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  • Question 1 - A 67-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and ischaemic...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and ischaemic heart disease is experiencing erectile dysfunction. The decision is made to try sildenafil therapy. Is there any existing medication that can be continued without requiring adjustments?

      Your Answer: Nateglinide

      Explanation:

      The BNF advises against using alpha-blockers within 4 hours of taking sildenafil.

      Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. They work by increasing cGMP, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which is taken about an hour before sexual activity. Other examples include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra), which have longer-lasting effects and can be taken regularly. However, these medications have contraindications, such as not being safe for patients taking nitrates or those with hypotension. They can also cause side effects such as visual disturbances, blue discolouration, and headaches. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking PDE5 inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 2 - A 67-year-old man who experiences Stokes-Adams attacks has received a pacemaker that is...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man who experiences Stokes-Adams attacks has received a pacemaker that is functioning properly. What guidance should he be provided regarding driving?

      Your Answer: Cannot drive for 1 week

      Explanation:

      If you have had a pacemaker inserted or the box has been changed, it is important to inform the DVLA. It is also necessary to refrain from driving for a minimum of one week.

      DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving

      The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, if the individual has Group 2 Entitlement, they will be disqualified from driving if their resting blood pressure consistently measures 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more.

      Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must wait four weeks before driving. If an individual experiences angina symptoms at rest or while driving, they must cease driving altogether. Pacemaker insertion requires a one-week break from driving, while implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation results in a six-month driving ban if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia. If implanted prophylactically, the individual must cease driving for one month, and Group 2 drivers are permanently barred from driving with an ICD.

      Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires a two-day break from driving, while an aortic aneurysm of 6 cm or more must be reported to the DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review, but an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Finally, individuals who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old man with a medical history of type II diabetes mellitus presents...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man with a medical history of type II diabetes mellitus presents with hypertension on home blood pressure recordings (155/105 mmHg). His medical records indicate a recent hospitalization for pyelonephritis where he was diagnosed with renal artery stenosis. What is the most suitable medication to initiate for his hypertension management?

      Your Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      In patients with renovascular disease, ACE inhibitors are contraindicated. Therefore, a calcium channel blocker like amlodipine would be the first-line treatment according to NICE guidelines. If hypertension persists despite CCB and thiazide-like diuretic treatment and serum potassium is over 4.5mmol/L, a cardioselective beta-blocker like carvedilol may be considered. If blood pressure is still not adequately controlled with a CCB, a thiazide-like diuretic such as indapamide would be the second-line treatment. Losartan, an angiotensin II receptor blocker, is also contraindicated in patients with renovascular disease for the same reason as ACE inhibitors.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.

      While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.

      Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.

      The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 4 - You assess a 52-year-old patient with hypertension who has been taking 2.5mg of...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 52-year-old patient with hypertension who has been taking 2.5mg of ramipril for a month. He reports experiencing a persistent tickly cough that is causing him to lose sleep at night. Despite this, his blood pressure is now under control.

      What recommendations would you provide to him?

      Your Answer: Stop the ramipril and prescribe 5mg amlodipine

      Correct Answer: Stop the ramipril and prescribe candesartan

      Explanation:

      When patients are unable to tolerate ACE inhibitors due to the common side effect of a dry, persistent cough, angiotensin-receptor blockers (ARBs) should be considered as an alternative. For individuals under the age of 55 who experience intolerance to ACE inhibitors, prescribing medications such as candesartan, an ARB, may be the next appropriate step.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 5 - A 55-year-old caucasian man presents to his GP with the results of 7...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old caucasian man presents to his GP with the results of 7 days of home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) he was advised to complete following a random clinic blood pressure of 144/92 mmHg. His HBPM is 138/88 mmHg. Baseline investigations show no evidence of end-organ damage. He is a current smoker. His QRISK3 score is calculated to be 11.2%. He has no known medication allergies. Lifestyle and smoking cessation advice is provided. What is the most appropriate treatment option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atorvastatin and ramipril

      Explanation:

      The current prescription of Atorvastatin alone is not sufficient for this patient. In addition to lipid-lowering therapy, he should also be offered an antihypertensive agent. However, it is important to note that due to his age and ethnicity, he should first be offered an ACE and/or angiotensin-II receptor antagonist. If he doesn’t have type 2 diabetes and is aged 55 years or over, or if he is of black African or African-Caribbean family origin and doesn’t have type 2 diabetes (of any age), calcium-channel blockers may be considered as the first-line antihypertensive agent. It is not appropriate to suggest that no treatment is required.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 6 - An 80-year-old gentleman attends surgery for review of his heart failure.

    He was recently...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old gentleman attends surgery for review of his heart failure.

      He was recently diagnosed when he was admitted to hospital with shortness of breath. Echocardiography has revealed impaired left ventricular function. He also has a past medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia.

      His current medications are: aspirin 75 mg daily, furosemide 40 mg daily, metformin 850 mg TDS, ramipril 10 mg daily, and simvastatin 40 mg daily.

      He tells you that the ramipril was initiated when the diagnosis of heart failure was made and has been titrated up to 10 mg daily over the recent weeks. His symptoms are currently stable.

      Clinical examination reveals no peripheral oedema, his chest sounds clear and clinically he is in sinus rhythm at 76 beats per minute. His BP is 126/80 mHg.

      Providing there are no contraindications, which of the following is the most appropriate treatment to add to his therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Treatment Recommendations for Heart Failure Patients

      Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors and beta blockers are recommended for patients with heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction, regardless of their NYHA functional class. The ACE inhibitors should be considered first, followed by beta blockers once the patient’s condition is stable, unless contraindicated. However, the updated NICE guidance suggests using clinical judgment to decide which drug to start first. Combination treatment with an ACE-inhibitor and beta blocker is the preferred first-line treatment for these patients. Beta blockers have been shown to improve survival in heart failure patients, and three drugs are licensed for this use in the UK. Patients who are newly diagnosed with impaired left ventricular systolic function and are already taking a beta blocker should be considered for a switch to one shown to be beneficial in heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 7 - An 80 year old male underwent an ECG due to palpitations and was...

    Incorrect

    • An 80 year old male underwent an ECG due to palpitations and was found to have AF with a heart rate of 76 bpm. Upon further evaluation, you determine that he has permanent AF and a history of hypertension. If there are no contraindications, what would be the most suitable initial step to take at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Direct oral anticoagulant

      Explanation:

      According to the patient’s CHADSVASC2 score, which is 4, they have a high risk of stroke due to factors such as congestive cardiac failure, hypertension, age over 75, and being female. As per NICE guidelines, all patients with a CHADSVASC score of 2 or more should be offered anticoagulation, while taking into account their bleeding risk using the ORBIT score. Direct oral anticoagulants are now preferred over warfarin as the first-line treatment. For men with a score of 1, anticoagulation should be considered. Beta-blockers or a rate-limiting calcium channel blocker should be offered first-line for rate control, while digoxin should only be used for sedentary patients.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.

      When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.

      For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 8 - Sophie is a 65-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 65-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation after experiencing some palpitations. She has no other medical history and only takes atorvastatin for high cholesterol. She has no symptoms currently and her observations are stable with a heart rate of 75 beats per minute. Her CHA2DS2-VASc score is 0.

      What would be the appropriate next step in managing Sophie's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange for an echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      When a patient with atrial fibrillation has a CHA2DS2-VASc score that suggests they do not need anticoagulation, it is recommended to perform a transthoracic echo to rule out valvular heart disease. The CHA2DS2-VASc score is used to assess the risk of stroke in AF patients, and anticoagulant treatment is generally indicated for those with a score of two or more. Rivaroxaban is an anticoagulant that can be used in AF, but it is not necessary in this scenario. Aspirin should not be used to prevent stroke in AF patients. If a patient requires rate control for fast AF, beta-blockers are the first line of treatment. Digoxin is only used for patients with a more sedentary lifestyle and doesn’t protect against stroke. It is important to perform a transthoracic echo in AF patients, especially if it may change their management or refine their risk of stroke and need for anticoagulation.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.

      When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.

      For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 9 - A 67-year-old lady with mitral valve disease and atrial fibrillation is on warfarin...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old lady with mitral valve disease and atrial fibrillation is on warfarin therapy. Recently, her INR levels have decreased, leading to an increase in the warfarin dosage. What new treatments could be responsible for this change?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: St John's wort

      Explanation:

      Drug Interactions with Warfarin

      Drugs that are metabolized in the liver can induce hepatic microsomal enzymes, which can affect the metabolism of other drugs. In the case of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication, certain drugs can either enhance or reduce its effectiveness.

      St. John’s wort is an enzyme inducer and can increase the metabolism of warfarin, making it less effective. On the other hand, allopurinol can interact with warfarin to enhance its anticoagulant effect. Similarly, amiodarone inhibits the metabolism of coumarins, which can lead to an enhanced anticoagulant effect.

      Clarithromycin, a drug that inhibits CYP3A isozyme, can enhance the anticoagulant effect of coumarins, including warfarin. This is because warfarin is metabolized by the same CYP3A isozyme as clarithromycin. Finally, sertraline may also interact with warfarin to enhance its anticoagulant effect.

      In summary, it is important to be aware of potential drug interactions when taking warfarin, as they can either enhance or reduce its effectiveness. Patients should always inform their healthcare provider of all medications they are taking to avoid any potential adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 10 - Which one of the following statements regarding B-type natriuretic peptide is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding B-type natriuretic peptide is incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The positive predictive value of BNP is greater than the negative predictive value

      Explanation:

      The negative predictive value of BNP for ventricular dysfunction is good, but its positive predictive value is poor.

      B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is a hormone that is primarily produced by the left ventricular myocardium in response to strain. Although heart failure is the most common cause of elevated BNP levels, any condition that causes left ventricular dysfunction, such as myocardial ischemia or valvular disease, may also raise levels. In patients with chronic kidney disease, reduced excretion may also lead to elevated BNP levels. Conversely, treatment with ACE inhibitors, angiotensin-2 receptor blockers, and diuretics can lower BNP levels.

      BNP has several effects, including vasodilation, diuresis, natriuresis, and suppression of both sympathetic tone and the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. Clinically, BNP is useful in diagnosing patients with acute dyspnea. A low concentration of BNP (<100 pg/mL) makes a diagnosis of heart failure unlikely, but elevated levels should prompt further investigation to confirm the diagnosis. Currently, NICE recommends BNP as a helpful test to rule out a diagnosis of heart failure. In patients with chronic heart failure, initial evidence suggests that BNP is an extremely useful marker of prognosis and can guide treatment. However, BNP is not currently recommended for population screening for cardiac dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 11 - A 62-year-old man has recently started taking a new medication for his hypertension....

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man has recently started taking a new medication for his hypertension. He has noticed swelling in his ankles and wonders if it could be a side effect of the medication. Which drug is most likely responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      Understanding Amlodipine: A Calcium-Channel Blocker and its Side-Effects

      Amlodipine is a medication that belongs to the class of calcium-channel blockers. It works by inhibiting the inward displacement of calcium ions through the slow channels of active cell membranes. The primary effect of amlodipine is to relax vascular smooth muscle and dilate peripheral and coronary arteries. However, this medication is also associated with some side-effects due to its vasodilatory properties.

      Common side-effects of amlodipine include flushing and headache, which usually subside after a few days. Another common side-effect is ankle swelling, which only partially responds to diuretics. In some cases, ankle swelling may be severe enough to warrant discontinuation of the drug. On the other hand, oedema is uncommon with losartan and not reported for any of the other options.

      If you experience oedema due to calcium-channel blockers, it is important to manage it properly. Please refer to the external links for more information on how to manage this side-effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 12 - A 60-year-old man presents with congestive heart failure.
    Which of the following drugs may...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents with congestive heart failure.
      Which of the following drugs may be effective in reducing mortality?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Enalapril

      Explanation:

      Pharmaceutical Treatments for Heart Failure: A Summary

      Heart failure is a serious condition that requires careful management. There are several pharmaceutical treatments available, each with its own benefits and limitations. Here is a summary of some of the most commonly used drugs:

      Enalapril: This drug blocks the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to improved cardiac output and reduced hospitalization rates.

      Digoxin: While this drug doesn’t improve mortality rates, it can be useful in managing symptoms.

      Amlodipine: This drug has not been shown to improve survival rates, but may be used in conjunction with other medications.

      Aspirin: This drug is only useful in cases of coronary occlusion or myocardial infarction.

      Furosemide: This drug can relieve congestive symptoms, but is not relevant for all heart failure patients.

      It is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for each individual case of heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 13 - A healthy 60-year-old male has a clinic blood pressure of 120/75 mmHg.

    When should...

    Incorrect

    • A healthy 60-year-old male has a clinic blood pressure of 120/75 mmHg.

      When should you offer him another blood pressure test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 6 months

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Hypertension Testing

      The NICE guidelines recommend testing normotensive individuals every five years, with more frequent testing for those with blood pressure approaching 140/90 mmHg. For this particular patient, five years is sufficient. It is important for general practitioners to have a thorough understanding of hypertension management, as it may be tested on in various areas of the MRCGP exam, including the AKT. This question specifically assesses knowledge of NICE guidance on hypertension (NG136).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 14 - A 35-year-old woman with familial hypercholesterolaemia presents for a check-up. She is considering...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with familial hypercholesterolaemia presents for a check-up. She is considering starting a family and seeks guidance on medication, as she is currently taking 80 mg of atorvastatin. What would be the most suitable recommendation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop atorvastatin before trying to conceive

      Explanation:

      To avoid the possibility of congenital defects, it is recommended that women discontinue the use of statins at least 3 months prior to conception.

      Familial Hypercholesterolaemia: Causes, Diagnosis, and Management

      Familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH) is a genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 500 people. It is an autosomal dominant disorder that results in high levels of LDL-cholesterol, which can lead to early cardiovascular disease if left untreated. FH is caused by mutations in the gene that encodes the LDL-receptor protein.

      To diagnose FH, NICE recommends suspecting it as a possible diagnosis in adults with a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and/or a personal or family history of premature coronary heart disease. For children of affected parents, testing should be arranged by age 10 if one parent is affected and by age 5 if both parents are affected.

      The Simon Broome criteria are used for clinical diagnosis, which includes a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and LDL-C greater than 4.9 mmol/l in adults or a total cholesterol level greater than 6.7 mmol/l and LDL-C greater than 4.0 mmol/l in children. Definite FH is diagnosed if there is tendon xanthoma in patients or first or second-degree relatives or DNA-based evidence of FH. Possible FH is diagnosed if there is a family history of myocardial infarction below age 50 years in second-degree relatives, below age 60 in first-degree relatives, or a family history of raised cholesterol levels.

      Management of FH involves referral to a specialist lipid clinic and the use of high-dose statins as first-line treatment. CVD risk estimation using standard tables is not appropriate in FH as they do not accurately reflect the risk of CVD. First-degree relatives have a 50% chance of having the disorder and should be offered screening, including children who should be screened by the age of 10 years if there is one affected parent. Statins should be discontinued in women 3 months before conception due to the risk of congenital defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 15 - A 40-year-old man has a mid-diastolic murmur best heard at the apex. There...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man has a mid-diastolic murmur best heard at the apex. There is no previous history of any abnormal cardiac findings.
      Select from the list the single most likely explanation of this murmur.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Physiological

      Explanation:

      Systolic Murmurs in Pregnancy: Causes and Characteristics

      During pregnancy, the increased blood volume and flow through the heart can result in the appearance of innocent murmurs. In fact, a study found that 93.2% of healthy pregnant women had a systolic murmur at some point during pregnancy. These murmurs are typically systolic, may have a diastolic component, and can occur at any stage of pregnancy. They are often located at the second left intercostal space or along the left sternal border, but can radiate widely. If there is any doubt, referral for cardiological assessment is recommended.

      Aortic stenosis produces a specific type of systolic murmur that begins shortly after the first heart sound and ends just before the second heart sound. It is best heard in the second right intercostal space. Mitral murmurs, on the other hand, are best heard at the apex and can radiate to the axilla. Mitral incompetence produces a pansystolic murmur of even intensity throughout systole, while mitral valve prolapse produces a mid-systolic click. A ventricular septal defect produces a harsh systolic murmur that is best heard along the left sternal edge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 16 - An 80-year-old man with a history of hypertension and ischaemic heart disease comes...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man with a history of hypertension and ischaemic heart disease comes for a check-up. He had a heart attack two decades ago but has been stable since then. His current medications include bisoprolol, ramipril, atorvastatin, and clopidogrel. He has been experiencing dizziness lately, and an ECG reveals that he has atrial fibrillation. What is the appropriate antithrombotic medication for him now?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Switch to an oral anticoagulant

      Explanation:

      Patients who have AF and stable CVD are typically prescribed anticoagulants while antiplatelets are discontinued. This is because such patients are at risk of stroke, as indicated by their CHADS-VASC score, which takes into account factors such as age, hypertension, and cardiovascular disease. Therefore, the patient in question needs to be treated accordingly. In this case, the patient should discontinue their antiplatelet medication and switch to oral anticoagulant monotherapy.

