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  • Question 1 - A 55-year-old man presents to the ED complaining of extreme fatigue. He has...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man presents to the ED complaining of extreme fatigue. He has a history of Graves disease. On examination, his blood pressure is 103/58 mmHg, pulse 64/min and temperature 36.3ºC. The following results are obtained: Na+ 135 mmol/L, K+ 5.4 mmol/L, Urea 5.2 mmol/L, Creatinine 42 umol/L, TSH 3.5 mu/l, Free thyroxine (T4) 12 pmol/L. You arrange for a random cortisol test, however, whilst awaiting the result he becomes unresponsive. In addition to giving intravenous steroids and fluid, what test is urgent to check first given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Glucose

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely to have Addison’s disease as he has a history of autoimmune disease, hyperkalaemia and hypotension.
      It is important to keep an Addisonian crisis on the differential in cases of shock, especially since adrenal crisis can be the patient’s first presentation of adrenal insufficiency.
      Patients with Addison’s disease are prone to developing hypoglycaemia due to loss of the glucogenic effect of glucocorticoids. Given the sudden deterioration, a glucose level must be checked.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      302.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 46-year-old plumber develops chronic, severe pain after sustaining a brachial plexus injury...

    Correct

    • A 46-year-old plumber develops chronic, severe pain after sustaining a brachial plexus injury as a result of a motorbike accident. He has had no benefit from paracetamol or ibuprofen. In addition, he has had an unsuccessful trial of amitriptyline. Following recent NICE guidelines, which of the following is the most appropriate medication to consider?

      Your Answer: Pregabalin

      Explanation:

      Neuropathic pain may be defined as pain which arises following damage or disruption of the nervous system. It is often difficult to treat and responds poorly to standard analgesia.
      The most recent update to the NICE guidelines for management of neuropathic pain occurred in 2013: first-line treatment* includes amitriptyline. If the first-line drug treatment does not work then move on to one of the other 3 drugs: duloxetine, gabapentin or pregabalin. Tramadol may be used as ‘rescue therapy’ for exacerbations of neuropathic pain. Topical capsaicin may be used for localised neuropathic pain (e.g. post-herpetic neuralgia). Pain management clinics may be useful in patients with resistant problems.

      *please note that for some specific conditions the guidance may vary. For example carbamazepine is used first-line for trigeminal neuralgia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      51.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 45-year-old male patient came to the OPD with a complaint of severe...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old male patient came to the OPD with a complaint of severe headache on the right side, with right-sided jaw pain, and additional blurred vision in the right eye. The headache was throbbing in character. Which investigation will you prefer next?

      Your Answer: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

      Explanation:

      Age of the patient, headache only on one side, and loss of vision on that side suggest temporal arteritis, also known as giant cell arteritis. The laboratory hallmark of this condition is a raised ESR.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      123.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old man was brought to the ER with acute confusion. He's a...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man was brought to the ER with acute confusion. He's a known case of bipolar disorder under treatment with mood stabilizers. Blood investigations revealed lithium toxicity. A decision is made to start the patient on sodium bicarbonate. What is the rationale behind the use of sodium bicarbonate in this patient?

      Your Answer: Increases urine alkalinity

      Explanation:

      The rationale behind the use of sodium bicarbonate is that it increases the alkalinity of the urine promoting lithium excretion. The preferred treatment in severe cases would be haemodialysis.

      Lithium is a mood-stabilizing drug used most commonly prophylactically in bipolar disorder but also as an adjunct in refractory depression. It has a very narrow therapeutic range (0.4-1.0 mmol/L) and a long plasma half-life being excreted primarily by the kidneys. Lithium toxicity generally occurs following concentrations > 1.5 mmol/L.

      Toxicity may be precipitated by dehydration, renal failure, diuretics (especially Bendroflumethiazide), ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs and metronidazole.

      Features of toxicity
      Coarse tremor (a fine tremor is seen in therapeutic levels)
      Hyperreflexia
      Acute confusion
      Seizure
      Coma

      Management
      Mild-moderate toxicity may respond to volume resuscitation with normal saline
      Haemodialysis may be needed in severe toxicity
      Sodium bicarbonate is sometimes used but there is limited evidence to support this. By increasing the alkalinity of the urine it promotes lithium excretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      50.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 38-year-old musician presented with a two-day history of sudden-onset occipital headache associated...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old musician presented with a two-day history of sudden-onset occipital headache associated with nausea and vomiting. The next day, his right hand became weak for a few hours. On the same day he had an episode of sensory disturbance in his right upper limb consisting of tingling in his hand that spread up the arm, to his shoulder lasting less than two minutes in total. On the day of admission he had a similar episode of sensory disturbance lasting 30 seconds in total. On examination he had bilateral papilledema, no neck stiffness and an otherwise normal neurological examination. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Embolic transient ischaemic attack

      Correct Answer: Venous sinus thrombosis

      Explanation:

      Cerebral venous sinus thrombosis (CVST) is associated with headache (>90% of cases), seizures, focal weakness (40%) and papilledema (40%), all seen in this patient.
      Risk factors for CVST include genetic or acquired prothrombotic disorders, pregnancy, the oral contraceptive pill, vasculitis, malignancy, dehydration and infection. However, there are multiple other associated factors.
      Diagnosis is normally confirmed with magnetic resonance venography (MRV). Treatment is with anticoagulation, initially with heparin and subsequently with warfarin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      55.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 26-year-old woman presents to a reproductive endocrinology clinic with a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman presents to a reproductive endocrinology clinic with a history of not being able to conceive after 2 years of using no contraception. Polycystic ovarian syndrome maybe her diagnosis. Which of the following is most likely to be associated with this condition?

      Your Answer: Low levels of circulating insulin

      Correct Answer: Elevated LH/FSH ratio

      Explanation:

      In patients with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS), FSH levels are within the reference range or low. Luteinizing hormone (LH) levels are elevated for Tanner stage, sex, and age. The LH-to-FSH ratio is usually greater than 3.

      Women with PCOS have abnormalities in the metabolism of androgens and oestrogen and in the control of androgen production. PCOS can result from abnormal function of the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian (HPO) axis.
      The major features of PCOS include menstrual dysfunction, anovulation, and signs of hyperandrogenism. Other signs and symptoms of PCOS may include the following:
      – Hirsutism
      – Infertility
      – Obesity and metabolic syndrome
      – Diabetes
      – Obstructive sleep apnoea

      Androgen excess can be tested by measuring total and free testosterone levels or a free androgen index. An elevated free testosterone level is a sensitive indicator of androgen excess. Other androgens, such as dehydroepiandrosterone sulphate (DHEA-S), may be normal or slightly above the normal range in patients with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). Levels of sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG) are usually low in patients with PCOS.

