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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman with suspected dementia is referred by her General Practitioner to the Memory Clinic. A dementia blood screen is performed and is normal.
What is an indication for performing structural neuroimaging (CT or MRI head) in the workup for investigating patients with dementia?
Your Answer: Patient is < 65-years old
Correct Answer: Ruling out reversible causes of cognitive decline
Explanation:The Importance of Neuroimaging in the Diagnosis of Dementia
Neuroimaging plays a crucial role in the diagnosis of dementia and ruling out reversible causes of cognitive decline. Structural imaging should be offered to assist with subtype diagnosis and exclude other reversible conditions unless dementia is well established and the subtype is clear. In primary care, a blood screen is usually sent to exclude reversible causes, while in secondary care, neuroimaging is performed to provide information on aetiology to guide prognosis and management. Focal neurology and cardiovascular abnormalities are not indications for performing structural imaging of the brain. However, neuroimaging is required in the workup of dementia in all age groups, including patients over 75 years old and those under 65 years old with suspected early-onset dementia. The 2011 National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines state that structural imaging is essential in the investigation of dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 56-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of bilateral ringing in his ears. He noticed the symptoms shortly after beginning a new medication.
Which of the following drugs is the most probable cause of his condition?Your Answer: Furosemide
Explanation:Common Medications and Their Side Effects
Furosemide: A loop diuretic that carries the risk of ototoxicity, especially in patients with renal impairment or given a rapid intravenous infusion. Hearing loss and tinnitus are potential side effects.
Ciprofloxacin: A broad-spectrum quinolone antibiotic that is not commonly associated with ototoxicity, but has an increased risk of Clostridium difficile infection. Rupture of the Achilles tendon is a known side effect.
Amlodipine: A calcium channel blocker used to treat hypertension. Common side effects include flushing, headaches, and ankle swelling due to vasodilation.
Indapamide: A thiazide-like diuretic that is not associated with ototoxicity. Possible side effects include electrolyte imbalances, dry mouth, and gastrointestinal disturbance.
Paracetamol: Not associated with ototoxicity and has few side effects listed in the British National Formulary. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, which have similar indications for use, can cause ototoxicity.
Understanding the Side Effects of Common Medications
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 3
Correct
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A 25-year-old male with a history of ankylosing spondylitis presents to the emergency department with a painful red eye, photophobia, lacrimation, and reduced visual acuity. On examination, an irregularly shaped pupil is noted. What is the most suitable approach to manage this patient's current condition?
Your Answer: Steroid and cycloplegic (mydriatic) eye drops
Explanation:Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. It is a common cause of red eye and is associated with HLA-B27, which may also be linked to other conditions. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small or irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness, tearing, and the presence of pus and inflammatory cells in the front part of the eye. This condition may be associated with ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary, and treatment may involve the use of cycloplegics and steroid eye drops.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female is scheduled for middle ear prosthesis implantation to treat her sensorineural hearing loss. She has a history of appendectomy, during which she experienced intense postoperative nausea and vomiting. Which anaesthetic agent would be the most suitable for her procedure?
Your Answer: Ketamine
Correct Answer: Propofol
Explanation:Overview of General Anaesthetics
General anaesthetics are drugs used to induce a state of unconsciousness in patients undergoing surgical procedures. There are two main types of general anaesthetics: inhaled and intravenous. Inhaled anaesthetics, such as isoflurane, desflurane, sevoflurane, and nitrous oxide, are administered through inhalation. These drugs work by acting on various receptors in the brain, including GABAA, glycine, NDMA, nACh, and 5-HT3 receptors. Inhaled anaesthetics can cause adverse effects such as myocardial depression, malignant hyperthermia, and hepatotoxicity.
Intravenous anaesthetics, such as propofol, thiopental, etomidate, and ketamine, are administered through injection. These drugs work by potentiating GABAA receptors or blocking NDMA receptors. Intravenous anaesthetics can cause adverse effects such as pain on injection, hypotension, laryngospasm, myoclonus, and disorientation. However, they are often preferred over inhaled anaesthetics in cases of haemodynamic instability.
It is important to note that the exact mechanism of action of general anaesthetics is not fully understood. Additionally, the choice of anaesthetic depends on various factors such as the patient’s medical history, the type of surgery, and the anaesthetist’s preference. Overall, general anaesthetics play a crucial role in modern medicine by allowing for safe and painless surgical procedures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 5
Correct
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A 27-year-old woman presents with new-onset diabetes. She has no past drug or treatment history. Her fasting blood glucose is 7.3 mmol/l. Other significant medical history included occasional diarrhoea in the last four months, for which she took repeated courses of tinidazole. She also had an episode of severe leg pain three months ago, for which she takes warfarin. She is presently very depressed, as her sister has had renal calculus surgery, which has not gone well; she is in the Intensive Care Unit (ICU) with sepsis.
What is the most appropriate next test?Your Answer: Genetic study
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Various Medical Conditions
Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN) 1 Syndrome: A genetic study to detect MEN 1 gene mutation on chromosome 11 is the best diagnostic test for patients with new-onset diabetes, diarrhea, and a past episode of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) who have a family history of renal calculi at a young age. This autosomal dominant disease is characterized by endocrine hyperfunction in various glands, with the parathyroid gland being the most common gland affected. Enteropancreatic tumors are the second most common, with gastrinoma and insulinoma being the two most common tumors. Glucagonoma can also occur, but rarely. Plasma glucagon and ghrelin levels are elevated in these cases.
Giardiasis: A blood test for Giardia antigen is recommended for patients with watery, sometimes foul-smelling, diarrhea that may alternate with soft, greasy stools, fatigue or malaise, abdominal cramps and bloating, gas or flatulence, nausea, and weight loss. Tinidazole should have eliminated Giardia, but if symptoms persist, a blood test for Giardia antigen can confirm the diagnosis.
Diabetes: A C-peptide assay can help distinguish type I diabetes from type II diabetes or maturity-onset diabetes of the young (MODY) by measuring how much of their own natural insulin a person is producing. This is useful if a patient receives insulin injections. The C-peptide assay will help clarify the cause of diabetes, but it will not help in detecting the underlying disease.
Colonoscopy: Colonoscopy is not needed for the occasional diarrhea at present.
Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT): Protein C measurement will not help in the diagnosis of DVT. DVT occurs as a rare complication of glucagonoma, and treatment for glucagonoma includes octreotide, surgery, and streptozotocin (rarely).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old patient is admitted with vomiting and abdominal pain. He was noted to have marked buccal pigmentation.
On examination, he is dehydrated. His pulse is 95 beats per minute, while his blood pressure (BP) is 100/70 mmHg.
Investigations reveal the following:
Investigation Result Normal values
Glucose 3.5 mmol/l 3.9–7.1 mmol/l
Sodium (Na+) 130 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.2 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 7.8 mmol/l 2.5–7.1 mmol/l
Creatinine (Cr) 95 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Cushing syndrome
Correct Answer: Addison’s disease
Explanation:Endocrine Disorders: Addison’s Disease, Cushing Syndrome, and Conn Syndrome
Addison’s Disease:
Addison’s disease, or primary hypoadrenalism, is a condition characterized by chronic adrenal insufficiency. It is most commonly caused by autoimmune destruction of the adrenals in the UK, while tuberculosis is the most common cause worldwide. Other causes include long-term exogenous steroid use, cancer, or hemorrhage damage. Symptoms develop gradually, but patients can present in Addisonian crisis if there is a sudden deterioration in adrenal function or a physiological stress that the residual adrenal function cannot cope with. Treatment is with long-term replacement of corticosteroids and aldosterone.Cushing Syndrome:
Cushing syndrome is a result of excess corticosteroid. It can be caused by exogenous steroids, primary hyperadrenalism, or secondary hyperadrenalism. Signs and symptoms include weight gain with moon facies and buffalo hump, hypertension, hyperglycemia, mood changes, hirsutism, baldness, and sleep disturbance.Conn Syndrome:
Conn syndrome, also known as primary hyperaldosteronism, is caused most commonly by adrenal hyperplasia or adenomas. It results in excess aldosterone release, causing difficult-to-treat hypertension, hypernatremia, and hypokalemia.Other Disorders:
Hypoglycemia occurs in insulinoma, but the other features are absent. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition characterized by perioral freckling and small bowel polyps, which may present with vomiting secondary to intussusception from the small polyps but does not explain the hypoglycemia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 7
Correct
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A 25-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with a complaint of a sore throat that has been bothering him for the past three weeks. He reports feeling significantly fatigued, which is affecting his academic performance. On examination, he appears healthy and has tender cervical lymphadenopathy; his tonsils are enlarged but no exudate is present, and he has tender splenomegaly.
Which of the following investigation findings is most likely to be associated with this condition?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate result from the list below.Your Answer: Raised liver transaminases (aspartate transaminase and alanine aminotransferase)
Explanation:The patient has raised liver transaminases, thrombocytosis, neutrophilia, raised antistreptolysin titres, and a reduced estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). The most probable diagnosis is glandular fever/infectious mononucleosis caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). This infection is common in adolescents and presents with a prolonged sore throat, lethargy, and flu-like symptoms. Splenomegaly or hepatosplenomegaly, along with lymphadenopathy, are often observed. Liver function tests, especially the transaminases, are commonly elevated during active infection. Thrombocytopenia is commonly associated with glandular fever due to splenic involvement. Neutrophilia is less likely in this case than lymphocytosis, which is common with glandular fever. Antistreptolysin titres rise after a streptococcal infection, but glandular fever is a more likely diagnosis than streptococcal infection. Reduced eGFR associated with a sore throat should raise suspicion of dehydration or glomerulonephritis caused by a streptococcal infection, but neither of these diagnoses is as likely as glandular fever. The diagnostic investigation of choice for glandular fever is the Monospot test, which tests for heterophile antibodies to EBV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old female medical student, who is an insulin-dependent diabetic, went on a weekend trip to visit some friends at another university. She forgot to pack her insulin. When she returned, she went to visit her General Practitioner. Which of the following blood results would be expected?
Your Answer: Below normal glucagon levels
Correct Answer: Unchanged haemoglobin A1c (HbA1c)
Explanation:Insulin-dependent diabetes patients rely on insulin to regulate their blood glucose levels. Without insulin, several physiological changes occur. However, these changes do not happen immediately. Here are some effects of insulin absence in insulin-dependent diabetes patients:
Unchanged HbA1c levels – Correct: HbA1c levels do not change significantly over two to three days without insulin. Changes in HbA1c levels are observed over weeks and months.
Below normal fatty acid levels – Incorrect: In the absence of insulin, triglyceride hydrolysis and increased release from adipose tissue occur, giving raised fatty acid levels. Fatty acids are utilised to synthesise ketones.
Below normal glucagon levels – Incorrect: The body responds to the absence of insulin by increasing glucagon levels. In a healthy individual, this raised glucagon would raise glucose levels in the bloodstream, providing target organs with utilisable glucose. However, in a diabetic patient, the absence of insulin means target organs are still not able to utilise this resource.
