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  • Question 1 - A 4-year-old boy is brought to see his General Practitioner by his mother...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old boy is brought to see his General Practitioner by his mother who is concerned that he has had diarrhoea for three days. He has been experiencing 2–3 loose, watery stools every day. He has also vomited twice at the onset of the illness but not since.
      On examination, he is afebrile and well hydrated. His abdomen is soft and nontender. The family recently returned from a trip to Australia. While away, the patient was admitted to hospital for two days with a lower respiratory tract infection.
      Which of the patient’s features is most likely to indicate the need for a stool sample for culture and sensitivity?
      Select the SINGLE factor from the list below.

      Your Answer: The recent hospital admission

      Explanation:

      Assessing the Need for Stool Culture in a Child with Gastroenteritis

      Gastroenteritis is a common illness characterized by diarrhea, abdominal pain, and nausea. In most cases, it is caused by a viral, bacterial, or parasitic infection and is self-limiting. However, recent hospital admission or antibiotic treatment can increase the risk of Clostridium difficile toxin as the cause, making stool culture necessary. Additionally, patients who have recently traveled to certain countries or are under the age of five and attend nursery, pre-school, or school may require stool culture. If symptoms persist beyond seven days or if there is blood or mucus in the stool, stool samples should be taken. Vomiting is not a red-flag feature unless it leads to dehydration. Parents should be given safety-net advice on when to seek further medical attention if their child’s condition worsens.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      26.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 52-year-old man visits the clinic with concerns about a gradual decline in...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old man visits the clinic with concerns about a gradual decline in his hearing ability over the past few months. His wife urged him to seek medical attention as she noticed he was having difficulty hearing conversations and needed to turn up the volume on the TV and radio. Upon examination, otoscopy reveals no abnormalities in either ear. The Rinne's test is positive bilaterally, and the Weber test is normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Presbycusis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Causes of Hearing Loss: A Brief Overview

      Hearing loss can be caused by a variety of factors, including age-related changes, tumors, infections, and genetic conditions. Here are some key features to help differentiate between some of the most common causes of hearing loss:

      Presbycusis: This is age-related hearing loss that affects high-frequency sounds and is irreversible. Management includes reassurance and discussion of hearing aid options.

      Acoustic Neuroma: This is a benign tumor of the vestibulocochlear nerve that can cause unilateral tinnitus and hearing loss, as well as facial numbness and balance problems. Bilateral hearing loss without other symptoms makes this diagnosis unlikely.

      Cholesteatoma: This condition is characterized by recurrent or persistent ear discharge, conductive hearing loss, and ear discomfort. Otoscopy may reveal a deep retraction pocket or pearly white mass behind the intact tympanic membrane. This patient has sensorineural rather than conductive hearing loss.

      Ménière’s Disease: This condition typically presents with fluctuating hearing loss, vertigo, and tinnitus. Aural fullness may also be present. This patient does not have all the symptoms to meet the criteria for this diagnosis.

      Otosclerosis: This is a form of conductive hearing loss that typically occurs in early adulthood and may be accompanied by tinnitus and transient vertigo. Sensorineural hearing loss in an older patient makes this diagnosis unlikely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      28.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following is a live attenuated vaccine? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a live attenuated vaccine?

      Your Answer: Mumps

      Explanation:

      Live attenuated vaccines include BCG, MMR, oral polio, yellow fever, and oral typhoid.

      Types of Vaccines and Their Characteristics

      Vaccines are essential in preventing the spread of infectious diseases. However, it is crucial to understand the different types of vaccines and their characteristics to ensure their safety and effectiveness. Live attenuated vaccines, such as BCG, MMR, and oral polio, may pose a risk to immunocompromised patients. In contrast, inactivated preparations, including rabies and hepatitis A, are safe for everyone. Toxoid vaccines, such as tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis, use inactivated toxins to generate an immune response. Subunit and conjugate vaccines, such as pneumococcus, haemophilus, meningococcus, hepatitis B, and human papillomavirus, use only part of the pathogen or link bacterial polysaccharide outer coats to proteins to make them more immunogenic. Influenza vaccines come in different types, including whole inactivated virus, split virion, and sub-unit. Cholera vaccine contains inactivated strains of Vibrio cholerae and recombinant B-subunit of the cholera toxin. Hepatitis B vaccine contains HBsAg adsorbed onto aluminium hydroxide adjuvant and is prepared from yeast cells using recombinant DNA technology. Understanding the different types of vaccines and their characteristics is crucial in making informed decisions about vaccination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old woman came to your GP clinic with a cold sore and...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman came to your GP clinic with a cold sore and left eye discomfort. She reported experiencing a red, painful eye with watering and sensitivity to light for the past 3 days. During fluorescein examination, you observed a dendritic ulcer on the cornea that was stained with fluorescein.

      What is the primary treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Topical aciclovir drops

      Explanation:

      The appropriate treatment for herpes simplex keratitis is the use of topical aciclovir. Antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections and should not be used. The use of steroids can worsen the condition and should be avoided. If the patient is already using topical steroids for another eye condition, the dosage should be decreased.

      Understanding Herpes Simplex Keratitis

      Herpes simplex keratitis is a condition that affects the cornea of the eye and is caused by the herpes simplex virus. The most common symptom of this condition is a dendritic corneal ulcer, which can cause a red, painful eye, photophobia, and epiphora. In some cases, visual acuity may also be decreased. Fluorescein staining may show an epithelial ulcer, which can help with diagnosis. One common treatment for this condition is topical aciclovir, which can help to reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent further damage to the cornea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      52.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Both restrictive lung disease and obstructive lung disease may affect a particular pulmonary...