      Some women with PCOS have insulin resistance and an abnormal lipid profile (cholesterol >200 mg/dL; LDL >160 mg/dL). Approximately one-third of women with PCOS who are overweight have impaired glucose tolerance or type 2 diabetes mellitus by 30 years of age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      46.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 16 year old previously well male presents with a 4 day history...

    Correct

    • A 16 year old previously well male presents with a 4 day history of fever, lethargy and a generalized macular rash. There is no significant previous medical history and the patient has not travelled abroad either. Vitals are as follows: Temp: 38.5 BP: 125/75mmHg Pulse: 100/min On auscultation the chest was clear and no heart murmur was heard. Examination also reveals a non blanching widespread macular rash over the chest and abdomen. There is swelling of interphalangeal joints of both hands and feet associated with mild tenderness. Lymph nodes are palpable over the supraclavicular, axillary and inguinal areas. Abdominal examination reveals palpable mass on both right and left hypochondrium. Lab results are given below: Haemoglobin (Hb) 13.5 g/dL, White cell count (WCC) 14.0 × 109/L, Platelets 380 × 109/L, Sodium 145 mmol/L, Potassium 4.8 mmol/L, Creatinine 89 μmol/L, Rheumatoid factor: Negative, Antinuclear antibody: Negative, Anti-dsDNA: Negative, ASO titre: Not detected. Electrocardiogram (ECG): Sinus rhythm. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Systemic Still’s disease

      Explanation:

      People with Systemic Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (also known as Stills disease) can have recurrent fevers, a macular rash, joint pain, joint deformities, an enlarged liver and/or spleen, and can occasionally have polyserositis, lung involvement or pericardial effusions. Rheumatoid factor and antinuclear antibodies are usually negative. Treatment is with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and the prognosis is better than for adult rheumatoid arthritis.
      In pauciarticular Still’s disease, antinuclear antibodies are present. Large joints are affected and most patients develop classic features of seronegative spondylarthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      226
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 20-year-old gentleman presents to the A&E department complaining of a sudden-onset occipital...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old gentleman presents to the A&E department complaining of a sudden-onset occipital headache associated with vomiting. His symptoms started 2 hours previously and are continuing. He has a previous history of infrequent migraine without aura, which also causes nausea but not vomiting. He rated his current headache as much more severe than his usual migraine. Examination is unremarkable. In particular, there is no neck stiffness or photophobia. Which of the following management options would be the most appropriate?

      Your Answer: CT brain scan, followed by discharge if normal

      Correct Answer: CT brain scan, followed by lumbar puncture if CT normal

      Explanation:

      The patient presented with sudden-onset headache that is more painful than his usual migraine attacks. This gives a high suspicion of subarachnoid haemorrhage; thus, a CT brain scan should be ordered first to rule this out. However, a normal CT scan is apparent in 30% of patients with subarachnoid haemorrhage and should be referred for lumbar puncture to look for red blood cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      684
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A study is developed to assess a new anti-hypertensive drug and two groups...

    Correct

    • A study is developed to assess a new anti-hypertensive drug and two groups of patients are randomly chosen. The first group takes an established anti-hypertensive drug for 3 months and the second group receives the new drug, again for 3 months. To assess the efficacy of the new drug, blood pressure is measured before and after taking the drug in both groups of patients. After a period of 1 month off medication, the groups swap medication and blood pressure is measured again, finally the difference in blood pressure after receiving each drug is calculated. Which of the following significance tests would you apply to assess the results of the study?

      Your Answer: Student's paired t-test

      Explanation:

      A t test is a type of statistical test that is used to compare the means of two groups. It is one of the most widely used statistical hypothesis tests in pain studies. There are two types of statistical inferences: parametric and nonparametric methods. Parametric methods refer to a statistical technique in which one defines the probability distribution of probability variables and makes inferences about the parameters of the distribution. In cases in which the probability distribution cannot be defined, nonparametric methods are employed. T tests are a type of parametric method; they can be used when the samples satisfy the conditions of normality, equal variance, and independence. In this case the data is parametric, and they belong to the same patients, so a paired t test should be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      153.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 35 year old factory worker presents with a history of episodic dyspnoea....

    Correct

    • A 35 year old factory worker presents with a history of episodic dyspnoea. The complaint worsens when he is working. He starts to feel wheezy, with a tendency to cough. Which diagnostic investigation would be the most useful in this case?

      Your Answer: Serial peak flow measurements at work and at home

      Explanation:

      Serial Peak Expiratory Flow measurement at work and home is a feasible, sensitive, and specific test for the diagnosis of occupational asthma. For a diagnosis of occupational asthma, it is important to establish a relationship objectively between the workplace exposure and asthma symptoms and signs. Physiologically, this can be achieved by monitoring airflow limitation in relation to occupational exposure(s). If there is an effect of a specific workplace exposure, airflow limitation should be more prominent on work days compared with days away from work (or days away from the causative agent). Airflow limitation can be measured by spirometry, with peak expiratory flow (PEF) and/or forced expiratory volume in 1 s(FEV1) being the most useful for observing changes in airway calibre. Other tests mentioned are less reliable and would not help in establishing a satisfactory diagnosis of occupational asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 55-year-old man presents to the diabetes clinic for review. He has had...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man presents to the diabetes clinic for review. He has had type-1 diabetes for 30 years. Recently, he has suffered several falls, which he describes as attacks where he feels ‘faint’ and loses his footing. He has suffered from impotence for several years and takes anti-reflux medication. On examination, he has a postural drop of 35 mmHg in his blood pressure. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Diabetic autonomic neuropathy

      Explanation:

      Autonomic Neuropathy may involve the cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, genitourinary systems and the sweat glands.
      Patients with generalized autonomic neuropathies may report ataxia, gait instability, or near syncope/syncope. In addition, autonomic neuropathies have further symptoms that relate to the anatomic site of nerve damage—gastrointestinal, cardiovascular, bladder, or sudomotor.
      – Gastrointestinal autonomic neuropathy may produce the following symptoms:
      Dysphagia, abdominal pain, nausea/vomiting, malabsorption, faecal incontinence, diarrhoea, constipation.
      – Cardiovascular autonomic neuropathy may produce the following symptoms :
      Persistent sinus tachycardia, orthostatic hypotension, sinus arrhythmia, decreased heart variability in response to deep breathing, near syncope upon changing positions from recumbent to standing.
      – Bladder neuropathy (which must be differentiated from prostate or spine disorders) may produce the following symptoms:
      Poor urinary stream
      Feeling of incomplete bladder emptying
      Straining to void
      – Sudomotor neuropathy may produce the following symptoms:
      Heat intolerance
      Heavy sweating of head, neck, and trunk with anhidrosis of lower trunk and extremities
      Gustatory sweating

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      185
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 44-year-old physiotherapist with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with a painful,...