Hypoglycaemia – Incorrect: In the absence of insulin, hyperglycaemia would be expected to develop. Ketones are generated by the body as an alternative energy source to glucose, since to utilise glucose, insulin is required.
Undetectable ketones – Incorrect: A diabetic patient who is normally dependent on insulin is at risk of developing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) even with only a weekend of missed insulin doses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 9
Correct
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Among the following individuals, which one has the highest risk of suicide?
Your Answer: A 50-year-old man with alcohol dependence and prior suicide attempts
Explanation:Understanding the Risk Factors for Suicide
Suicide is a complex issue with a variety of risk factors. The strongest indicators of suicide are the presence of a mental disorder, including alcohol-use disorder, and a history of previous suicide attempts. Age and sex also play a role, with the risk increasing with age and men being more likely to complete suicide. Marital status, unemployment, living alone, and chronic illnesses are also associated with an increased risk. It is important to understand these risk factors in order to identify and prevent suicide.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man who works as a pipe lagger is referred to you with a 6-month history of increasing shortness of breath and weight loss. He is a lifelong non-smoker and has always led a fit, healthy life. Clinical examination indicates a left pleural effusion, which is confirmed on the chest radiograph. Which of the following malignant causes is most likely? Select the SINGLE malignant cause from the list below. Select ONE option only.
Your Answer: Small-cell lung cancer
Correct Answer: Mesothelioma
Explanation:Understanding Mesothelioma and Other Possible Malignancies
Mesothelioma is a rare and aggressive form of cancer that is often linked to asbestos exposure. Those who worked as pipe laggers in the past were frequently exposed to asbestos, which can lead to mesothelioma. Symptoms of mesothelioma include cough, shortness of breath, chest pain, and weight loss. While the prognosis for mesothelioma remains poor, some cases can be surgically resected and chemotherapy can provide palliative care.
However, other malignancies can also present with similar symptoms, such as non-small-cell cancer, small-cell lung cancer, squamous-cell lung cancer, and bronchial carcinoid tumors. It is important to exclude these possibilities and properly diagnose the specific type of cancer in order to provide the most effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 11
Correct
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A mother brings in her 3-day-old female baby to the pediatrician's office. She noticed a small cyst on the roof of the baby's mouth. Upon examination, a small white cystic vesicle measuring approximately 2 mm in diameter is found on the hard palate near the midline. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Epstein's pearl
Explanation:Epstein’s pearl, a type of congenital cyst found in the mouth, typically does not require any treatment. These cysts are commonly found on the hard palate, but can also be mistaken for a tooth eruption when located on the gums. They usually resolve on their own within a few weeks. Neonatal teeth, on the other hand, are rare and not typically found on the hard palate. Bohn’s nodules are mucous gland cysts that are usually located on the buccal or lingual aspects of the alveolar ridges, and rarely on the palate. A congenital ranula is a papule or nodule that is firm and translucent, and is typically found on the anterior floor of the mouth, lateral to the lingual frenulum.
Understanding Epstein’s Pearl
Epstein’s pearl is a type of cyst that is present in the mouth from birth. It is commonly found on the hard palate, but can also be seen on the gums, which may be mistaken for a tooth eruption. The good news is that no treatment is usually required as these cysts tend to disappear on their own within a few weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 12
Correct
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If you sustain a needlestick injury while taking blood from a patient suspected of having human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), what should be your first course of action?
Your Answer: Wash wound under running water, encouraging active bleeding
Explanation:Immediate Actions to Take Following a Needlestick Injury: A Guide for Healthcare Workers
Needlestick injuries are a common occupational hazard for healthcare workers. If you experience a needlestick injury, it is important to take immediate action to minimize the risk of infection. Here are the steps you should take:
1. Wash the wound thoroughly under running water, while encouraging bleeding. This will help to flush out any pathogens that may be present.
2. Determine the patient’s HIV and bloodborne disease status. If the patient is HIV-positive or deemed to be at high risk, HIV post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) should be offered as soon as possible.
3. Begin Truvada and Kaletra PEP treatment if the patient is definitely HIV-positive or deemed to be at high risk. PEP should be commenced within 72 hours of exposure for maximum effectiveness.
4. Contact occupational health immediately to identify local protocols and receive guidance on next steps.
5. Fill out a clinical incident form to help the hospital identify potential areas for improvement in employee safety.
By following these steps, you can minimize the risk of infection and protect your health as a healthcare worker.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 13
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner to discuss some recent blood tests which were taken for tri-monthly monitoring of her methotrexate. She has rheumatoid arthritis (RA) and takes methotrexate, folic acid and co-codamol.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 91 g/l 115–165 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 5.2 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Platelets 228 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Neutrophils 5.4 × 109/l 2.0–7.5 × 109/l
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 96 fl 85–105 fl
Mean corpuscular haemoglobin (MCH) 29 pg 27–32 pg
Sodium 138 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium 4.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.3 mmol/l
Urea 3.2 mmol/l 2.5–7.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 68 µmol/l 53–100 µmol/l
Estimated glomerular filtration rate > 90 ml/min per 1.73m2 > 90 ml/min per 1.73m2
What is the most likely cause of this patient’s anaemia?
Your Answer: Anaemia of chronic disease
Explanation:Understanding the Causes of Normocytic Anaemia in a Patient with Rheumatoid Arthritis
The patient in question has been diagnosed with normocytic anaemia, which is characterized by normal MCV and MCH results. There are several potential causes of this type of anaemia, including renal failure, anaemia of chronic disease, and mixed iron and vitamin B12 or folate deficiency. However, given that the patient has rheumatoid arthritis (RA) and normal renal function, the most likely cause of her anaemia is a chronic disease. This is thought to be the result of chronic inflammation associated with diseases such as RA.
One potential complication of RA is Felty syndrome, which is characterized by a triad of conditions: RA, splenomegaly, and neutropenia. However, this patient has a normal WCC and neutrophil count, which rules out this diagnosis.
Vitamin B12 deficiency can also cause anaemia, but it typically results in macrocytic anaemia characterized by a raised MCV. In contrast, this patient has a normal MCV. Vitamin B12 deficiency is typically treated with oral supplements, unless intrinsic antibodies are present, in which case intramuscular B12 is needed.
Folate deficiency can also drive macrocytic anaemia, but this patient demonstrates normocytic anaemia. Methotrexate, which is commonly used to treat RA, is a folate antagonist, which is why the patient is also taking folic acid supplements to reduce the risk of developing folate deficiency.
Iron deficiency is another potential cause of anaemia, but it typically results in microcytic hypochromic anaemia characterized by low MCV and MCH. In contrast, this patient has normal MCV and MCH results. A combination of iron and vitamin B12 or folate deficiencies may result in normocytic anaemia, as can acute blood loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a red left eye. She experiences a gritty sensation and feels the need to blink frequently to clear her vision. There is no pain or photophobia, and her pupil size is normal. She reports a significant amount of discharge from the affected eye and recently had a cold. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Conjunctivitis
Explanation:Conjunctivitis is a common condition that can be identified by symptoms such as redness in the eye, a gritty sensation, swollen conjunctivae, and discharge that crusts the eyelashes. However, if a patient presents with severe eye pain, photophobia, a small or abnormal shaped pupil, or blurred vision, it may indicate iritis and require urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Similarly, acute glaucoma can cause severe eye pain, halos, blurred vision, nausea, and vomiting, while keratitis can cause a painful, red eye with tearing, discharge, and decreased vision, particularly in contact lens wearers.
Conjunctivitis is a common eye problem that is often seen in primary care. It is characterized by red, sore eyes with a sticky discharge. There are two types of infective conjunctivitis: bacterial and viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is identified by a purulent discharge and eyes that may be stuck together in the morning. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a serous discharge and recent upper respiratory tract infection, as well as preauricular lymph nodes.
In most cases, infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting condition that resolves without treatment within one to two weeks. However, topical antibiotic therapy is often offered to patients, such as Chloramphenicol drops given every two to three hours initially or Chloramphenicol ointment given four times a day initially. Alternatively, topical fusidic acid can be used, especially for pregnant women, and treatment is twice daily.
For contact lens users, topical fluoresceins should be used to identify any corneal staining, and treatment should be the same as above. During an episode of conjunctivitis, contact lenses should not be worn, and patients should be advised not to share towels. School exclusion is not necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman experiences a seizure while in the emergency department. The seizure began suddenly with an abrupt loss of consciousness and an initial period of stiff muscle contraction, followed by intermittent jerky movements. She has a history of epilepsy and takes carbamazepine, but has been noted to have poor adherence in the past. The seizure persists for more than five minutes despite a dose of IV lorazepam. What is the next best pharmacological approach?
Your Answer: Intravenous phenytoin
Correct Answer: Intravenous lorazepam
Explanation:Convulsive status epilepticus should be initially managed with IV lorazepam, with a repeat dose given 10 minutes later if the seizure persists or recurs. Buccal midazolam may be used if IV access is not available or if the seizure occurs outside of a hospital setting. It is important to note that a maximum of two doses of IV benzodiazepines should be administered during convulsive status epilepticus. Intravenous carbamazepine is not appropriate for acute seizure management, as it is primarily used for preventing tonic-clonic seizures. Intravenous phenytoin should not be given until two doses of benzodiazepines have been administered, and at this point, critical care and anesthesia should also be involved. Rectal diazepam is typically not used unless there is no IV access or the emergency occurs outside of a hospital setting.
Status epilepticus is a medical emergency that occurs when a person experiences a single seizure lasting more than five minutes or two seizures within a five-minute period without returning to normal between them. It is crucial to terminate seizure activity as soon as possible to prevent irreversible brain damage. The first step in managing status epilepticus is to ensure the patient’s airway is clear and provide oxygen while checking their blood glucose levels. The first-line treatment is IV benzodiazepines, such as diazepam or lorazepam, with PR diazepam or buccal midazolam given in the prehospital setting. In the hospital, IV lorazepam is typically used and may be repeated once after 10-20 minutes. If the status epilepticus persists, a second-line agent such as phenytoin or phenobarbital infusion may be administered. If there is no response within 45 minutes, induction of general anesthesia is the best way to achieve rapid control of seizure activity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man comes to the Medical Team after routine blood tests showed an acute kidney injury. He has a history of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and is currently taking steroids. The renal team suspects acute interstitial nephritis (AIN). He has not been sick recently and is not taking any new medications.