      Managing Combination Antiplatelet and Anticoagulant Therapy

      With the rise of comorbidity, it is becoming more common for patients to require both antiplatelet and anticoagulant therapy. However, this combination increases the risk of bleeding and may not be necessary in all cases. While there are no guidelines to cover every scenario, a recent review in the BMJ offers expert opinion on how to manage this situation.

      For patients with stable cardiovascular disease who require an anticoagulant, it is recommended that they also receive an antiplatelet. However, if the patient has an indication for anticoagulant therapy, such as atrial fibrillation, it is best to prescribe anticoagulant monotherapy without the addition of antiplatelets.

      In patients who have experienced an acute coronary syndrome or undergone percutaneous coronary intervention, there is a stronger indication for antiplatelet therapy. Typically, patients are given triple therapy (two antiplatelets and one anticoagulant) for four weeks to six months after the event, followed by dual therapy (one antiplatelet and one anticoagulant) for the remaining 12 months. However, the stroke risk in atrial fibrillation varies according to risk factors, so there may be variation in treatment from patient to patient.

      If a patient on antiplatelets develops venous thromboembolism (VTE), they will likely be prescribed anticoagulants for three to six months. An ORBIT score should be calculated to determine the risk of bleeding. Patients with a low risk of bleeding may continue taking antiplatelets, while those with an intermediate or high risk of bleeding should consider stopping them.

      Overall, managing combination antiplatelet and anticoagulant therapy requires careful consideration of the patient’s individual circumstances and risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 17 - A 65-year-old man presents with symptoms of intermittent claudication and is referred to...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with symptoms of intermittent claudication and is referred to the local vascular unit. Peripheral arterial disease is diagnosed and his blood pressure is measured at 130/80 mmHg with a fasting cholesterol level of 3.9 mmol/l. According to the latest NICE guidelines, what medication should be prescribed for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clopidogrel + statin

      Explanation:

      Managing Peripheral Arterial Disease

      Peripheral arterial disease (PAD) is closely associated with smoking, and patients who still smoke should be provided with assistance to quit. Comorbidities such as hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and obesity should also be treated. All patients with established cardiovascular disease, including PAD, should be taking a statin, with atorvastatin 80 mg currently recommended. In 2010, NICE recommended clopidogrel as the first-line treatment for PAD patients over aspirin.

      Exercise training has been shown to have significant benefits, and NICE recommends a supervised exercise program for all PAD patients before other interventions. Severe PAD or critical limb ischaemia may be treated with endovascular or surgical revascularization, with endovascular techniques typically used for short segment stenosis, aortic iliac disease, and high-risk patients. Surgical techniques are typically used for long segment lesions, multifocal lesions, lesions of the common femoral artery, and purely infrapopliteal disease. Amputation should be reserved for patients with critical limb ischaemia who are not suitable for other interventions such as angioplasty or bypass surgery.

      Drugs licensed for use in PAD include naftidrofuryl oxalate, a vasodilator sometimes used for patients with a poor quality of life, and cilostazol, a phosphodiesterase III inhibitor with both antiplatelet and vasodilator effects, which is not recommended by NICE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 18 - A 60-year-old man meets the criteria for initiating statin therapy for CVD prevention....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man meets the criteria for initiating statin therapy for CVD prevention. He reports a history of persistent unexplained generalised muscle pains and so a creatine kinase (CK) level is checked on a blood test prior to starting treatment.

      The CK result comes back and it is four times the upper limit of normal.

      What is the most appropriate management approach in this instance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Statin therapy should not be started and a fibrate should be prescribed instead

      Explanation:

      Statin Therapy and Creatine Kinase Levels

      Prior to offering a statin, it is recommended to check creatine kinase (CK) levels in individuals with persistent generalised unexplained muscle pain, according to NICE guidelines. If CK levels are more than 5 times the upper limit of normal, statin therapy should not be started. The CK level should be rechecked after 7 days, and if it remains elevated to more than 5 times the upper limit of normal, a statin should not be initiated. However, if CK levels are elevated but less than 5 times the upper limit of normal, statin treatment can be initiated, but a lower dose is recommended. It is important to monitor CK levels in patients receiving statin therapy to ensure that muscle damage is not occurring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 19 - An 18-year-old patient visits his General Practitioner with worries about the appearance of...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old patient visits his General Practitioner with worries about the appearance of his chest wall. He is generally healthy but mentions that his father passed away 10 years ago due to heart problems. Upon examination, he is 195 cm tall (>99th centile) and slender, with pectus excavatum and arachnodactyly. The doctor suspects that he may have Marfan syndrome. What is the most prevalent cardiovascular abnormality observed in adults with Marfan syndrome? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic root dilatation

      Explanation:

      Cardiac Abnormalities in Marfan Syndrome

      Marfan syndrome is an inherited connective tissue disorder that affects various systems in the body. The most common cardiac complication is aortic root dilatation, which occurs in 70% of patients. Mitral valve prolapse is the second most common abnormality, affecting around 60% of patients. Beta-blockers can help reduce the rate of aortic dilatation and the risk of rupture. Aortic dissection, although not the most common abnormality, is a major diagnostic criterion of Marfan syndrome and can result from weakening of the aortic media due to root dilatation. Aortic regurgitation is less common than mitral regurgitation but can occur due to progressive aortic root dilatation and connective tissue abnormalities. Mitral annular calcification is more frequent in Marfan syndrome than in the general population but is not included in the diagnostic criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 20 - A 27-year-old professional footballer collapses while playing football.

    He is rushed to the Emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old professional footballer collapses while playing football.

      He is rushed to the Emergency department, and is found to be in ventricular tachycardia. He is defibrillated successfully and his 12 lead ECG following resuscitation demonstrates left ventricular hypertrophy. Ventricular tachycardia recurs and despite prolonged resuscitation he dies.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy and its ECG Findings

      The sudden onset of arrhythmia in a young and previously healthy individual is often indicative of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM). It is important to screen relatives for this condition. The majority of patients with HCM have an abnormal resting ECG, which may show nonspecific changes such as left ventricular hypertrophy, ST changes, and T-wave inversion. Other possible ECG findings include right or left axis deviation, conduction abnormalities, sinus bradycardia with ectopic atrial rhythm, and atrial enlargement.

      Ambulatory ECG monitoring can reveal atrial and ventricular ectopics, sinus pauses, intermittent or variable atrioventricular block, and non-sustained arrhythmias. However, the ECG findings do not necessarily correlate with prognosis. Arrhythmias associated with HCM can include premature ventricular complexes, non-sustained ventricular tachycardia, and supraventricular tachyarrhythmias. Atrial fibrillation is also a common complication, occurring in approximately 20% of cases and increasing the risk of fatal cardiac failure.

      It is important to note that there is no history to suggest drug abuse, and aortic stenosis is rare in the absence of congenital or rheumatic heart disease. A myocardial infarction or massive pulmonary embolism would have distinct ECG changes that are not typically seen in HCM.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 21 - A 55-year-old carpenter comes to see you in surgery following an MI three...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old carpenter comes to see you in surgery following an MI three months previously.

      He has made a full recovery but wants to ask about his diet.

      Which one of the following foods should he avoid?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pork

      Explanation:

      Tips for a Heart-Healthy Diet after a Heart Attack

      Following a heart attack, it is important to adopt a healthier overall diet to reduce the risk of future heart problems. Unhealthy diets have been attributed to up to 30% of all deaths from coronary heart disease (CHD). While reducing fat intake is important, exercise also plays a crucial role in maintaining heart health.

      Including canned and frozen fruits and vegetables in your diet is just as beneficial as fresh produce. A Mediterranean diet, which includes many protective elements for CHD, is recommended. Replacing butter with olive oil and mono-unsaturated margarine, such as those made from rape-seed or olive oil, is a healthier option. Organic butter is not any better for heart health than non-organic butter.

      To reduce cholesterol intake, it is recommended to eat less red meat and replace it with poultry. Margarine containing sitostanol ester may also help reduce cholesterol intake. Adding plant sterol to margarine has been shown to reduce serum low-density lipoprotein cholesterol. Eating more fish, including oily fish, at least once a week is also recommended.

      Switching to whole-grain bread instead of white bread and eating more root vegetables and green vegetables is also beneficial. Lastly, it is important to eat fruit every day. By following these tips, you can maintain a heart-healthy diet and reduce the risk of future heart problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 22 - A 45-year-old man presents for a follow-up of his hypertension. He is of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents for a follow-up of his hypertension. He is of Caucasian descent. He was diagnosed with essential hypertension six months ago and was prescribed ramipril, which has been increased to 10 mg daily. He also has a medical history of hypercholesterolemia and gout, and he takes atorvastatin 20 mg once nightly.

      He provides a set of home blood pressure readings with an average of 140/95 mmHg.

      What is the best course of action for managing his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add amlodipine

      Explanation:

      For a patient with poorly controlled hypertension who is already taking an ACE inhibitor, the recommended medication to add would be either a calcium channel blocker or a thiazide-like diuretic. In this case, since the patient has a history of gout, a calcium channel blocker like amlodipine would be the most appropriate choice. Losartan, an A2RB drug, should not be used in combination with ACE inhibitors. The maximum daily dose of ramipril is 10 mg. The target home readings for this patient would be less than 135/85 mmHg.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 23 - A 63-year-old Caucasian man with a history of hypertension and gout presented to...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old Caucasian man with a history of hypertension and gout presented to the clinic seeking advice on controlling his blood pressure. He has been experiencing high blood pressure readings at home for the past week, with an average reading of 150/95 mmHg. He is currently asymptomatic and denies any chest discomfort. He is a non-smoker and non-drinker. His current medications include amlodipine and allopurinol, which he has been tolerating well. He has no known drug allergies. His recent blood test results are as follows:

      - Sodium (Na+): 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - Potassium (K+): 4.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Bicarbonate: 28 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      - Urea: 6.7 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine: 110 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing his hypertension?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add an angiotensin receptor blocker

      Explanation:

      To improve poorly controlled hypertension in a patient already taking a calcium channel blocker, NICE recommends adding an angiotensin receptor blocker, an ACE inhibitor, or a thiazide-like diuretic as step 2 management. In this case, the correct answer is to add an angiotensin receptor blocker, as the patient’s home blood pressure readings have remained uncontrolled despite maximum dose of amlodipine. Increasing amlodipine to 20 mg once a day is not recommended, and thiazide-like diuretic should be used with caution due to the patient’s history of gout. Aldosterone antagonist and alpha-blocker are not appropriate at this stage of hypertensive management.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 24 - A 54-year-old man has come in for his annual health check-up. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man has come in for his annual health check-up. He has a history of hypertension and is currently taking ramipril 10 mg once daily, felodipine 10 mg once daily, and bendroflumethiazide 2.5mg once daily. His blood pressure readings today are consistently high. Additionally, blood tests have been taken as part of the check-up. Based on this information, what would be the most suitable medication to initiate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      To manage poorly controlled hypertension in a patient who is already taking an ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker, and a standard-dose thiazide diuretic with a potassium level of >4.5mmol/l, the appropriate medication to add would be an alpha- or beta-blocker. Bisoprolol is the correct choice in this scenario. Furosemide is not indicated for hypertension alone, and indapamide is contraindicated as the patient is already taking a thiazide-like diuretic. While an ARB like losartan could replace an ACE inhibitor, it should not be used in combination with one. Spironolactone is not the appropriate choice as the patient’s potassium level is already elevated.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 25 - A 58-year-old man has persistent atrial fibrillation.
    Which of the following is the single...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man has persistent atrial fibrillation.
      Which of the following is the single risk factor that places him most at risk of stroke?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Previous transient ischaemic attack

      Explanation:

      Understanding CHA2DS2-VASc Scoring for Stroke Risk in Atrial Fibrillation Patients

      The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is a useful tool for predicting the risk of stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation. A score of 0 indicates a low risk, while a score of 1 suggests a moderate risk, and a score of 2 or higher indicates a high risk. One of the risk factors that carries a score of 2 is a previous transient ischaemic attack, while age 75 years or older is another. Other risk factors, such as age 65-74 and female sex at any age, carry a score of 1 each. If a patient has no risk factors, their score would be zero, and not anticoagulating them would be an option. However, it is important to consider bleeding risk, calculated using the ORBIT criteria, before starting anticoagulation in all cases.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 26 - A 25-year-old woman presents with recurrent syncope following aerobics classes. On examination, a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents with recurrent syncope following aerobics classes. On examination, a systolic murmur is heard that worsens with the Valsalva manoeuvre and improves on squatting. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HCM) is a condition where the left ventricle of the heart becomes enlarged, often affecting the interventricular septum and causing a blockage in the left ventricular outflow tract. Patients with HCM typically experience shortness of breath, but may also have angina or fainting spells. Physical examination may reveal a prominent presystolic S4 gallop, a harsh systolic ejection murmur, and a left ventricular apical impulse. The Valsalva manoeuvre and standing up from a squatting position can increase the intensity of the murmur. An echocardiogram is the preferred diagnostic test for HCM. Syncope occurs in 15-25% of HCM patients, and recurrent syncope in young patients may indicate an increased risk of sudden death. Aortic stenosis, on the other hand, typically affects older patients and causes exertional syncope. The ejection systolic murmur associated with aortic stenosis is loudest at the upper right sternal border and radiates to the carotids. It increases with squatting and decreases with standing and isometric muscular contraction. Atrial fibrillation can also cause syncope, but if it is associated with HCM, the underlying cause is still HCM. Vasovagal syncope is usually triggered by prolonged standing or exposure to hot, crowded environments. The term syncope excludes other conditions that cause altered consciousness, such as seizures or shock.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 27 - A 72-year-old woman with a history of ischaemic heart disease visits her General...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman with a history of ischaemic heart disease visits her General Practitioner, reporting light-headedness and difficulty breathing. The doctor observes a slow heart rate and orders an electrocardiogram (ECG) to investigate further. The ECG reveals no correlation between P waves and the QRS complex, with QRS complexes appearing at a rate of 40 bpm.
      What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Complete heart block

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Heart Blocks: A Comparison

      Heart block is a condition where the electrical signals that control the heartbeat are disrupted, leading to an abnormal heart rhythm. There are different types of heart blocks, each with its own characteristic features. Here is a comparison of four types of heart blocks:

      Complete Heart Block:
      In this type of heart block, there is a complete absence of atrioventricular conduction, resulting in no supraventricular impulses being conducted to the ventricles. The perfusing rhythm is maintained by a junctional or ventricular escape rhythm. On the ECG, this appears as a rhythm with regular P waves that are completely unconnected to the rhythm of the QRS complexes. The rate of the QRS complex may be < 45 bpm, and the patient may be overtly symptomatic or haemodynamically unstable. Second-Degree Mobitz Type II Block:
      In this type of heart block, there are intermittent non-conducted P waves without progressive prolongation of the PR interval. A significant proportion of atrial activations will still lead to ventricular activation.

      Atrial Fibrillation:
      In this type of heart block, the ECG will show the absence of P waves and irregularly irregular QRS complexes. The heart rate will usually be normal or high, rather than low, as seen on this ECG.

      First-Degree Heart Block:
      In this type of heart block, the PR interval is prolonged at > 0.2 seconds. However, each atrial activation will still lead to a ventricular activation, with a 1:1 correspondence. On this ECG, there is no correspondence between the P waves and the QRS complex.

      Second-Degree Mobitz Type I Block:
      In this type of heart block, the ECG shows progressive prolongation of the PR interval, culminating in a non-conducted P wave. However, the majority of atrial activations will still lead to ventricular activation.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 28 - A 29-year-old woman has been diagnosed with familial hypercholesterolaemia due to being heterozygous...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman has been diagnosed with familial hypercholesterolaemia due to being heterozygous for the condition. During the consultation, you suggest screening her family members. She mentions that her father has normal cholesterol levels. What is the likelihood that her brother will also be impacted?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Familial Hypercholesterolaemia: Causes, Diagnosis, and Management

      Familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH) is a genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 500 people. It is an autosomal dominant disorder that results in high levels of LDL-cholesterol, which can lead to early cardiovascular disease if left untreated. FH is caused by mutations in the gene that encodes the LDL-receptor protein.