    Correct

    • A 44-year-old physiotherapist with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with a painful, red left eye. Visual acuity is normal. Fundoscopy is also unremarkable. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Scleritis

      Explanation:

      Scleritis, or inflammation of the sclera, is usually painful whereas episcleritis is not painful.

      Keratoconjunctivitis sicca is usually bilateral and associated more with dryness, burning and itching.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 20-year-old woman presents with weakness and is found to have a serum...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman presents with weakness and is found to have a serum potassium of 2.2 mmol/l and pH 7.1.   Which of the following would be LEAST useful in differentiating between renal tubular acidosis Types 1 and 2?

      Your Answer: Urinary pH 6.5

      Correct Answer: Osteomalacia

      Explanation:

      Osteomalacia is a marked softening of the bones that can present in both type I and type II Renal Tubular Acidosis (RTA) and will thus not differentiate the two types in any case. The other measures will allow differentiation of the two types.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      222.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 4-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital after developing hemarthrosis in his...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital after developing hemarthrosis in his right knee whilst playing in the garden. Following blood results are obtained: Plts: 220 x 10^9/L, PT: 11 secs, APTT: 76 secs, Factor VIIIc activity: Normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemophilia B

      Explanation:

      A grossly elevated APTT may be caused by heparin therapy, haemophilia, or antiphospholipid syndrome. A normal factor VIIIc activity, however, points towards the diagnosis of haemophilia B, which is the deficiency of factor IX in the blood.

      Haemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder of coagulation. Up to 30% of patients have no family history of the condition. Haemophilia A is due to the deficiency of clotting factor VIII and is more common than haemophilia B, accounting for 90% of the cases. In haemophilia B (Christmas disease), there is a deficiency of clotting factor IX.

      Characteristic features of haemophilia include hemarthrosis, haematomas, and prolonged bleeding following trauma or surgery. Coagulation profile of a haemophiliac person shows prolonged bleeding time, activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), thrombin time (TT), but a normal prothrombin time (PT).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 42-year-old female with type 1 diabetes who has undergone a renal transplant...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old female with type 1 diabetes who has undergone a renal transplant is being reviewed. She is taking azathioprine and tacrolimus for immunosuppression. Which among the following is correct regarding the given immunosuppressive agents?

      Your Answer: Tacrolimus is a calcineurin inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Tacrolimus is a calcineurin inhibitor used as an immunosuppressive agent used for prophylaxis of organ rejection post-transplant.

      Pharmacology: Calcineurin inhibition leads to reduced T-lymphocyte signal transduction and IL-2 expression. It has a half-life of 12 hours (average).

      Other off-label indications for the use of tacrolimus include Crohn disease, graft-versus-host disease (GVHD), myasthenia gravis, rheumatoid arthritis.

      Adverse effects of tacrolimus includes:
      Cardiovascular: Angina pectoris, cardiac arrhythmias, hypertension
      Central nervous system: Abnormal dreams, headaches, insomnia, tremors.
      Dermatologic: Acne vulgaris, alopecia, pruritis, rash
      Endocrine and metabolic: Decreased serum bicarbonate, decreased serum iron, new-onset diabetes mellitus after transplant (NODAT), electrolyte disturbances.
      Gastrointestinal: Abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea
      Genitourinary: Urinary tract infection
      Hepatic: Abnormal hepatic function tests
      Neuromuscular and skeletal: Arthralgia, muscle cramps
      Ophthalmic: Blurred vision, visual disturbance
      Otic: Otalgia, otitis media, tinnitus
      Renal: Acute renal failure

      Other options:
      Sirolimus (a macrolide) is an mTOR inhibitor that blocks the response to IL-2 and has a half-life of 12–15 hours.
      Azathioprine inhibits purine synthesis, an essential step in the proliferation of white cells and has a half-life of around 5 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      39.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 70-year-old retired software developer with a history of primary open-angle glaucoma presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old retired software developer with a history of primary open-angle glaucoma presents with sudden painless loss of vision in his right eye. On examination of the right eye, the optic disc is swollen with multiple flame-shaped and blot haemorrhages. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Occlusion of central retinal artery

      Correct Answer: Occlusion of central retinal vein

      Explanation:

      Central retinal vein occlusion includes features such as sudden painless loss of vision, but is distinguished from central retinal artery occlusion by the presence of severe retinal haemorrhages on fundoscopy examination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      26.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What is the mechanism of action of sildenafil citrate? ...

    Correct

    • What is the mechanism of action of sildenafil citrate?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of phosphodiesterase V

      Explanation:

      Sildenafil citrate (Viagra) is the first oral drug to be widely approved for the treatment of erectile dysfunction.
      It is a potent and selective inhibitor of type-V phosphodiesterase, the primary form of the enzyme found in human penile erectile tissue, thereby preventing the breakdown of cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP), the intracellular second messenger of nitric oxide.

      Uses:
      It is used for the treatment of erectile dysfunction, idiopathic pulmonary hypertension, premature ejaculation, high altitude illness, penile rehabilitation after radical prostatectomy, angina pectoris, and lower urinary tract symptoms.

      Adverse effects:
      Mild headache, flushing, dyspepsia, cyanopsia, back pain, and myalgias – due to a high concentration of PDE11 enzyme in skeletal muscle, which shows significant cross-reactivity with the use of tadalafil.
      It can also cause hypotension, dizziness, and rhinitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 35-year-old gentleman presents to the Emergency Department with abdominal pain. This started...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old gentleman presents to the Emergency Department with abdominal pain. This started earlier on in the day and is getting progressively worse. The pain is located on his left flank and radiates down into his groin. He has no history of this pain or any other condition. Examination reveals a gentleman who is flushed and sweaty but is otherwise unremarkable. What is the most suitable initial management?

      Your Answer: IM diclofenac 75 mg

      Explanation:

      Because of the patient’s presentation with flank pain that radiates to the groin, we are suspecting renal colic. We should follow guidelines for acute renal management and prescribe IM diclofenac for immediate relief of pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      233.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A gentleman arrives at the renal clinic for review. He has longstanding chronic...

    Correct

    • A gentleman arrives at the renal clinic for review. He has longstanding chronic renal failure and is unfortunately suffering from metabolic bone disease. His GP has asked for an explanation of the causes and features of metabolic bone disease. Which of the following best describes the biochemical changes involved?