What is the most appropriate investigation to perform for this patient's diagnosis?Your Answer: Renal ultrasound scan
Correct Answer: Serum creatinine and urine eosinophilia
Explanation:Investigating Acute Interstitial Nephritis: Diagnostic Tests and Considerations
Acute interstitial nephritis (AIN) can present with nonspecific symptoms of acute kidney dysfunction, such as nausea, vomiting, and malaise. A decline in kidney function is typical, and AIN is commonly caused by drugs, autoimmune disorders, or systemic diseases. A raised creatinine and eosinophilia levels are diagnostic in virtually all patients with AIN. A renal biopsy can confirm the diagnosis, but it is not always necessary if there is a history of underlying autoimmune conditions. A dipstick test for protein is not useful, as patients with AIN usually do not have protein in their urine. A renal ultrasound scan is not helpful in diagnosing AIN but may be used to investigate other causes of acute kidney injury. A chest X-ray may be necessary to exclude sarcoidosis as the cause of AIN in patients without a history of autoimmune disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 42-year-old-woman, who rarely visits the clinic, complains of heartburn and acid reflux for the past 3 weeks. She comes back after taking a PPI for 1 week with some relief. Her BMI is 27 kg/m2. What is the most suitable next step in her treatment?
Your Answer: Continue the PPI and review in 2 weeks
Explanation:Management of New-Onset Dyspepsia in a Middle-Aged Patient
When a middle-aged patient presents with new-onset dyspepsia, it is important to take a thorough clinical history to rule out more serious conditions such as malignancy. A 4-week course of full-dose PPI is typically recommended, although there is no clear evidence on whether this or Helicobacter pylori testing should be done first. If PPIs are used, a 2-week washout period is necessary before testing for H. pylori to avoid false-negative results.
While alginate preparations like Gaviscon® can be used to inhibit gastric acid reflux, it may be more appropriate to increase the PPI dose if the patient has already experienced some improvement with this medication. However, if the patient exhibits ‘red flag’ symptoms like gastrointestinal bleeding, anorexia, weight loss, dysphagia, or the presence of an epigastric mass, urgent endoscopy is necessary. Endoscopy is also recommended for patients over 55 with persistent, unexplained dyspepsia that has not responded well to PPIs.
Finally, while this patient’s BMI is on the higher end of the healthy range, referral to a dietician is unlikely to be necessary unless there are specific concerns about weight loss measures. Overall, a comprehensive approach to managing new-onset dyspepsia in middle-aged patients involves careful consideration of symptoms, medication options, and potential underlying conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with a history of coronary artery disease is interested in using sildenafil to treat his erectile dysfunction. Is there any medication that could potentially prohibit its use?
Your Answer: Nifedipine
Correct Answer: Nicorandil
Explanation:Nitrates and nicorandil are contraindicated with PDE 5 inhibitors such as sildenafil due to the nitrate component in nicorandil and its additional function as a potassium channel activator.
Understanding Phosphodiesterase Type V Inhibitors
Phosphodiesterase type V (PDE5) inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. These drugs work by increasing the levels of cGMP, which leads to the relaxation of smooth muscles in the blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which was the first drug of its kind. It is a short-acting medication that is usually taken one hour before sexual activity.
Other PDE5 inhibitors include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra). Tadalafil is longer-acting than sildenafil and can be taken on a regular basis, while vardenafil has a similar duration of action to sildenafil. However, these drugs are not suitable for everyone. Patients taking nitrates or related drugs, those with hypotension, and those who have had a recent stroke or myocardial infarction should not take PDE5 inhibitors.
Like all medications, PDE5 inhibitors can cause side effects. These may include visual disturbances, blue discolouration, non-arteritic anterior ischaemic neuropathy, nasal congestion, flushing, gastrointestinal side-effects, headache, and priapism. It is important to speak to a healthcare professional before taking any medication to ensure that it is safe and appropriate for you.
Overall, PDE5 inhibitors are an effective treatment for erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. However, they should only be used under the guidance of a healthcare professional and with careful consideration of the potential risks and benefits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old para 2, gravida 3 is in labour in the delivery ward. The labour is progressing normally until the midwife calls the obstetrician to assess the patient. The cervix is dilated to 6 cm, and the baby's position is 2 cm above the ischial spine. The cardiotocography shows a slow but steady heartbeat. The obstetrician decides to perform an emergency category 2 caesarian section. What is the maximum time allowed between this decision and the delivery of the baby, given the indication?
Your Answer: 30 minutes
Correct Answer: 75 minutes
Explanation:Category 2 caesarean sections should be performed within 75 minutes of the decision being made. This is because these cases involve maternal or fetal compromise that is not immediately life-threatening, allowing the medical team to manage the emergency and plan the surgery to minimize risks to both the mother and the baby. A timeframe of 2 hours is incorrect as it would delay the necessary intervention. On the other hand, a timeframe of 30 minutes is only applicable to category 1 caesarean sections, where there is an immediate threat to the life of the mother or baby. A timeframe of 5 minutes is too short and may increase the risk of errors during the procedure.
Caesarean Section: Types, Indications, and Risks
Caesarean section, also known as C-section, is a surgical procedure that involves delivering a baby through an incision in the mother’s abdomen and uterus. In recent years, the rate of C-section has increased significantly due to an increased fear of litigation. There are two main types of C-section: lower segment C-section, which comprises 99% of cases, and classic C-section, which involves a longitudinal incision in the upper segment of the uterus.
C-section may be indicated for various reasons, including absolute cephalopelvic disproportion, placenta praevia grades 3/4, pre-eclampsia, post-maturity, IUGR, fetal distress in labor/prolapsed cord, failure of labor to progress, malpresentations, placental abruption, vaginal infection, and cervical cancer. The urgency of C-section may be categorized into four categories, with Category 1 being the most urgent and Category 4 being elective.
It is important for clinicians to inform women of the serious and frequent risks associated with C-section, including emergency hysterectomy, need for further surgery, admission to intensive care unit, thromboembolic disease, bladder injury, ureteric injury, and death. C-section may also increase the risk of uterine rupture, antepartum stillbirth, placenta praevia, and placenta accreta in subsequent pregnancies. Other complications may include persistent wound and abdominal discomfort, increased risk of repeat C-section, readmission to hospital, haemorrhage, infection, and fetal lacerations.
Vaginal birth after C-section (VBAC) may be an appropriate method of delivery for pregnant women with a single previous C-section delivery, except for those with previous uterine rupture or classical C-section scar. The success rate of VBAC is around 70-75%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 20
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman, who is currently four weeks into a course of postoperative radiotherapy for locally advanced cervical carcinoma, is admitted with abdominal pain and diarrhoea.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the clinical picture?Your Answer: Radiation enteritis
Explanation:Understanding Radiation Enteritis and Other Possible Causes of Bowel Symptoms
Radiation enteritis is a condition that occurs when the bowel becomes inflamed due to radiation therapy. It can manifest as ileitis, colitis, or proctitis, and can be acute or chronic. Acute radiation enteritis typically occurs during therapy and presents with symptoms such as anorexia, diarrhoea, and abdominal pain. Chronic radiation enteritis, on the other hand, can develop months or years after treatment and may cause weight loss, steatorrhoea, and small bowel obstruction.
While radiation enteritis is a likely cause of bowel symptoms in patients who have undergone radiation therapy, other conditions should also be considered. Bowel obstruction, for example, can cause nausea, vomiting, and bloating, but does not typically cause diarrhoea. Local malignant infiltration to the bowel may present with obstruction, while bowel perforation is a medical emergency that causes peritonitis and sepsis.
In summary, understanding the possible causes of bowel symptoms is important in determining the appropriate treatment for patients. While radiation enteritis is a common consequence of radiation therapy, other conditions such as bowel obstruction, local malignant infiltration, and bowel perforation should also be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 32-year-old female patient comes in seeking emergency contraception after having unprotected sex with her ex-partner four days ago. She is determined to prevent a pregnancy. The patient has a history of ectopic pregnancy four years ago, which led to a salpingectomy. She is currently on day 14 of a 28-day cycle. What is the best course of action among the available options?
Your Answer: Insert an intrauterine device
Explanation:Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 22
Correct
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A 42-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a headache and thick nasal discharge that has persisted for six days. He reports the headache as a frontal pressure pain that worsens when he bends forward. He denies experiencing cough or general malaise. His vital signs are heart rate 62/min, respiratory rate 13/min, blood pressure 127/63 mmHg, and temperature 36.2 ºC. He has a medical history of asthma, which he manages with his salbutamol inhaler. What is the appropriate management plan for the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Analgesia and abundant fluids
Explanation:For uncomplicated acute sinusitis, antibiotics are not necessary. Instead, the recommended treatment is pain relief and staying hydrated. The patient in this scenario has typical symptoms of acute sinusitis, such as facial pain, nasal discharge, and difficulty breathing. Antibiotics are only prescribed in severe cases or when the patient is at high risk of complications. Co-amoxiclav is an example of an antibiotic that may be used in these situations. Intranasal corticosteroids may be prescribed if the condition lasts longer than ten days. Intranasal decongestants and oral corticosteroids are not effective treatments for acute sinusitis and should not be used.
Acute sinusitis is a condition where the mucous membranes of the paranasal sinuses become inflamed. This inflammation is usually caused by infectious agents such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and rhinoviruses. Certain factors can predispose individuals to this condition, including nasal obstruction, recent local infections, swimming/diving, and smoking. Symptoms of acute sinusitis include facial pain, nasal discharge, and nasal obstruction. Treatment options include analgesia, intranasal decongestants or nasal saline, and intranasal corticosteroids. Oral antibiotics may be prescribed for severe presentations, but they are not typically required. In some cases, an initial viral sinusitis can worsen due to secondary bacterial infection, which is known as double-sickening.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 23
Correct
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A 67-year-old man with a history of multiple myeloma complains of confusion, abdominal pain, and excessive thirst. The following blood results are available:
- Sodium: 145 mmol/L
- Potassium: 4.1 mmol/L
- Albumin: 35 g/L
- Calcium: 3.55 mmol/L
- Alkaline phosphatase: 120 IU/L
- Urea: 7.2 mmol/L
- Creatinine: 130 µmol/L
What is the primary initial approach to managing his symptoms?Your Answer: IV 0.9% saline
Explanation:In patients with hypercalcaemia, the initial treatment is IV fluid therapy. The man’s hypercalcaemia is caused by multiple myeloma, and he is experiencing polydipsia. Additionally, his sodium levels are nearing the upper limit of normal, indicating that he may be dehydrated.
Managing Hypercalcaemia
Hypercalcaemia is a condition where there is an excess of calcium in the blood. The initial management of hypercalcaemia involves rehydration with normal saline, typically 3-4 litres per day. This helps to flush out the excess calcium from the body. Once rehydration is achieved, bisphosphonates may be used to further lower the calcium levels. These drugs take 2-3 days to work, with maximal effect being seen at 7 days.
Calcitonin is another option for managing hypercalcaemia. It works quicker than bisphosphonates but is less commonly used due to its short duration of action. Steroids may be used in sarcoidosis, a condition that can cause hypercalcaemia.
Loop diuretics such as furosemide may also be used in hypercalcaemia, particularly in patients who cannot tolerate aggressive fluid rehydration. However, they should be used with caution as they may worsen electrolyte derangement and volume depletion.
