients for suspected lung cancer. According to these guidelines, patients should be referred using a suspected cancer pathway referral for an appointment within 2 weeks if they have chest x-ray findings that suggest lung cancer or are aged 40 and over with unexplained haemoptysis.
For patients aged 40 and over who have 2 or more unexplained symptoms such as cough, fatigue, shortness of breath, chest pain, weight loss, or appetite loss, an urgent chest x-ray should be offered within 2 weeks to assess for lung cancer. This recommendation also applies to patients who have ever smoked and have 1 or more of these unexplained symptoms.
In addition, patients aged 40 and over with persistent or recurrent chest infection, finger clubbing, supraclavicular lymphadenopathy or persistent cervical lymphadenopathy, chest signs consistent with lung cancer, or thrombocytosis should be considered for an urgent chest x-ray within 2 weeks to assess for lung cancer.
Overall, these guidelines provide clear and specific recommendations for healthcare professionals to identify and refer patients with suspected lung cancer for prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with a history of asthma complains of worsening hay fever symptoms. He reports a persistent sensation of nasal congestion, particularly in his right nostril, and a decreased ability to smell.
During the examination, you observe a nasal polyp on the right side.
What is the most suitable course of action to take next?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Specialist referral (urgent)
Explanation:Understanding Chronic Rhinosinusitis
Chronic rhinosinusitis is a common condition that affects approximately 10% of the population. It is characterized by inflammation of the nasal passages and paranasal sinuses that lasts for 12 weeks or more. There are several factors that can predispose individuals to this condition, including atopy, nasal obstruction, recent infections, swimming/diving, and smoking.
Symptoms of chronic rhinosinusitis include facial pain, nasal discharge, nasal obstruction, and post-nasal drip. Treatment options include avoiding allergens, using intranasal corticosteroids, and nasal irrigation with saline solution. However, it is important to be aware of red flag symptoms such as unilateral symptoms, persistent symptoms despite treatment, and epistaxis, which may require further evaluation and management.
In summary, chronic rhinosinusitis is a common inflammatory disorder that can cause significant discomfort and impact quality of life. Understanding the predisposing factors and symptoms, as well as appropriate management strategies, can help individuals effectively manage this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 32
Incorrect
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John is a 44-year-old man who presents to your clinic with a complaint of a severely itchy rash on his wrist that appeared suddenly a few weeks ago. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications.
Upon examination of the flexor aspect of John's left wrist, you observe multiple 3-5 mm shiny flat-topped papules that are violet in color. Upon closer inspection, you notice white streaks on the surface of the papules. There are no other affected skin areas, and no oromucosal changes are present.
What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient, given the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A potent topical steroid such as betamethasone valerate 0.1%
Explanation:Lichen planus is typically treated with potent topical steroids as a first-line treatment, especially for managing the itching caused by the rash. While this condition can occur at any age, it is more common in middle-aged individuals. Mild topical steroids are not as effective as potent ones in treating the rash. Referral to a dermatologist and skin biopsy may be necessary if there is diagnostic uncertainty, but in this case, it is not required. Severe or widespread lichen planus may require oral steroids, and if there is little improvement, narrow band UVB therapy may be considered as a second-line treatment.
Lichen planus is a skin condition that has an unknown cause, but is believed to be related to the immune system. It is characterized by an itchy rash that appears as small bumps on the palms, soles, genital area, and inner surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive pattern of white lines on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon. Oral involvement is common, with around 50% of patients experiencing a white-lace pattern on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes, such as thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging, may also occur.
Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, including gold, quinine, and thiazides. Treatment for lichen planus typically involves the use of potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more severe cases, oral steroids or immunosuppressive medications may be necessary. Overall, lichen planus can be a challenging condition to manage, but with proper treatment, symptoms can be controlled and quality of life can be improved.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis is currently on methotrexate. What medication should be avoided if prescribed concurrently?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trimethoprim
Explanation:Combining methotrexate with antibiotics that contain trimethoprim can lead to bone marrow suppression and potentially fatal pancytopenia. The risk of haematological toxicity is higher when trimethoprim is used in conjunction with methotrexate.
Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.
Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.