      Your Answer: Phosphate excretion is decreased, parathyroid hormone levels are increased and 1,25-OH vitamin D levels are decreased

      Explanation:

      The patient’s chronic renal failure causes decreased renal hydroxylation of vitamin D which leads to decreased calcium absorption in the gut. Simultaneously, there is also decreased renal excretion of phosphate, and this combination of factors results in increased PTH levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      60.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 55-year-old woman diagnosed with type 2 diabetes presents with vomiting and diarrhoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman diagnosed with type 2 diabetes presents with vomiting and diarrhoea after eating a meal of chicken and chips. She said her stool had small amounts of blood in. Campylobacter Jejuni was found on her stool culture exam. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy?

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin

      Correct Answer: IV fluids

      Explanation:

      Campylobacter is the most likely cause of diarrheal illness often due to undercooked meat being ingested. It is also a major cause of traveller’s diarrhoea. Sufficient fluid replacement and anti-emetics are indicated first followed by the antibiotic, Erythromycin although antibiotic treatment in adults is still in question. Ciprofloxacin and Tetracycline may also be effective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      49.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 47-year-old man is seen in clinic with a 3 month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old man is seen in clinic with a 3 month history of chronic epigastric discomfort. The pain comes and goes and radiates to his back and his right shoulder tip at times. It is worse after meals but there is no relieving factor. He feels nauseous most of the time and has foul-smelling stools. He has lost 2 stones in weight. He also complains of intermittent light-headedness. He drinks a bottle of wine on most nights and smokes 20 cigarettes /day. On examination, he is thin and looks neglected. His abdomen is soft, but tender on deep palpation in the epigastric area. He has a 2 cm non-tender liver edge. He also has decreased sensation to light touch on both feet. Bloods: sodium 131 mmol/L, potassium 4.2 mmol/L, creatine 64 μmol/L, amylase 35 U/l, alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 104 U/l, alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 121 U/l, bilirubin 24 μmol/L, calcium 2.01 mmol/L, whole cell count (WCC) 12.1 × 109/L, haemoglobin (Hb) 10.2 g/dL, platelets 462 × 109/L. Abdominal X-ray (AXR) was normal and oesophago-gastro duodenoscopy (OGD) showed mild gastritis. Campylobacter-like organism (CLO) test negative. Ultrasound abdomen showed a mildly enlarged liver with fatty change, spleen and kidneys normal, pancreas partially obscured by overlying bowel gas. 72-h stool fat was 22 g in 72 h. He is referred for a secretin test: volume collected 110 ml, bicarbonate 52 mEq/l. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bacterial overgrowth of the gut

      Correct Answer: Chronic pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      The question describes an alcohol abusing man with chronic epigastric discomfort, radiating into his back, worse with meals, and foul-smelling stools, weight loss, as well as chronic nausea. This is likely, thus chronic pancreatitis due to alcohol abuse. Hepatomegaly and peripheral neuropathy secondary to anaemia support the diagnosis of long term alcohol abuse. Bacterial overgrowth may present with diarrhoea and is a less likely diagnosis than pancreatitis. Celiac disease is a less likely diagnosis than pancreatitis, and you would also expect mention of diarrhoea. VIPoma would also likely present with diarrhoea. Cecal carcinoma would more than likely present with blood in the stool.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      211.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 54-year-old woman, with a long history of inflammatory bowel disease presents to...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old woman, with a long history of inflammatory bowel disease presents to his GP with abnormal liver function tests. She has a raised alkaline phosphatase level but no symptoms of liver disease. Which of the following options is the best set of investigations to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: MRCP and liver biopsy

      Explanation:

      In a patient with abnormal LFTs and UC, think primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC). MRCP and liver biopsy is the best answer. MRCP will show classically beads on a string – intra and extrahepatic stricturing and dilation. Remember this finding!! Liver biopsy is required for official diagnosis (need tissue!).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      25.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A scientist is using denaturation, annealing and elongation to amplify a desired fragment...

    Correct

    • A scientist is using denaturation, annealing and elongation to amplify a desired fragment of DNA. Which molecular technique is he using?

      Your Answer: Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

      Explanation:

      PCR is a simple, yet elegant, enzymatic assay, which allows for the amplification of a specific DNA fragment from a complex pool of DNA. PCR can be performed using source DNA from a variety of tissues and organisms, including peripheral blood, skin, hair, saliva, and microbes. Only trace amounts of DNA are needed for PCR to generate enough copies to be analysed using conventional laboratory methods. For this reason, PCR is a sensitive assay. Each PCR assay requires the presence of template DNA, primers, nucleotides, and DNA polymerase. The DNA polymerase is the key enzyme that links individual nucleotides together to form the PCR product. The above mentioned components are mixed in a test tube or 96-well plate and then placed in a machine that allows repeated cycles of DNA amplification to occur in three basic steps. The machine is essentially a thermal cycler. It has a thermal block with holes, into which the test tubes or plates holding the PCR reaction mixture are inserted. The machine raises and lowers the temperature of the block in discrete, precise and pre-programmed steps. The reaction solution is first heated above the melting point of the two complementary DNA strands of the target DNA, which allows the strands to separate, a process called denaturation. The temperature is then lowered to allow the specific primers to bind to the target DNA segments, a process known as hybridization or annealing. Annealing between primers and the target DNA occurs only if they are complementary in sequence (e.g. A binding to G). The temperature is raised again, at which time the DNA polymerase is able to extend the primers by adding nucleotides to the developing DNA strand. With each repetition of these three steps, the number of copied DNA molecules doubles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - An 86-year-old male patient has been diagnosed with monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance....

    Correct

    • An 86-year-old male patient has been diagnosed with monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance. He is eager to know its relation to his future health. Which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: 10% of patients with MGUS go on to develop myeloma over 10 years

      Explanation:

      Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS, also known as benign paraproteinemia and monoclonal gammopathy) is a pre-malignant condition not necessarily leading to its malignant form—multiple myeloma. Around 10% of patients eventually develop myeloma over 10 years, with 50% at 15 years. MGUS causes paraproteinemia and is usually asymptomatic. It is not associated with ostealgia or increased risk of infections. It is often mistaken for multiple myeloma, differing from the latter in, no immunosuppression, normal levels of beta-2 microglobulin, and stable lower levels of paraproteinemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      27
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 60-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of a cough and breathlessness...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of a cough and breathlessness for 2 weeks. He reports that before the onset of these symptoms, he was fit and well and was not on any medication. He is a known smoker of 10 cigarettes per day and has been smoking for over 25 years. On examination, the GP diagnosed a mild viral chest infection and reassured the patient that the symptoms would settle of their own accord. Two weeks later, the patient presented again to the GP, this time complaining of thirst, polyuria and generalised muscle weakness. The GP noticed the presence of ankle oedema. A prick test confirmed the presence of hyperglycaemia and the patient was referred to the hospital for investigations where the medical registrar ordered a variety of blood tests. Some of these results are shown: Na 144 mmol/L, K 2.2 mmol/L, Bicarbonate 34 mmol/L, Glucose 16 mmol/L. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ectopic ACTH production

      Explanation:

      The patient has small cell lung cancer presented by paraneoplastic syndrome; Ectopic ACTH secretion.