In summary, the management of hypercalcaemia involves rehydration with normal saline followed by the use of bisphosphonates or other medications depending on the underlying cause of the condition. It is important to monitor electrolyte levels and adjust treatment accordingly to prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the least acknowledged complication of measles infection?
Your Answer: Pneumonia
Correct Answer: Infertility
Explanation:Measles: A Highly Infectious Viral Disease
Measles is a viral disease caused by an RNA paramyxovirus. It is one of the most infectious known viruses and is spread through aerosol transmission. The disease has an incubation period of 10-14 days and is infective from the prodromal phase until four days after the rash starts. Measles is now rare in developed countries due to immunization programs, but outbreaks can occur when vaccination rates drop, such as during the MMR controversy of the early 2000s.
The disease is characterized by a prodromal phase, which includes irritability, conjunctivitis, fever, and Koplik spots. The latter typically develop before the rash and are white spots on the buccal mucosa. The rash starts behind the ears and then spreads to the whole body, becoming a discrete maculopapular rash that may become blotchy and confluent. Desquamation may occur after a week, typically sparing the palms and soles. Diarrhea occurs in around 10% of patients.
Measles is mainly managed through supportive care, and admission may be considered in immunosuppressed or pregnant patients. The disease is notifiable, and public health should be informed. Complications of measles include otitis media, pneumonia (the most common cause of death), encephalitis (typically occurring 1-2 weeks following the onset of the illness), subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (very rare, may present 5-10 years following the illness), febrile convulsions, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased incidence of appendicitis, and myocarditis.
If an unimmunized child comes into contact with measles, MMR should be offered within 72 hours. Vaccine-induced measles antibody develops more rapidly than that following natural infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 25
Correct
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An 18-year-old woman who is sexually active presents to her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of dysuria and abdominal pain. A urine dipstick test is positive for leukocytes and a pregnancy test is negative. The GP prescribes a course of trimethoprim, but the patient returns one week later with persistent symptoms. Despite negative results from a high vaginal swab and urine culture taken during the first visit, what is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of a Female Patient with Dysuria and Abdominal Pain
A female patient presents with dysuria and abdominal pain, but a negative urine culture and lack of response to trimethoprim suggest an alternative diagnosis to urinary tract infection. Here are some possible differential diagnoses:
Chlamydia trachomatis: This sexually transmitted micro-organism can cause cervicitis, salpingitis, endometritis, and urethritis. Many carriers are asymptomatic, but nucleic acid amplification can diagnose the infection from a urine sample, endocervical or vulvovaginal swab.
Trichomonas vaginalis: This protozoan causes trichomoniasis, a sexually transmitted infection that commonly presents with abnormal vaginal discharge, odour, itching, burning, soreness, and dyspareunia. Abdominal pain and dysuria are not typical symptoms.
Escherichia coli: This bacterium is the most common cause of uncomplicated UTIs, but negative urine cultures and trimethoprim resistance suggest an alternative diagnosis.
Candida albicans: This fungus can cause vulvovaginal thrush, which may present with dysuria and vulval pruritus, but not abdominal pain. A high vaginal swab can diagnose the infection.
Bacterial vaginosis: This overgrowth of bacteria in the vagina affects vaginal pH and causes a fishy smelling discharge, but not abdominal pain or dysuria. A high vaginal swab can diagnose the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 26
Incorrect
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What is the factor that is most likely to stimulate renin?
Your Answer: Hypernatraemia
Correct Answer: Hypovolaemia
Explanation:Hormones and their roles in regulating fluid balance
Renin, ACTH, ANP, and ADH are hormones that play important roles in regulating fluid balance in the body. Renin is secreted by the kidneys in response to a decrease in blood volume, and it stimulates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system to increase extracellular volume and arterial vasoconstriction. ACTH, secreted by the pituitary gland, increases production and release of cortisol by the adrenal gland. ANP, secreted by heart myocytes, acts as a vasodilator to reduce water, sodium, and adipose loads on the circulatory system, counteracting the effects of the renin-angiotensin system. ADH, also known as vasopressin, increases water permeability in the kidneys and increases peripheral vascular resistance to increase arterial blood pressure. Understanding the roles of these hormones is crucial in maintaining proper fluid balance in the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 70-year-old male, who migrated to the UK from India 8 years ago, presents to the respiratory clinic with a persistent cough and recent episodes of haemoptysis. The patient has never smoked and there are no notable findings on physical examination. A chest X-ray reveals a crescent of air partially outlining a cavitating mass in the right upper lobe. A CT scan of the chest is performed in both supine and prone positions, demonstrating movement of the mass within the cavity. The patient has not previously been screened for tuberculosis. What is the most probable cause of the mass?
Your Answer: Aspergilloma
Explanation:Cavitating lung lesions can be caused by various factors, including infections and malignancies. In this case, the absence of a smoking history makes small cell and squamous cell lung cancers less likely. Small cell lung cancers typically affect the hilar or peri-hilar areas, while squamous cell lung cancers may present with pulmonary symptoms or paraneoplastic syndromes.
An aspergilloma is a fungal ball that forms in an existing lung cavity, often caused by conditions such as tuberculosis, lung cancer, or cystic fibrosis. While it may not cause any symptoms, it can lead to coughing and severe haemoptysis (coughing up blood). Diagnosis can be made through a chest x-ray, which will show a rounded opacity with a possible crescent sign, as well as high levels of Aspergillus precipitins. In some cases, a CT scan may also be necessary to confirm the presence of the aspergilloma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 28
Correct
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A 68-year-old man presents with intermittent dull abdominal pain for the past few weeks. He reports no weight loss but has had one episode of dark, foul-smelling stool in the past week. On examination, he appears well and all vital signs are within normal limits. A rectal exam is unremarkable. Laboratory tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 112 g/L (normal range for males: 135-180 g/L), a hematocrit of 0.38 L/L (normal range: 0.37-0.49 L/L), a mean cell volume of 70 fL (normal range: 80-101 fL), a mean cell hemoglobin of 28 pg (normal range: 27-34 pg), a platelet count of 165 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400 * 109/L), and a white blood cell count of 6.4 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0 * 109/L). What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Your Answer: Refer on 2 week wait pathway
Explanation:Microcytic Anaemia: Causes and Considerations
Microcytic anaemia is a condition characterized by small red blood cells and low haemoglobin levels. There are several possible causes of microcytic anaemia, including iron-deficiency anaemia, thalassaemia, congenital sideroblastic anaemia, and lead poisoning. It is important to note that while anaemia of chronic disease can also present with microcytosis, it typically appears as a normocytic, normochromic picture.
In some cases, a normal haemoglobin level may be observed alongside microcytosis. This can be a red flag for polycythaemia rubra vera, which can cause iron-deficiency secondary to bleeding. Additionally, new onset microcytic anaemia in elderly patients should be investigated promptly to rule out underlying malignancy. It is worth noting that in beta-thalassaemia minor, the microcytosis may be disproportionate to the anaemia.
Overall, understanding the potential causes and considerations of microcytic anaemia is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 29
Correct
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A 55-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with complaints of abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. His urine and serum tests reveal elevated ketone levels, and his serum glucose level is 3 mmol/L. An ABG is conducted, and the results are as follows:
pH 7.24
PaO2 14.7 kPa
PCO2 3.5 kPa
HCO3 13 mEq/L
What is the most probable cause of these findings?Your Answer: Alcoholic ketoacidosis
Explanation:If a patient is experiencing metabolic ketoacidosis with normal or low glucose levels, alcohol consumption should be considered as a possible cause. This condition is characterized by partial respiratory compensation. While diabetic ketoacidosis could also be a potential cause, a serum glucose level of 3mmol/L makes it less likely. Therefore, the patient is more likely to be suffering from alcoholic ketoacidosis. It is important to note that a hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state would present with high serum glucose levels and normal ketone levels, while a diabetic hypoglycemic episode would not typically result in elevated ketone levels or metabolic acidosis.
Alcoholic ketoacidosis is a type of ketoacidosis that occurs in individuals who consume large amounts of alcohol regularly. This condition is not related to diabetes and is characterized by normal blood sugar levels. Alcoholics often suffer from malnutrition due to their irregular eating habits and may vomit the food they consume, leading to starvation. When the body becomes malnourished, it starts breaking down body fat, which produces ketones and leads to ketoacidosis.
The typical symptoms of alcoholic ketoacidosis include metabolic acidosis, elevated anion gap, elevated serum ketone levels, and normal or low glucose concentration. The most effective treatment for this condition is an infusion of saline and thiamine. Thiamine is essential to prevent the development of Wernicke encephalopathy or Korsakoff psychosis. Therefore, it is crucial to provide timely and appropriate treatment to individuals suffering from alcoholic ketoacidosis to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 30
Incorrect
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An 85-year-old man complains of increasing back pain and overall weakness. An X-ray of his back reveals multiple vertebral collapses and lytic lesions.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Osteoporosis
Correct Answer: Multiple myeloma
Explanation:Understanding Multiple Myeloma: A Malignant Disease of Plasma Cells
Multiple myeloma is a malignant disease of plasma cells that commonly affects adults aged over 60 years. It is characterized by the production of paraproteinaemia in the blood, which can affect multiple organs including the blood, bone, kidneys, and immune system. The most common symptoms of multiple myeloma include unexplained bone pain, hypercalcaemia, weight loss, hyperviscosity symptoms, spinal cord compression, and fever.
On the other hand, osteoporosis is a condition characterized by low bone mass and deterioration of the structure of the bone tissue, resulting in bone fragility and susceptibility to fracture. Multiple vertebral collapses and lytic lesions are more sinister in nature and are commonly associated with multiple myeloma.
Osteosarcoma, bone metastases, and chronic myeloblastic leukaemia (CML) are not related to multiple myeloma. Osteosarcoma is characterized by cortical destruction and the presence of a soft-tissue mass, while bone metastases usually lead to destruction of the cortex on plain radiographs. Symptoms of CML include fatigue, night sweats, weight loss, abdominal fullness, and left upper quadrant pain.
In summary, understanding the symptoms and characteristics of multiple myeloma is crucial in diagnosing and treating this malignant disease of plasma cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 31
Correct
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An 80-year-old man comes to the liver clinic for his regular check-up. He has been a patient of the clinic for a while due to his liver cirrhosis caused by alcohol abuse. During the examination, he appears cachexic and jaundiced. Upon closer inspection of his abdomen, it is distended, and the shifting dullness test indicates the presence of free fluid in the abdomen. A sample of the fluid is collected, which shows 17g/l of fluid protein. What medication would be the most appropriate to prescribe?
Your Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:The recommended treatment for ascites in this patient with liver cirrhosis is spironolactone. This medication is an aldosterone antagonist that helps counteract the fluid overload caused by secondary hyperaldosteronism in patients with hepatic cirrhosis. Azathioprine is not appropriate for this patient as it is used to treat autoimmune hepatitis. Ciprofloxacin may be prescribed for spontaneous ascites, but only if the ascitic protein is 15 g/litre or less, which is not the case for this patient. Prednisolone is used for acute liver failure, which is not the diagnosis for this patient with chronic liver disease.