      To diagnose FH, NICE recommends suspecting it as a possible diagnosis in adults with a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and/or a personal or family history of premature coronary heart disease. For children of affected parents, testing should be arranged by age 10 if one parent is affected and by age 5 if both parents are affected.

      The Simon Broome criteria are used for clinical diagnosis, which includes a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and LDL-C greater than 4.9 mmol/l in adults or a total cholesterol level greater than 6.7 mmol/l and LDL-C greater than 4.0 mmol/l in children. Definite FH is diagnosed if there is tendon xanthoma in patients or first or second-degree relatives or DNA-based evidence of FH. Possible FH is diagnosed if there is a family history of myocardial infarction below age 50 years in second-degree relatives, below age 60 in first-degree relatives, or a family history of raised cholesterol levels.

      Management of FH involves referral to a specialist lipid clinic and the use of high-dose statins as first-line treatment. CVD risk estimation using standard tables is not appropriate in FH as they do not accurately reflect the risk of CVD. First-degree relatives have a 50% chance of having the disorder and should be offered screening, including children who should be screened by the age of 10 years if there is one affected parent. Statins should be discontinued in women 3 months before conception due to the risk of congenital defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 29 - A previously healthy 70-year-old woman attends with her daughter, who noted that her...

    Incorrect

    • A previously healthy 70-year-old woman attends with her daughter, who noted that her mother has had a poor appetite, lost at least 4.5 kg and has lacked energy three months. The patient has not had cough or fever, but she tires easily.

      On examination she is rather subdued, is apyrexial and has a pulse of 100 per minute irregular and blood pressure is 156/88 mmHg. Examination of the fundi reveals grade II hypertensive changes. Her JVP is elevated by 8 cm but the neck is otherwise normal.

      Examination of the heart and lungs reveals crackles at both lung bases. The abdomen is normal. She has generalised weakness that is most marked in the hip flexors but otherwise neurologic examination is normal.

      Investigations reveal:
      Haemoglobin 110 g/L (115-165)
      White cell count 7.3 ×109/L (4-11)
      Urea 8.8 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)

      Which of the following would be most useful in establishing the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum thyroid-stimulating hormone

      Explanation:

      Thyrotoxicosis as a Cause of Heart Failure

      This patient presents with symptoms of heart failure, including fast atrial fibrillation, weight loss, and proximal myopathy. Although hyperthyroidism is typically associated with an increased appetite, apathy and loss of appetite can occur, especially in older patients. The presence of these symptoms suggests thyrotoxicosis, which would be confirmed by a suppressed thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level.

      The absence of a thyroid goitre doesn’t rule out Graves’ disease or a toxic nodule as the underlying cause. Echocardiography can confirm the diagnosis of heart failure but cannot determine the underlying cause. Therefore, it is important to consider thyrotoxicosis as a potential cause of heart failure in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 30 - You are evaluating a 72-year-old woman with hypertension, type 2 diabetes and osteoarthritis....

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 72-year-old woman with hypertension, type 2 diabetes and osteoarthritis. She is currently taking 10 mg of ramipril once a day, 10 mg of amlodipine once a day, indapamide 2.5 mg once a day, 500mg of Metformin twice a day, co-codamol PRN and atorvastatin 20 mg at night.

      During her visit to the clinic, her blood pressure (BP) is consistently elevated and today it is 160/98 mmHg. As per the NICE guidelines, you want to initiate another medication to help lower her BP. Her K+ level is 4.2 mmol/l.

      What would be the most suitable additional medication to prescribe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      The patient is suffering from poorly controlled hypertension despite being on three medications, including an ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker, and a thiazide diuretic. If the patient’s potassium levels are below 4.5mmol/l, the next step would be to add spironolactone to their treatment plan. However, if their potassium levels are above 4.5mmol/l, a higher dose of thiazide-like diuretic treatment should be considered. It is important to note that bendroflumethiazide is not suitable in this case as the patient is already taking indapamide, and chlortalidone is also a thiazide-like diuretic and should not be added. Additionally, candesartan, an angiotensin receptor blocker, should not be used in combination with an ACE inhibitor.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 31 - A 55-year-old man is concerned about experiencing palpitations. He reports that they occur...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is concerned about experiencing palpitations. He reports that they occur twice a day and are fast and irregular, with a possible association with alcohol consumption. He denies any chest pain or fainting episodes. On examination, his cardiovascular symptoms are normal, with a pulse of 72/min and a blood pressure of 116/78 mmHg. Blood tests and a 12-lead ECG are unremarkable. What would be the most suitable course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange a Holter monitor

      Explanation:

      If a patient experiences palpitations, the first step in investigating the issue should be to conduct a Holter monitor test after conducting initial blood tests and an ECG. Palpitations are often indicative of an arrhythmia, such as atrial fibrillation, and it is important to conduct further investigations to rule out this possibility.

      Holter monitoring is the recommended first-line investigation to capture any episodes of arrhythmia. Since the patient experiences these episodes daily, a 24-hour monitoring period is appropriate. However, a troponin test is not necessary as there is no chest pain, and an echocardiogram is not warranted as there are no indications of heart failure.

      If the Holter monitoring results are normal and the patient continues to experience symptoms, an external loop recorder may be considered.

      Investigating Palpitations: Identifying Possible Causes and Capturing Episodic Arrhythmias

      Palpitations are a common symptom that can be caused by various factors such as arrhythmias, stress, and increased awareness of normal heartbeats. To investigate the underlying cause of palpitations, first-line investigations include a 12-lead ECG, thyroid function tests, urea and electrolytes, and a full blood count. However, these investigations may not capture episodic arrhythmias, which are often missed during a short ECG recording.

      To capture episodic arrhythmias, the most common investigation is Holter monitoring. This portable battery-operated device continuously records ECG from 2-3 leads for 24 hours or longer if symptoms are less than daily. Patients are asked to keep a diary to record any symptomatic palpitations, which can later be compared to the rhythm strip at the time of the symptoms. At the end of the monitoring, a report is generated summarizing heart rate, arrhythmias, and changes in ECG waveform.

      If no abnormality is found on the Holter monitor and symptoms persist, other options include an external loop recorder or an implantable loop recorder. These investigations can help identify the underlying cause of palpitations and guide appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 32 - You assess a 62-year-old man who has been discharged after experiencing a ST-elevation...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 62-year-old man who has been discharged after experiencing a ST-elevation myocardial infarction (MI) and receiving percutaneous coronary intervention. What is the appropriate timeframe for him to resume sexual activity after his MI?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      After a heart attack, it is safe to resume sexual activity after a period of 4 weeks.

      Myocardial infarction (MI) is a serious condition that requires proper management to prevent further complications. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the secondary prevention of MI. Patients who have had an MI should be offered dual antiplatelet therapy, ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, and statins. Lifestyle changes such as following a Mediterranean-style diet and engaging in regular exercise are also recommended. Sexual activity may resume after four weeks, and PDE5 inhibitors may be used after six months, but caution should be exercised in patients taking nitrates or nicorandil.

      Dual antiplatelet therapy is now the standard treatment for most patients who have had an acute coronary syndrome. Ticagrelor and prasugrel are now more commonly used as ADP-receptor inhibitors. The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend adding ticagrelor to aspirin for medically managed patients and prasugrel or ticagrelor for those who have undergone percutaneous coronary intervention. The second antiplatelet should be stopped after 12 months, but this may be adjusted for patients at high risk of bleeding or further ischaemic events.

      For patients who have had an acute MI and have symptoms and/or signs of heart failure and left ventricular systolic dysfunction, treatment with an aldosterone antagonist such as eplerenone should be initiated within 3-14 days of the MI, preferably after ACE inhibitor therapy. Proper management and adherence to these guidelines can significantly reduce the risk of further complications and improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 33 - A 72-year-old man who rarely visits the clinic is brought in by his...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man who rarely visits the clinic is brought in by his daughter with complaints of orthopnoea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea and swollen ankles that have been present for a few weeks. On examination, he has bilateral basal crepitations and a resting heart rate of 110 beats per minute. An ECG shows sinus rhythm and an echocardiogram reveals a reduced ejection fraction. He responds well to treatment with optimal doses of an ACE inhibitor and furosemide. What is the most accurate statement regarding his future management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He should be started on a ß-blocker

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Chronic Heart Failure

      Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve patient outcomes. One of the recommended treatment options is the prescription of a cardioselective β-blocker such as carvedilol. However, it should not be taken at the same time as an ACE inhibitor. While diuretics can help control oedema, the mainstay of treatment for chronic heart failure is ACE inhibitors and β-blockade. Although digoxin and spironolactone may have a place in treatment, they are not first or second line options. For severe cases of heart failure, biventricular pacing with an implantable defibrillator can be useful. Overall, a combination of these treatment options can help manage chronic heart failure and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 34 - A 72-year-old woman who is increasingly short of breath on exertion is found...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman who is increasingly short of breath on exertion is found to have a 4/6 systolic murmur heard best on her right sternal edge.
      What is the single most appropriate investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Aortic Stenosis

      Aortic stenosis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. One of the most important diagnostic tests for aortic stenosis is an echocardiogram, which can provide valuable information about the extent of the stenosis and whether surgery is necessary. In addition, an angiogram may be performed to assess the presence of ischaemic heart disease, which often occurs alongside aortic stenosis.

      Other diagnostic tests that may be used to evaluate aortic stenosis include a chest X-ray, which can reveal cardiac enlargement or calcification of the aortic ring, and an electrocardiogram, which may show evidence of left ventricular hypertrophy. Exercise testing is not recommended for symptomatic patients, but may be useful for unmasking symptoms in physically active patients or for risk stratification in asymptomatic patients with severe disease.

      While lung function testing is not typically part of the routine workup for aortic stenosis, it is important for patients to be aware of the risks associated with rigorous exercise, as sudden death can occur in those with severe disease. Overall, a comprehensive diagnostic approach is essential for accurately assessing the extent of aortic stenosis and determining the most appropriate course of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 35 - A 70-year-old man comes in for his annual heart failure check-up. He reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man comes in for his annual heart failure check-up. He reports feeling physically well and is able to perform all his daily activities without any chest symptoms.

      All his vital signs are within normal limits, with a heart rate of 76 beats per minute and blood pressure of 135/80 mmHg. His weight has remained stable since his last visit.

      During the examination, his pulse is regular, and his heart sounds are normal. There is no raised JVP, and his chest is clear. There is minimal pitting edema around both ankles.

      Reviewing his heart failure medications, he is currently taking:

      - Ramipril 10 mg once daily
      - Bisoprolol 10 mg once daily
      - Furosemide 40 mg once a day

      Assuming there are no contraindications and with the patient's consent, what would be the most appropriate next step to take during his review?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ensure patient is listed for annual influenza vaccination

      Explanation:

      As part of the comprehensive lifestyle approach to managing heart failure, it is recommended to offer an annual influenza vaccine. While pneumococcal vaccination should also be provided to patients with heart failure, it doesn’t need to be administered every year. The patient in question is already taking the maximum doses of ramipril and bisoprolol approved for heart failure treatment, and their blood pressure is well-managed with their current medications. Currently, there are no indications that increasing the dose of furosemide would benefit the patient’s heart failure management, and it may even cause harm such as electrolyte imbalances.

      Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 36 - A 78-year-old man comes to you to discuss blood pressure management.

    He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man comes to you to discuss blood pressure management.

      He has been seen by the nurse three times in the past six months, and each time his BP has been above 160/95 mmHg. He has no significant medical history except for a hernia repair eight years ago. He complains of mild dyspnea on exertion and mild ankle swelling at the end of the day.

      During today's examination, his BP is 155/92 mmHg, his pulse is 70 and regular, and his BMI is 27 kg/m2.

      Investigations reveal:
      - Hb 123 g/L (135 - 180)
      - WCC 5.1 ×109/L (4 - 10)
      - PLT 190 ×109/L (150 - 400)
      - Na 141 mmol/L (134 - 143)
      - K 4.5 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Cr 145 µmol/L (60 - 120)

      What is the best course of action for managing this man's blood pressure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: If BP target is not reached on two or more agents than addition of more drugs is of no value

      Explanation:

      Treating Hypertension in Elderly Patients

      Patients of all ages should be treated to target when it comes to hypertension. The NICE guidelines on Hypertension (NG136) recommend a clinic blood pressure (BP) of less than 150/90 mmHg for patients over the age of 80. For patients over 55, calcium channel antagonists are the most appropriate first-line therapies, unless there is evidence of oedema, heart failure, or the patient is at risk of heart failure. In such cases, a thiazide-like diuretic such as chlorthalidone or indapamide should be used instead of conventional thiazides like bendroflumethiazide and hydrochlorothiazide. If a CCB is not tolerated, a thiazide-like diuretic should be offered to treat hypertension. Indapamide is a thiazide-like diuretic that is associated with less hyponatraemia compared to bendroflumethiazide, making it an appropriate choice for first-line therapy in elderly patients. Even if the target BP is not reached on two or more agents, it is important to continue therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 37 - A 48-year-old male attends a well man clinic.

    On review of his history he...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old male attends a well man clinic.

      On review of his history he has a strong family history of ischaemic heart disease and is a smoker of 10 cigarettes per day and drinks approximately 20 units of alcohol per week.

      On examination, he is obese with a BMI of 32 kg/m2 and has a blood pressure of 152/88 mmHg.

      His investigations reveal that he has a fasting plasma glucose of 10.5 mmol/L (3.0-6.0), HbA1c of 62 mmol/mol (20-46) and his cholesterol concentration is 5.5 mmol/L (<5.2).

      Which of the following would be expected to be most effective in reducing his cardiovascular (CV) risk?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Weight loss with Xenical

      Explanation:

      Managing Hypertension and Diabetes for Cardiovascular Risk Reduction

      This patient is diagnosed with hypertension and diabetes, as indicated by the elevated fasting plasma glucose. While metformin, ramipril, and statins have been shown to reduce cardiovascular (CV) risk in obese diabetics and hypertensive diabetics, respectively, none of these interventions are as effective as smoking cessation in reducing CV risk. The Nurses’ Health Study provides the best evidence for the risk reduction in past and current smokers among women. However, there is less definitive evidence for men. Despite this, it is unlikely that many practitioners would consider the other interventions to be of relatively more benefit than smoking cessation. There is currently no evidence that weight loss alone reduces CV mortality, possibly due to the lack of studies conducted on this topic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 38 - A 65-year-old woman has suffered three episodes of transient right monocular blindness.

    Her rate...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman has suffered three episodes of transient right monocular blindness.

      Her rate is 88 beats per minute (regular) and she is in sinus rhythm.

      Which is the single most appropriate investigation that would diagnose the condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CT scan

      Explanation:

      Carotid Duplex Ultrasonography for Atherosclerotic Stenosis

      Whilst carotid duplex ultrasonography may not be arranged directly from primary care, it is important for healthcare professionals to have an understanding of investigations that may be arranged by secondary care and to be able to discuss this in more general terms with their patients, including indications. This is particularly relevant for patients who have experienced amaurosis fugax caused by internal carotid artery atherosclerotic stenosis, which may also present with temporary paresis, aphasia, or sensory deficits. Fundoscopic examination may reveal bright yellow cholesterol emboli in patients with retinal involvement. The investigation to identify the significant stenosis or occlusive lesion usually greater than 70% is carotid duplex ultrasonography.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 39 - What factors in a patient's medical record could potentially elevate natriuretic peptide levels...

    Incorrect

    • What factors in a patient's medical record could potentially elevate natriuretic peptide levels (such as NT-proBNP) that are utilized to evaluate possible heart failure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

      Explanation:

      Natriuretic Peptide Levels in Heart Failure Assessment

      Natriuretic peptide levels, specifically NT-ProBNP levels, are utilized in the evaluation of heart failure to determine the likelihood of diagnosis and the urgency of any necessary referral. These levels can be influenced by various factors.