      Small cell lung cancer (SCLC), previously known as oat cell carcinoma is a neuroendocrine carcinoma that exhibits aggressive behaviour, rapid growth, early spread to distant sites, exquisite sensitivity to chemotherapy and radiation, and a frequent association with distinct paraneoplastic syndromes.
      Common presenting signs and symptoms of the disease, which very often occur in advanced-stage disease, include the following:
      – Shortness of breath
      – Cough
      – Bone pain
      – Weight loss
      – Fatigue
      – Neurologic dysfunction
      Most patients with this disease present with a short duration of symptoms, usually only 8-12 weeks before presentation. The clinical manifestations of SCLC can result from local tumour growth, intrathoracic spread, distant spread, and/or paraneoplastic syndromes.
      SIADH is present in 15% of the patients and Ectopic secretion of ACTH is present in 2-5% of the patients leading to ectopic Cushing’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      267.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 25 yr. old previously well female, in her 10th week of pregnancy...

    Correct

    • A 25 yr. old previously well female, in her 10th week of pregnancy presented with a left sided painful calf swelling. An ultrasound scan revealed deep venous thrombosis (DVT) of her left leg. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Initiate and then continue treatment with heparin until delivery

      Explanation:

      Warfarin is contraindicated during pregnancy due to its teratogenic effects. She should be given heparin throughout her pregnancy. It can be converted to warfarin if necessary after the delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      50.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 23-year-old woman presents with hirsutism and oligomenorrhea for the last five years....

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman presents with hirsutism and oligomenorrhea for the last five years. She is very anxious about her irregular menses and worried as her mother was diagnosed with uterine cancer recently. She is a lawyer and does not want to conceive, at least for the next couple of years. The examination is essentially normal except for coarse dark hair being noticed under her chin and over her lower back. Investigations done during the follicular phase: Serum androstenedione 10.1 nmol/l (0.6-8.8), Serum dehydroepiandrosterone sulphate 11.6 Ù‰mol/l (2-10), Serum 17-hydroxyprogesterone 5.6 nmol/l (1-10), Serum oestradiol 220 pmol/l (200-400), Serum testosterone 3.6 nmol/l (0.5-3), Serum sex hormone binding protein 32 nmol/l (40-137), Plasma luteinising hormone 3.3 U/l (2.5-10), Plasma follicle-stimulating hormone 3.6 U/l (2.5-10). What is the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Spironolactone

      Correct Answer: Combined OCP

      Explanation:

      This patient has polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). Medical management of PCOS is aimed at the treatment of metabolic derangements, anovulation, hirsutism, and menstrual irregularity.
      First-line medical therapy usually consists of an oral contraceptive to induce regular menses. The contraceptive not only inhibits ovarian androgen production but also increases sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG) production. The American College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (ACOG) recommends the use of combination low-dose hormonal contraceptive agents for long-term management of menstrual dysfunction.
      If symptoms such as hirsutism are not sufficiently alleviated, an androgen-blocking agent may be added. Pregnancy should be excluded before therapy with oral contraceptives or androgen-blocking agents are started.
      First-line treatment for ovulation induction when fertility is desired is clomiphene citrate. Second-line strategies may be equally effective in infertile women with clomiphene citrate–resistant PCOS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      315.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 43-year-old woman is concerned about osteoporosis as she as a strong family...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old woman is concerned about osteoporosis as she as a strong family history of it. She is one year postmenopausal and aware of hot flushes at night. Which one of the following therapies would be most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Calcium and vitamin D supplements

      Correct Answer: Cyclical oestrogen and progestogen

      Explanation:

      As the patient has early menopause, hormone replacement therapy (HT) is considered to be the first line of choice for prevention of bone loss and fracture in the early postmenopausal period for 5 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      148.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 78-year-old male with long-standing Alzheimer's disease is being reviewed in your clinic....

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old male with long-standing Alzheimer's disease is being reviewed in your clinic. Which among the following is true regarding memantine, a drug which has been approved for the management of dementia in the UK?

      Your Answer: It is an NMDA-receptor agonist

      Explanation:

      Memantine is an antagonist of the NMDA (N-Methyl-D-Aspartate)-receptor subtype of glutamate receptor. It is used to slow the neurotoxicity thought to be involved in Alzheimer’s disease and other neurodegenerative diseases.

      Drug interactions:
      When given concomitantly with other NMDA-receptor antagonists (e.g., ketamine, amantadine) increase the risk of psychosis.
      Dopamine agonists, L-dopa, and anticholinergics enhance effects of memantine.
      Antispasmodics (e.g., baclofen)  enhance effects, as memantine has some antispasmodic effects.
      Drugs excreted by cationic transporters in the kidney (e.g. quinine, cimetidine, ranitidine) reduce excretion.

      Common adverse effects include dizziness, headache, confusion, diarrhoea, and constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      34
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 25-year-old pregnant female suddenly developed a rash on her torso. It started...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old pregnant female suddenly developed a rash on her torso. It started as macules and then became vesicles. After 3 days she died. During her post-mortem, positive findings suggestive of pneumonitis were found. Which one of the following is the most common cause?

      Your Answer: Varicella zoster virus (VZV)

      Explanation:

      Varicella zoster virus (VZV) presents in this way and the rash transforms from macules to vesicles. Pneumonitis is a common complication of VZV infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - The average weight of 64 patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus was 81...

    Incorrect

    • The average weight of 64 patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus was 81 kg, with a standard deviation of 12 kg. What is the standard error of the mean?

      Your Answer: Square root (64 / 12)

      Correct Answer: 1.5

      Explanation:

      The SEM is dependent on the variation in the population and the number of the extracted samples. A large variation in the population causes a large difference in the sample means, ultimately resulting in a larger SEM. However, as more samples are extracted from the population, the sample means move closer to the population mean, which results in a smaller SEM. In short, the SEM is an indicator of how close the sample mean is to the population mean. Standard error of the mean = standard deviation / square root (number of patients)
      The standard error of the mean is calculated by the standard deviation / square root (number of patients)

      = 12 / square root (64) = 12 / 8 = 1.5

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      79
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 43 year old ex-marine who has a history of post-traumatic stress disorder...