It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A twelve-year-old girl is presented by her mother with a one-year history of low back pain related to physical activity. During sports activities at school, she sometimes has to take a break but can usually continue after a few minutes of rest. There are no red flag symptoms, and her neurological examination of the lower limbs is normal.
During the examination, you observe a curvature of her spine and diagnose scoliosis. You plan to refer her to the local pediatric orthopedic department. What diagnostic investigation would confirm her condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No investigation necessary
Explanation:Scoliosis can be diagnosed through clinical examination alone and doesn’t require further imaging or investigations. While X-rays and MRIs can assist in managing the condition, they are not essential for diagnosis. Therefore, no investigations are necessary.
CT scans are not recommended for young people as they expose them to high levels of radiation.
MRI is not the best imaging tool for examining bones, but it may be necessary for young people experiencing back pain if nerve or spinal cord issues are suspected.
While an X-ray of the entire spine can provide valuable information, it exposes the patient to significant levels of radiation. A targeted X-ray of the lumbosacral spine may be more appropriate, but it is still not necessary for diagnosis.
Diseases Affecting the Vertebral Column
Ankylosing spondylitis is a chronic inflammatory disorder that affects the axial skeleton, with sacro-ilitis being visible in plain films. Scheuermann’s disease is an epiphysitis of the vertebral joints that predominantly affects adolescents, with symptoms including back pain and stiffness. Scoliosis consists of curvature of the spine in the coronal plane, with structural scoliosis affecting more than one vertebral body and being the most common type. Spina bifida is a non-fusion of the vertebral arches during embryonic development, with myelomeningocele being the most severe type. Spondylolysis is a congenital or acquired deficiency of the pars interarticularis of a particular vertebral body, while spondylolisthesis occurs when one vertebra is displaced relative to its immediate inferior vertebral body.
Overview of Diseases Affecting the Vertebral Column
The vertebral column is susceptible to various diseases that can affect its structure and function. Ankylosing spondylitis is a chronic inflammatory disorder that affects the axial skeleton, while Scheuermann’s disease predominantly affects adolescents and causes back pain and stiffness. Scoliosis is a curvature of the spine that can be structural or non-structural, with idiopathic being the most common type. Spina bifida is a non-fusion of the vertebral arches during embryonic development, and spondylolysis is a deficiency of the pars interarticularis of a particular vertebral body. Spondylolisthesis occurs when one vertebra is displaced relative to its immediate inferior vertebral body. Understanding these diseases can aid in their diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A very sensible parent brings her 9-year-old into the surgery for review. She is concerned as her child is complaining of recurrent episodes of dull abdominal pain and missing significant days off school. Your physical examination is entirely normal.
What would count most against a diagnosis of functional recurrent abdominal pain in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Above average intellectual ability
Explanation:Recurrent Abdominal Pain in Children
Recurrent abdominal pain is a common complaint among children over the age of five, with approximately 10% experiencing it. It is crucial to determine the nature of the pain, its impact on the child’s daily life, and how the child and their family cope with it. Organic causes, such as gastrointestinal, urological, haematological, and miscellaneous causes, must be ruled out. Non-organic pain is suggested by peri-umbilical pain, and vomiting may be present, but weight loss is rare. Other important questions to ask include the timing of the pain, associated symptoms, family history, and social history. Physical examination is often unhelpful, and investigations are unlikely to provide a diagnosis when non-organic pain is suspected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old patient visits the GP complaining of fatigue, bloating, and abdominal discomfort that has been ongoing for several months. Upon examination, no abnormalities are found. Blood tests reveal mild normocytic anemia and positive IgA tissue transglutaminase antibodies (tTGA).
What would be the most suitable course of action for the next step in management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue gluten-containing diet and refer for intestinal biopsy
Explanation:The gold standard for diagnosing coeliac disease is endoscopic intestinal biopsy, which should be performed in all patients suspected of having the condition based on serology results. Therefore, the correct course of action for this patient presenting with abdominal discomfort, bloating, and fatigue, along with a positive tTGA blood test and likely anaemia, is to continue consuming gluten and refer for intestinal biopsy. It is important for patients to consume gluten in their diet for at least 6 weeks prior to serology testing and biopsy. Commencing iron tablets is not the most appropriate action as the anaemia is likely secondary to malabsorption resulting from coeliac disease. Initiating a gluten-free diet is also not appropriate until a diagnosis has been confirmed, as it may result in a false negative result on biopsy.