      Factors that can decrease natriuretic peptide levels include a body mass index over 35 kg/m2, diuretics, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin receptor blockers, beta blockers, and aldosterone antagonists. On the other hand, factors that can increase natriuretic peptide levels include age over 70, left ventricular hypertrophy, myocardial ischaemia, tachycardia, right ventricular overload, hypoxia, pulmonary hypertension, pulmonary embolism, chronic kidney disease with an eGFR less than 60 mL/min/1.73m2, sepsis, COPD, diabetes mellitus, and liver cirrhosis.

      It is important to consider these factors when interpreting natriuretic peptide levels in the assessment of heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 40 - A 65-year-old Indian man with recently diagnosed atrial fibrillation is started on warfarin....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old Indian man with recently diagnosed atrial fibrillation is started on warfarin. He visits the GP clinic after 5 days with unexplained bruising. His INR is measured and found to be 4.5. He has a medical history of epilepsy, depression, substance abuse, and homelessness. Which medication is the most probable cause of his bruising from the following options?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      Sodium valproate is known to inhibit enzymes, which can lead to an increase in warfarin levels if taken together. The patient’s medical history could include any of the listed drugs, but the question is specifically testing knowledge of enzyme inhibitors. Rifampicin and St John’s Wort are both enzyme inducers, while heroin (diamorphine) doesn’t have any effect on enzyme activity.

      P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors

      The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing many drugs in the body. Induction of this system occurs when a drug or substance causes an increase in the activity of the P450 enzymes. This process usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug. On the other hand, P450 inhibitors decrease the activity of the enzymes and their effects are often seen rapidly.

      Some common inducers of the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking. Smoking affects CYP1A2, which is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.

      In contrast, some common inhibitors of the P450 system include antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, acute alcohol intake, and quinupristin.

      It is important to be aware of the potential for drug interactions when taking medications that affect the P450 enzyme system. Patients should always inform their healthcare provider of all medications and supplements they are taking to avoid any adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 41 - A 53-year-old woman presents to the clinic with increasing shortness of breath. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old woman presents to the clinic with increasing shortness of breath. She enjoys walking her dog but has noticed a decrease in exercise tolerance. She reports experiencing fast, irregular palpitations at various times throughout the day.

      During the examination, you observe flushed cheeks, a blood pressure reading of 140/95, and a raised JVP. You suspect the presence of a diastolic murmur. In a subsequent communication from the cardiologist, they describe a loud first heart sound, an opening snap, and a mid-diastolic rumble that is best heard at the apex.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Explanation:

      Mitral Stenosis and Palpitations

      The clinical presentation is indicative of mitral stenosis, with palpitations likely due to paroxysmal AF caused by an enlarged left atrium. The elevated JVP is a result of back pressure due to associated pulmonary hypertension. Left atrial myxoma, which is much rarer than mitral stenosis, is characterized by a tumour plop instead of an opening snap. Echocardiography is a crucial component of the diagnostic workup, allowing for the estimation of pressure across the valve, as well as left atrial size and right-sided pressures. AF prophylaxis and valve replacement are potential treatment options.

      Spacing:

      The clinical presentation is indicative of mitral stenosis, with palpitations likely due to paroxysmal AF caused by an enlarged left atrium. The elevated JVP is a result of back pressure due to associated pulmonary hypertension.

      Left atrial myxoma, which is much rarer than mitral stenosis, is characterized by a tumour plop instead of an opening snap.

      Echocardiography is a crucial component of the diagnostic workup, allowing for the estimation of pressure across the valve, as well as left atrial size and right-sided pressures.

      AF prophylaxis and valve replacement are potential treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 42 - A 68-year-old male presents with a sudden onset of loss of vision in...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male presents with a sudden onset of loss of vision in his right eye which lasted approximately 30 minutes.

      He was aware of a an initial blurring of his vision and then cloudiness with inability to see out of the eye.

      He has been generally well except for a recent history of hypertension for which he takes atenolol. He drinks modest quantities of alcohol and is a smoker of five cigarettes per day.

      Examination reveals that he has now normal vision in both eyes with visual acuities of 6/12 in both eyes. He has a pulse of 72 beats per minute regular, a blood pressure of 162/88 mmHg and a BMI of 30.

      Examination of the cardiovascular system including auscultation over the neck is otherwise normal.

      What investigation would you request for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carotid Dopplers

      Explanation:

      Understanding Amaurosis Fugax

      Amaurosis fugax is a condition that occurs when an embolism blocks the right carotid distribution, resulting in temporary blindness in one eye. To determine the cause of this condition, doctors will typically look for an embolic source and scan the carotids for atheromatous disease. It’s important to note that significant carotid disease may still be present even if there is no bruit. If stenosis greater than 70% of diameter are detected, carotid endarterectomy is recommended. Additionally, echocardiography may be used to assess for cardiac embolic sources. By understanding the causes and potential treatments for amaurosis fugax, patients can receive the care they need to manage this condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 43 - A 30-year-old woman complains of intermittent attacks of severe pain in her hands....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman complains of intermittent attacks of severe pain in her hands. These symptoms occur on exposure to cold. She describes her fingers becoming white and numb. Episodes last for 1-2 hours after which her fingers become blue, then red and painful. The examination is normal.
      What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Raynaud’s disease

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Hand and Arm Symptoms

      Raynaud’s Disease and Syndrome, Subclavian Artery Insufficiency, Carpal Tunnel Syndrome, Systemic Sclerosis, and Vibration White Finger are all potential causes of hand and arm symptoms. Raynaud’s Disease is the primary form of Raynaud’s Phenomenon and can be treated by avoiding triggers. Secondary Raynaud’s Phenomenon, or Raynaud’s Syndrome, is less common and may indicate an underlying connective tissue disorder. Subclavian Artery Insufficiency can cause arm claudication and other neurological symptoms. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome presents with pain, numbness, and tingling in specific fingers without vascular instability. Systemic Sclerosis, specifically CREST Syndrome, can cause calcinosis, Raynaud’s Phenomenon, oesophageal dysmotility, sclerodactyly, and telangiectasia. Vibration White Finger is caused by the use of vibrating tools and is another potential cause of secondary Raynaud’s Phenomenon in the hands.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 44 - The nurse practitioner approaches you with a query after the clinic. A 50-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • The nurse practitioner approaches you with a query after the clinic. A 50-year-old patient had visited her for a regular diabetes check-up and disclosed a history of a minor stroke during a trip abroad a few years ago. The nurse observed that this information was not included in the problem list, so she updated the record with a coded diagnosis. As a result, a computer alert was triggered since the patient was not taking any antiplatelet therapy. The nurse seeks your advice on the preferred antiplatelet medication for this patient.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clopidogrel

      Explanation:

      Clopidogrel is the top choice for antiplatelet therapy in the secondary prevention of stroke. As a second option, aspirin can be combined with modified-release dipyridamole. However, there is some discrepancy among guidelines regarding the preferred antiplatelet for transient ischaemic attack. While NICE recommends aspirin and dipyridamole due to clopidogrel lack of licensing for this indication, the Royal College of Physicians advocates for clopidogrel. It is worth noting that clopidogrel is associated with frequent gastrointestinal side effects.

      The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The guidelines provide recommendations for the management of acute stroke, including maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage, and usually not until 14 days have passed from the onset of an ischaemic stroke. If the cholesterol is > 3.5 mmol/l, patients should be commenced on a statin.

      Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if it is administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. There are absolute and relative contraindications to thrombolysis, including previous intracranial haemorrhage, intracranial neoplasm, and active bleeding. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends considering thrombectomy together with intravenous thrombolysis for people last known to be well up to 24 hours previously.

      Secondary prevention recommendations from NICE include the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Clopidogrel is recommended ahead of combination use of aspirin plus modified-release dipyridamole in people who have had an ischaemic stroke. Aspirin plus MR dipyridamole is recommended after an ischaemic stroke only if clopidogrel is contraindicated or not tolerated. MR dipyridamole alone is recommended after an ischaemic stroke only if aspirin or clopidogrel are contraindicated or not tolerated. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 45 - A 72-year-old man who rarely visits the clinic presents with several weeks of...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man who rarely visits the clinic presents with several weeks of orthopnoea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea, and swollen ankles. His wife brings him in for examination. On assessment, he has bilateral basal crepitations and a resting heart rate of 110 beats per minute. An ECG shows sinus rhythm. Echocardiography confirms a diagnosis of heart failure. Despite receiving optimal doses of an ACE inhibitor and furosemide, he remains symptomatic and tachycardic.
      Which of the following statements is the most accurate regarding his further management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He should be started on a beta-blocker

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Beta-Blockers in Heart Failure Management

      Heart failure is a serious condition that affects millions of people worldwide. Current guidance recommends the use of beta-blockers in all patients with symptomatic heart failure and an LVEF ≤40%, where tolerated and not contra-indicated. Beta-blockers have been shown to increase ejection fraction, improve exercise tolerance, and reduce morbidity, mortality, and hospital admissions.

      It is important to note that beta-blockers should be initiated even if a patient is already stabilized on other drugs. While diuretics can be used to control initial oedema, the mainstay of treatment for heart failure is ACE inhibitors and beta-blockade. Digoxin and spironolactone have a place in heart failure management, but they are not first or second line treatments.

      For severe heart failure, biventricular pacing with an implantable defibrillator can be useful. Overall, the use of beta-blockers is crucial in the management of heart failure and should be considered in all eligible patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 46 - Barbara is a 57-year-old woman who has come to see you after high...

    Incorrect

    • Barbara is a 57-year-old woman who has come to see you after high blood pressure readings during a routine check with the nurse.

      You take two blood pressure readings, the lower of which is 190/126 mmHg.

      Barbara has no headache or chest pain. On examination of her cardiovascular and neurological systems, there are no abnormalities. Fundoscopy is normal.

      What is the most crucial next step to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgently carry out investigations for target organ damage including ECG, urine dip and blood tests

      Explanation:

      If Cynthia’s blood pressure is equal to or greater than 180/120 mmHg and she has no worrying signs, the first step is to urgently investigate for any damage to her organs.

      According to NICE guidelines, if a person has severe hypertension but no symptoms or signs requiring immediate referral, investigations for target organ damage should be carried out as soon as possible. Since Cynthia has no such symptoms or signs, investigating for target organ damage is the correct option.

      If target organ damage is found, antihypertensive drug treatment should be considered immediately, without waiting for the results of ABPM or HBPM. Therefore, prescribing a calcium channel blocker is not the correct answer as assessing for organ damage is the more urgent priority.

      Repeating clinic blood pressure measurement within 7 days at this stage would not be helpful in guiding further management, as assessing for target organ damage is the priority. NICE recommends repeating clinic blood pressure measurement within 7 days only if no target organ damage is identified.

      Assessing for target organ damage involves testing for protein and haematuria in the urine, measuring HbA1C, electrolytes, creatinine, estimated glomerular filtration rate, total cholesterol, and HDL cholesterol in the blood, examining the fundi for hypertensive retinopathy, and performing a 12-lead electrocardiograph.

      NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines recommend classifying hypertension into stages and using ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension. This is because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM provide a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can help prevent overdiagnosis.

      To diagnose hypertension, NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms and repeating the measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg. If the difference remains, subsequent blood pressures should be recorded from the arm with the higher reading. NICE also recommends taking a second reading during the consultation if the first reading is above 140/90 mmHg. ABPM or HBPM should be offered to any patient with a blood pressure above this level.

      If the blood pressure is above 180/120 mmHg, NICE recommends admitting the patient for specialist assessment if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms such as new-onset confusion, chest pain, signs of heart failure, or acute kidney injury. Referral is also recommended if a phaeochromocytoma is suspected. If none of these apply, urgent investigations for end-organ damage should be arranged. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately. If no target organ damage is identified, clinic blood pressure measurement should be repeated within 7 days.

      ABPM should involve at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours, with the average value of at least 14 measurements used. If ABPM is not tolerated or declined, HBPM should be offered. For HBPM, two consecutive measurements need to be taken for each blood pressure recording, at least 1 minute apart and with the person seated. Blood pressure should be recorded twice daily, ideally in the morning and evening, for at least 4 days, ideally for 7 days. The measurements taken on the first day should be discarded, and the average value of all the remaining measurements used.

      Interpreting the results, ABPM/HBPM above 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension) should be

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 47 - A 75-year-old man with a history of type II diabetes mellitus presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man with a history of type II diabetes mellitus presents with worsening dyspnea. His ECG reveals normal sinus rhythm and an echocardiogram confirms the diagnosis of congestive heart failure with reduced left ventricular ejection fraction. Which of the following medications is most likely to decrease mortality in this patient? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Enalapril

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Congestive Heart Failure

      Congestive heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper treatment to improve survival rates and alleviate symptoms. One of the recommended treatments is the use of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors like Enalapril, which have been shown to reduce left ventricular afterload and prolong survival rates. This is particularly important for patients with diabetes mellitus. Antiplatelets like aspirin are only indicated for those with concurrent atherosclerotic arterial disease. Standard drugs like digoxin have not been proven to improve survival rates compared to ACE inhibitors. Diuretics like furosemide provide relief from symptoms of fluid overload but do not improve survival rates. Antiarrhythmic agents like lidocaine are only useful when there is arrhythmia associated with heart failure. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for each individual case of congestive heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 48 - A 6-year-old boy is found to have a systolic murmur.
    Select from the list...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy is found to have a systolic murmur.
      Select from the list the single feature that would be most suggestive of this being an innocent murmur.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heard during a febrile illness

      Explanation:

      Understanding Innocent Heart Murmurs in Children

      Innocent heart murmurs are common in children between the ages of 3 and 8 years. They occur when blood flows noisily through a normal heart, usually due to increased blood flow or faster blood movement. Innocent murmurs are typically systolic and vibratory in quality, with an intensity of 2/6 or 1/6. They can change with posture and vary from examination to examination. Harsh murmurs, pansystolic murmurs, late systolic murmurs, and continuous murmurs are usually indicative of pathology. Heart sounds in innocent murmurs are normal, with a split second heart sound in inspiration and a single second heart sound in expiration. It’s important to note that the absence of symptoms doesn’t exclude important pathology, and some murmurs due to congenital heart disease may not be easily audible at birth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 49 - A 63-year-old male is being seen at the heart failure clinic by a...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old male is being seen at the heart failure clinic by a nurse. Despite being treated with furosemide, bisoprolol, enalapril, and spironolactone, he experiences breathlessness with minimal exertion. Upon examination, there is minimal ankle edema and clear chest auscultation. Recent test results show sinus rhythm with a rate of 84 bpm on ECG, cardiomegaly with clear lung fields on chest x-ray, and an ejection fraction of 35% on echo. Isosorbide dinitrate with hydralazine was attempted but had to be discontinued due to side effects. What additional medication would be most effective in alleviating his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Digoxin

      Explanation:

      Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 50 - What is true about jugular venous pulsation (JVP)? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is true about jugular venous pulsation (JVP)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is paradoxical in constrictive pericarditis

      Explanation:

      Impedance of Ventricular Contraction in Constrictive Pericarditis and Cardiac Tamponade

      Both constrictive pericarditis and cardiac tamponade can cause impedance of ventricular contraction, which becomes more severe as the diaphragm descends. This results in an increase in venous pressure during inspiration, known as Kussmaul’s sign.

      To assess the jugular venous pressure (JVP), the patient should be lying at a 45-degree angle. Normally, the JVP is not palpable except in severe tricuspid regurgitation, and the pressure is assessed relative to the manubrium sterni. In early left ventricular failure, the JVP may be normal, but as fluid retention increases, the veins become congested, leading to congestive cardiac failure (CCF).

      In summary, both constrictive pericarditis and cardiac tamponade can lead to impedance of ventricular contraction and an increase in venous pressure during inspiration, which can be assessed through the JVP. Congestion of the veins can also occur in CCF.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 51 - A 55-year-old man has been diagnosed with stage one hypertension without any signs...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man has been diagnosed with stage one hypertension without any signs of end-organ damage. As a first step, he is recommended to make lifestyle changes instead of taking medication.

      What are the most suitable lifestyle modifications to suggest?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A diet containing less than 6g of salt per day

      Explanation:

      For patients with hypertension, it is recommended to follow a low salt diet and aim for less than 6g/day, ideally 3g/day. Consuming a diet high in processed red meats may increase cardiovascular risk and blood pressure, although this is a topic of ongoing research and public opinion varies. While tea may contain a similar amount of caffeine as coffee, it is unlikely to reduce overall caffeine intake. The current exercise recommendation for hypertension is 30 minutes of moderate-intensity exercise, 5 days a week. It is recommended to limit alcohol intake in hypertension, and consuming 2 glasses of red wine, 5 days a week would exceed the recommended limits.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 52 - A 60-year-old man who was active all his life develops sudden severe anterior...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man who was active all his life develops sudden severe anterior chest pain that radiates to his back. Within minutes, he is unconscious.