Spironolactone is a medication that works as an aldosterone antagonist in the cortical collecting duct. It is used to treat various conditions such as ascites, hypertension, heart failure, nephrotic syndrome, and Conn’s syndrome. In patients with cirrhosis, spironolactone is often prescribed in relatively large doses of 100 or 200mg to counteract secondary hyperaldosteronism. It is also used as a NICE ‘step 4’ treatment for hypertension. However, it is important to note that spironolactone can cause hyperkalaemia and gynaecomastia, although the latter is less common with eplerenone.
One study, known as RALES, found that low dose spironolactone can reduce all-cause mortality in patients with NYHA III + IV heart failure who are already taking an ACE inhibitor. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional before taking spironolactone to determine if it is the right medication for your specific condition and to monitor for any potential adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 32
Correct
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A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department in the middle of the night with worsening pain in his left leg. The pain began at rest approximately 2 hours ago and has now become severe. The patient has a history of peripheral arterial disease and continues to smoke 10 cigarettes per day. Upon examination, the left lower limb appears pale and feels cold with no signs of edema or trauma. The dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses are absent on palpation and inaudible on a doppler exam, while the right lower limb pulses are palpable. The patient has received IV morphine. What is the most appropriate initial management for this individual?
Your Answer: IV unfractionated heparin and urgent vascular review
Explanation:The appropriate initial management for acute limb ischaemia involves urgent vascular review and administration of IV unfractionated heparin for anticoagulation. The patient’s sudden onset of symptoms and absence of pulses on Doppler examination suggest arterial thrombosis, which is a surgical emergency. Low molecular weight heparin and a lower limb venous ultrasound scan are not indicated, as the thrombus is likely arterial. Similarly, ankle-brachial pressure index and imaging studies such as CT or lower limb arterial Doppler ultrasound should not delay urgent vascular review in this critical situation.
Peripheral arterial disease can present in three main ways: intermittent claudication, critical limb ischaemia, and acute limb-threatening ischaemia. The latter is characterized by one or more of the 6 P’s: pale, pulseless, painful, paralysed, paraesthetic, and perishing with cold. Initial investigations include a handheld arterial Doppler examination and an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABI) if Doppler signals are present. It is important to determine whether the ischaemia is due to a thrombus or embolus, as this will guide management. Thrombus is suggested by pre-existing claudication with sudden deterioration, reduced or absent pulses in the contralateral limb, and evidence of widespread vascular disease. Embolus is suggested by a sudden onset of painful leg (<24 hours), no history of claudication, clinically obvious source of embolus, and no evidence of peripheral vascular disease. Initial management includes an ABC approach, analgesia, intravenous unfractionated heparin, and vascular review. Definitive management options include intra-arterial thrombolysis, surgical embolectomy, angioplasty, bypass surgery, or amputation for irreversible ischaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man attends his cousin's bachelor party where they go to a seafood buffet. After consuming eight plates of food, he finally feels full and they head to a nearby bar.
Four hours later, he is at a dart tournament when he suddenly feels sick and starts vomiting uncontrollably. He goes home and the vomiting stops overnight. The next day, he feels better and is relieved that he did not experience any diarrhea.
What is the probable organism responsible for his illness?Your Answer: Shigella
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Gastroenteritis can occur either at home or while traveling, known as travelers’ diarrhea. This condition is characterized by at least three loose to watery stools in 24 hours, accompanied by abdominal cramps, fever, nausea, vomiting, or blood in the stool. The most common cause of travelers’ diarrhea is Escherichia coli. Acute food poisoning is another pattern of illness that results in sudden onset of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea after ingesting a toxin. Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, or Clostridium perfringens are typically responsible for acute food poisoning.
There are several types of infections that can cause gastroenteritis, each with its own typical presentation. Escherichia coli is common among travelers and causes watery stools, abdominal cramps, and nausea. Giardiasis results in prolonged, non-bloody diarrhea, while cholera causes profuse, watery diarrhea and severe dehydration leading to weight loss. Shigella causes bloody diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain, while Staphylococcus aureus results in severe vomiting with a short incubation period. Campylobacter typically starts with a flu-like prodrome and progresses to crampy abdominal pains, fever, and diarrhea, which may be bloody and mimic appendicitis. Bacillus cereus can cause two types of illness, vomiting within six hours, typically due to rice, or diarrheal illness occurring after six hours. Amoebiasis has a gradual onset of bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tenderness that may last for several weeks.
The incubation period for gastroenteritis varies depending on the type of infection. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus have an incubation period of 1-6 hours, while Salmonella and Escherichia coli have an incubation period of 12-48 hours. Shigella and Campylobacter have an incubation period of 48-72 hours, while Giardiasis and Amoebiasis have an incubation period of more than seven days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 34
Correct
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As a junior doctor in psychiatry, you are evaluating a young man in the Emergency Department who was brought in by the police for carrying a knife. Your conversation with him goes as follows:
Doctor: I see that the police have brought you in from the town centre today. Can you tell me why, as a young man, you felt the need to carry a knife?Your Answer: Tangentiality
Explanation:Tangentiality is when someone goes off on a tangent and does not return to the original topic. It is a type of formal thought disorder that is often seen in people with schizophrenia. The person may provide excessive and unnecessary details that are somewhat relevant to the question but never answer the central point. Circumstantiality is similar, but the person ultimately provides an answer. Clang associations involve using words that sound similar but have no logical connection, while perseveration is when someone continues to respond to a previous question even after a new one has been asked.
Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 35
Correct
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A 55-year-old man visits the clinic with concerns about his worsening haemorrhoids. He reports having to manually push them back in after bowel movements.
Which class of haemorrhoids is most likely present?Your Answer: Grade III
Explanation:Understanding the Grading System for Hemorrhoids
Hemorrhoids are a common condition that affects many people. To help diagnose and treat this condition, clinicians use a grading system to classify the severity of the hemorrhoids. The grading system proposed by Banov et al. in 1985 is the most commonly used system.
Grade I hemorrhoids are the mildest form and only project into the anal canal. They often bleed but do not prolapse. Grade II hemorrhoids may protrude beyond the anal verge with straining or defecating, but reduce spontaneously when straining ceases. Grade III hemorrhoids protrude spontaneously or with straining and require manual reduction. Grade IV hemorrhoids are the most severe and chronically prolapse. They cannot be reduced and may present with acute thrombosis or strangulation. These lesions usually contain both internal and external components.
The grading system helps clinicians correlate symptoms with therapeutic approaches. For example, grade I and II hemorrhoids may be treated with conservative measures such as dietary changes and topical medications. Grade III and IV hemorrhoids may require more invasive treatments such as rubber band ligation or surgery.
In conclusion, understanding the grading system for hemorrhoids is important for both patients and clinicians. It helps guide treatment decisions and ensures the best possible outcome for those affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents to you with her husband. Her husband complains of frequently waking up in the middle of the night and experiencing difficulty in breathing. She also notes that he feels excessively tired during the day and often dozes off while reading the newspaper. You suspect moderate sleep apnoea and decide to refer him for further evaluation. The patient is curious about the treatment options available. What is the primary treatment for moderate sleep apnoea?
Your Answer: Bilevel Positive Airway Pressure (BiPAP)
Correct Answer: Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
Explanation:Understanding Obstructive Sleep Apnoea/Hypopnoea Syndrome
Obstructive sleep apnoea/hypopnoea syndrome (OSAHS) is a condition where the upper airway becomes partially or completely blocked during sleep, leading to interrupted breathing and reduced oxygen levels in the body. There are several predisposing factors for OSAHS, including obesity, macroglossia, large tonsils, and Marfan’s syndrome. The condition is often characterized by excessive snoring and periods of apnoea, which can be reported by the patient’s partner.
OSAHS can have several consequences, including daytime somnolence, compensated respiratory acidosis, and hypertension. To assess sleepiness, healthcare professionals may use tools such as the Epworth Sleepiness Scale or the Multiple Sleep Latency Test. Diagnostic tests for OSAHS include sleep studies, ranging from monitoring pulse oximetry to full polysomnography.
Management of OSAHS typically involves weight loss and continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) as the first line of treatment for moderate or severe cases. Intra-oral devices may be used if CPAP is not tolerated or for patients with mild OSAHS. It is important to inform the DVLA if OSAHS is causing excessive daytime sleepiness. While there is limited evidence to support the use of pharmacological agents, healthcare professionals may consider them in certain cases.
Overall, understanding OSAHS and its management is crucial for improving the quality of life for patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of central chest pain that started 8 hours ago. The pain is spreading to his left jaw. He has a medical history of hypertension and hyperlipidaemia.
Upon conducting an ECG, it shows ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF. Troponin levels are significantly elevated. The patient is given 300mg of aspirin and sublingual glyceryl trinitrate.
Unfortunately, the nearest hospital that can provide primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is 4 hours away. What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Immediately transfer for PCI
Correct Answer: Administer fibrinolysis
Explanation:For the management of STEMI, guidelines recommend primary PCI within 120 minutes of presentation or within 12 hours of symptom onset. As this patient presented with 10 hours of pain and transfer to the nearest hospital for PCI would take 3 hours, fibrinolysis should be offered instead. Giving unfractionated heparin and a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitor is inappropriate in this case. The patient should not be immediately transferred for PCI, but if the ST elevation is not resolved on a repeat ECG taken 90 minutes after fibrinolysis, then transfer for PCI should be considered. Rechecking troponin in 120 minutes is not necessary, and repeating an ECG in 120 minutes is not the next most important step. Administering fibrinolysis and taking a repeat ECG at the 90-minute mark are the appropriate next steps.
Managing Acute Coronary Syndrome: A Summary of NICE Guidelines
Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a common and serious medical condition that requires prompt management. The management of ACS has evolved over the years, with the development of new drugs and procedures such as percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of ACS in 2020.
ACS can be classified into three subtypes: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. The management of ACS depends on the subtype. However, there are common initial drug therapies for all patients with ACS, such as aspirin and nitrates. Oxygen should only be given if the patient has oxygen saturations below 94%, and morphine should only be given for severe pain.
For patients with STEMI, the first step is to assess eligibility for coronary reperfusion therapy, which can be either PCI or fibrinolysis. Patients with NSTEMI/unstable angina require a risk assessment using the Global Registry of Acute Coronary Events (GRACE) tool to determine whether they need coronary angiography (with follow-on PCI if necessary) or conservative management.
This summary provides an overview of the NICE guidelines for managing ACS. The guidelines are complex and depend on individual patient factors, so healthcare professionals should review the full guidelines for further details. Proper management of ACS can improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman experiences hypertension during the third trimester of her initial pregnancy. Upon conducting a 24-hour urine collection, it is revealed that she has 0.5g protein. Which of the following complications is the least commonly associated with this condition?