    Correct

    • Both restrictive lung disease and obstructive lung disease may affect a particular pulmonary function test to a similar extent. Which test is this? Please select only one option from the list provided.

      Your Answer: Tidal volume

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary Function Tests: Understanding Tidal Volume, Total Lung Capacity, Residual Volume, FEV1/FVC Ratio, and FEV1

      Pulmonary function tests (PFTs) are a group of tests that measure how well the lungs are functioning. There are several parameters that are measured during PFTs, including tidal volume (TV), total lung capacity (TLC), residual volume (RV), forced expiratory volume in 1 second/forced vital capacity (FEV1/FVC) ratio, and forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1).

      Tidal volume refers to the amount of gas inspired or expired with each breath. It can be reduced in both obstructive and restrictive lung disease, but the underlying mechanism causing the reduction is different. In obstructive lung disease, there is airflow limitation, while in restrictive lung disease, there is reduced lung volume or inability to fully expand the thoracic cage.

      Total lung capacity is the volume of air in the lungs after a maximal inspiration. It is increased in obstructive lung disease due to air trapping, but is reduced in restrictive lung disease.

      Residual volume is the volume of air remaining in the lungs after a maximal expiration. It cannot be measured with spirometry, but it is increased in obstructive lung disease due to air trapping.

      The FEV1/FVC ratio is a measure of how much air a person can forcefully exhale in one second compared to the total amount of air they can exhale. A ratio of less than 70% is indicative of obstructive lung disease, while a ratio greater than 70% is indicative of restrictive lung disease.

      FEV1 is the amount of air a person can forcefully exhale in one second. It is characteristically reduced in obstructive lung disease, but normal in restrictive lung disease because there is no airflow limitation.

      Understanding these parameters can help healthcare professionals diagnose and manage lung diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      37.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 12-month-old African-Caribbean boy is brought to see his General Practitioner by his...

    Correct

    • A 12-month-old African-Caribbean boy is brought to see his General Practitioner by his mother with a 6-day history of fever, reduced feeding and increased irritability. His mother has also noticed this morning that his fingers and toes are swollen and tense and some of the skin is peeling. He is reluctant to play with toys or walk. On examination, he is pale, his lips are cracked and there are no rashes present. Ear, nose and throat (ENT) examinations reveal the presence of a red, swollen tongue he also has swollen, tender digits of his hands and feet.
      He is admitted to hospital and his full blood count (FBC) result is shown below:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 88 g/l 100–135 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 6.2 × 109/l 3.8–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 150 × 109/l 150–400 × 1109/l
      Mean corpuscular volume 93 fl 85–105 fl
      Reticulocytes 6% 0.2–2%
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Kawasaki disease

      Explanation:

      Kawasaki disease is a condition that causes inflammation in small and medium blood vessels, particularly in the coronary vessels. Children with this disease typically experience a high fever lasting more than five days, along with symptoms such as a strawberry tongue, dry cracked lips, rashes, peeling skin on the hands and feet, conjunctivitis, and swollen and painful hands and feet.

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that can cause bone pain and swelling in children, as well as unexplained fever, lethargy, recurrent infections, headaches, petechiae or purpura, and splenomegaly. However, a high white blood cell count would be present in ALL, which would be absent in this patient. Anaemia and thrombocytopenia are also common in ALL.

      Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by low levels of albumin and protein in the urine due to damage to the basement membrane of the renal glomerulus. Children with this condition typically experience swelling in the face, feet, abdomen, and genitals, but not in the fingers and toes as seen in this patient.

      Rheumatic fever is a reaction to a bacterial infection, usually caused by group A streptococcus. Symptoms may include fever, abdominal pain, carditis, Sydenham’s chorea, and a rash, but joint pain typically affects the ankles, knees, elbows, and wrists rather than the hands and feet.

      Sickle cell disease is an inherited condition that causes abnormal sickle-shaped red blood cells, leading to blockages in small blood vessels and chronic anemia. It is most common in Black African and Black Caribbean populations. Symptoms may include jaundice, anemia, and acute dactylitis, and screening is recommended for high-risk ethnic groups. A diagnosis of hemolysis is supported by a high reticulocyte count and normocytic anemia on FBC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      35.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old man arrives at the emergency department following a serious car accident...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man arrives at the emergency department following a serious car accident resulting in chest injuries. The paramedics had trouble establishing IV access. Upon arrival, he is unresponsive with a ventricular fibrillation ECG. ALS is initiated, but multiple attempts at cannulation fail. However, successful intubation is achieved.
      What is the best course of action for administering ALS medications in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Intraosseous line insertion

      Explanation:

      If it is not possible to obtain IV access in ALS, medications should be administered through the intraosseous route (IO) instead of the tracheal route, which is no longer advised.

      The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus is seen in the diabetes...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus is seen in the diabetes clinic. Her blood tests from three months ago showed:
      K+ 4.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 116 µmol/l
      eGFR 47 ml/min
      She was started on lisinopril to manage hypertension and protect her kidneys. The medication was titrated up to the treatment dose. Her current blood results are:
      K+ 4.9 mmol/l
      Creatinine 123 µmol/l
      eGFR 44 ml/min
      What is the most appropriate action to take in this situation?

      Your Answer: No action

      Explanation:

      The slight alterations in creatinine and eGFR are within acceptable limits and do not warrant discontinuation of ACE inhibitors.