      He has a history of hypertension, but a recent treadmill test had revealed no evidence for cardiac disease.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tear in the aortic intima

      Explanation:

      Aortic Dissection: A Probable Cause of Sudden Collapse with Acute Chest Pain

      The patient’s history is indicative of aortic dissection, which is a probable cause of sudden collapse accompanied by acute chest pain radiating to the back. Although other conditions may also lead to sudden collapse, they do not typically present with these symptoms in the presence of a recent normal exercise test. While acute myocardial infarction (MI) is a possibility, it is not the most likely explanation. For further information on the diagnosis and management of aortic dissection, please refer to the following references: BMJ Best Practice, BMJ Clinical Review, and eMedicine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 53 - An 80-year-old gentleman presents with an infective exacerbation of his bronchiectasis. Following clinical...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old gentleman presents with an infective exacerbation of his bronchiectasis. Following clinical assessment you decide to treat him with a course of antibiotics. He has a past medical history of atrial fibrillation for which he takes lifelong warfarin. His notes state he is penicillin allergic and the patient confirms a history of a true allergy.

      You decide to prescribe a course of doxycycline, 200 mg on day 1 then 100 mg daily to complete a 14 day course.

      You can see his INR is very well managed and is consistently between 2.0 and 3.0 and he has been taking 3 mg and 4 mg on alternate days for the last six months without the need for any dose changes.

      What is the most appropriate management of his warfarin therapy during the treatment of this acute exacerbation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Check his INR three to five days after starting the doxycycline

      Explanation:

      Managing Warfarin Patients on Antibiotics

      When a patient on warfarin requires antibiotics, it is a common clinical scenario that requires careful management. While there is no need to stop warfarin or switch to aspirin, it is important to monitor the patient’s INR levels closely. Typically, extra INR monitoring should be performed three to five days after starting the antibiotics to check for any potential impact on the INR. If necessary, a dosing change for warfarin may be needed.

      According to the British Committee for Standards in Haematology Guidelines for oral anticoagulation with warfarin (2011), it is important to follow specific recommendations for INR testing when a potential drug interaction occurs. By carefully monitoring INR levels and adjusting warfarin dosing as needed, healthcare providers can help ensure the safety and efficacy of treatment for patients on warfarin who require antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 54 - A 60-year-old man with no medication history comes in with three high blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with no medication history comes in with three high blood pressure readings of 155/95 mmHg, 160/100 mmHg, and 164/85 mmHg.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Essential hypertension

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hypertension

      Ninety five percent of patients diagnosed with hypertension have essential or primary hypertension, while the remaining five percent have secondary hypertension. Essential hypertension is caused by a combination of genetic and environmental factors, resulting in high blood pressure. On the other hand, secondary hypertension is caused by a specific abnormality in one of the organs or systems of the body.

      It is important to understand the type of hypertension a patient has in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan. While essential hypertension may be managed through lifestyle changes and medication, secondary hypertension requires addressing the underlying cause. Regular blood pressure monitoring and consultation with a healthcare professional can help manage hypertension and reduce the risk of complications.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 55 - Which one of the following would not be considered a normal variant on...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following would not be considered a normal variant on the ECG of an athletic 29-year-old man?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left bundle branch block

      Explanation:

      Normal Variants in Athlete ECGs

      When analyzing an athlete’s ECG, there are certain changes that are considered normal variants. These include sinus bradycardia, which is a slower than normal heart rate, junctional rhythm, which originates from the AV node instead of the SA node, first degree heart block, which is a delay in the electrical conduction between the atria and ventricles, and Mobitz type 1, also known as the Wenckebach phenomenon, which is a progressive lengthening of the PR interval until a beat is dropped. It is important to recognize these normal variants in order to avoid unnecessary testing or interventions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 56 - You are asked to do a new baby check on a 4-day-old boy...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to do a new baby check on a 4-day-old boy born at home after an uneventful pregnancy. The labour was normal and the baby has been fine until today, when he was noted to be slightly blue around the lips on feeding, recovering quickly. On examination there is a systolic murmur and you are unable to feel pulses in the legs.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coarctation of the aorta

      Explanation:

      Common Congenital Heart Defects in Newborns

      Congenital heart defects are abnormalities in the structure of the heart that are present at birth. Here are some common congenital heart defects in newborns:

      Coarctation of the aorta: This defect is a narrowing of the aorta, usually just distal to the origin of the left subclavian artery, close to the ductus arteriosus. It usually presents between day 2 and day 6 with symptoms of heart failure as the ductus arteriosus closes. The patient may have weak femoral pulses and a systolic murmur in the left infraclavicular area.

      Fallot’s tetralogy: This defect consists of a large ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular outflow obstruction, and right ventricular hypertrophy. It leads to a right to left shunt and low oxygen saturation, which can cause cyanosis. Most cases are diagnosed antenatally or on investigation of a heart murmur.

      Ductus arteriosus: The ductus arteriosus connects the pulmonary artery to the proximal descending aorta. It is a normal structure in fetal life but should close after birth. Failure of the ductus arteriosus to close can lead to overloading of the lungs because a left to right shunt occurs. Heart failure may be a consequence. A continuous (“machinery”) murmur is best heard at the left infraclavicular area or upper left sternal border.

      Transient tachypnoea of the newborn: This condition is seen shortly after delivery and consists of a period of rapid breathing. It is likely due to retained lung fluid and usually resolves over 24-48 hours. However, it is important to observe for signs of clinical deterioration.

      Ventricular septal defects: These defects vary in size and haemodynamic consequences. The presence of a defect may not be obvious at birth. Classically there is a harsh systolic murmur that is best heard at the left sternal edge. With large defects, pulmonary hypertension may develop resulting in a right to left shunt (Eisenmenger’s syndrome). Patients with the latter may have no murmur.

      In conclusion, early detection and management of congenital heart defects in newborns are crucial for better outcomes.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 57 - A 65-year-old man presents for review. He has been recently diagnosed with congestive...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents for review. He has been recently diagnosed with congestive heart failure. Currently, he takes digoxin 0.25 mg daily, furosemide 40 mg daily and amiloride 5 mg daily.

      Routine laboratory studies are normal except for a blood urea of 8 mmol/l (2.5-7.5) and a serum creatinine of 110 μmol/L (60-110).

      One month later, the patient continues to have dyspnoea and orthopnoea and has noted a 4 kg reduction in weight. His pulse rate is 96 per minute, blood pressure is 132/78 mmHg. Physical examination is unchanged except for reduced crackles, JVP is no longer visible and there is no ankle oedema.

      Repeat investigations show:

      Urea 10.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)

      Creatinine 120 µmol/L (60-110)

      Sodium 135 mmol/L (137-144)

      Potassium 3.5 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)

      Digoxin concentration within therapeutic range.

      What would be the next most appropriate change to make to his medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add lisinopril 2.5 mg daily

      Explanation:

      The Importance of ACE Inhibitors in Heart Failure Treatment

      Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are crucial drugs in the treatment of heart failure. They offer a survival advantage and are the primary treatment for heart failure, unless contraindicated. These drugs work by reducing peripheral vascular resistance through the blockage of the angiotensin converting enzyme. This action decreases myocardial oxygen consumption, improving cardiac output and moderating left ventricular and vascular hypertrophy.

      ACE inhibitors are particularly effective in treating congestive heart failure (CHF) caused by systolic dysfunction. However, first dose hypotension may occur, especially if the patient is already on diuretics. These drugs are also beneficial in protecting renal function, especially in cases of significant proteinuria. An increase of 20% in serum creatinine levels is not uncommon and is not a reason to discontinue the medication.

      It is important to note that potassium levels can be affected by ACE inhibitors, and this patient is already taking several drugs that can alter potassium levels. The introduction of an ACE inhibitor may increase potassium levels, which would need to be monitored carefully. If potassium levels become too high, the amiloride may need to be stopped or substituted with a higher dose of furosemide. Overall, ACE inhibitors play a crucial role in the treatment of heart failure and should be carefully monitored to ensure their effectiveness and safety.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 58 - You are examining the results of an ambulatory blood pressure monitor (ABPM) for...

    Incorrect

    • You are examining the results of an ambulatory blood pressure monitor (ABPM) for a 65-year-old man with suspected hypertension. You have also arranged an ECG, blood tests and a urine dipstick, all of which have been normal. According to QRISK, his 10-year cardiovascular risk is 7%. The ABPM results reveal an average daytime reading of 148/94 mmHg. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diagnose stage 1 hypertension and advise about lifestyle changes

      Explanation:

      This pertains to the utilization of statins for initial prevention, as opposed to the present NICE guidelines for hypertension.

      NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines recommend classifying hypertension into stages and using ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension. This is because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM provide a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can help prevent overdiagnosis.

      To diagnose hypertension, NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms and repeating the measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg. If the difference remains, subsequent blood pressures should be recorded from the arm with the higher reading. NICE also recommends taking a second reading during the consultation if the first reading is above 140/90 mmHg. ABPM or HBPM should be offered to any patient with a blood pressure above this level.

      If the blood pressure is above 180/120 mmHg, NICE recommends admitting the patient for specialist assessment if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms such as new-onset confusion, chest pain, signs of heart failure, or acute kidney injury. Referral is also recommended if a phaeochromocytoma is suspected. If none of these apply, urgent investigations for end-organ damage should be arranged. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately. If no target organ damage is identified, clinic blood pressure measurement should be repeated within 7 days.

      ABPM should involve at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours, with the average value of at least 14 measurements used. If ABPM is not tolerated or declined, HBPM should be offered. For HBPM, two consecutive measurements need to be taken for each blood pressure recording, at least 1 minute apart and with the person seated. Blood pressure should be recorded twice daily, ideally in the morning and evening, for at least 4 days, ideally for 7 days. The measurements taken on the first day should be discarded, and the average value of all the remaining measurements used.

      Interpreting the results, ABPM/HBPM above 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension) should be

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 59 - You assess a 70-year-old man who has been diagnosed with hypertension during his...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 70-year-old man who has been diagnosed with hypertension during his annual review for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). In the clinic, his blood pressure measures 170/100 mmHg, and you initiate treatment with amlodipine 5mg once daily. What guidance should you provide regarding driving?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No need to notify DVLA unless side-effects from medication

      Explanation:

      If you have hypertension and belong to Group 1, there is no requirement to inform the DVLA. However, if you belong to Group 2, your blood pressure must consistently remain below 180/100 mmHg.

      DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving

      The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, if the individual has Group 2 Entitlement, they will be disqualified from driving if their resting blood pressure consistently measures 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more.

      Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must wait four weeks before driving. If an individual experiences angina symptoms at rest or while driving, they must cease driving altogether. Pacemaker insertion requires a one-week break from driving, while implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation results in a six-month driving ban if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia. If implanted prophylactically, the individual must cease driving for one month, and Group 2 drivers are permanently barred from driving with an ICD.

      Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires a two-day break from driving, while an aortic aneurysm of 6 cm or more must be reported to the DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review, but an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Finally, individuals who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 60 - An 80-year-old man who is currently taking warfarin inquires about the feasibility of...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man who is currently taking warfarin inquires about the feasibility of switching to dabigatran to eliminate the requirement for regular INR testing.

      What would be a contraindication to prescribing dabigatran in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mechanical heart valve

      Explanation:

      Patients with mechanical heart valves should avoid using dabigatran due to its increased risk of bleeding and thrombotic events compared to warfarin. The MHRA has deemed it contraindicated for this population.

      Dabigatran: An Oral Anticoagulant with Two Main Indications

      Dabigatran is an oral anticoagulant that directly inhibits thrombin, making it an alternative to warfarin. Unlike warfarin, dabigatran doesn’t require regular monitoring. It is currently used for two main indications. Firstly, it is an option for prophylaxis of venous thromboembolism following hip or knee replacement surgery. Secondly, it is licensed for prevention of stroke in patients with non-valvular atrial fibrillation who have one or more risk factors present. The major adverse effect of dabigatran is haemorrhage, and doses should be reduced in chronic kidney disease. Dabigatran should not be prescribed if the creatinine clearance is less than 30 ml/min. In cases where rapid reversal of the anticoagulant effects of dabigatran is necessary, idarucizumab can be used. However, the RE-ALIGN study showed significantly higher bleeding and thrombotic events in patients with recent mechanical heart valve replacement using dabigatran compared with warfarin. As a result, dabigatran is now contraindicated in patients with prosthetic heart valves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 61 - A cardiologist has requested you to initiate oral amiodarone for a young patient...

    Incorrect

    • A cardiologist has requested you to initiate oral amiodarone for a young patient who has previously been hospitalized with ventricular tachycardia. What examinations are crucial to confirm that the patient has undergone before commencing the therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: TFT + LFT + U&E + chest x-ray

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone is a medication used to treat various types of abnormal heart rhythms. It works by blocking potassium channels, which prolongs the action potential and helps to regulate the heartbeat. However, it also has other effects, such as blocking sodium channels. Amiodarone has a very long half-life, which means that loading doses are often necessary. It should ideally be given into central veins to avoid thrombophlebitis. Amiodarone can cause proarrhythmic effects due to lengthening of the QT interval and can interact with other drugs commonly used at the same time. Long-term use of amiodarone can lead to various adverse effects, including thyroid dysfunction, corneal deposits, pulmonary fibrosis/pneumonitis, liver fibrosis/hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy, myopathy, photosensitivity, a ‘slate-grey’ appearance, thrombophlebitis, injection site reactions, and bradycardia. Patients taking amiodarone should be monitored regularly with tests such as TFT, LFT, U&E, and CXR.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 62 - You assess a patient who has been hospitalized with a non-ST elevation myocardial...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a patient who has been hospitalized with a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction in the ED. They have been administered aspirin 300 mg stat and glyceryl trinitrate spray (2 puffs). As per the latest NICE recommendations, which patients should be given ticagrelor?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All patients

      Explanation:

      Managing Acute Coronary Syndrome: A Summary of NICE Guidelines

      Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a common and serious medical condition that requires prompt management. The management of ACS has evolved over the years, with the development of new drugs and procedures such as percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of ACS in 2020.

      ACS can be classified into three subtypes: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. The management of ACS depends on the subtype. However, there are common initial drug therapies for all patients with ACS, such as aspirin and oxygen therapy if the patient has low oxygen saturation.

      For patients with STEMI, the first step is to assess eligibility for coronary reperfusion therapy, which can be either PCI or fibrinolysis. Patients with NSTEMI or unstable angina require a risk assessment using the Global Registry of Acute Coronary Events (GRACE) tool. Based on the risk assessment, decisions are made regarding whether a patient has coronary angiography (with follow-on PCI if necessary) or conservative management.

      This summary provides an overview of the NICE guidelines on the management of ACS. However, it is important to note that emergency departments may have their own protocols based on local factors. The full NICE guidelines should be reviewed for further details.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 63 - An active 58-year-old woman comes to the General Practitioner for a consultation. She...

    Incorrect

    • An active 58-year-old woman comes to the General Practitioner for a consultation. She has a history of asthma and atrial fibrillation (AF) and has been assessed by her Cardiologist, who has diagnosed her with permanent AF. The Cardiologist recommends rate control. Her resting heart rate is 120 bpm.
      Which of the following is the correct statement about rate control in these circumstances?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Verapamil can be used for first-line rate control in asthmatic patients with AF

      Explanation:

      Managing Atrial Fibrillation: Choosing the Right Medication

      Patients with atrial fibrillation (AF) are at risk of stroke and require proper management. The initial approach to managing AF involves either rhythm or rate control, depending on the patient’s age, comorbidity, and the duration of AF.

      According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence guidelines, rate-limiting calcium antagonists or β-blockers are recommended as first-line treatment for many patients requiring rate-control medication. However, β-blockers are contraindicated in patients with asthma.

      Rate-limiting calcium channel blockers such as verapamil and diltiazem are alternative options. Digoxin is only recommended for very sedentary patients as a first-line medication, as it doesn’t control heart rate during exertion. However, it can be used in combination with a first-line drug if rate control is poor. The target for rate control should be a resting heart rate of less than 110 bpm, and lower if the patient remains symptomatic.