    Incorrect

    • A 43 year old ex-marine who has a history of post-traumatic stress disorder visits the office for a review. He is reluctant to try cognitive behavioural therapy. Which medication could be useful in this patient?

      Your Answer: Citalopram

      Correct Answer: Mirtazapine

      Explanation:

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is an anxiety disorder caused by stressful, frightening or distressing events.

      PTSD is a lasting consequence of traumatic ordeals that cause intense fear, helplessness, or horror, such as a sexual or physical assault, the unexpected death of a loved one, an accident, war, or natural disaster. Families of victims can also develop PTSD, as can emergency personnel and rescue workers.

      PTSD is diagnosed after a person experiences symptoms for at least one month following a traumatic event. However symptoms may not appear until several months or even years later. The disorder is characterized by three main types of symptoms:
      -Re-experiencing the trauma through intrusive distressing recollections of the event, flashbacks, and nightmares.
      -Emotional numbness and avoidance of places, people, and activities that are reminders of the trauma.
      -Increased arousal such as difficulty sleeping and concentrating, feeling jumpy, and being easily irritated and angered.

      The goal of PTSD treatment is to reduce the emotional and physical symptoms, to improve daily functioning, and to help the person better cope with the event that triggered the disorder. Treatment for PTSD may involve psychotherapy (a type of counselling), medication, or both.

      Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR) therapy was initially developed in 1987 for the treatment of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and is guided by the Adaptive Information Processing model. EMDR is an individual therapy typically delivered one to two times per week for a total of 6-12 sessions, although some people benefit from fewer sessions. Sessions can be conducted on consecutive days.

      Drug treatments (paroxetine, mirtazapine, amitriptyline or phenelzine) should be considered for the treatment of PTSD when a sufferer expresses a preference to not engage in trauma-focused psychological treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      99.7
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - All of the following are associated with yellow nail syndrome except: ...

    Correct

    • All of the following are associated with yellow nail syndrome except:

      Your Answer: Cardiomegaly

      Explanation:

      Yellow nail syndrome is a very rare medical syndrome that includes pleural effusions, lymphedema (due to under development of the lymphatic vessels) and yellow dystrophic nails. Approximately 40% will also have bronchiectasis. It is also associated with chronic sinusitis and persistent coughing and it usually affects adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - The increased risk of oesophageal malignancy in patients with Barrett’s oesophagus is approximately:...

    Correct

    • The increased risk of oesophageal malignancy in patients with Barrett’s oesophagus is approximately:

      Your Answer: 50 - 100 times risk

      Explanation:

      Barrett’s oesophagus is the transformation of the normal squamous epithelium of the oesophagus to columnar, intestinal type epithelium. It is often seen in patients with reflux and there is a 50-100 fold increased risk of oesophageal adenocarcinoma in patients with Barrett’s oesophagus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      29.9
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 23-year-old male patient with a downward dislocation of the lens in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old male patient with a downward dislocation of the lens in his right eye is experiencing visual problems. The ophthalmologist notes a constellation of symptoms resembling those of Marfan Syndrome. The patient's history reveals learning disabilities and a diagnosis of homocystinuria is suspected. What is the pathophysiology of homocystinuria?

      Your Answer: Excess of homocysteine transsulfurase

      Correct Answer: Deficiency of cystathionine beta synthase

      Explanation:

      Inherited metabolic disorders are often characterized by the lack of an essential enzyme and are currently treated by dietary restriction and other strategies to replace the substrates or products of the missing enzyme. Patients with homocystinuria lack the enzyme cystathionine β-synthase (CBS), and many of these individuals do not respond to current treatment protocols.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      33.3
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A woman with severe renal failure undergoes a kidney transplant. However, after a...

    Incorrect

    • A woman with severe renal failure undergoes a kidney transplant. However, after a few hours, she develops fever and anuria. The doctors are suspecting hyperacute organ rejection. Which are the cells primarily responsible for hyperacute organ rejection?

      Your Answer: Macrophages

      Correct Answer: B Cells

      Explanation:

      Hyperacute rejection appears in the first minutes following transplantation and occurs only in vascularized grafts. This very fast rejection is characterized by vessel thrombosis leading to graft necrosis. Hyperacute rejection is caused by the presence of antidonor antibodies existing in the recipient before transplantation. These antibodies induce both complement activation and stimulation of endothelial cells to secrete Von Willebrand procoagulant factor, resulting in platelet adhesion and aggregation. The result of these series of reactions is the generation of intravascular thrombosis leading to lesion formation and ultimately to graft loss. Today, this type of rejection is avoided in most cases by checking for ABO compatibility and by excluding the presence of antidonor human leukocyte antigen (HLA) antibodies by cross-match techniques between donor graft cells and recipient sera. This type of rejection is also observed in models of xenotransplantation of vascularized organs between phylogenetically distant species when no immunosuppressive treatment is given to the recipients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      122.4
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A patient is started on imipramine for depression. Which combination of side-effects is...

    Correct

    • A patient is started on imipramine for depression. Which combination of side-effects is most likely to be associated with the intake of this class of antidepressants?

      Your Answer: Blurred vision + dry mouth

      Explanation:

      Blurring of vision and dry mouth are antimuscarinic side-effects that are more common with imipramine than other types of tricyclic antidepressants.

      Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are used less commonly now for depression due to their side-effects and toxicity in overdose. They are however used widely in the treatment of neuropathic pain, where smaller doses are typically required.

      Mechanism of action: Tricyclic antidepressants impose their therapeutic effects by inhibiting presynaptic reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin in the central nervous system (this, may give rise to seizures).

      Common side-effects:
      Drowsiness
      Dry mouth
      Blurred vision
      Constipation
      Urinary retention

      Low-dose amitriptyline is commonly used in the management of neuropathic pain and the prophylaxis of headaches (both tension and migraine).
      Lofepramine has a lower incidence of toxicity in overdose
      Amitriptyline and dosulepin (dothiepin) are considered the most dangerous in overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      39.8
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 25-year-old female presents to the acute medical unit with several lumps in...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female presents to the acute medical unit with several lumps in her neck and under her arms, weight loss, vomiting, and low mood. She is investigated and is found to have several areas of suspicious lymphadenopathy including in the neck, both axillae, and mediastinum. She also has multiple lesions in her liver which are confirmed to be the manifestations of Hodgkin lymphoma after biopsy. Which stage of the disease is the patient currently at?