Investigating Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is a condition caused by sensitivity to gluten, which leads to villous atrophy and malabsorption. It is often associated with other conditions such as dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis is made through a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy, with villous atrophy and immunology typically reversing on a gluten-free diet.
To investigate coeliac disease, NICE guidelines recommend using tissue transglutaminase (TTG) antibodies (IgA) as the first-choice serology test, along with endomyseal antibody (IgA) and testing for selective IgA deficiency. Anti-gliadin antibody (IgA or IgG) tests are not recommended. The ‘gold standard’ for diagnosis is an endoscopic intestinal biopsy, which should be performed in all suspected cases to confirm or exclude the diagnosis. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes, and lamina propria infiltration with lymphocytes. Rectal gluten challenge is a less commonly used method.
In summary, investigating coeliac disease involves a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy, with NICE guidelines recommending specific tests and the ‘gold standard’ being an intestinal biopsy. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, and lymphocyte infiltration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man reports feeling anxious and worried most of the time. He denies depression and is not interested in psychological interventions. He requests medication to help him calm down. What is the most appropriate medication to prescribe?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Treatment for Generalised Anxiety Disorder (GAD)
Generalised Anxiety Disorder (GAD) is a chronic condition that requires long-term treatment. The recommended approach, according to NICE guidelines, is to start with low-intensity psychological interventions and then move on to high-intensity psychological interventions and/or drug therapy. The first choice of medication is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), with sertraline being suggested. If there is no improvement after a 12-week course, another SSRI should be offered. Benzodiazepines should only be used as a short-term measure during a crisis, and buspirone should be used with caution. β blockers and antipsychotic medication are not effective. It is important to note that GAD worsens the prognosis for any other condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 38
Incorrect
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Barbara is a 78-year-old woman who lives alone and manages most activities of daily living independently. Her GP wants to assess her frailty with a view to identifying the need for extra support.
Which of the below is most useful for that assessment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gait speed
Explanation:To accurately assess frailty, it is recommended to use specific methods such as the Gait Speed Test, self-reported health status, or the PRISMA-7 questionnaire. These standardized assessments can provide valuable information about a patient’s level of frailty. For example, the Gait Speed Test can indicate frailty if a patient takes longer than 5 seconds to walk 4 meters. While weight loss may be a sign of frailty, weight alone is not a reliable indicator. Other methods of assessing frailty are not commonly used and may not provide accurate results.
Understanding Multimorbidity: Definition, Prevalence, Risk Factors, Complications, Assessment, and Management
Multimorbidity is a growing public health issue that refers to the presence of two or more long-term health conditions. In 2017, NICE issued guidelines to identify and manage multimorbidity among patients. The most common comorbid conditions include hypertension, depression, anxiety, chronic pain, prostate disorders, thyroid disorders, and coronary artery disease. Risk factors for multimorbidity include increasing age, female sex, low socioeconomic status, tobacco and alcohol usage, lack of physical activity, and poor nutrition and obesity.
Complications of multimorbidity include decreased quality of life and life expectancy, increased treatment burden, mental health issues, polypharmacy, and negative impact on carers’ welfare. The assessment of multimorbidity involves identifying patients who may benefit from a multimorbidity approach, establishing the extent of disease burden, investigating how treatment burden affects daily activities, assessing social circumstances and health literacy, and evaluating frailty.
Management of multimorbidity aims to reduce treatment burden and optimise care. This involves maximising the benefits of existing treatments, offering alternative follow-up arrangements, reducing the number of high-risk medications, considering a ‘bisphosphonate holiday,’ using screening tools such as STOPP/START, stopping the use of medications in patients with peptic ulcer disease, developing an individualised management plan, promoting self-management, and supporting carers and families of patients. Regular medication reviews are recommended to ensure that treatments are optimised.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 39
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 58-year-old woman who comes to see you with her husband John.
John has noticed that Samantha's left hand shakes, particularly when she is relaxed. This has been gradually worsening over the past few months and he has also noticed that she appears to be less steady when she is walking. On further questioning, you find that Samantha is also having trouble with her sleep.