      Choosing the right medication for managing AF is crucial in reducing the risk of stroke and improving the patient’s quality of life.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 64 - A 76-year-old woman presents for review. She underwent ambulatory blood pressure monitoring which...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old woman presents for review. She underwent ambulatory blood pressure monitoring which revealed an average reading of 142/90 mmHg. Apart from hypothyroidism, there is no significant medical history. Her 10-year cardiovascular risk score is 23%. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start amlodipine

      Explanation:

      For patients under 80 years old, the target blood pressure during clinic readings is 140/90 mmHg. However, the average reading is currently above this threshold, indicating the need for treatment with a calcium channel blocker.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 65 - Which one of the following statements regarding the metabolic syndrome is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the metabolic syndrome is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decisions on cardiovascular risk factor modification should be made regardless of whether patients meet the criteria for metabolic syndrome

      Explanation:

      The determination of primary prevention measures for cardiovascular disease should rely on established methods and should not be influenced by the diagnosis of metabolic syndrome.

      Understanding Metabolic Syndrome

      Metabolic syndrome is a condition that has various definitions, but it is generally believed to be caused by insulin resistance. The American Heart Association and the International Diabetes Federation have similar criteria for diagnosing metabolic syndrome. According to these criteria, a person must have at least three of the following: elevated waist circumference, elevated triglycerides, reduced HDL, raised blood pressure, and raised fasting plasma glucose. The International Diabetes Federation also requires the presence of central obesity and any two of the other four factors. In 1999, the World Health Organization produced diagnostic criteria that required the presence of diabetes mellitus, impaired glucose tolerance, impaired fasting glucose or insulin resistance, and two of the following: high blood pressure, dyslipidemia, central obesity, and microalbuminuria. Other associated features of metabolic syndrome include raised uric acid levels, non-alcoholic fatty liver disease, and polycystic ovarian syndrome.

      Overall, metabolic syndrome is a complex condition that involves multiple factors and can have serious health consequences. It is important to understand the diagnostic criteria and associated features in order to identify and manage this condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 66 - A 65-year-old lady presents with a brief history of sudden onset severe left...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old lady presents with a brief history of sudden onset severe left lower limb pain lasting for three hours. The pain started while she was at rest and there was no history of injury or any previous leg or calf pain.
      Upon examination, her pulse rate is irregular and measures 92 bpm. The left lower limb is cold and immobile with decreased sensation. No pulses can be felt from the level of the femoral pulse downwards in the left leg, but all pulses are palpable on the right. There are no abdominal masses or bruits, and chest auscultation is normal.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sciatica

      Explanation:

      Acute Limb Ischaemia: Causes and Symptoms

      Acute limb ischaemia is a condition characterized by a painful, paralysed, and pulseless limb that feels perishingly cold with paraesthesia. This condition is usually caused by either an embolus or thrombotic occlusion, which can occur on the background of intermittent claudication (chronic limb ischaemia). In most cases, the likely cause of acute limb ischaemia is an embolism secondary to atrial fibrillation. Other sources of emboli include defective heart valves, cardiac mural thrombi, and thrombus from within an aortic aneurysm.

      If a patient presents with a painful, paralysed, and pulseless limb, an echocardiogram, abdominal ultrasound, and duplex of proximal limb vessels are indicated. These tests can help identify the underlying cause of the condition. It is important to note that acute limb ischaemia is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention. Delayed treatment can lead to irreversible tissue damage and even limb loss.

      In summary, acute limb ischaemia is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Patients with this condition should seek medical attention immediately to prevent irreversible tissue damage and limb loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 67 - You assess a 79-year-old male patient's hypertensive treatment and find that his current...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 79-year-old male patient's hypertensive treatment and find that his current medication regimen of losartan and amlodipine is not effectively controlling his blood pressure. What would be the most suitable course of action, assuming there are no relevant contraindications?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add indapamide MR 1.5mg od

      Explanation:

      For poorly controlled hypertension in a patient already taking an ACE inhibitor and a calcium channel blocker, it is recommended to add a thiazide-like diuretic. However, NICE advises against using bendroflumethiazide and suggests alternative options. It is important to note that patients who are already taking bendroflumethiazide should not be switched to another thiazide-type diuretic. In this case, the patient is currently taking losartan, which is an angiotensin 2 receptor blocker. This may be due to previous issues with ACE inhibitor therapy, such as a dry cough. It is generally not recommended for patients to take both an ACE inhibitor and an A2RB simultaneously.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 68 - A 55-year-old man visits your clinic to request a refill of his sildenafil...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man visits your clinic to request a refill of his sildenafil prescription, which he has been taking for several years. Upon reviewing his medical history, you discover that he suffered a heart attack four months ago. What course of action should you take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Do not prescribe as contraindicated

      Explanation:

      Sildenafil use is not recommended for patients who have had a recent myocardial infarction or unstable angina, as stated in both the BNF and NICE guidelines. As the patient in this question had a myocardial infarction just 4 months ago, prescribing sildenafil is contraindicated. Therefore, the answer to this question is do not prescribe.

      Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. They work by increasing cGMP, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which is taken about an hour before sexual activity. Other examples include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra), which have longer-lasting effects and can be taken regularly. However, these medications have contraindications, such as not being safe for patients taking nitrates or those with hypotension. They can also cause side effects such as visual disturbances, blue discolouration, and headaches. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking PDE5 inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 69 - A 67-year-old man presents with a recent diagnosis of angina pectoris. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents with a recent diagnosis of angina pectoris. He is currently on aspirin, simvastatin, atenolol, and nifedipine, but is still experiencing frequent use of his GTN spray. What would be the most suitable course of action for further management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add isosorbide mononitrate MR and refer to cardiology for consideration of PCI or CABG

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, if a patient needs a third anti-anginal medication, they should be referred for evaluation of a more permanent solution such as PCI or CABG. Although ACE inhibitors may be beneficial for certain patients with stable angina, they would not alleviate his angina symptoms.

      Angina pectoris can be managed through lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. NICE recommends using either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as first-line treatment, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker like amlodipine or modified-release nifedipine should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If initial treatment is ineffective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.

      Nitrate tolerance is a common issue for patients who take nitrates, leading to reduced efficacy. NICE advises patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate to use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. However, this effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 70 - A 72-year-old woman was recently diagnosed with atrial fibrillation during a routine pulse...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman was recently diagnosed with atrial fibrillation during a routine pulse check. She has a medical history of fatty liver disease and well-managed hypertension, which is treated with amlodipine. Her weekly alcohol consumption is 14 units.

      Her blood test results are as follows:

      - Hb 110 g/L (115 - 160)
      - Creatinine 108 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      - Estimated GFR (eGFR) 57 mL/min/1.73 m² (>90)
      - ALT 50 u/L (3 - 40)

      To evaluate her bleeding risk before initiating anticoagulation therapy, her ORBIT score is computed.

      What factors would increase this patient's ORBIT score?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      The ORBIT score includes anaemia and renal impairment as factors that indicate a higher risk of bleeding in patients with atrial fibrillation who are receiving anticoagulation treatment. This scoring tool is now recommended by NICE guidelines for assessing bleeding risk. The ORBIT score consists of five parameters, including age (75+ years), anaemia (haemoglobin <130 g/L in males, <120 g/L in females), bleeding history, and renal impairment (eGFR <60 mL/min/1.73 m²). In this patient's case, her anaemia and renal function would meet the criteria for scoring. Age is not a relevant factor as she is under 75 years old. Alcohol intake is not a criterion used in the ORBIT score, and hypertension is not included in this scoring tool but would be considered in the CHA2DS2-VASc scoring tool for assessing stroke risk. Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation. When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding. For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 71 - A 72-year-old man presents with palpitations and feeling dizzy. An ECG reveals atrial...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents with palpitations and feeling dizzy. An ECG reveals atrial fibrillation with a heart rate of 130 beats per minute. His blood pressure is within normal limits and there are no other notable findings upon examination of his cardiorespiratory system. He has a medical history of controlled asthma (treated with salbutamol and beclomethasone) and depression (managed with citalopram). He has been experiencing these symptoms for approximately three days. What is the most suitable medication for controlling his heart rate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diltiazem

      Explanation:

      Prescribing a beta-blocker is not recommended due to her asthma history, which is a contraindication. Instead, NICE suggests using a calcium channel blocker that limits the heart rate. Additionally, it is important to consider antithrombotic therapy.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a heart condition that requires prompt management. The management of AF depends on the patient’s haemodynamic stability and the duration of the AF. For haemodynamically unstable patients, electrical cardioversion is recommended. For haemodynamically stable patients, rate control is the first-line treatment strategy, except in certain cases. Medications such as beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, and digoxin are commonly used to control the heart rate. Rhythm control is another treatment option that involves the use of medications such as beta-blockers, dronedarone, and amiodarone. Catheter ablation is recommended for patients who have not responded to or wish to avoid antiarrhythmic medication. The procedure involves the use of radiofrequency or cryotherapy to ablate the faulty electrical pathways that cause AF. Anticoagulation is necessary before and during the procedure to reduce the risk of stroke. The success rate of catheter ablation varies, with around 50% of patients experiencing an early recurrence of AF within three months. However, after three years, around 55% of patients who have undergone a single procedure remain in sinus rhythm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 72 - The following patients all attend for a medication review in your afternoon clinic....

    Incorrect

    • The following patients all attend for a medication review in your afternoon clinic. They all have atrial fibrillation (AF) and are taking multiple medications.

      Which patient should discontinue anticoagulation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An 80-year-old man who has undergone left atrial appendage closure, surgically preventing clots from entering the bloodstream

      Explanation:

      Even after undergoing catheter ablation for atrial fibrillation, patients must continue taking anticoagulants for an extended period based on their CHA2DS2-VASc score.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a heart condition that requires prompt management. The management of AF depends on the patient’s haemodynamic stability and the duration of the AF. For haemodynamically unstable patients, electrical cardioversion is recommended. For haemodynamically stable patients, rate control is the first-line treatment strategy, except in certain cases. Medications such as beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, and digoxin are commonly used to control the heart rate. Rhythm control is another treatment option that involves the use of medications such as beta-blockers, dronedarone, and amiodarone. Catheter ablation is recommended for patients who have not responded to or wish to avoid antiarrhythmic medication. The procedure involves the use of radiofrequency or cryotherapy to ablate the faulty electrical pathways that cause AF. Anticoagulation is necessary before and during the procedure to reduce the risk of stroke. The success rate of catheter ablation varies, with around 50% of patients experiencing an early recurrence of AF within three months. However, after three years, around 55% of patients who have undergone a single procedure remain in sinus rhythm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 73 - A 70-year-old man with a medical history of chronic heart failure due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with a medical history of chronic heart failure due to ischaemic cardiomyopathy is being evaluated. He was released from the hospital two weeks ago after experiencing a heart attack. An echocardiogram conducted during his hospitalization revealed a left ventricular ejection fraction of 40%, but no valve abnormalities were detected.

      Despite his current regimen of furosemide, ramipril, carvedilol, aspirin, and simvastatin, he continues to experience shortness of breath with minimal exertion, such as walking 30 meters. On examination, his chest is clear, and there is minimal peripheral edema. What is the most appropriate next step in managing his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add an aldosterone antagonist

      Explanation:

      The 2010 NICE guidelines have been revised to recommend the use of both angiotensin-2 receptor blockers and hydralazine in combination with a nitrate as second-line treatments for heart failure, in addition to aldosterone antagonists. However, considering the patient’s recent myocardial infarction, the most appropriate option would be an aldosterone antagonist, as per the NICE guidelines. For further information, please refer to the guidelines.

      Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 74 - A 50-year-old Caucasian man has been diagnosed with mild hypertension following ambulatory blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old Caucasian man has been diagnosed with mild hypertension following ambulatory blood pressure monitoring. Despite reducing caffeine, increasing exercise and losing 4 kg, his BP has not reduced. Investigations reveal:
      • Hb 131 g/L (135 - 180)
      • WCC 5.4 ×109/L (4 - 10)
      • PLT 200 ×109/L (150 - 400)
      • Sodium 140 mmol/L (134 - 143)
      • Potassium 4.8 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      • Creatinine 100 µmol/L (60 - 120)
      Renal ultrasound scan shows two normal sized kidneys. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for his BP?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Antihypertensive Therapy Guidelines

      Guidelines for Antihypertensive therapy recommend different treatments based on age and ethnicity. For individuals under 55 years old, an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor is the first line of treatment. If an ACE inhibitor is not tolerated, a low-cost angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB) can be offered. However, ACE inhibitors and ARBs should not be combined to treat hypertension.

      For individuals over 55 years old, or of African or Caribbean origin of any age, a calcium-channel blocker (CCB) is recommended. If a CCB is not suitable, a thiazide-like diuretic can be offered. It is important to note that ACE inhibitors and ARBs should not be routinely prescribed to pregnant women.

      Overall, it is important to establish whether or not a patient is diabetic before determining the appropriate Antihypertensive therapy. Following these guidelines can help effectively manage hypertension and reduce the risk of associated complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 75 - You have been asked to review the blood pressure of a 67-year-old woman....

    Incorrect

    • You have been asked to review the blood pressure of a 67-year-old woman. She was recently seen by the practice nurse for her annual health review and her blood pressure measured at the time was 148/90 mmHg. There is no history of headache, visual changes or symptoms suggestive of heart failure. Her past medical history includes hypertension, osteoporosis and type 2 diabetes. The medications she is currently on include amlodipine, alendronate, metformin, and lisinopril.

      On examination, her blood pressure is 152/88 mmHg. Cardiovascular exam is unremarkable. Fundoscopy shows a normal fundi. The results of the blood test from two days ago are as follow:

      Na+ 140 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Bicarbonate 26 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      Urea 5.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 98 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing her blood pressure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alpha-blocker

      Explanation:

      If a patient has poorly controlled hypertension despite taking an ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker, and a standard-dose thiazide diuretic, and their potassium level is above 4.5mmol/l, NICE recommends adding an alpha-blocker or seeking expert advice. In this case, as the patient is asthmatic, a beta-blocker is contraindicated, making an alpha-blocker the appropriate choice. However, if the patient’s potassium level was less than 4.5, a low-dose aldosterone antagonist could be considered as an off-license use. Referral for specialist assessment is only recommended if blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, which is not the case for this patient who is currently taking three antihypertensive agents.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 76 - A 58-year-old male with stable angina complains of muscle aches and pains. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old male with stable angina complains of muscle aches and pains. He has been on simvastatin 40 mg daily, atenolol 50 mg daily, and aspirin 75 mg daily for two years. He was recently hospitalized for acute coronary syndrome and additional therapies were added. His CPK concentration is 820 IU/L (50-200). What is the most probable cause of his statin-related myopathy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Omega-3 fatty acids

      Explanation:

      Statin-Associated Myopathy and Drug Interactions

      Statin-associated myopathy is a potential side effect that affects up to 5% of individuals taking statins. This condition can be exacerbated by the co-prescription of certain drugs, including calcium channel blockers, macrolide antibiotics, fibrates, amiodarone, and grapefruit juice. Even patients who tolerate statins well may experience myopathy or rhabdomyolysis when these agents are added to their treatment regimen.

      It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential drug interactions and to monitor patients closely for signs of myopathy. Additionally, NICE guidance on Myocardial infarction: secondary prevention (NG185) advises against the use of omega-3 capsules to prevent another MI. By staying informed and following evidence-based guidelines, healthcare providers can help ensure the safety and well-being of their patients.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 77 - You are a GPST1 working in a general practice. A practice nurse seeks...

    Incorrect

    • You are a GPST1 working in a general practice. A practice nurse seeks your guidance on a routine ECG performed on a 50-year-old man. Upon examining the ECG, you observe that the patient is in regular sinus rhythm with a rate of 70 beats per minute. However, the patient has a long QT interval and small T waves.

      What could be the reason for this distinct ECG pattern?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Long QT syndrome may result from hypokalaemia.

      Long QT syndrome (LQTS) is a genetic condition that causes a delay in the ventricles’ repolarization. This delay can lead to ventricular tachycardia/torsade de pointes, which can cause sudden death or collapse. The most common types of LQTS are LQT1 and LQT2, which are caused by defects in the alpha subunit of the slow delayed rectifier potassium channel. A normal corrected QT interval is less than 430 ms in males and 450 ms in females.