      Hypertension Management in Chronic Kidney Disease

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) patients often require more than two drugs to manage hypertension. The first-line treatment is ACE inhibitors, which are particularly effective in proteinuric renal disease such as diabetic nephropathy. However, these drugs may cause a small decrease in glomerular filtration pressure (GFR) and a rise in creatinine. According to NICE guidelines, a decrease in eGFR of up to 25% or a rise in creatinine of up to 30% is acceptable, but any increase should prompt careful monitoring and exclusion of other causes such as NSAIDs. A rise greater than this may indicate underlying renovascular disease.

      Furosemide is a useful antihypertensive drug in CKD patients, especially when the GFR falls below 45 ml/min. It also helps to lower serum potassium levels. However, high doses are usually required, and if the patient becomes dehydrated due to conditions such as gastroenteritis, the drug should be temporarily stopped. The NKF K/DOQI guidelines suggest a lower cut-off of less than 30 ml/min. Overall, hypertension management in CKD patients requires careful monitoring and individualized treatment plans.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old female complains of an itchy vulva and painful intercourse. She reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female complains of an itchy vulva and painful intercourse. She reports experiencing a green, malodorous vaginal discharge for the last 14 days. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bacterial vaginosis

      Correct Answer: Trichomonas vaginalis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Trichomonas vaginalis and its Comparison to Bacterial Vaginosis

      Trichomonas vaginalis is a type of protozoan parasite that is highly motile and flagellated. It is known to cause trichomoniasis, which is a sexually transmitted infection. The infection is characterized by symptoms such as offensive, yellow/green, frothy vaginal discharge, vulvovaginitis, and strawberry cervix. The pH level is usually above 4.5, and in men, it may cause urethritis.

      To diagnose trichomoniasis, a wet mount microscopy is conducted to observe the motile trophozoites. The treatment for trichomoniasis involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, although a one-off dose of 2g metronidazole may also be used.

      When compared to bacterial vaginosis, trichomoniasis has distinct differences. Bacterial vaginosis is caused by an overgrowth of bacteria in the vagina, while trichomoniasis is caused by a protozoan parasite. The symptoms of bacterial vaginosis include a thin, grayish-white vaginal discharge with a fishy odor, and a pH level above 4.5. Unlike trichomoniasis, bacterial vaginosis is not considered a sexually transmitted infection.

      In conclusion, understanding the differences between trichomoniasis and bacterial vaginosis is crucial in diagnosing and treating these conditions effectively. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help prevent complications and improve overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A mother brings in her 8-year-old daughter to the pediatrician's office. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings in her 8-year-old daughter to the pediatrician's office. She is worried because she has noticed that her daughter has been showing signs of breast development for the past 3 months. The mother is concerned that her daughter may be experiencing early puberty. What course of action would you recommend?

      Your Answer: Check sex hormone levels

      Correct Answer: Reassure her that this is normal development

      Explanation:

      If a girl develops secondary sexual characteristics before the age of 8 and a boy before the age of 9, it is considered precocious puberty. However, if a girl is developing within the normal time frame, such as breast development, there is no need for the mother to worry or seek medical attention. Checking sex hormones or referring to a pediatric specialist is unnecessary as the child is developing normally and the breast development will continue as part of the natural pubertal process.

      Understanding Precocious Puberty

      Precocious puberty is a condition where secondary sexual characteristics develop earlier than expected, before the age of 8 in females and 9 in males. It is more common in females and can be classified into two types: gonadotrophin dependent and gonadotrophin independent. The former is caused by premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis, resulting in raised levels of FSH and LH. The latter is caused by excess sex hormones, with low levels of FSH and LH. In males, precocious puberty is uncommon and usually has an organic cause, such as gonadotrophin release from an intracranial lesion, gonadal tumour, or adrenal cause. In females, it is usually idiopathic or familial and follows the normal sequence of puberty. Organic causes are rare and associated with rapid onset, neurological symptoms and signs, and dissonance, such as in McCune Albright syndrome. Understanding precocious puberty is important for early detection and management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      22.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 4-year-old boy is brought to the doctor's office because of a rash...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old boy is brought to the doctor's office because of a rash on his upper arm. During the examination, the doctor observes several raised lesions that are approximately 2 mm in diameter. Upon closer inspection, a central dimple is visible in most of the lesions. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Molluscum contagiosum

      Explanation:

      Understanding Molluscum Contagiosum

      Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin infection that is commonly seen in children, particularly those with atopic eczema. It is caused by the molluscum contagiosum virus and can be transmitted through direct contact or contaminated surfaces. The infection presents as pinkish or pearly white papules with a central umbilication, which can appear anywhere on the body except for the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. In children, lesions are commonly seen on the trunk and in flexures, while in adults, sexual contact may lead to lesions developing on the genitalia, pubis, thighs, and lower abdomen.

      While molluscum contagiosum is a self-limiting condition that usually resolves within 18 months, it is important to avoid sharing towels, clothing, and baths with uninfected individuals to prevent transmission. Scratching the lesions should also be avoided, and treatment may be considered if the itch is problematic. However, treatment is not usually recommended, and if necessary, simple trauma or cryotherapy may be used. In some cases, referral may be necessary, such as for individuals who are HIV-positive with extensive lesions or those with eyelid-margin or ocular lesions and associated red eye.

      Overall, understanding molluscum contagiosum and taking appropriate precautions can help prevent transmission and alleviate symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      25.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 30-year-old male patient comes to you with a rash that has spread...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male patient comes to you with a rash that has spread all over his body. He has multiple erythematous lesions less than 1 cm in diameter on his torso and limbs, some of which are covered by a fine scale. Two weeks ago, he had exudative tonsillitis when he was seen with a sore throat. Apart from asthma, he has no other medical history. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pityriasis versicolor

      Correct Answer: Guttate psoriasis

      Explanation:

      Tear-drop scaly papules suddenly appearing on the trunk and limbs may indicate guttate psoriasis.