On examination, Samantha has a resting tremor of her left hand and cogwheel rigidity is present. Her gait demonstrates a reduced arm swing and is slow.
What is the next best management step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer Michael urgently to a specialist with expertise in movement disorders
Explanation:According to the NICE guidelines, only a specialist with expertise in movement disorders, such as a neurologist or elderly care physician, should diagnose Parkinson’s disease and initiate management. Therefore, further investigations such as an MRI or PET scan should not be carried out in primary care, as this will be decided upon by the specialist. Treatment should also not be initiated in primary care, including the use of levodopa or a dopamine agonist. However, if Parkinson’s disease is suspected but the person is taking a drug known to induce parkinsonism, it may be appropriate to reduce or stop the drug in primary care. It is important to refer all people with suspected Parkinson’s disease urgently and untreated to a specialist for confirmation of the diagnosis and exclusion of alternative diagnoses, without delaying assessment of the response.
Understanding the Mechanism of Action of Parkinson’s Drugs
Parkinson’s disease is a complex condition that requires specialized management. The first-line treatment for motor symptoms that affect a patient’s quality of life is levodopa, while dopamine agonists, levodopa, or monoamine oxidase B (MAO-B) inhibitors are recommended for those whose motor symptoms do not affect their quality of life. However, all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause a wide variety of side effects, and it is important to be aware of these when making treatment decisions.
Levodopa is nearly always combined with a decarboxylase inhibitor to prevent the peripheral metabolism of levodopa to dopamine outside of the brain and reduce side effects. Dopamine receptor agonists, such as bromocriptine, ropinirole, cabergoline, and apomorphine, are more likely than levodopa to cause hallucinations in older patients. MAO-B inhibitors, such as selegiline, inhibit the breakdown of dopamine secreted by the dopaminergic neurons. Amantadine’s mechanism is not fully understood, but it probably increases dopamine release and inhibits its uptake at dopaminergic synapses. COMT inhibitors, such as entacapone and tolcapone, are used in conjunction with levodopa in patients with established PD. Antimuscarinics, such as procyclidine, benzotropine, and trihexyphenidyl (benzhexol), block cholinergic receptors and are now used more to treat drug-induced parkinsonism rather than idiopathic Parkinson’s disease.
It is important to note that all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause adverse effects, and clinicians must be aware of these when making treatment decisions. Patients should also be warned about the potential for dopamine receptor agonists to cause impulse control disorders and excessive daytime somnolence. Understanding the mechanism of action of Parkinson’s drugs is crucial in managing the condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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Sophie is planning a backpacking trip to South America with her 3 friends and is concerned about the prevalence of mosquitoes in the area. She visits the clinic seeking travel vaccinations and advice. What is accurate regarding preventing mosquito bites?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: DEET can repel mosquitos for up to 12 hours post application
Explanation:DEET is safe to use topically on infants as young as 2 months old, as well as pregnant and breastfeeding women. It effectively repels mosquitos and can prevent tick attachment for up to 12 hours after application. However, it doesn’t offer any sun protection. To ensure proper protection, it is recommended to apply sunscreen first and then apply DEET on top.