      There are various causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital factors, drugs, and other conditions. Congenital factors include Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome and Romano-Ward syndrome. Drugs that can cause a prolonged QT interval include amiodarone, sotalol, tricyclic antidepressants, and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. Other factors that can cause a prolonged QT interval include electrolyte imbalances, acute myocardial infarction, myocarditis, hypothermia, and subarachnoid hemorrhage.

      LQTS may be detected on a routine ECG or through family screening. Long QT1 is usually associated with exertional syncope, while Long QT2 is often associated with syncope following emotional stress, exercise, or auditory stimuli. Long QT3 events often occur at night or at rest and can lead to sudden cardiac death.

      Management of LQTS involves avoiding drugs that prolong the QT interval and other precipitants if appropriate. Beta-blockers are often used, and implantable cardioverter defibrillators may be necessary in high-risk cases. It is important to note that sotalol may exacerbate LQTS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 78 - Mr. Johnson is brought into the clinic by his son, Mark, who is...

    Incorrect

    • Mr. Johnson is brought into the clinic by his son, Mark, who is concerned about his father's uncontrolled blood pressure (BP). Mr. Johnson has mild vascular dementia and Mark understands the importance of managing cardiovascular risk factors in this condition.

      They have brought some home BP readings which are consistently around 155/85 mmHg. You review Mr. Johnson's medication list and see that he is prescribed ramipril 10 mg and indapamide 2.5mg. He had previously experienced ankle swelling with amlodipine, so it was discontinued. You consider the possibility of non-compliance, but Mark assures you that he reminds his father to take his medications every day.

      You measure Mr. Johnson's BP in both arms and find it to be 160/90 mmHg. A standing BP is lower, at 138/80 mmHg, and Mr. Johnson reports no symptoms of dizziness or fainting. His pulse is 84 and regular. You review his recent blood tests and note that his potassium level is 3.7mmol/L.

      What is the appropriate treatment for Mr. Johnson's hypertension?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Do not increase antihypertensive medication

      Explanation:

      Based on the patient’s significant postural drop in blood pressure or symptoms of postural hypotension, treatment should be determined by their standing blood pressure. Therefore, no further increase in antihypertensive medication is necessary for this patient. However, if it were indicated, a rate-limiting calcium channel blocker may be a suitable option as it is less likely to cause ankle swelling than amlodipine. Additionally, spironolactone may be considered. It is important to note that standing blood pressure should be checked in patients with resistant hypertension. Lastly, increasing the dose of ramipril is not recommended as the patient is already taking the maximum dose.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 79 - Which of the following statements about the cause of venous thromboembolism (VTE) is...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about the cause of venous thromboembolism (VTE) is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tamoxifen therapy increases the risk of VTE

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors for Venous Thromboembolism

      Venous thromboembolism (VTE) is a condition where blood clots form in the veins, which can lead to serious complications such as pulmonary embolism (PE). While some common predisposing factors include malignancy, pregnancy, and the period following an operation, there are many other factors that can increase the risk of VTE. These include underlying conditions such as heart failure, thrombophilia, and nephrotic syndrome, as well as medication use such as the combined oral contraceptive pill and antipsychotics. It is important to note that around 40% of patients diagnosed with a PE have no major risk factors. Therefore, it is crucial to be aware of all potential risk factors and take appropriate measures to prevent VTE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 80 - A 50-year-old man with a history of hypertension and type II diabetes mellitus...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of hypertension and type II diabetes mellitus presents with intermittent chest pain which tends to occur when out walking. He describes the pain as radiating to his neck, jaw, and left arm. He feels dizzy and short of breath. The symptoms tend to last for around five minutes after he stops walking and then resolve.
      What feature is most indicative of angina in a patient complaining of chest pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radiation to the throat and jaw

      Explanation:

      Understanding Angina Symptoms: What to Look Out For

      Angina is a type of chest pain that occurs when the heart muscle doesn’t receive enough oxygen-rich blood. Here are some common symptoms associated with angina:

      Radiation to the throat and jaw: Chest pain that radiates to the throat and jaw is typical of angina.

      Prolonged pain: Anginal pain is typically exertional and quickly relieved by rest or glyceryl trinitrate (GTN spray) within around five minutes. It is not typically prolonged.

      Associated dizziness: Pain associated with palpitations or dizziness is less likely to be angina than other attributable causes.

      Associated shortness of breath: Shortness of breath can occur in both cardiac and pulmonary causes of chest pain and so is not specific to angina.

      Pain associated with taking a breath in: Pain associated with breathing is likely to be associated with pulmonary or musculoskeletal causes of chest pain, rather than angina.

      It’s important to note that these symptoms can also be indicative of other health issues, so it’s always best to consult with a healthcare professional if you experience any chest pain or discomfort.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 81 - A 55-year-old female patient presents to your morning clinic with complaints of pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old female patient presents to your morning clinic with complaints of pain and cramps in her right calf. She has also observed some brown discoloration around her right ankle. Her symptoms have been progressing for the past few weeks. She had been treated for a right-sided posterior tibial deep vein thrombosis (DVT) six months ago. Upon examination, she appears to be in good health.

      What would be the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Compression stockings

      Explanation:

      Compression stockings should only be offered to patients with deep vein thrombosis who are experiencing post-thrombotic syndrome (PTS), which typically occurs 6 months to 2 years after the initial DVT and is characterized by chronic pain, swelling, hyperpigmentation, and venous ulcers. Apixaban is not appropriate for treating PTS, as it is used to treat acute DVT. Codeine may help with pain but doesn’t address the underlying cause. Hirudoid cream is not effective for treating PTS, as it is used for superficial thrombophlebitis. If conservative management is not effective, patients may be referred to vascular surgery for surgical treatment. Compression stockings are the first-line treatment for PTS, as they improve blood flow and reduce symptoms in the affected calf.

      Post-Thrombotic Syndrome: A Complication of Deep Vein Thrombosis

      Post-thrombotic syndrome is a clinical syndrome that may develop following a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). It is caused by venous outflow obstruction and venous insufficiency, which leads to chronic venous hypertension. Patients with post-thrombotic syndrome may experience painful, heavy calves, pruritus, swelling, varicose veins, and venous ulceration.

      While compression stockings were previously recommended to reduce the risk of post-thrombotic syndrome in patients with DVT, Clinical Knowledge Summaries now advise against their use for this purpose. However, compression stockings are still recommended as a treatment for post-thrombotic syndrome. Other recommended treatments include keeping the affected leg elevated.

      In summary, post-thrombotic syndrome is a potential complication of DVT that can cause a range of uncomfortable symptoms. While compression stockings are no longer recommended for prevention, they remain an important treatment option for those who develop the syndrome.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 82 - A 68-year-old man with chronic heart failure due to ischaemic heart disease complains...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with chronic heart failure due to ischaemic heart disease complains of knee pain. An x-ray has revealed osteoarthritis. What medication should be avoided if feasible?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      Patients with heart failure should exercise caution when using NSAIDs as they may lead to fluid retention, making oral NSAIDs like ibuprofen unsuitable.

      Medications to Avoid in Patients with Heart Failure

      Patients with heart failure need to be cautious when taking certain medications as they may exacerbate their condition. Thiazolidinediones, such as pioglitazone, are contraindicated as they cause fluid retention. Verapamil should also be avoided due to its negative inotropic effect. NSAIDs and glucocorticoids should be used with caution as they can also cause fluid retention. However, low-dose aspirin is an exception as many patients with heart failure also have coexistent cardiovascular disease and the benefits of taking aspirin outweigh the risks. Class I antiarrhythmics, such as flecainide, should also be avoided as they have a negative inotropic and proarrhythmic effect. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these medications and their potential effects on patients with heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 83 - A man of 65 comes to see you with a suspected fungal nail...

    Incorrect

    • A man of 65 comes to see you with a suspected fungal nail infection.

      You notice he has not had his blood pressure taken for many years. The lowest reading observed is 175/105 mmHg. Fundoscopy is normal and his pulse is of normal rate and rhythm. He is otherwise well.

      With reference to the latest NICE guidance on Hypertension (NG136), what is your next action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat his blood pressure in a month

      Explanation:

      Management of Hypertension in Primary Care

      Referring a patient to the hospital for hypertension without suspicion of accelerated hypertension is inappropriate. According to the updated NICE guidelines on Hypertension (NG136) in September 2019, immediate treatment should only be considered if the blood pressure is equal to or greater than 180/120 mmHg. In this case, it is recommended to bring the patient back for ambulatory monitoring or record their home blood pressure readings for at least four days. Repeating blood pressure with the nurse is no longer preferred, as ambulatory or home readings are considered better. The presence of a fungal nail infection is irrelevant, but it may be necessary to check the patient’s fasting blood sugar or HbA1c to rule out diabetes. When answering AKT questions, it is important to consider the bigger picture and remember that the questions test knowledge of national guidance and consensus opinion, not just the latest NICE guidance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 84 - What is the most useful investigation to differentiate between the types of cardiomyopathy...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most useful investigation to differentiate between the types of cardiomyopathy from the given list?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Four Types of Cardiomyopathy

      Cardiomyopathy is a group of heart muscle disorders that affect the structure and function of the heart. There are four major types of cardiomyopathy: dilated, hypertrophic, restrictive, and arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy. Each type is characterized by specific features such as ventricular dilation, hypertrophy, restrictive filling, and fibro-fatty changes in the right ventricular myocardium.

      While dilated and hypertrophic cardiomyopathies are the most common types, a familial cause has been identified in a significant percentage of patients with these conditions. On the other hand, restrictive cardiomyopathy is usually not familial.

      To diagnose cardiomyopathy, a full cardiological assessment is necessary. Transthoracic Doppler echocardiography can confirm the diagnosis of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, distinguish between restrictive cardiomyopathy and constrictive pericarditis, and assess the severity of ventricular dysfunction in dilated cardiomyopathies. Coronary angiography can help exclude coronary artery disease as the cause of dilated cardiomyopathy.

      A normal ECG is uncommon in any form of cardiomyopathy, and cardiomegaly on a chest X-ray may be present in all types. Brain natriuretic peptide is a marker of ventricular dysfunction but cannot differentiate between cardiomyopathies.

      In summary, understanding the different types of cardiomyopathy and their diagnostic tools is crucial in managing and treating this group of heart muscle disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 85 - A 56-year-old man collapses in the hospital during a nurse-led hypertension clinic. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man collapses in the hospital during a nurse-led hypertension clinic. He is unresponsive and has no pulse in his carotid artery. What is the appropriate ratio of chest compressions to ventilation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 30:02:00

      Explanation:

      The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken in the event of a cardiac arrest. Patients are divided into those with ‘shockable’ rhythms (ventricular fibrillation/pulseless ventricular tachycardia) and ‘non-shockable’ rhythms (asystole/pulseless-electrical activity). Key points include the ratio of chest compressions to ventilation (30:2), continuing chest compressions while a defibrillator is charged, and delivering drugs via IV access or the intraosseous route. Adrenaline and amiodarone are recommended for non-shockable rhythms and VF/pulseless VT, respectively. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolism is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Following successful resuscitation, oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98%. The ‘Hs’ and ‘Ts’ outline reversible causes of cardiac arrest, including hypoxia, hypovolaemia, and thrombosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 86 - A 52-year-old man comes to the clinic four weeks after being released from...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man comes to the clinic four weeks after being released from the hospital. He was admitted due to chest pain and was given thrombolytic therapy for a heart attack. Today, he experienced significant swelling of his tongue and face. Which medication is the most probable cause of this reaction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Drug-induced angioedema is most frequently caused by ACE inhibitors.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.

      While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.

      Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.

      The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 87 - A 22 year old man is being investigated by a cardiologist for prolonged...

    Incorrect

    • A 22 year old man is being investigated by a cardiologist for prolonged QT-syndrome. He visits your clinic with a 4 day history of cough with thick, green sputum, fever, and fatigue. During examination, his temperature is found to be 39ºC, oxygen saturation is 96% on air, and crackles are heard at the base of his left lung. Which medication should be avoided in treating his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      The normal corrected QT interval for males is below 430 ms and for females it is below 450 ms. Long QT syndrome (LQTS) is a rare condition that can be inherited or acquired, causing delayed repolarisation of the ventricles and increasing the risk of ventricular tachyarrhythmias. This can result in syncope, cardiac arrest, or sudden death. LQTS can be detected incidentally on an ECG, after a cardiac event such as syncope or cardiac arrest, or following the sudden death of a family member.

      Long QT syndrome (LQTS) is a genetic condition that causes a delay in the ventricles’ repolarization. This delay can lead to ventricular tachycardia/torsade de pointes, which can cause sudden death or collapse. The most common types of LQTS are LQT1 and LQT2, which are caused by defects in the alpha subunit of the slow delayed rectifier potassium channel. A normal corrected QT interval is less than 430 ms in males and 450 ms in females.

      There are various causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital factors, drugs, and other conditions. Congenital factors include Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome and Romano-Ward syndrome. Drugs that can cause a prolonged QT interval include amiodarone, sotalol, tricyclic antidepressants, and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. Other factors that can cause a prolonged QT interval include electrolyte imbalances, acute myocardial infarction, myocarditis, hypothermia, and subarachnoid hemorrhage.

      LQTS may be detected on a routine ECG or through family screening. Long QT1 is usually associated with exertional syncope, while Long QT2 is often associated with syncope following emotional stress, exercise, or auditory stimuli. Long QT3 events often occur at night or at rest and can lead to sudden cardiac death.

      Management of LQTS involves avoiding drugs that prolong the QT interval and other precipitants if appropriate. Beta-blockers are often used, and implantable cardioverter defibrillators may be necessary in high-risk cases. It is important to note that sotalol may exacerbate LQTS.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 88 - A 35-year-old woman visits her doctor for a check-up. She is worried about...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her doctor for a check-up. She is worried about her risk of developing cardiovascular disease after hearing about a family member's recent diagnosis.
      Which of the following factors would most significantly increase her risk of cardiovascular disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Explanation:

      Patients with rheumatoid arthritis may have an increased risk of developing accelerated atherosclerosis, which is believed to be linked to the inflammatory process. The QRisk2 calculator, used to predict the 10-year risk of developing cardiovascular disease, includes rheumatoid arthritis as a risk factor. However, a blood pressure reading of 130/80 mmHg and a BMI of 24 kg/m2 are within the normal range and not a cause for concern. Additionally, the HbA1c level of 41 mmol/mol is normal and doesn’t indicate an increased risk of diabetes. While a family history of myocardial infarction is significant, it is only considered a risk factor if the relative was diagnosed before the age of 60, not at 65.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 89 - A 70-year-old woman is prescribed amlodipine 5mg once daily for hypertension. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman is prescribed amlodipine 5mg once daily for hypertension. She has no significant medical history and her routine blood tests (including fasting glucose) and ECG were unremarkable.

      What is the recommended target blood pressure for her while on amlodipine treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      The recommended blood pressure target for individuals under 80 years old during a clinic reading is 140/90 mmHg. However, the Quality and Outcomes Framework (QOF) indicator for GPs practicing in England specifies a slightly higher target of below 150/90 mmHg.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 90 - A 56-year-old man with a history of smoking, obesity, prediabetes, and high cholesterol...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man with a history of smoking, obesity, prediabetes, and high cholesterol visits his GP complaining of chest pains that occur during physical activity or climbing stairs to his office. The pain is crushing in nature and subsides with rest. The patient is currently taking atorvastatin 20 mg and aspirin 75 mg daily. He has no chest pains at the time of the visit and is otherwise feeling well. Physical examination reveals no abnormalities. The GP prescribes a GTN spray for the chest pains and refers the patient to the rapid access chest pain clinic.

      What other medication should be considered in addition to the GTN?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      For the patient with stable angina, it is recommended to use a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as the first-line treatment to prevent angina attacks. In this case, a cardioselective beta-blocker like bisoprolol or atenolol, or a rate-limiting calcium channel blocker such as verapamil or diltiazem should be considered while waiting for chest clinic assessment.

      As the patient is already taking aspirin 75 mg daily, there is no need to prescribe dual antiplatelet therapy. Aspirin is the preferred antiplatelet for stable angina.

      Since the patient is already taking atorvastatin, a fibrate like ezetimibe may not be necessary for lipid modification. However, if cholesterol levels or cardiovascular risk remain high, increasing the atorvastatin dose or encouraging positive lifestyle interventions like weight loss and smoking cessation can be helpful.

      It is important to note that nifedipine, a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker, is not recommended as the first-line treatment for angina management as it has limited negative inotropic effects. It can be used in combination with a beta-blocker if monotherapy is insufficient for symptom control.