Your Answer: Fetal prematurity
Correct Answer: Transverse myelitis
Explanation:Transverse myelitis is not linked to pre-eclampsia.
Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, and age over 40. Aspirin may be recommended for women with high or moderate risk factors. Treatment involves emergency assessment, admission for observation, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 39
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of fatigue and sudden shortness of breath. An urgent full blood count is performed and the patient is diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL).
What is the most probable first-line treatment option for this patient's leukemia?Your Answer: Chemotherapy
Explanation:Treatment Options for Acute Leukaemia: Chemotherapy, Stem-Cell Transplant, Blood Transfusion, Intravenous Immunoglobulins, and Radiotherapy
Acute leukaemias, such as acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL), are characterized by an increase in primitive undifferentiated blast cells in the bone marrow and blood, leading to marrow failure. The traditional treatment for ALL involves four components: induction, consolidation, maintenance, and central nervous system (CNS) prophylaxis. The first-line therapy for ALL is combination chemotherapy, which aims to eradicate the blast cells. Once remission is induced, maintenance chemotherapy is given to eliminate the disease that cannot be detected under the microscope.
Stem-cell transplants can be used to treat ALL once remission is induced using chemotherapy. This treatment can be allogeneic (the patient receives stem cells from a matched or partially mismatched related or unrelated donor) or autologous (the patient receives their own stem cells). The goal of a stem-cell transplant is to restore the body’s ability to produce normal blood cells. While it can be a curative treatment for patients with this disease, it is not used as a first-line treatment.
Blood transfusions are not a treatment for acute leukaemia, but they may be necessary to treat anaemia or platelet deficiency. Patients with leukaemia are at risk of graft-versus-host disease, so they are typically given irradiated blood components. Intravenous immunoglobulins are not used to treat acute leukaemia but may be used prophylactically against infection in patients with hypogammaglobulinaemia due to cancer treatment.
Radiotherapy is not a first-line treatment for acute leukaemia, but it may be used to treat the brain or spinal cord if the disease has spread there. Total body radiotherapy may also be used before a stem-cell transplant to suppress the immune system and reduce the risk of transplant rejection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 40
Correct
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A 29-year-old man who has recently arrived in the UK from Uganda visits the clinic with complaints of exhaustion and purple skin lesions all over his body. During the examination, you observe multiple raised purple lesions on his trunk and arms. Additionally, you notice some smaller purple lesions in his mouth. He has recently initiated acyclovir treatment for herpes zoster infection. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Kaposi's sarcoma
Explanation:The presence of raised purple lesions is a typical indication of Kaposi’s sarcoma, which may suggest that the patient has an underlying HIV infection. Given the high prevalence of HIV in Uganda and the recent occurrence of herpes zoster, it is possible that the patient’s immune system is compromised. Dermatofibromas, which are typically small and firm, would not be found in the mouth, while psoriasis is characterized by red, scaly lesions that do not appear on mucosal surfaces. A drug reaction is an unlikely explanation for the patient’s symptoms. Although a haemangioma can present as a purple raised lesion, it is uncommon to find them in the mouth, and Kaposi’s sarcoma is a more likely diagnosis in this case.
Kaposi’s Sarcoma in HIV Patients
Kaposi’s sarcoma is a type of cancer that is commonly seen in patients with HIV. It is caused by the human herpes virus 8 (HHV-8) and is characterized by the appearance of purple papules or plaques on the skin or mucosa. These lesions may later ulcerate, causing discomfort and pain. In some cases, respiratory involvement may occur, leading to massive haemoptysis and pleural effusion.
Treatment for Kaposi’s sarcoma typically involves a combination of radiotherapy and resection. This can help to reduce the size of the lesions and prevent further spread of the cancer. However, it is important to note that Kaposi’s sarcoma can be a serious and potentially life-threatening condition, particularly in patients with HIV. As such, it is important for individuals with HIV to be regularly screened for this condition and to seek prompt medical attention if any symptoms are present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 41
Correct
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A 62-year-old retired construction worker is found to have haematuria during a routine check-up. He has a past history of hypertension, for which he takes medication. An abdominal X-ray shows no signs of renal stones. Blood tests reveal elevated plasma viscosity and mild anaemia, with a haemoglobin level of 110 g/l (reference range 120–160 g/l) and a slightly low ferritin level.
What is the most likely diagnosis based on this clinical presentation?Your Answer: Bladder cancer
Explanation:Bladder cancer is a prevalent type of urologic cancer that has a high recurrence rate. The most common type is transitional cell carcinoma, which is associated with environmental exposure, particularly smoking and certain occupations. Symptoms include painless gross hematuria, irritative bladder symptoms, and pelvic pain. Diagnosis is made through cystoscopy, which allows for biopsy and resection of papillary tumors. Treatment for non-muscle-invasive bladder cancer involves transurethral resection of the bladder tumor, followed by intravesical chemotherapy, intravesical BCG vaccine, and repeat resection and/or cystectomy in persistent or recurrent high-risk disease. Muscle-invasive bladder cancer is treated surgically, possibly with neoadjuvant chemotherapy.
Chronic urinary tract infections typically present as dysuria or irritative voiding symptoms and are most commonly caused by infection with the original bacterial isolate in young, otherwise healthy women. Women with recurrent symptomatic UTIs can be treated with continuous or post-coital prophylactic antibiotics.
Interstitial cystitis is an ongoing inflammation of the lower urinary tract that is not caused by pathogenic organisms. It affects mainly women over the age of 40 and presents as severe lower abdominal pain and polyuria. It is generally a diagnosis of exclusion.
Analgesic nephropathy is characterized by kidney injury caused by excessive use of analgesic medications such as aspirin and other NSAIDs and paracetamol. This leads to renal papillary necrosis and chronic interstitial nephritis. Most healthy kidneys contain enough physiologic reserve to compensate for this NSAID-induced decrease in blood flow.
Acute interstitial nephritis is a type of hypersensitivity nephropathy that is often drug-associated. Patients present with an abrupt onset of renal dysfunction, fever, and occasionally a rash.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 42
Correct
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A 50-year-old man arrives at the emergency department following a serious car accident resulting in chest injuries. The paramedics had trouble establishing IV access. Upon arrival, he is unresponsive with a ventricular fibrillation ECG. ALS is initiated, but multiple attempts at cannulation fail. However, successful intubation is achieved.
What is the best course of action for administering ALS medications in this scenario?Your Answer: Intraosseous line insertion
Explanation:If it is not possible to obtain IV access in ALS, medications should be administered through the intraosseous route (IO) instead of the tracheal route, which is no longer advised.
The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman with a history of metastatic breast cancer experiences a grand mal seizure at home. She has been experiencing worsening headaches over the past few weeks. What is the most suitable initial management to be provided while awaiting brain imaging, considering the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Diazepam
Correct Answer: Dexamethasone
Explanation:It is probable that this female patient has cerebral metastases and the recommended initial treatment is administering high-dose dexamethasone to alleviate cerebral edema. Additionally, anti-epileptic medication like phenytoin may be prescribed to decrease the occurrence of seizures.
Understanding Corticosteroids and Their Side-Effects
Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed therapies used to replace or augment the natural activity of endogenous steroids. They can be administered systemically or locally, depending on the condition being treated. However, the usage of corticosteroids is limited due to their numerous side-effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic therapy.
Glucocorticoid side-effects include impaired glucose regulation, increased appetite and weight gain, hirsutism, hyperlipidaemia, Cushing’s syndrome, moon face, buffalo hump, striae, osteoporosis, proximal myopathy, avascular necrosis of the femoral head, immunosuppression, increased susceptibility to severe infection, reactivation of tuberculosis, insomnia, mania, depression, psychosis, peptic ulceration, acute pancreatitis, glaucoma, cataracts, suppression of growth in children, intracranial hypertension, and neutrophilia.
On the other hand, mineralocorticoid side-effects include fluid retention and hypertension. It is important to note that patients on long-term steroids should have their doses doubled during intercurrent illness. Longer-term systemic corticosteroids suppress the natural production of endogenous steroids, so they should not be withdrawn abruptly as this may precipitate an Addisonian crisis. The British National Formulary suggests gradual withdrawal of systemic corticosteroids if patients have received more than 40mg prednisolone daily for more than one week, received more than three weeks of treatment, or recently received repeated courses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman has been asked to come back for a follow-up cervical smear by her GP. She had her routine cervical smear done a year ago which revealed the presence of high-risk HPV but no abnormal cytology. Her follow-up cervical smear still shows positive for high-risk HPV with no cytological abnormalities.
What is the best course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Refer for colposcopy
Correct Answer: Repeat cervical smear in 12 months
Explanation:If the 1st repeat smear at 12 months is still positive for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV), the correct course of action is to repeat the smear 12 months later (i.e. at 24 months). Colposcopy is not indicated in this case, as it would only be necessary if this was her 3rd successive annual cervical smear that is still positive for hrHPV but with no cytological abnormalities. Repeating the cervical smear after 3 months is also not necessary, as this is only indicated if the first smear is inadequate. Similarly, repeating the cervical smear in 3 years is not appropriate, as hrHPV has been detected. Repeating the cervical smear after 6 months is also not necessary, as this is usually done as a test of cure following treatment for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 45
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman who is 20 weeks pregnant attends the antenatal clinic. She had an OGTT at her booking visit due to a family history of type II diabetes mellitus.
The results at the 14-week booking were:
Fasting glucose 6.2 mmol/L Normal <5.6 mmol/L
2-hour post glucose challenge 9.5 mmol/L Normal <7.8mmol/L
A decision is made to start metformin 500mg twice daily and she is provided with information leaflets regarding diet and lifestyle modification.
On review today at 20 weeks gestation her repeat OGTT results are as follows:
Fasting glucose 6.1 mmol/L Normal <5.3 mmol/L
2-hour post glucose challenge 7.5 mmol/L Normal <6.4 mmol/L
What is the next most appropriate action for managing her blood glucose levels?Your Answer: Add insulin
Explanation:If blood glucose targets are not achieved through diet and metformin in gestational diabetes, insulin should be introduced.
The patient in this case was diagnosed with gestational diabetes during their initial appointment. Despite attempting metformin, their fasting and two-hour post glucose challenge blood glucose levels remain elevated above the normal range. Therefore, insulin should be added to their treatment plan. Choosing to make no changes to their treatment plan is not the correct answer, as this could lead to increased risks for the fetus, such as the development of polyhydramnios or macrosomia. While referral for dietary and exercise regimens may be considered, this is likely to be a first-line intervention, and further escalation of medical therapy is necessary for the health of the fetus. Increasing the dose of metformin is not the correct answer, as the NICE guidelines recommend starting insulin when initial interventions have been unsuccessful. Waiting two weeks to repeat the results would delay necessary treatment intensification, which is required at the current clinic appointment.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man complains of lower urinary tract symptoms. He has been experiencing urinary urgency and occasional incontinence for the past few months. He reports no difficulty with urinary flow, hesitancy, or straining. Prostate examination and urinalysis reveal no abnormalities. What medication is most likely to relieve his symptoms?