Malaria is a serious disease caused by the Plasmodium falciparum protozoa, with around 1,500-2,000 cases reported each year in patients returning from endemic countries. The majority of these cases occur in patients who did not take prophylaxis. It is important to consult up-to-date charts for recommended regimens for malaria zones before prescribing. There are several drugs available for prophylaxis, including Atovaquone + proguanil (Malarone), Chloroquine, Doxycycline, Mefloquine (Lariam), and Proguanil (Paludrine). Pregnant women and children are at higher risk of serious complications and should avoid travel to malaria endemic regions if possible. However, if travel is essential, prophylaxis should be taken, and DEET can be used to repel mosquitoes. Doxycycline is only licensed for use in children over the age of 12 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 41
Incorrect
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What is the most probable characteristic of asthma in children?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Finger clubbing
Explanation:Common Pediatric Respiratory Issues and Diagnostic Considerations
Abnormal cry and stridor are indicative of potential laryngeal issues in children. When assessing for asthma, it is important to note that it is predominantly extrinsic in nature. During acute asthma episodes, relying on peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) may be unreliable due to poor technique. It is important to consider alternative diagnoses when a child presents with failure to thrive and clubbing, as these symptoms may suggest underlying health issues beyond respiratory concerns. By keeping these diagnostic considerations in mind, healthcare providers can more effectively identify and treat common pediatric respiratory issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 42
Incorrect
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In which scenario would the heritability score be expected to be the least?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cystic fibrosis
Explanation:Heritability Scores of Different Disorders
Mumps, a contagious viral infection, has the lowest heritability score among the disorders mentioned. This means that the risk of developing mumps is primarily due to exposure to the infective agent rather than genetic factors. On the other hand, the other disorders listed have a genetic component in their development. For instance, cystic fibrosis is caused by a mutation in a specific gene and is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. Understanding the heritability scores of different disorders can help in identifying the underlying causes and developing appropriate treatment strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman with a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus is concerned about her blood sugar levels and seeks advice. What is the target blood sugar level before meals and at other times of the day (excluding mornings)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 4-7 mmol/l
Explanation:Blood glucose targets in individuals with type 1 diabetes:
Managing Type 1 Diabetes: NICE Guidelines
The management of type 1 diabetes is a complex process that involves the collaboration of various healthcare professionals. The condition can reduce life expectancy by 13 years and is associated with micro and macrovascular complications. In 2015, NICE released guidelines on the diagnosis and management of type 1 diabetes, which provide useful information for clinicians caring for patients with this condition.
One of the key recommendations is to monitor HbA1c levels every 3-6 months, with a target of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or lower for adults. However, other factors such as daily activities, comorbidities, and history of hypoglycemia should also be taken into account. Self-monitoring of blood glucose is also important, with a recommended frequency of at least 4 times a day, including before meals and before bed. Blood glucose targets should be 5-7 mmol/l on waking and 4-7 mmol/l before meals at other times of the day.
When it comes to insulin, NICE recommends multiple daily injection basal-bolus insulin regimens over twice-daily mixed insulin regimens for all adults. Twice-daily insulin detemir is the preferred regime, with once-daily insulin glargine or insulin detemir as an alternative. Rapid-acting insulin analogues should be used before meals instead of rapid-acting soluble human or animal insulins for mealtime insulin replacement.
Finally, NICE recommends considering adding metformin if the patient’s BMI is 25 kg/m² or higher. These guidelines provide a useful framework for managing type 1 diabetes and improving patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old phlebotomist accidentally pricks herself with a needle while drawing blood from a patient with a known HIV infection. What is the likelihood of the phlebotomist contracting HIV?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0.30%
Explanation:Compared to hepatitis B and C, the transmission rate of HIV is relatively low.
Post-Exposure Prophylaxis for Viral Infections
Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is a preventive treatment given to individuals who have been exposed to a viral infection. The type of PEP given depends on the virus and the clinical situation. For hepatitis A, either human normal immunoglobulin or the hepatitis A vaccine may be used. For hepatitis B, the PEP given depends on whether the source is known to be positive for HBsAg or not. If the person exposed is a known responder to the HBV vaccine, then a booster dose should be given. If they are a non-responder, they need to have hepatitis B immune globulin and a booster vaccine. For hepatitis C, monthly PCR is recommended, and if seroconversion occurs, interferon +/- ribavirin may be given. For HIV, a combination of oral antiretrovirals should be given as soon as possible for four weeks. The risk of HIV transmission depends on the incident and the current viral load of the patient. For varicella zoster, VZIG is recommended for IgG negative pregnant women or immunosuppressed individuals. The risk of transmission for single needlestick injuries varies depending on the virus, with hepatitis B having a higher risk than hepatitis C and HIV.
Overall, PEP is an important preventive measure for individuals who have been exposed to viral infections. It is crucial to determine the appropriate PEP based on the virus and the clinical situation to ensure the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman seeks your guidance regarding the possibility of developing osteoporosis after her friend experienced a hip fracture. Assuming she has average risk based on her age and gender, what is her likelihood of having osteoporosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 25%
Explanation:Osteoporosis is a condition that is more prevalent in women and increases with age. However, there are many other risk factors and secondary causes of osteoporosis. Some of the most significant risk factors include a history of glucocorticoid use, rheumatoid arthritis, alcohol excess, parental hip fracture history, low body mass index, and current smoking. Other risk factors include a sedentary lifestyle, premature menopause, certain ethnicities, endocrine disorders, gastrointestinal disorders, chronic kidney disease, and certain genetic disorders. Additionally, certain medications such as SSRIs, antiepileptics, and proton pump inhibitors may worsen osteoporosis.