      Guttate psoriasis is a type of psoriasis that is more commonly seen in children and adolescents. It is often triggered by a streptococcal infection that occurred 2-4 weeks prior to the appearance of the lesions. The name guttate comes from the Latin word for drop, as the lesions appear as small, tear-shaped papules on the trunk and limbs. These papules are pink and scaly, and the onset of the condition is usually acute, occurring over a few days.

      In most cases, guttate psoriasis will resolve on its own within 2-3 months. There is no clear evidence to support the use of antibiotics to treat the underlying streptococcal infection. Treatment options for guttate psoriasis include topical agents commonly used for psoriasis and UVB phototherapy. In cases where the condition recurs, a tonsillectomy may be necessary.

      It is important to differentiate guttate psoriasis from pityriasis rosea, another skin condition that can present with similar symptoms. Guttate psoriasis is often preceded by a streptococcal sore throat, while pityriasis rosea may be preceded by a respiratory tract infection. The appearance of guttate psoriasis is characterized by tear-shaped papules on the trunk and limbs, while pityriasis rosea presents with a herald patch followed by multiple oval lesions with a fine scale. While guttate psoriasis resolves within a few months, pityriasis rosea typically resolves after around 6 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      27.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 28-year-old man undergoes surgical resection of the terminal ileum for stricturing Crohn's...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man undergoes surgical resection of the terminal ileum for stricturing Crohn's disease. His gastroenterologist decides to begin azathioprine for remission maintenance after the surgery. What is the crucial enzyme level to test before starting this treatment?

      Your Answer: Thiopurine S-methyltransferase (TPMT)

      Explanation:

      Azathioprine is a medication that is broken down into mercaptopurine, which is an active compound that inhibits the production of purine. To determine if someone is at risk for azathioprine toxicity, a test for thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) may be necessary. Adverse effects of this medication include bone marrow depression, which can be detected through a full blood count if there are signs of infection or bleeding, as well as nausea, vomiting, pancreatitis, and an increased risk of non-melanoma skin cancer. It is important to note that there is a significant interaction between azathioprine and allopurinol, so lower doses of azathioprine should be used in conjunction with allopurinol. Despite these potential side effects, azathioprine is generally considered safe to use during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      32.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following medications does not lead to galactorrhea? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following medications does not lead to galactorrhea?

      Your Answer: Metoclopramide

      Correct Answer: Bromocriptine

      Explanation:

      Bromocriptine is used to treat galactorrhoea, not to induce it.

      Understanding Prolactin and Galactorrhoea

      Prolactin is a hormone produced by the anterior pituitary gland, and its release is regulated by various physiological factors. Dopamine is the primary inhibitor of prolactin release, and dopamine agonists like bromocriptine can be used to manage galactorrhoea. Galactorrhoea is a condition characterized by the production of breast milk in individuals who are not breastfeeding. It is important to distinguish the causes of galactorrhoea from those of gynaecomastia, which is the enlargement of male breast tissue.

      Excess prolactin can lead to different symptoms in men and women. Men may experience impotence, loss of libido, and galactorrhoea, while women may have amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea. Several factors can cause raised prolactin levels, including prolactinoma, pregnancy, oestrogens, stress, exercise, sleep, acromegaly, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and primary hypothyroidism. Additionally, certain medications like metoclopramide, domperidone, phenothiazines, haloperidol, SSRIs, and opioids can also increase prolactin levels.

      In summary, understanding prolactin and its effects on the body is crucial in diagnosing and managing conditions like galactorrhoea. Identifying the underlying causes of raised prolactin levels is essential in providing appropriate treatment and improving patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      10.2
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  • Question 15 - A 65-year-old man is brought to his General Practitioner by his daughter, who...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man is brought to his General Practitioner by his daughter, who has noticed that his hearing on the right side has been progressively diminishing for the past six months. Additionally, he also complains of feeling unbalanced and of not being able to walk properly and leaning more towards the right side. On referral to the Ear, Nose and Throat (ENT) Department, the Consultant conducts a detailed clinical examination and finds nystagmus and dysdiadochokinesia, in addition to a sensorineural loss in his right ear.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Acoustic Neuroma

      Acoustic neuroma is a condition characterized by unilateral hearing loss and unsteady gait. The following diagnostic tests can aid in the diagnosis of this condition:

      Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI): This is the preferred test for detecting acoustic neuroma as it can detect tumors as small as 1-1.3 mm. MRI with gadolinium contrast is recommended in cases where brainstem testing is abnormal or there is a high suspicion of vestibular schwannoma.

      Plain Computerized Tomography (CT) Scan: CT scan with contrast can provide prognostic information on post-operative hearing loss by assessing the widening of the internal auditory canal and the extent of tumor growth. However, plain CT cannot detect some cases of acoustic neuroma.

      Otoscopy: This test is useful in diagnosing conditions of bone conduction deafness but is of limited or no value in cases of sensorineural deafness.

      Pure Tone Audiometry (PTA): This is the best initial screening laboratory test for the diagnosis of acoustic neuroma. Test results typically show an asymmetric sensorineural hearing loss, usually more prominent at higher frequencies.

      Vestibular Colorimetric Test: This test has limited utility as a screening test for the diagnosis of acoustic neuroma. A decreased or absent caloric response on the affected side may be seen, but with small-sized tumors, a normal response is often seen.