      Your Answer: IV

      Explanation:

      The patient is on stage IV according to the Ann Arbor staging system for Hodgkin lymphoma (HL). The disease has spread beyond the lymph nodes into the liver (involvement of extra lymphatic organ).

      HL is a malignant proliferation of lymphocytes characterised by the presence of distinctive giant cells known as Reed-Sternberg cells. It has a bimodal age distribution being most common in the third and seventh decades of life.

      Staging of HL is done according to the Ann Arbor staging system:
      Stage
      I: Single lymph node region (I) or one extra lymphatic site (IE)

      II: Two or more lymph node regions on same side of the diaphragm (II) or local extra lymphatic extension plus one or more lymph node regions on same side of the diaphragm (IIE)

      III: Lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III) which may be accompanied by local extra lymphatic extension (IIIE)

      IV: Diffuse involvement of one or more extra lymphatic organs or sites

      Suffix
      A: No B symptoms

      B: Presence of at least one of the following: unexplained weight loss >10% baseline during 6 months before staging; recurrent unexplained fever >38°C; recurrent night sweats

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      107.1
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 65 yr. old previously well man was referred due to an abnormal...

    Correct

    • A 65 yr. old previously well man was referred due to an abnormal heart sound which was detected during a medical check up. On examination he looked well. His blood pressure was 120/70 mmHg and pulse rate was 68 bpm which was regular. His jugular venous pressure was not elevated and he didn't have ankle oedema. He had an early diastolic murmur, best heard at the left sternal edge, which was more clear in expiration when the patient leant forward. His lungs were clear. His FBC, Urea and electrolytes, LFTs and lipid profile were normal. His ECG showed sinus rhythm. His chest X-ray was normal. Echocardiography showed mild to moderate aortic regurgitation with normal left ventricular size and normal function. Which of the following is the most appropriate way of managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Start him on an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Although this patient’s left ventricular function is normal at the time of examination, there is chance of deterioration of it due to aortic regurgitation. It is found that ACE inhibitors slow the development of left ventricular dysfunction. So this patient should be started on an ACE inhibitor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      61.8
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 52-year-old man is referred to the oncology clinic by his GP. He...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old man is referred to the oncology clinic by his GP. He recently suffered a fracture of his right humerus with minimal trauma. The results of the blood tests, taken on his arrival, prompted the referral: Hb: 8.9 g/dL, WCC: 9.5 x 10^9/L, Plts: 140 x 10^9/L, MCV: 86 fL, ESR: 60mm/1st hour, Na+: 149 mmol/L, K+: 3.6 mmol/L, Urea: 15 mmol/L, Creatinine: 160 mmol/L, Calcium (corrected): 2.89 mmol/L, Albumin: 28g/L, Total protein: 89 g/L. X-ray of right humerus reported a possible pathological fracture. Which of the following investigations would help best in confirming the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Protein electrophoresis

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis with anaemia, raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), hypercalcaemia, renal impairment, and raised total protein with low albumin is multiple myeloma (MM). Protein electrophoresis will confirm the presence of monoclonal band of paraprotein. Of note, a radioisotope bone scan is not a good test for picking up the lytic lesions of MM.

      Diagnosis of MM is based on the confirmation of (a) one major criterion and one minor criterion or (b) three minor criteria in an individual who has signs or symptoms of multiple myeloma.

      Major criteria:
      1. >30% plasma cells on bone marrow biopsy
      2. Monoclonal band of paraprotein on electrophoresis: >35g/L for IgG, 20g/L for IgA, or >1g of light chains excreted in the urine per day

      Minor criteria:
      1. 10–30% plasma cells on bone marrow biopsy
      2. Abnormal monoclonal band but levels less than listed above
      3. Lytic bone lesions observed radiographically
      4. Immunosuppression

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      288.7
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - Empagliflozin was found to reduce the risk of cardiovascular deaths, non-fatal myocardial infarction...

    Correct

    • Empagliflozin was found to reduce the risk of cardiovascular deaths, non-fatal myocardial infarction and non-fatal stroke when added to standard treatment plans in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. This information was shared in 2015 by The New England Journal of Medicine and the results were expressed per 1000 patient years. In fact, empagliflozin had an event rate of 37.3/1000 patient years and placebo an event rate of 43.9/1000 patient years. How many patients who are at high cardiovascular risk need to be treated with empagliflozin to prevent a cardiovascular death, a non-fatal myocardial infarction or a non-fatal stroke?

      Your Answer: 150

      Explanation:

      The number needed to treat (NNT) is an absolute effect measure that has been used to assess beneficial and harmful effects of medical interventions. In this case the NNT can be calculated as follows: NNT = 1/ Absolute risk reduction (ARR). ARR=(Control event rate expressed per 1000 patient years) – (Experimental event rate expressed per 1000 patient years) = 43.9-37.3 = 6.6/1000 patient years

      NNT=(Patient years)/ARR = 1000/ 6.6 = 151.5. The closest to 151.5 is 150, thus it is the correct answer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      82.9
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 27-year-old man with a history of asthma presents for review. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man with a history of asthma presents for review. He has recently been discharged from hospital following an acute exacerbation and reports generally poor control with a persistent night time cough and exertional wheeze. His current asthma therapy is: salbutamol inhaler 100mcg prn Clenil (beclomethasone dipropionate) inhaler 800mcg bd salmeterol 50mcg bd He has a history of missing appointments and requests a prescription with as few side-effects as possible. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Low-dose prednisolone

      Correct Answer: Leukotriene receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      The NICE 2019 guidelines states that in patients who are uncontrolled with a SABA (Salbutamol) and ICS (Beclomethasone), LTRA should be added.
      If asthma is uncontrolled in adults (aged 17 and over) on a low dose of ICS as maintenance therapy, offer a leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) in addition to the ICS and review the response to treatment in 4 to 8 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      46.5
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - Which of the following stimulates the secretion of gastrin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following stimulates the secretion of gastrin?

      Your Answer: Somatostatin

      Correct Answer: Amino acids

      Explanation:

      Gastrin is released from G cells in the antrum of the stomach after a meal. It stimulates parietal cells to release HCl. Gastrin is stimulated by a number of things: antrum distention, vagal stimulation, peptides (especially amino acids) in the stomach, hypercalcemia. Gastrin release is inhibited by acid, SST, GIP, VIP, secretin, glucagon, and calcitonin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      33.1
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A cohort study is being designed to look at the relationship between smoking...

    Incorrect

    • A cohort study is being designed to look at the relationship between smoking and prostate cancer. What is the usual outcome measure in a cohort study?