If a patient is diagnosed with osteoporosis or has a fragility fracture, further investigations may be necessary to identify the cause of osteoporosis and assess the risk of subsequent fractures. Recommended investigations include a history and physical examination, blood tests such as a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, bone profile, CRP, and thyroid function tests. Other procedures may include bone densitometry, lateral radiographs, protein immunoelectrophoresis, and urinary Bence-Jones proteins. Additionally, markers of bone turnover and urinary calcium excretion may be assessed. By identifying the cause of osteoporosis and contributory factors, healthcare providers can select the most appropriate form of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man came to the clinic complaining of discomfort in his scrotum on one side. He mentioned experiencing dysuria and frequency last week, but it went away on its own. Upon examination, there was a tender swelling at the back of his left testicle. The patient is in good health otherwise and has normal vital signs.
What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Varicocele
Explanation:Possible Diagnosis for Testicular Pain
The most probable diagnosis for testicular pain in this scenario is epididymo-orchitis. This condition is characterized by pain, swelling, and inflammation of the epididymis and testes, often following a UTI or sexually transmitted infection. While testicular torsion is also a possibility, the patient’s age, recent UTI, and mild pain make it less likely. However, if the patient experiences severe pain, testicular torsion should be considered and referred to emergency care. Other potential differentials exist, but epididymo-orchitis is the most likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female undergoes a cervical smear test at her local clinic as part of the UK cervical cancer screening programme. The results reveal that she is hrHPV positive, but her cytology shows normal cells. As per the current guidelines, the test is repeated after 12 months, which still shows hrHPV positivity. However, the cytology remains normal. Another cervical smear test is conducted after 12 months, which again shows hrHPV positivity, but the cytology remains normal. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Colposcopy
Explanation:If a cervical smear test performed as part of the NHS cervical screening programme returns as hrHPV positive, cytology is performed. If the cytology shows normal cells, the test is repeated in 12 months. If the repeat test is still hrHPV positive and cytology is normal, the test is repeated in a further 12 months. However, if the second repeat test is still hrHPV positive and colposcopy is normal, the patient should undergo colposcopy. In this case, as the patient has had three tests over three years that have all returned as hrHPV positive, returning her to routine recall is not appropriate. Instead, she requires a colposcopy and repeating the test in 3, 6 or 12 months is not appropriate.
Understanding Cervical Cancer Screening Results
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved significantly in recent years, with the introduction of HPV testing allowing for further risk stratification. The NHS now uses an HPV first system, where a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.
If the hrHPV test is negative, individuals can return to normal recall, unless they fall under the test of cure pathway, untreated CIN1 pathway, or require follow-up for incompletely excised cervical glandular intraepithelial neoplasia (CGIN) / stratified mucin producing intraepithelial lesion (SMILE) or cervical cancer. If the hrHPV test is positive, samples are examined cytologically, and if the cytology is abnormal, individuals will require colposcopy.
If the cytology is normal but the hrHPV test is positive, the test is repeated at 12 months. If the repeat test is still hrHPV positive and cytology is normal, a further repeat test is done 12 months later. If the hrHPV test is negative at 24 months, individuals can return to normal recall, but if it is still positive, they will require colposcopy. If the sample is inadequate, it will need to be repeated within 3 months, and if two consecutive samples are inadequate, colposcopy will be required.
For individuals who have previously had CIN, they should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample in the community 6 months after treatment. The most common treatment for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia is large loop excision of transformation zone (LLETZ), which may be done during the initial colposcopy visit or at a later date depending on the individual clinic. Cryotherapy is an alternative technique.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man is brought to his GP by his partner who is concerned he may have developed bipolar disorder over the last few months.
The man experiences periods of 'highs', where he engages in impulsive behavior and sleeps very little. He denies ever having delusions of grandeur. These episodes usually last for a few days, and he has never put himself or others in danger.