      In conclusion, a combination of these diagnostic tests can aid in the accurate diagnosis of acoustic neuroma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 68-year-old man complains of a burning sensation around his left eye. Upon...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man complains of a burning sensation around his left eye. Upon examination, a rash with erythematous blisters is visible in the left trigeminal distribution. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Herpes zoster ophthalmicus

      Explanation:

      Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus: Symptoms, Treatment, and Complications

      Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) is a condition that occurs when the varicella-zoster virus reactivates in the area supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It is responsible for approximately 10% of shingles cases. The main symptom of HZO is a vesicular rash around the eye, which may or may not involve the eye itself. Hutchinson’s sign, a rash on the tip or side of the nose, is a strong indicator of nasociliary involvement and increases the risk of ocular involvement.

      Treatment for HZO involves oral antiviral medication for 7-10 days, ideally started within 72 hours of symptom onset. Intravenous antivirals may be necessary for severe infections or immunocompromised patients. Topical antiviral treatment is not recommended for HZO, but topical corticosteroids may be used to treat any secondary inflammation of the eye. Ocular involvement requires urgent ophthalmology review to prevent complications such as conjunctivitis, keratitis, episcleritis, anterior uveitis, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.

      In summary, HZO is a condition caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It presents with a vesicular rash around the eye and may involve the eye itself. Treatment involves oral antiviral medication and urgent ophthalmology review is necessary for ocular involvement. Complications of HZO include various eye conditions, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 25-year-old woman came to your GP clinic complaining of sudden onset itching,...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman came to your GP clinic complaining of sudden onset itching, burning, and watering in both eyes. During the examination, you noticed moderate chemosis in both eyes and conjunctival follicles. You also discovered tender preauricular lymph nodes while palpating her neck. She informed you that her boyfriend had similar symptoms a week ago. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Adenoviral conjunctivitis

      Explanation:

      Adenoviral conjunctivitis is easily spread from person to person. The patient’s boyfriend had the same condition a week ago, so it’s not surprising that she has it now. This type of viral conjunctivitis is the most common.
      There is no evidence of herpes simplex because there are no cold sores or dendritic ulcers visible with fluorescein uptake.
      Bacterial and chlamydial conjunctivitis are unlikely because there is no pus discharge. Allergic conjunctivitis is also unlikely because there is no history of atopy or itchiness.

      Conjunctivitis is a common eye problem that is often seen in primary care. It is characterized by red, sore eyes with a sticky discharge. There are two types of infective conjunctivitis: bacterial and viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is identified by a purulent discharge and eyes that may be stuck together in the morning. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a serous discharge and recent upper respiratory tract infection, as well as preauricular lymph nodes.

      In most cases, infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting condition that resolves without treatment within one to two weeks. However, topical antibiotic therapy is often offered to patients, such as Chloramphenicol drops given every two to three hours initially or Chloramphenicol ointment given four times a day initially. Alternatively, topical fusidic acid can be used, especially for pregnant women, and treatment is twice daily.

      For contact lens users, topical fluoresceins should be used to identify any corneal staining, and treatment should be the same as above. During an episode of conjunctivitis, contact lenses should not be worn, and patients should be advised not to share towels. School exclusion is not necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      29.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 48-year-old man presents with a painful erythematous fluctuant swelling over the posterior...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old man presents with a painful erythematous fluctuant swelling over the posterior elbow. There is no history of trauma. He is in good health and has full range of motion at the elbow.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Olecranon bursitis

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest olecranon bursitis, which is inflammation of the bursa over the olecranon process. This can be caused by trauma or may be idiopathic. The patient reports a posterior swelling at the elbow, which is tender and fluctuant. Management includes NSAIDs, RICE, and a compression bandage. If septic bursitis is suspected, antibiotics may be necessary. Golfer’s elbow, gout, and septic joint are less likely diagnoses. Tennis elbow, which is more common than golfer’s elbow, is characterized by pain in the lateral elbow and tenderness over the lateral epicondyle, but is not associated with a posterior swelling.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      19.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 50-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with sudden onset palpitations and...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with sudden onset palpitations and breathlessness after breakfast. The ECG shows atrial fibrillation. The physician advises her that she has an elevated risk of stroke and recommends starting anticoagulant medication. What scoring system is used to assess stroke risk in patients with atrial fibrillation?

      Your Answer: CHA2DS2-VASc

      Explanation:

      The CHA2DS2-VASc score is utilized for assessing the necessity of anticoagulation in patients with atrial fibrillation. The HAS-BLED score estimates the likelihood of major bleeding in patients receiving anticoagulation for atrial fibrillation. The DRAGON score predicts the 3-month outcome in patients with ischemic stroke who are treated with tissue plasminogen activator (tPA). The ABCD2 score is employed to determine the risk of stroke in patients who have experienced a suspected TIA.

      Common Scoring Systems in Medicine

      In medicine, there are various scoring systems used to assess and determine the severity of different conditions. These scoring systems help healthcare professionals make informed decisions about treatment options and patient care. Some of the most commonly used scoring systems include the CHA2DS2-VASc for anticoagulation in atrial fibrillation, the ABCD2 for risk stratifying patients who have had a suspected TIA, and the NYHA for assessing heart failure severity.

      Other scoring systems include the DAS28 for measuring disease activity in rheumatoid arthritis, the Child-Pugh classification for assessing the severity of liver cirrhosis, and the Wells score for estimating the risk of deep vein thrombosis. The MMSE is used to assess cognitive impairment, while the HAD and PHQ-9 are used to assess the severity of anxiety and depression symptoms. The GAD-7 is a screening tool for generalized anxiety disorder, and the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Score is used to screen for postnatal depression.