Your Answer: Desmopressin
Correct Answer: Antimuscarinic
Explanation:Patients with an overactive bladder can benefit from antimuscarinic drugs. Oxybutynin, tolterodine, and darifenacin are some examples of effective medications. However, before resorting to medication, it is important to discuss conservative measures with the patient and offer bladder training.
Lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS) are a common issue in men over the age of 50, with benign prostatic hyperplasia being the most common cause. However, other causes such as prostate cancer should also be considered. These symptoms can be classified into three groups: voiding, storage, and post-micturition. To properly manage LUTS, it is important to conduct a urinalysis to check for infection and haematuria, perform a digital rectal examination to assess the size and consistency of the prostate, and possibly conduct a PSA test after proper counselling. Patients should also complete a urinary frequency-volume chart and an International Prostate Symptom Score to guide management.
For predominantly voiding symptoms, conservative measures such as pelvic floor muscle training, bladder training, and prudent fluid intake can be helpful. If symptoms are moderate or severe, an alpha-blocker may be offered. If the prostate is enlarged and the patient is at high risk of progression, a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor should be offered. If there are mixed symptoms of voiding and storage not responding to an alpha-blocker, an antimuscarinic drug may be added. For predominantly overactive bladder symptoms, moderating fluid intake and bladder retraining should be offered, and antimuscarinic drugs may be prescribed if symptoms persist. Mirabegron may be considered if first-line drugs fail. For nocturia, moderating fluid intake at night, furosemide 40mg in the late afternoon, and desmopressin may be helpful.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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During your FY2 rotation in General Practice, you saw a 76-year-old man in your GP clinic who had been experiencing blurring of vision in his right eye for the past 5 months. He finally decided to seek medical attention because he felt his vision was becoming increasingly distorted. Upon examination, there were no signs of inflammation in either eye, and both corneas were clear with no fluorescein uptake. However, on dilated fundoscopy, you noticed yellowish deposits in the center of the macula in his right eye. What is the curative treatment for this condition?
Your Answer: High doses of beta-carotene, vitamins C and E, and zinc
Correct Answer: None
Explanation:Dry age-related macular degeneration, characterized by yellowish drusen deposits, currently has no cure. However, high doses of beta-carotene, vitamins C and E, and zinc can be administered to slow down the progression of visual loss. On the other hand, wet AMD can be treated with intravitreal anti-VEGF injections, laser photocoagulation, and photodynamic therapy.
Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.
To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.
In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 48
Correct
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A patient with pyogenic meningitis has been admitted and the husband is worried about contracting the disease. What is the recommended prophylaxis in this situation? Choose ONE option from the list provided.
Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Antibiotics for Meningitis: Recommended Drugs and Dosages
Meningitis is a serious infection that affects the membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord. Antibiotics are the mainstay of treatment for meningitis, and prophylactic antibiotics are also recommended for close contacts of infected individuals. Here are the recommended drugs and dosages for meningitis treatment and prophylaxis:
Ciprofloxacin: This antibiotic is now the preferred choice for prophylaxis in all age groups and in pregnancy. It is a single dose and readily available in pharmacies, and does not interact with oral contraceptives. It should be given to all close contacts of probable or confirmed meningococcal meningitis, with dosages ranging from 250 mg to 500 mg depending on age.
Metronidazole: This drug has no role in the treatment of acute meningitis.
Ceftriaxone: This antibiotic has good penetration into inflamed meninges and can be given via intramuscular or oral route. It can be used in monotherapy in adults under 60 years old, or in dual therapy with amoxicillin in older adults.
Co-trimoxazole: This drug is an alternative to cefotaxime or ceftriaxone in older adults, and is also used in individuals with meningitis from Listeria monocytogenes infection.
Vancomycin: This antibiotic is recommended in cases of penicillin resistance or suspected penicillin-resistant pneumococci, but should never be used in monotherapy due to doubts about its penetration into adult CSF.
Chemoprophylaxis: Close contacts of infected individuals should receive prophylactic antibiotics to prevent nasopharyngeal carriage of the organism. Ciprofloxacin is the first-line choice, with dosages ranging from 10 mg/kg to 600 mg depending on age. Rifampicin can be given as an alternative for those unable to take ciprofloxacin.
It is important to seek microbiology and public health advice if in doubt about the appropriate antibiotics and dosages for meningitis treatment and prophylaxis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 49
Correct
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You are requested to evaluate a 65-year-old woman who has been admitted to your ward with a lower respiratory tract infection. She has a medical history of hypertension and gout and is currently taking amlodipine 10mg once daily and allopurinol 100mg once daily. You observe that her blood pressure has been consistently high over the past three days, with readings of 149/76 mmHg, 158/88 mmHg, and 150/82 mmHg. Which antihypertensive medication would be the most suitable to initiate?
Your Answer: Lisinopril
Explanation:For a patient with poorly controlled hypertension who is already taking a calcium channel blocker, the addition of an ACE inhibitor, angiotensin receptor blocker, or thiazide-like diuretic is recommended. In this case, since the patient’s hypertension remains uncontrolled, it is appropriate to start them on an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, such as lisinopril. Atenolol would be a suitable option if the patient was already taking a calcium channel blocker, ACE inhibitor/ARB, and thiazide-like diuretic with a potassium level above 4.5 mmol/L. However, since the patient has a history of gout, thiazide-like diuretics like bendroflumethiazide and indapamide should be avoided as they can exacerbate gout symptoms.
NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.
The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.
NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.
New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female presents to the gynaecology clinic with symptoms of endometriosis and severe dysmenorrhoea. Despite taking paracetamol and ibuprofen, she has not experienced much relief. She has no immediate plans to start a family. What is the initial recommended treatment option, assuming there are no contraindications?
Your Answer: Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) analogues
Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP)
Explanation:Understanding Endometriosis
Endometriosis is a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. It affects around 10% of women of reproductive age and can cause chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, painful intercourse, and subfertility. Other symptoms may include urinary problems and painful bowel movements. Diagnosis is typically made through laparoscopy, and treatment options depend on the severity of symptoms.
First-line treatments for symptomatic relief include NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. If these do not help, hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens may be tried. If symptoms persist or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Secondary treatments may include GnRH analogues or surgery. For women trying to conceive, laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis is recommended, as well as ovarian cystectomy for endometriomas.
It is important to note that there is poor correlation between laparoscopic findings and severity of symptoms, and that there is little role for investigation in primary care. If symptoms are significant, referral for a definitive diagnosis is recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 51
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman presents with worries about hair loss. She reports experiencing hair loss in small patches on her scalp. During examination, you observe distinct patches of hair loss with some ‘broken exclamation mark’ hairs at the edges.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Alopecia areata
Explanation:Understanding Hair Loss: Causes and Symptoms
Hair loss is a common concern for many individuals, causing anxiety and worry. There are various causes of hair loss, each with their own unique symptoms. Alopecia areata is a chronic inflammatory disease that affects the hair follicles, resulting in patchy, non-scarring hair loss on the scalp. Androgenic alopecia, on the other hand, is more common in men and causes a receding hairline and loss of hair from the top and front of the head. Fungal infections, such as tinea capitis, can also cause hair loss accompanied by scaling, itching, and pain. Scalp psoriasis can range from mild scaling to severe crusted plaques covering the entire scalp, while erosive pustular dermatosis of the scalp affects elderly individuals with scarring and yellow-brown crusts. It is important to understand the various causes and symptoms of hair loss in order to properly diagnose and treat the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 52
Correct
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An 82-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with fatigue, lethargy, weight loss and night sweats for the past six weeks. Clinical examination is unremarkable. His past medical history includes ischaemic heart disease and hypertension. His GP orders a set of blood tests. The full blood count results are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 135 g/l 135–175 g/l
White Blood Cells 21.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Neutrophils 2.8 ×109/l 2.5–7.58 ×109/l
Lymphocytes 18.2 × 109/l 1.5–3.5× 109/l
Platelets 160 g/l 150–400× 109/l
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL)
Explanation:Differential diagnosis for lymphocytosis in an elderly patient with vague symptoms
Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) is the most likely cause of lymphocytosis in an elderly patient who presents with vague symptoms such as weight loss, night sweats and fatigue for six weeks. CLL is one of the most common types of leukaemia in adults, typically occurring during or after middle age and rarely in children.
Other possible diagnoses can be ruled out based on additional clinical features. Patients with HIV tend to have lymphopenia, not lymphocytosis. Lymphomas usually present with an enlargement of a lymph node, which is not reported in this case. Patients with polymyalgia rheumatica tend to have a normal leukocyte count, with some cases having increased estimated sedimentation rate and/or C-reactive protein. A transient viral illness would be an unlikely cause of lymphocytosis in an elderly person with persistent symptoms.
Therefore, CLL should be considered as the most likely diagnosis in this case, and further tests such as flow cytometry and bone marrow biopsy may be needed to confirm the diagnosis and determine the stage of the disease. Treatment options for CLL depend on the stage and other factors such as age and overall health, and may include watchful waiting, chemotherapy, immunotherapy, or targeted therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 53
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman is brought into the emergency department by the police after being arrested in a local bar for odd and aggressive behaviour. Whilst taking a history she tells you that she can't understand why she has been arrested as she was just celebrating the fact that she has recently figured out how to solve world hunger and she wants to share this with everyone. You struggle to keep up with her pace of speech and throughout the consultation, she is aggressive and at times sexually inappropriate. An initial drug screen is clear and her bloods are unremarkable.
What is the most likely cause of her behaviour?Your Answer: Manic episode
Explanation:The woman is exhibiting clear indications of a manic episode, including rapid speech, uninhibited behavior, and grandiose delusions. Tests for drugs and alcohol have ruled out intoxication or drug-induced psychosis. Schizophrenia is unlikely as a first-time diagnosis, and the symptoms suggest mania or bipolar disorder. However, a diagnosis of bipolar disorder cannot be made without evidence of depressive symptoms. Therefore, the correct diagnosis in this case is an isolated manic episode of unknown origin.
Understanding the Difference between Hypomania and Mania
Hypomania and mania are two terms that are often used interchangeably, but they actually refer to two different conditions. While both conditions share some common symptoms, there are some key differences that set them apart.
Mania is a more severe form of hypomania that lasts for at least seven days and can cause significant impairment in social and work settings. It may require hospitalization due to the risk of harm to oneself or others and may present with psychotic symptoms such as delusions of grandeur or auditory hallucinations.
On the other hand, hypomania is a lesser version of mania that lasts for less than seven days, typically 3-4 days. It does not impair functional capacity in social or work settings and is unlikely to require hospitalization. It also does not exhibit any psychotic symptoms.