The man also has 'lows' where he experiences severe depression; he feels hopeless, loses interest in his usual activities and sleeps excessively. He is referred to a psychiatrist for further evaluation.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type 2 bipolar disorder
Explanation:The woman’s symptoms of hypomania alternating with severe depression are indicative of type 2 bipolar disorder. There is no indication of an anxiety disorder in the question. While cyclothymia is characterized by mild symptoms of hypomania and depression lasting at least two years, the severity of the woman’s symptoms suggests type 2 bipolar disorder, even though the symptoms have only been present for one year. Major depressive disorder is not the correct diagnosis as there are also symptoms of hypomania present. Type 1 bipolar disorder is also not the correct answer as the symptoms of the ‘high’ periods are more consistent with hypomania rather than full-blown mania.
Understanding Bipolar Disorder
Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.
Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability. Mania is more severe and involves functional impairment or psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more, while hypomania involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions of grandeur or auditory hallucinations, suggest mania.
Management of bipolar disorder involves psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, with valproate as an alternative. Antipsychotic therapy may be used for mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. Co-morbidities, such as diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD, should also be addressed.
If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. If there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 49
Incorrect
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John is a 42-year-old man who visits you as his younger brother Robert has recently been diagnosed with hereditary haemochromatosis. He is concerned that he might also have the condition and wants to undergo a blood test to confirm.
Initially, you order an iron study profile that includes ferritin, transferrin saturation, and total iron binding capacity (TIBC).
Which of the following blood test outcomes is most probable to suggest that John has the same ailment as Robert?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Raised transferrin saturation, raised ferritin, low TIBC
Explanation:To diagnose haemochromatosis, it is important to assess the patient’s risk factors and perform tests to determine their susceptibility. This includes evaluating their family history, age, and gender. Additionally, serum ferritin and transferrin saturation levels should be measured, and HFE mutation analysis may be recommended after genetic counselling.
In haemochromatosis, transferrin saturation and ferritin levels are typically elevated, while TIBC is low. Serum ferritin is a highly sensitive test for iron overload in this condition, and normal levels essentially rule out iron overload. However, it has low specificity, as elevated levels can also be caused by other conditions such as diabetes, alcohol consumption, and liver damage.
Understanding Haemochromatosis: Investigation and Management
Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes iron accumulation in the body due to mutations in the HFE gene. The best investigation to screen for haemochromatosis is still a topic of debate. For the general population, transferrin saturation is considered the most useful marker, while genetic testing for HFE mutation is recommended for testing family members. Diagnostic tests include molecular genetic testing for the C282Y and H63D mutations and liver biopsy using Perl’s stain.
A typical iron study profile in patients with haemochromatosis includes high transferrin saturation levels, raised ferritin and iron, and low TIBC. The first-line treatment for haemochromatosis is venesection, which involves removing blood from the body to reduce iron levels. Transferrin saturation should be kept below 50%, and the serum ferritin concentration should be below 50 ug/l to monitor the adequacy of venesection. If venesection is not effective, desferrioxamine may be used as a second-line treatment. Joint x-rays may also show chondrocalcinosis, which is a characteristic feature of haemochromatosis.
It is important to note that there are rare cases of families with classic features of genetic haemochromatosis but no mutation in the HFE gene. As HFE gene analysis becomes less expensive, guidelines for investigating and managing haemochromatosis may change.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A concerned mother of a toddler attends your clinic seeking advice on how to reduce the risk of accidents in her child.
Which of the following pieces of advice is supported by the best evidence?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Avoid soft mattresses
Explanation:Best Evidence for Reducing the Risk of SIDS
Cot death, also known as Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS), is a rare but devastating occurrence that affects approximately 1 in 1500 babies per year. It is more common in male infants and during the winter months. While there are several risk factors for SIDS, including multiple pregnancies, low birth weight, and lower social class, the best evidence suggests that avoiding prone sleeping is the most effective intervention.
Other interventions that have been suggested to reduce the risk of SIDS include using a dummy (pacifier) and ensuring a smoke-free environment. However, the evidence for these interventions is not as strong as the evidence for avoiding prone sleeping.
It is important for parents and caregivers to be aware of the risk factors for SIDS and to take steps to reduce the risk. By following the best available evidence, we can help to prevent this tragic and heartbreaking event from occurring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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