      Other scoring systems include the SCOFF questionnaire for detecting eating disorders, the AUDIT and CAGE for alcohol screening, and the FAST for identifying the symptoms of a stroke. The CURB-65 is used to assess the prognosis of a patient with pneumonia, while the Epworth Sleepiness Scale is used in the assessment of suspected obstructive sleep apnea. The IPSS and Gleason score are used to indicate prognosis in prostate cancer, while the APGAR assesses the health of a newborn immediately after birth. The Bishop score is used to help assess whether induction of labor will be required, and the Waterlow score assesses the risk of a patient developing a pressure sore. Finally, the FRAX is a risk assessment tool developed by WHO which calculates a patient’s 10-year risk of developing an osteoporosis-related fracture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A mother brings her 10-month-old baby to the doctor because of a diaper...

    Correct

    • A mother brings her 10-month-old baby to the doctor because of a diaper rash. During the examination, the doctor observes a red rash with flexural sparing. What is the probable reason for this?

      Your Answer: Irritant dermatitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Napkin Rashes and How to Manage Them

      Napkin rashes, also known as nappy rashes, are common skin irritations that affect babies and young children. The most common cause of napkin rash is irritant dermatitis, which is caused by the irritant effect of urinary ammonia and faeces. This type of rash typically spares the creases. Other causes of napkin rash include candida dermatitis, seborrhoeic dermatitis, psoriasis, and atopic eczema.

      To manage napkin rash, it is recommended to use disposable nappies instead of towel nappies and to expose the napkin area to air when possible. Applying a barrier cream, such as Zinc and castor oil, can also help. In severe cases, a mild steroid cream like 1% hydrocortisone may be necessary. If the rash is suspected to be candidal nappy rash, a topical imidazole should be used instead of a barrier cream until the candida has settled.

      Understanding the different types of napkin rashes and their causes is important in managing them effectively. By following these general management points, parents and caregivers can help prevent and alleviate napkin rashes in babies and young children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      30.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - An 88-year-old man with known metastatic prostate cancer is brought to the emergency...

    Correct

    • An 88-year-old man with known metastatic prostate cancer is brought to the emergency department confused. He is unable to provide further history but reports feeling generally unwell. Upon examination, his chest is clear, heart sounds normal, and abdomen is soft with no tenderness. The initial blood tests reveal:
      - Na+ 134 mmol/l
      - K+ 4.7 mmol/l
      - Urea 7.8 mmol/l
      - Creatinine 104 µmol/l
      - Adjusted Ca2+ 3.5 mmol/l
      - Mg2+ 0.81 mmol/l

      What would be your initial treatment plan?

      Your Answer: IV fluids

      Explanation:

      Severe cases (>3.0 mmol/l) requiring admission are often caused by malignancy, as seen in this patient. Treatment involves obtaining IV access and conducting appropriate biochemistry tests to check for other electrolyte abnormalities. A chest x-ray and ECG should also be performed. The first intervention should be fluid resuscitation to replace the deficit and maintain hydration, which may require large volumes (3-4 litres in the first 24 hours). If hypercalcaemia persists, IV bisphosphonates like zoledronate or pamidronate can be administered. Specific anticancer therapies can be considered after this.

      Managing Hypercalcaemia

      Hypercalcaemia is a condition where there is an excess of calcium in the blood. The initial management of hypercalcaemia involves rehydration with normal saline, typically 3-4 litres per day. This helps to flush out the excess calcium from the body. Once rehydration is achieved, bisphosphonates may be used to further lower the calcium levels. These drugs take 2-3 days to work, with maximal effect being seen at 7 days.

      Calcitonin is another option for managing hypercalcaemia. It works quicker than bisphosphonates but is less commonly used due to its short duration of action. Steroids may be used in sarcoidosis, a condition that can cause hypercalcaemia.

      Loop diuretics such as furosemide may also be used in hypercalcaemia, particularly in patients who cannot tolerate aggressive fluid rehydration. However, they should be used with caution as they may worsen electrolyte derangement and volume depletion.

      In summary, the management of hypercalcaemia involves rehydration with normal saline followed by the use of bisphosphonates or other medications depending on the underlying cause of the condition. It is important to monitor electrolyte levels and adjust treatment accordingly to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      44.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 25-year-old female presents with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections over...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female presents with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections over the past year. An abdominal ultrasound is performed and the results indicate normal size kidneys and no abnormalities in the urinary tract. The liver, spleen, and pancreas are also normal. The right ovary and uterus appear normal, but a 4 cm simple ovarian cyst is noted on the left ovary. What would be the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Routine referral to gynaecology

      Correct Answer: Repeat ultrasound in 12 weeks

      Explanation:

      Consider referral if the cyst remains after 12 weeks.

      Ovarian enlargement is typically diagnosed through ultrasound imaging, which can determine whether the cyst is simple or complex. Simple cysts are unilocular and more likely to be benign, while complex cysts are multilocular and more likely to be malignant. Management of ovarian enlargement depends on the patient’s age and symptoms. Younger women may be treated conservatively if the cyst is small and simple, with a repeat ultrasound scheduled in 8-12 weeks. Postmenopausal women, however, should always be referred to a gynecologist for assessment, as physiological cysts are unlikely in this population. It’s important to note that ovarian cancer can present with vague symptoms, leading to delayed diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      27.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 32-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant is curious about the anomaly...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant is curious about the anomaly scan after hearing about a friend's experience. She wants to know the earliest possible time she can have the scan.