Both hypomania and mania share common symptoms such as elevated or irritable mood, pressured speech, flight of ideas, poor attention, insomnia, loss of inhibitions, increased appetite, and risk-taking behavior. However, the length of symptoms, severity, and presence of psychotic symptoms help differentiate mania from hypomania.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 54
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman comes to you with complaints of feeling low and having trouble sleeping. Upon further discussion and administering a validated symptom measure, you diagnose her with moderate depression. She has a medical history of ischemic heart disease and is currently on aspirin, ramipril, and simvastatin. What would be the best course of action in this situation?
Your Answer: Stop aspirin, start clopidrogrel + sertraline
Correct Answer: Start sertraline + lansoprazole
Explanation:Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 55
Correct
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A 61-year-old man presents to the emergency department after experiencing syncope. Upon assessment, his respiratory rate is 20/min, heart rate is 170/min, and BP is 78/40 mmHg. An ECG reveals a regular tachycardia with a wide complex. The patient is given a peripheral venous line, blood is drawn, and an ECG monitor is attached. What is the next best course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer: DC cardioversion
Explanation:Given the patient’s syncope, low BP, and regular wide complex tachycardia, which is likely to be ventricular tachycardia, the appropriate next step is DC cardioversion since the systolic BP is below 90 mmHg. Adenosine is not relevant in this scenario as it is used for managing narrow complex regular tachycardia with no adverse features. Amiodarone is an antiarrhythmic medication that could be used to treat ventricular tachycardia, but it is not appropriate in this case due to the patient’s syncope and low BP.
Management of Peri-Arrest Tachycardias
The Resuscitation Council (UK) guidelines for the management of peri-arrest tachycardias have been simplified in the 2015 update. The previous separate algorithms for broad-complex tachycardia, narrow complex tachycardia, and atrial fibrillation have been replaced by a unified treatment algorithm. After basic ABC assessment, patients are classified as stable or unstable based on the presence of adverse signs such as hypotension, pallor, sweating, confusion, or impaired consciousness. If any of these signs are present, synchronised DC shocks should be given, up to a maximum of three shocks.
The treatment following this is based on whether the QRS complex is narrow or broad and whether the rhythm is regular or irregular. For broad-complex tachycardia, a loading dose of amiodarone followed by a 24-hour infusion is given if the rhythm is regular. If the rhythm is irregular, expert help should be sought as it could be due to atrial fibrillation with bundle branch block, atrial fibrillation with ventricular pre-excitation, or torsade de pointes.
For narrow-complex tachycardia, vagal manoeuvres followed by IV adenosine are given if the rhythm is regular. If unsuccessful, atrial flutter is considered, and rate control is achieved with beta-blockers. If the rhythm is irregular, it is likely due to atrial fibrillation, and electrical or chemical cardioversion is considered if the onset is less than 48 hours. Beta-blockers are usually the first-line treatment for rate control unless contraindicated. The full treatment algorithm can be found on the Resuscitation Council website.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 56
Correct
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A 4-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Department with haemarthrosis in the knee and elbow after a trivial injury. She is otherwise fit and well. The patient’s mother suffers from Christmas disease.
What investigation should be organised to confirm this diagnosis in this patient?Your Answer: Factor IX activity level
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Haemophilia and Related Conditions
Haemophilia is a genetic disorder that affects the blood’s ability to clot properly, leading to spontaneous or excessive bleeding. To diagnose haemophilia and related conditions, several diagnostic tests are available.
Factor IX Activity Level: Lack of factor IX leads to Christmas disease, the second most common type of haemophilia. To diagnose haemophilia, the levels of clotting factor present in the blood must be measured.
Platelet Count: The platelet count is usually normal in patients with haemophilia. Reduced platelets would suggest an alternative diagnosis. However, it is still important to check the platelet count to exclude thrombocytopenia as a cause of unexplained bleeding.
Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT): Blood tests in haemophilia usually demonstrate a prolonged aPTT. However, patients with moderate disease can still have a normal aPTT if their factor activity level is > 15%.
Urinalysis: Urinalysis in patients with haemophilia may demonstrate the presence of haematuria, but by itself is not diagnostic of the condition.
von Willebrand Factor Antigen: The plasma von Willebrand factor antigen is normal in individuals with haemophilia. Reduced von Willebrand factor suggests the possibility of von Willebrand disease (VWD).
In conclusion, a combination of these diagnostic tests is necessary to diagnose haemophilia and related conditions accurately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 57
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP clinic complaining of a left groin lump that has been present for the past month. Although not severely painful, it causes occasional abdominal discomfort, especially when she goes jogging in the mornings. Her medical history includes polycystic ovarian syndrome, but she has been otherwise healthy with no recent illnesses.
During the examination, her vital signs are found to be within normal limits. A 3x3cm lump is observed in her left groin, located superiorly and medially to the pubic tubercle. The lump is visible while standing but disappears when she lies flat.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Inguinal hernia
Explanation:The patient is experiencing an inguinal hernia, which is when abdominal contents protrude through the abdominal wall and create a lump in the groin area. This lump may be more noticeable when the patient coughs or strains, and can cause pain and discomfort. Inguinal hernias are typically located above and towards the middle of the pubic tubercle. Femoral hernias, which are less common, present similarly but are located lower and to the side of the pubic tubercle. A femoral artery aneurysm, lipoma, or saphena varix are not likely causes based on the patient’s symptoms and examination findings.
Understanding Inguinal Hernias
Inguinal hernias are the most common type of abdominal wall hernias, with 75% of cases falling under this category. They are more prevalent in men, with a 25% lifetime risk of developing one. The main feature of an inguinal hernia is a lump in the groin area, which is located superior and medial to the pubic tubercle. This lump disappears when pressure is applied or when the patient lies down. Discomfort and aching are common symptoms, which can worsen with activity, but severe pain is rare. Strangulation, a serious complication, is uncommon.
The clinical management of inguinal hernias involves treating medically fit patients, even if they are asymptomatic. A hernia truss may be an option for patients who are not fit for surgery, but it has little role in other patients. Mesh repair is the preferred method of treatment, as it is associated with the lowest recurrence rate. Unilateral hernias are generally repaired with an open approach, while bilateral and recurrent hernias are repaired laparoscopically. Patients can return to non-manual work after 2-3 weeks following an open repair and after 1-2 weeks following laparoscopic repair, according to the Department for Work and Pensions.
Complications of inguinal hernias include early bruising and wound infection, as well as late chronic pain and recurrence. While traditional textbooks describe the anatomical differences between indirect and direct hernias, this is not relevant to clinical management. Overall, understanding the features, management, and complications of inguinal hernias is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after fainting. She is now conscious and able to provide a medical history. The patient mentions having a condition, but cannot recall the name. She shows the doctor the medication she takes, which is a somatostatin analogue.
What medical condition can be treated with somatostatin analogues?Your Answer: Conn syndrome
Correct Answer: Acromegaly
Explanation:Acromegaly is a condition caused by excessive secretion of growth hormone from an anterior pituitary tumor, resulting in enlarged hands, feet, and jaw, as well as other symptoms. While surgery is the preferred treatment, somatostatin analogues such as octreotide and lanreotide can be used if surgery fails. Somatostatin is an inhibitory hormone that can suppress growth hormone release. However, it can also cause side effects such as bradycardia, hypothyroidism, and hypoglycemia. Cushing’s disease, caused by excess adrenocorticotropic hormone, can be treated with pituitary gland removal, radiotherapy, or cortisol-inhibiting medications. Conn syndrome, or primary aldosteronism, is usually treated with surgery. Type I diabetes is treated with insulin, while Type II diabetes is treated with insulin and oral hypoglycemic agents. Parathyroid adenomas are also treated surgically.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 59
Correct
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A concerned parent brings her 4-month-old to your clinic with a bright red lump on their scalp that has been gradually increasing in size over the past 6 weeks. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Capillary haemangioma
Explanation:Port wine stain and naevus flammeus are two different conditions that are often confused with each other. While they both present as red or purple birthmarks, port wine stains are caused by a malformation of blood vessels in the skin, while naevus flammeus is a type of capillary malformation.
Understanding Strawberry Naevus
Strawberry naevus, also known as capillary haemangioma, is a type of skin condition that usually develops in infants within the first month of life. It is characterized by raised, erythematous, and multilobed tumours that commonly appear on the face, scalp, and back. While it is not present at birth, it can grow rapidly and reach its peak size at around 6-9 months before regressing over the next few years. In fact, around 95% of cases resolve before the child reaches 10 years of age. However, there are potential complications that may arise, such as obstructing visual fields or airway, bleeding, ulceration, and thrombocytopaenia.
Capillary haemangiomas are more common in white infants, particularly in female and premature infants, as well as those whose mothers have undergone chorionic villous sampling. In cases where treatment is necessary, propranolol is now the preferred choice over systemic steroids. Topical beta-blockers like timolol may also be used. It is important to note that there is a deeper type of capillary haemangioma called cavernous haemangioma. Understanding the nature of strawberry naevus is crucial in managing its potential complications and providing appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the Genitourinary Medicine Clinic with an 8-day history of dysuria and lower abdominal pain. She has had two sexual partners over the last three months and uses the combined oral contraceptive pill as contraception. She has noticed some spotting and post-coital bleeding since her last period and a foul-smelling vaginal discharge for the last few days. There is no past medical history of note and no known allergies.
On examination, she has lower abdominal tenderness but no guarding or palpable organomegaly. On examination, there is a thick yellow vaginal discharge and mildly tender palpable inguinal lymphadenopathy.
Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate management from the list below.
Select ONE option only.Your Answer: Benzylpenicillin
Correct Answer: Doxycycline
Explanation:Treatment Options for Sexually Transmitted Diseases
Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) can present with a variety of symptoms and signs. The most common STD is Chlamydia trachomatis, which can be asymptomatic or present with dysuria, abdominal pain, and vaginal discharge. Endocervical and high vaginal swabs should be taken, and a urinalysis and pregnancy test should be completed. The first-line treatment for C. trachomatis is doxycycline.
Ceftriaxone is indicated for Neisseria gonorrhoeae infections, which can present similarly to chlamydia with discharge and dysuria. However, the most likely diagnosis for this patient is C. trachomatis, making doxycycline the correct answer.
Benzylpenicillin is used in patients with suspected syphilis infection secondary to the spirochaete Treponema pallidum. Syphilis has primary, secondary, and tertiary stages with primary syphilis presenting as a painless chancre with local, non-tender lymphadenopathy prior to secondary disease with fever and a rash. This is not seen here, making syphilis a less likely diagnosis.
Metronidazole is the recommended treatment for bacterial vaginosis and Trichomonas vaginalis. However, it is not used in the treatment of C. trachomatis.
Trimethoprim would be the recommended treatment if this patient was diagnosed with a urinary-tract infection (UTI). While the history of lower abdominal pain and dysuria are suggestive of a UTI, a foul-smelling vaginal discharge points towards an alternative diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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