      Angina pectoris can be managed through lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. NICE recommends using either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as first-line treatment, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker like amlodipine or modified-release nifedipine should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If initial treatment is ineffective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.

      Nitrate tolerance is a common issue for patients who take nitrates, leading to reduced efficacy. NICE advises patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate to use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. However, this effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 91 - What is the significance of the class of compression stockings used in the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the significance of the class of compression stockings used in the treatment of chronic venous insufficiency?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The ankle pressure exerted by the stockings

      Explanation:

      Compression Stockings in Primary Care

      Compression stockings in primary care are classified according to the British standard, with Class 1 being light compression, Class 2 being medium compression, and Class 3 being high compression. The level of compression required depends on the condition being treated and should be the highest level that the individual can tolerate for that particular condition. It is important to note that the appropriate class of compression should be determined by a healthcare professional. Proper use of compression stockings can help improve circulation and reduce swelling in the legs.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 92 - A 68-year-old woman has weight loss and heat intolerance.

    Investigations:

    Free T4 32.9 pmol/L (9.8-23.1)

    TSH...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman has weight loss and heat intolerance.

      Investigations:

      Free T4 32.9 pmol/L (9.8-23.1)

      TSH <0.02 mU/L (0.35-5.50)

      Free T3 11.1 pmol/L (3.5-6.5)

      She is taking medication for atrial fibrillation, ischaemic heart disease and type 2 diabetes.

      Which drug is most likely to be responsible for these results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Digoxin

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone and Thyroid Function

      Amiodarone is a medication commonly used to treat heart rhythm disorders. However, it can also cause abnormalities in thyroid function tests. This can result in both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism. Hypothyroidism may occur due to interference with the conversion of thyroxine (T4) to tri-iodothyronine (T3). On the other hand, hyperthyroidism may be caused by thyroiditis or the donation of iodine, as amiodarone contains a large amount of iodine.

      Aside from thyroid issues, amiodarone can also lead to other side effects such as pulmonary fibrosis and photosensitivity reactions. It is important to monitor thyroid function tests regularly when taking amiodarone and to report any symptoms of thyroid dysfunction to a healthcare provider.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 93 - A 58-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of headaches and blurred vision...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of headaches and blurred vision that have been present for two days. He has been taking amlodipine 5 mg, which was prescribed at the same clinic two weeks ago. During the examination, his blood pressure is measured at 190/115 mmHg. Although his cardiovascular examination is unremarkable, retinal hemorrhages are observed during fundoscopy, but no papilledema is present. What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for urgent specialist care on the same day

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Referral to Specialist Care for Hypertension

      According to NICE guidelines, patients with accelerated hypertension or suspected phaeochromocytoma should be referred to specialist care on the same day. Accelerated hypertension is defined as having a blood pressure usually higher than 180/120 mmHg with signs of papilloedema and/or retinal haemorrhage. Suspected phaeochromocytoma is characterized by labile or postural hypotension, headache, palpitations, pallor, and diaphoresis.

      It is important to note that if a patient presents with a blood pressure higher than 180/120 mmHg, it is crucial to examine their fundi and check for the presence or absence of papilloedema or retinal haemorrhages. Additionally, healthcare professionals should consider the need for specialist investigations in patients with signs and symptoms suggesting a secondary cause of hypertension. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure that patients receive appropriate and timely care for their hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 94 - What is the only true statement about high blood pressure from the given...

    Incorrect

    • What is the only true statement about high blood pressure from the given list?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treatment of hypertension reduces the risk of coronary heart disease by approximately 20%.

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hypertension: Prevalence, Types, and Treatment

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that affects both men and women, with its prevalence increasing with age. Essential hypertension, which has no identifiable cause, is the most common type of hypertension, affecting 95% of hypertensive patients. However, indications for further evaluation include resistant hypertension and early, late, or rapid onset of high blood pressure.

      Reducing blood pressure by an average of 12/6 mm Hg can significantly reduce the risk of stroke and coronary heart disease. Salt restriction, alcohol reduction, smoking cessation, aerobic exercise, and weight loss can also help reduce blood pressure by 3-5 mmHg, comparable to some drug treatments.

      In severe cases, hypertension can lead to target organ damage, resulting in a hypertensive emergency. Malignant hypertension, which is diagnosed when papilloedema is present, can cause symptoms such as severe headache, visual disturbance, dyspnoea, chest pain, nausea, and neurological deficit.

      Understanding hypertension and its types is crucial in managing and treating this condition. By implementing lifestyle changes and seeking medical attention when necessary, individuals can reduce their risk of hypertension-related complications.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 95 - A 65-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner for his annual asthma review....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner for his annual asthma review. He has no daytime symptoms and occasionally uses his ventolin inhaler at night when suffering from a viral infection. His only other medical history is of urinary incontinence, for which he has been fully investigated, and three episodes of gout in the last five years.
      On examination, his respiratory rate is 16 breaths per minute, his heart rate 64 bpm and his blood pressure is 168/82 mmHg. Subsequent home blood pressure readings confirm isolated systolic hypertension.
      Which of the following is the single most suitable medication for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      Management of Isolated Systolic Hypertension: Drug Options and Considerations

      Isolated systolic hypertension, characterized by elevated systolic blood pressure and normal diastolic blood pressure, is managed similarly to systolic plus diastolic hypertension. Amlodipine, a dihydropyridine calcium-channel blocker, is the preferred first-line drug for treating isolated systolic hypertension in patients over 55 years old.

      Before starting any medication, a new diagnosis of hypertension should be confirmed through ambulatory blood pressure monitoring or home blood pressure monitoring. Additionally, an assessment for evidence of end-organ damage and 10-year cardiovascular risk should be conducted, along with a discussion about modifiable risk factors such as diet, exercise, sodium intake, alcohol consumption, caffeine, and smoking.

      Indapamide, a thiazide diuretic, is typically used as a second or third step in the treatment protocol. However, it may exacerbate gout and worsen urinary problems.

      Beta-blockers, such as atenolol, were previously recommended as second-line treatment for hypertension. However, they can cause hyperglycemia and are now at step 4 of the management plan. Beta-blockers are also contraindicated in asthma, making them unsuitable for some patients.

      Doxazosin, which is at step 4 of the hypertension management plan, may cause urinary incontinence and is not appropriate for all patients.

      Valsartan, an angiotensin 2 receptor blocker, is a first-line option for patients under 55 years old, along with an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. It may be added at step 2 if necessary for patients over 55 years old.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 96 - In this case where a 50-year-old man was diagnosed with hypertension and started...

    Incorrect

    • In this case where a 50-year-old man was diagnosed with hypertension and started on Ramipril 2.5mg, with subsequent blood tests showing a 20% reduction in eGFR but stable renal function and serum electrolytes, what would be the recommended course of action according to NICE guidelines?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop Ramipril and replace with calcium channel blocker

      Explanation:

      Managing Abnormal Results when Initiating or Increasing ACE-I Dose

      When initiating or increasing the dose of an ACE-I, it is important to monitor for any abnormal results. According to NICE, a slight increase in serum creatinine and potassium is expected. However, if the eGFR reduction is 25% or less (or serum creatinine increase of less than 30%), no modification to the treatment regime is needed, as long as no further reductions occur.

      If the eGFR decrease is 25% or more, it is important to consider other potential causes such as volume depletion, other nephrotoxic drugs, or vasodilators. If none of these are applicable, it may be necessary to stop the ACE-I or reduce the dose to a previously tolerated level. It is recommended to recheck levels in 5-7 days to ensure that the treatment is effective and safe for the patient. By closely monitoring and managing abnormal results, healthcare professionals can ensure that patients receive the best possible care when taking ACE-Is.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 97 - A 75-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension is seen in clinic. There is no evidence of diabetic retinopathy, chronic kidney disease or cardiovascular disease in his records.

      He is currently taking the following medications:
      simvastatin 20 mg once daily
      ramipril 10 mg once daily
      amlodipine 5mg once daily
      metformin 1g twice daily

      Recent blood results are as follows:

      Na+ 142 mmol/l
      K+ 4.4 mmol/l
      Urea 7.2 mmol/l
      Creatinine 86 µmol/l
      HbA1c 45 mmol/mol (6.3%)

      The urine dipstick shows no proteinuria. His blood pressure in clinic today is 134/76 mmHg.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No changes to medication required

      Explanation:

      Since there are no complications from her diabetes, the target blood pressure remains < 140/80 mmHg and her antihypertensive regime doesn't need to be altered. Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers. Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight. Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age. The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added. If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 98 - A 72-year-old bus driver comes to you for consultation after undergoing an abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old bus driver comes to you for consultation after undergoing an abdominal ultrasound scan as part of a routine health check. The scan reveals an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) measuring 4 cm, and he has no symptoms.
      What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for annual ultrasound surveillance

      Explanation:

      Recommended Actions for Patients with Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm

      Patients with an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) require careful monitoring and appropriate actions to prevent complications. Here are some recommended actions based on the size of the AAA and the patient’s condition:

      Annual ultrasound surveillance: Asymptomatic patients with an AAA measuring 3.0–4.4 cm should undergo annual ultrasound monitoring to detect any changes in size or shape. This can help identify the need for further intervention, such as surgery or endovascular repair. In addition, patients should be advised to quit smoking, control their blood pressure, and take statins and antiplatelet therapy as needed.

      Refer for follow-up ultrasound in three months: If the AAA measures between 4.5 and 5.4 cm, a follow-up ultrasound should be arranged in three months to monitor any progression. This can help determine the optimal timing for intervention and prevent rupture or dissection.

      Advise the patient to inform the DVLA and cease driving: Patients who have an AAA and hold a Group 2 driving license must notify the Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA) and stop driving if the aneurysm diameter is larger than 5.5 cm. This is to ensure the safety of the patient and other road users.

      Arrange a repeat scan in one year: The recommended screening interval for AAA is determined by its size, with a maximum interval of one year. Therefore, patients with an AAA measuring more than 5.5 cm or with rapid growth should undergo repeat scans every six months to one year to monitor any changes.

      Monitor all patients with an AAA: Regardless of symptoms, all patients with an AAA measuring more than 3 cm require monitoring and appropriate actions to prevent complications. If the patient develops symptoms such as pain, they may need additional investigation and possible intervention to prevent rupture or dissection.

      By following these recommended actions, patients with an AAA can receive timely and appropriate care to prevent complications and improve their outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 99 - A 50-year-old woman, who has a history of atrial fibrillation and is receiving...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman, who has a history of atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin and digoxin, tells you that she has been feeling low lately and has been self medicating with St John's wort which she bought from a health store.

      Which of the following interactions can be anticipated between St John's Wort and her current medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: INR is likely to be reduced

      Explanation:

      St John’s Wort and Medication Interactions

      St John’s wort is a popular natural remedy for depressive symptoms. However, it is important to note that it is a liver enzyme inducer, which can lead to interactions with other medications. For example, St John’s wort may reduce the efficacy of warfarin, a blood thinner, requiring an increased dose to maintain the desired level of anticoagulation. It may also reduce the efficacy of digoxin, a medication used to treat heart failure. Therefore, it is important to discuss the use of St John’s wort with a healthcare provider before taking it in combination with other medications. By doing so, potential interactions can be identified and managed appropriately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 100 - You see a 65-year-old gentleman who was diagnosed with heart failure and an...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 65-year-old gentleman who was diagnosed with heart failure and an ejection fraction of 35%. He is currently on the maximum tolerated dose of an ACE-I and beta blocker. He reports to still be symptomatic from his heart failure.

      What would be the next appropriate step in his management to improve his prognosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to a heart failure specialist as no other drugs should be prescribed in primary care

      Explanation:

      MRA Treatment for Heart Failure Patients

      According to NICE guidelines, patients with heart failure and a reduced ejection fraction who continue to experience symptoms of heart failure should be offered an MRA such as spironolactone or eplerenone. Previously, only a heart failure specialist could initiate these treatments. However, now it is recommended that all healthcare professionals involved in the care of heart failure patients should consider offering these treatments to improve symptoms and reduce the risk of hospitalization. This guideline update aims to ensure that more patients have access to effective treatments for heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 101 - A 70-year-old man is diagnosed with chronic stable angina at his Cardiology Clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man is diagnosed with chronic stable angina at his Cardiology Clinic appointment. He has normal left ventricular function on echocardiogram. He presents to his General Practitioner to discuss treatment options. He has no significant medical history or regular medication but is an ex-smoker who quit 20 years ago. On examination, his blood pressure is 120/76 mmHg and his heart rate is 70 bpm.
      Which of the following medications is the single most appropriate first therapy for symptom control?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atenolol

      Explanation:

      Pharmacological Management of Chronic Angina Pectoris

      Beta-blockers are the primary pharmacological treatment for chronic angina pectoris. They are effective in reducing the frequency and duration of anginal episodes, improving exercise tolerance, and preventing some arrhythmias. Beta-blockers work by inhibiting the effects of catecholamines on the beta-adrenergic receptor, which reduces heart rate and improves coronary perfusion. Simvastatin and angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors are important for secondary prevention in patients with atherosclerosis, but they do not control angina symptoms. Long-acting nitrates and rate-limiting calcium channel blockers are used for symptom control if beta-blockers are contraindicated or ineffective. However, they are typically added later in treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 102 - A patient who is 65 years old calls you from overseas. He was...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who is 65 years old calls you from overseas. He was recently discharged from a hospital in Spain after experiencing a heart attack. The hospital did not report any complications and he did not undergo a percutaneous coronary intervention. What is the minimum amount of time he should wait before flying back home?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: After 7-10 days

      Explanation:

      After a period of 7-10 days, the individual’s fitness to fly will be assessed.

      The CAA has issued guidelines on air travel for people with medical conditions. Patients with certain cardiovascular diseases, uncomplicated myocardial infarction, coronary artery bypass graft, and percutaneous coronary intervention may fly after a certain period of time. Patients with respiratory diseases should be clinically improved with no residual infection before flying. Pregnant women may not be allowed to travel after a certain number of weeks and may require a certificate confirming the pregnancy is progressing normally. Patients who have had surgery should avoid flying for a certain period of time depending on the type of surgery. Patients with haematological disorders may travel without problems if their haemoglobin is greater than 8 g/dl and there are no coexisting conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 103 - Which lipid profile result would warrant the strongest recommendation for referral to a...

    Incorrect

    • Which lipid profile result would warrant the strongest recommendation for referral to a specialist lipid clinic?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: LDL cholesterol of 5 mmol/L

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Specialist Lipid Clinics in Managing Adverse Lipid Profiles

      Specialist lipid clinics are crucial in managing adverse lipid profiles, particularly those with a familial origin. Elevated levels of lipid profile components can significantly increase the risk of cardiovascular disease, necessitating more aggressive treatment to mitigate this risk. Hypertriglyceridaemia, in particular, is a risk factor for pancreatitis.

      To determine when referral to a lipid clinic is necessary, certain levels of total cholesterol, LDL cholesterol, and non-HDL cholesterol must be met. These figures are outlined in the learning point and serve as a guide for healthcare professionals in identifying patients who require specialist lipid care. With the help of lipid clinics, patients can receive tailored treatment plans to manage their lipid profiles and reduce their risk of cardiovascular disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 104 - A 46-year-old Caucasian man has consistently high blood pressure readings above 155/95 mmHg....

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old Caucasian man has consistently high blood pressure readings above 155/95 mmHg. Despite being asymptomatic, he doesn't regularly monitor his blood pressure at home. His cardiovascular exam and fundoscopy are unremarkable, and his 12-lead ECG doesn't indicate left ventricular hypertrophy. He is currently taking a combination of amlodipine, ramipril, indapamide, and spironolactone. What is the most appropriate next step in his treatment plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add hydralazine

      Explanation:

      Seeking Expert Advice for Resistant Blood Pressure

      As per NICE guidelines, if a patient is already taking four antihypertensive medications and their blood pressure remains resistant, it is recommended to seek expert advice. This is because if the blood pressure remains uncontrolled even after taking the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, it may indicate a need for further evaluation and management. Seeking expert advice can help in identifying any underlying causes of resistant hypertension and developing an effective treatment plan. Therefore, it is important to consult with a specialist if the blood pressure remains uncontrolled despite taking four antihypertensive medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 105 - Which of the following combination of symptoms is most consistent with digoxin toxicity?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following combination of symptoms is most consistent with digoxin toxicity?