      Your Answer: Numbers needed to harm

      Correct Answer: Relative risk

      Explanation:

      A cohort study is a particular form of longitudinal study that samples a cohort (a group of people who share a defining characteristic, typically those who experienced a common event in a selected period, such as birth or graduation), performing a cross-section at intervals through time.
      The relative risk (RR) or risk ratio is the ratio of the probability of an outcome in an exposed group to the probability of an outcome in an unexposed group. Relative risk is used in the statistical analysis of the data of experimental, cohort and cross-sectional studies, to estimate the strength of the association between treatments or risk factors, and outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      45
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 65-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes comes to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic for review. His HbA1c is elevated at 64 mmol/mol despite taking 1g of metformin BD. On examination, his blood pressure is 142/88 mmHg, his pulse is 82 beats per minute and regular. His BMI is 33 kg/m². A decision is made to start him on dapagliflozin. Which of the following would you expect on starting therapy?

      Your Answer: Hypoglycaemia

      Correct Answer: Increased total cholesterol

      Explanation:

      Dapagliflozin works by inhibiting sodium glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) and blocking resorption of glucose in the kidney, leading to an increase in urinary glucose excretion and lowering of both plasma glucose levels and body weight.
      All studies with SGLT2 inhibitors have found significant reductions in BP, with greater reductions seen in systolic (1.66 to 6.9mmHg) than diastolic (0.88 to 3.5mmHg) BP.
      While some trials have shown no change in lipid parameters, others have shown a modest but statistically significant increase in both HDL and LDL cholesterol with no effect on triglycerides or the LDL/HDL ratio.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      169.8
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 30-year-old woman presents with amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea. She has normal visual fields....

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman presents with amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea. She has normal visual fields. You are concerned that she may have a prolactinoma. Investigations were done and the results are as shown below: Hb 12.5 g/dL, WCC 4.9 x109/L, PLT 199 x109/L, Na+ 140 mmol/L, K+ 4.9 mmol/L, Creatinine 90 Ù‰mol/L, Prolactin 1150 mU/l. MRI shows a 7 mm pituitary microadenoma. Which of the following hormones would you expect to be lower than normal?

      Your Answer: LH

      Explanation:

      Prolactinomas, benign lesions that produce the hormone prolactin, are the most common hormone-secreting pituitary tumours.
      Based on its size, a prolactinoma can be classified as a microprolactinoma (< 10 mm diameter) or a macroprolactinoma (>10 mm diameter). If the prolactinoma is large enough to compress the surrounding normal hormone-secreting pituitary cells, it may result in deficiencies of one or more hormones (e.g., thyroid-stimulating hormone [TSH], growth hormone [GH], adrenocorticotropic hormone). However, the patient has microadenoma so it is unlikely to cause compression manifestations.
      Hyperprolactinemia inhibits GnRH secretion from the medial basal hypothalamus and LH release from the pituitary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      46.7
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 60-year-old librarian presents for review. She has recently been diagnosed with dry...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old librarian presents for review. She has recently been diagnosed with dry age-related macular degeneration. Which of the following is the strongest risk factor for developing this condition?

      Your Answer: Diabetes mellitus

      Correct Answer: Smoking

      Explanation:

      Age-related macular degeneration is the most common cause of blindness in the UK. Degeneration of the central retina (macula) is the key feature with changes usually bilateral. Smoking and genetic factors are risk factors for macular degeneration. The severity is divided into early, intermediate, and late types. The late type is additionally divided into dry and wet forms with the dry form making up 90% of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      84
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 55-year-old female inpatient in a psychiatric hospital has stopped eating or drinking...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old female inpatient in a psychiatric hospital has stopped eating or drinking as she believes she is dead and does not require food anymore. Which syndrome is characteristic of this finding?

      Your Answer: Cotard syndrome

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis of this patient is Cotard syndrome.

      Cotard syndrome is a rare mental disorder where the affected patient believes that they (or in some cases just a part of their body) is either dead or non-existent. This delusion is often difficult to treat and can result in significant problems due to patients stopping eating or drinking as they deem it not necessary. Cotard syndrome is often associated with severe depression and psychotic disorders.

      Other delusional syndromes:
      – Othello syndrome is a delusional belief that a patients partner is committing infidelity despite no evidence of this. It can often result in violence and controlling behaviour.
      – De Clerambault syndrome (otherwise known as erotomania), is where a patient believes that a person of higher social or professional standing is in love with them. Often this presents with people who believe celebrities are in love with them.
      – Capgras syndrome is characterised by a person believing their friend or relative had been replaced by an exact double.
      – Couvade syndrome is also known as ‘sympathetic pregnancy’. It affects fathers, particularly during the first and third trimesters of pregnancy, who suffer the somatic features of pregnancy.
      – Ekbom syndrome is also known as delusional parasitosis and is the belief that they are infected with parasites or have ‘bugs’ under their skin. This can vary from the classic psychosis symptoms in narcotic use where the user can ‘see’ bugs crawling under their skin or can be a patient who believes that they are infested with snakes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 67-year-old butcher presents with a six month history of a gradually increasing...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old butcher presents with a six month history of a gradually increasing burning sensation in his feet. Examination reveals normal cranial nerves and higher mental function. He has normal bulk, tone, power, light touch, pinprick sensation, co-ordination and reflexes in upper and lower limbs. These clinical findings are consistent with which of the following?

      Your Answer: Diabetic amyotrophy

      Correct Answer: Small fibre sensory neuropathy

      Explanation:

      The burning sensation described is typical of a neuropathy affecting the small unmyelinated and thinly myelinated nerve fibres. General neurological examination and reflexes are usually normal in this type of neuropathy unless there is coexisting large (myelinated) fibre involvement. Neuropathy affecting the large myelinated sensory fibres generally causes glove and stocking sensory loss and loss of reflexes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      74.1
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 32-year-old female who is 37 weeks pregnant presents with a swollen, painful...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old female who is 37 weeks pregnant presents with a swollen, painful right calf. A deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is confirmed on Doppler scan. What should be the preferred anticoagulant?

      Your Answer: Subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)

      Explanation:

      Subcutaneous (S/C) low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) is a preferred anticoagulant in pregnancy. Warfarin is contraindicated due to its teratogenic effects, especially in the first trimester and at term.

      Pregnancy is a hypercoagulable state with the majority of VTE incidents occurring in the last trimester.

      Hypercoagulability in pregnancy is caused by:
      1. Increase in factors VII, VIII, X, and fibrinogen
      2. Decrease in protein S
      3. Uterus pressing on IVC causing venous stasis in legs

      Management options include:
      1. S/C LMWH preferred to IV heparin (less bleeding and thrombocytopaenia)
      2. Warfarin contraindicated

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      35.3
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