      When can the anomaly scan be done at the earliest?

      Your Answer: 18 weeks

      Explanation:

      The earliest possible time for an anomaly scan is at 18 weeks, with the latest being at 20 weeks and 6 days. For a dating scan, the earliest possible time is at 8 weeks. As for a nuchal scan, it can be done at the earliest at 11 weeks.

      NICE guidelines recommend 10 antenatal visits for first pregnancies and 7 for subsequent pregnancies if uncomplicated. The purpose of each visit is outlined, including booking visits, scans, screening for Down’s syndrome, routine care for blood pressure and urine, and discussions about labour and birth plans. Rhesus negative women are offered anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks. The guidelines also recommend discussing options for prolonged pregnancy at 41 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 64-year-old man is scheduled for a follow-up after a positive faecal occult...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old man is scheduled for a follow-up after a positive faecal occult blood test as part of the national screening programme. While discussing colonoscopy, he inquires about the percentage of patients with a positive faecal occult blood test who have colorectal cancer. What is the most precise response?

      Your Answer: 20 - 30%

      Correct Answer: 5 - 15%

      Explanation:

      The likelihood of having an adenoma increases with a positive result on a faecal occult blood test.

      Colorectal Cancer Screening: Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT)

      Colorectal cancer is often developed from adenomatous polyps. Screening for this type of cancer has been proven to reduce mortality by 16%. The NHS offers a home-based screening programme called Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) to older adults. A one-off flexible sigmoidoscopy was trialled in England for people aged 55 years, but it was abandoned in 2021 due to the inability to recruit enough clinical endoscopists, which was exacerbated by the COVID-19 pandemic. The trial, partly funded by Cancer Research UK, showed promising early results, and it remains to be seen whether flexible sigmoidoscopy will be used as part of a future bowel screening programme.

      Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) Screening:
      The NHS now has a national screening programme that offers screening every two years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland. Patients aged over 74 years may request screening. Eligible patients are sent FIT tests through the post. FIT is a type of faecal occult blood (FOB) test that uses antibodies that specifically recognise human haemoglobin (Hb). It is used to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. FIT has advantages over conventional FOB tests because it only detects human haemoglobin, as opposed to animal haemoglobin ingested through diet. Only one faecal sample is needed compared to the 2-3 for conventional FOB tests. While a numerical value is generated, this is not reported to the patient or GP. Instead, they will be informed if the test is normal or abnormal. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy. At colonoscopy, approximately 5 out of 10 patients will have a normal exam, 4 out of 10 patients will be found to have polyps that may be removed due to their premalignant potential, and 1 out of 10 patients will be found to have cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 30-year-old man presents with worsening pain on the left side of the...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man presents with worsening pain on the left side of the floor of the mouth. He has been experiencing pain intermittently for the past three weeks, especially during meals. However, the pain has escalated significantly over the last 48 hours.
      During examination, his temperature is 38.2°C. There is a smooth swelling along the floor of the mouth. Intra-oral examination reveals inadequate dental hygiene and pus seeping into the floor of the mouth anteriorly.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Left submandibular gland infection

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Left Submandibular Gland Infection from Other Conditions

      Left submandibular gland infection is a condition that occurs when a submandibular gland calculus obstructs the submandibular duct, leading to stasis of duct contents and infection. It is important to differentiate this condition from other similar conditions to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment.

      Sialolithiasis, another condition that affects the submandibular gland, typically presents with dull pain around the gland that worsens during mealtimes or when lemon juice is squirted onto the tongue. Dental abscess, on the other hand, causes localized tooth pain without pus draining into the floor of the mouth.

      Uncomplicated sialolithiasis does not present with fever and pus oozing into the floor of the mouth, which are common symptoms of left submandibular gland infection. Ludwig’s angina, a serious and potentially life-threatening infection of the soft tissues of the floor of the mouth, typically follows a dental infection and presents with marked oedema and tenderness of submandibular, sublingual, and submental spaces.

      Mumps parotitis, which typically affects younger patients, presents with bilateral smooth, enlarged parotid glands and a viral-like illness. Unlike left submandibular gland infection, pus is not seen draining into the floor of the mouth.

      In summary, differentiating left submandibular gland infection from other similar conditions is crucial in ensuring proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      43.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 70-year-old with chronic kidney disease stage 4 and metastatic prostate cancer is...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old with chronic kidney disease stage 4 and metastatic prostate cancer is experiencing uncontrolled pain despite taking co-codamol. Considering his impaired renal function, which opioid would be the most suitable option to alleviate his pain?

      Your Answer: Morphine

      Correct Answer: Buprenorphine

      Explanation:

      Patients with chronic kidney disease are recommended to use alfentanil, buprenorphine, and fentanyl as their preferred opioids.

      Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

      Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 32-year-old engineer attended a business trip in France last weekend and developed...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old engineer attended a business trip in France last weekend and developed a fever of up to 39°C that lasted for three days. He had associated shortness of breath and dry cough. In addition, he had loose motions for a day. His blood results showed deranged LFTs and hyponatraemia. His WBC count was 10.2 × 109/l. Bibasal consolidation was seen on his radiograph.
      Which of the following would be the most effective treatment for his condition?

      Your Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for Legionnaires’ disease

      Legionnaires’ disease is a common cause of community- and hospital-acquired pneumonia, caused by Legionella pneumophila. The bacterium contaminates water containers and distribution systems, including air-conditioning systems, and can infect individuals who inhale it. Symptoms include fever, cough, dyspnoea, and systemic symptoms such as myalgia, arthralgia, diarrhoea, nausea, vomiting and neurological signs. Diagnosis is usually confirmed by urinary antigen testing. Treatment options include macrolides, such as clarithromycin, which is the preferred choice, and quinolones, such as ciprofloxacin, which are used less frequently due to a less favourable side-effect profile. Amoxicillin, cefuroxime, and flucloxacillin are not effective against Legionella pneumophila. It is important to remember that the organism does not show up on Gram staining. Outbreaks are seen in previously fit individuals staying in hotels or institutions where the shower facilities and/or the cooling system is contaminated with the organism. The incubation period is 2–10 days. A clinical clue is the presence of otherwise unexplained hyponatraemia and deranged liver function tests in a patient with pneumonia. A chest radiograph can show bibasal consolidation, sometimes with a small pleural effusion.

      Treatment options for Legionnaires’ disease

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      29.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A toddler is brought to your clinic as the mother has noticed some...

    Incorrect

    • A toddler is brought to your clinic as the mother has noticed some skin lesions on the child's face. Upon examination, you observe multiple small white papules on the nose. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Folliculitis

      Correct Answer: Milia

      Explanation:

      Milia, which are often found on the face of newborns, are a normal occurrence and can be seen in up to 50% of babies. They typically disappear on their own within a few weeks.

      Understanding Milia: Small, Benign Cysts on the Face

      Milia are small cysts that are filled with keratin and are typically found on the face. These cysts are benign and are not harmful to one’s health. Although they can appear at any age, they are more commonly found in newborns. Milia are often described as small, white bumps that are painless and do not cause any discomfort.

      While the exact cause of milia is unknown, they are thought to occur when dead skin cells become trapped in the skin’s surface. They can also develop as a result of using heavy skin care products or as a side effect of certain medications. In most cases, milia will disappear on their own without any treatment. However, if they persist or become bothersome, a dermatologist may recommend treatment options such as extraction or chemical peels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 54-year-old man is seen in the Cardiology clinic after experiencing a heart...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old man is seen in the Cardiology clinic after experiencing a heart attack a year ago. He was diagnosed with hypertension and diabetes during his hospitalization. The patient reports gaining 5kg in the last 6 months and wonders if any of his medications could be causing this weight gain. Which of his prescribed drugs may be contributing to his recent weight gain?

      Your Answer: Gliclazide

      Explanation:

      Weight gain is a common side effect of sulfonylureas.

      Sulfonylureas are a type of medication used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. They work by increasing the amount of insulin produced by the pancreas, but they are only effective if the pancreas is functioning properly. Sulfonylureas bind to a specific channel on the cell membrane of pancreatic beta cells, which helps to increase insulin secretion. However, there are some potential side effects associated with these drugs.

      One of the most common side effects of sulfonylureas is hypoglycaemia, which can be more likely to occur with long-acting preparations like chlorpropamide. Weight gain is another possible side effect. In rare cases, sulfonylureas can cause hyponatraemia, which is a condition where the body retains too much water and sodium levels become too low. Other rare side effects include bone marrow suppression, hepatotoxicity (liver damage), and peripheral neuropathy. It is important to note that sulfonylureas should not be used during pregnancy or while breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 42-year-old woman with a history of rheumatic heart disease is urgently admitted...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman with a history of rheumatic heart disease is urgently admitted with a fever, worsening shortness of breath, and a note from her primary care physician confirming the presence of a new heart murmur. During the examination, a harsh pansystolic murmur and early diastolic murmur are detected, and she has a temperature of 38.5 °C with fine basal crepitations in both lungs. Which one of the following should take immediate priority?

      Your Answer: Administration of intravenous (IV) antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Prioritizing Interventions in Suspected Infective Endocarditis

      When a patient presents with suspected infective endocarditis, prompt intervention is crucial to limit valve destruction and prevent potentially life-threatening complications. The following interventions should be considered, prioritized, and administered as soon as possible:

      Administration of intravenous (IV) antibiotics: Empirical treatment with gentamicin and benzylpenicillin may be initiated until microbiological advice suggests an alternative. Antibiotic delivery should take priority over other interventions.

      Administration of paracetamol: Fever is a common symptom of infective endocarditis, and paracetamol can provide symptomatic relief. However, it should not take priority over antibiotic delivery.

      Echocardiogram (ECHO): An ECHO is an important diagnostic tool for identifying infective endocarditis and detecting complications such as cardiac abscess and pseudoaneurysms. While it should be performed in all suspected cases, it does not take priority over antibiotic administration.

      Electrocardiogram (ECG): An ECG can provide additional diagnostic information, including signs of paravalvular extension of infection and emboli in the coronary circulation. It should be part of the initial workup but does not take priority over antibiotic administration.

      Throat swab: While a throat swab may be useful in identifying the causative organism of infective endocarditis, it should not take precedence over commencing antibiotics. Careful examination of the patient’s dentition is also crucial to evaluate for a possible infectious source.

      In summary, when managing suspected infective endocarditis, prompt administration of IV antibiotics should take priority over other interventions. Other diagnostic and therapeutic interventions should be considered and prioritized based on the individual patient’s clinical presentation and needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      11.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Infectious Diseases (2/2) 100%
ENT (3/3) 100%
Ophthalmology (3/3) 100%
Respiratory Medicine (2/2) 100%
Haematology/Oncology (2/2) 100%
Cardiovascular (2/2) 100%
Renal Medicine/Urology (1/3) 33%
Reproductive Medicine (1/3) 33%
Paediatrics (1/2) 50%
Dermatology (1/3) 33%
Musculoskeletal (2/2) 100%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (1/1) 100%
Passmed