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  • Question 1 - A 60-year-old woman received a blood transfusion of 2 units of crossmatched blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman received a blood transfusion of 2 units of crossmatched blood 1 hour ago, following acute blood loss. She reports noticing a funny feeling in her chest, like her heart keeps missing a beat. You perform an electrocardiogram (ECG) which shows tall, tented T-waves and flattened P-waves in multiple leads.
      An arterial blood gas (ABG) test shows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Sodium (Na+) 136 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 7.1 mmol/l 5–5.0 mmol/l
      Chloride (Cl–) 96 mmol/l 95–105 mmol/l
      Given the findings, what treatment should be given immediately?

      Your Answer: Insulin and dextrose

      Correct Answer: Calcium gluconate

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Hyperkalaemia: Understanding the Role of Calcium Gluconate, Insulin and Dextrose, Calcium Resonium, Nebulised Salbutamol, and Dexamethasone

      Hyperkalaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood, which can lead to serious complications such as arrhythmias. When a patient presents with hyperkalaemia and ECG changes, the initial treatment is calcium gluconate. This medication stabilizes the myocardial membranes by reducing the excitability of cardiomyocytes. However, it does not reduce potassium levels, so insulin and dextrose are needed to correct the underlying hyperkalaemia. Insulin shifts potassium intracellularly, reducing serum potassium levels by 0.6-1.0 mmol/l every 15 minutes. Nebulised salbutamol can also drive potassium intracellularly, but insulin and dextrose are preferred due to their increased effectiveness and decreased side-effects. Calcium Resonium is a slow-acting treatment that removes potassium from the body by binding it and preventing its absorption in the gastrointestinal tract. While it can help reduce potassium levels in the long term, it is not effective in protecting the patient from arrhythmias acutely. Dexamethasone, a steroid, is not useful in the treatment of hyperkalaemia. Understanding the role of these treatment options is crucial in managing hyperkalaemia and preventing serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      37.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 54-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after falling from a step-ladder...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after falling from a step-ladder and landing on her back. She has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and is currently taking trimethoprim for a urinary tract infection. Upon examination, her GCS is 15/15, but her heart rate is only 50 beats/min and her blood pressure is 90/45 mmHg. Despite receiving intravenous fluids, her blood pressure only increases slightly to 91/47 mmHg. However, her peripheries are warm and her capillary refill time is less than 2 seconds. What is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neurogenic shock

      Explanation:

      This patient is experiencing neurogenic shock, which is a type of distributive shock. As a result, the patient’s peripheries will feel warm due to peripheral vasodilation. Neurogenic shock occurs when the autonomic nervous system is interrupted, leading to a decrease in sympathetic tone or an increase in parasympathetic tone. This causes marked vasodilation and a decrease in peripheral vascular resistance, resulting in warm peripheries. Unlike other types of shock, administering intravenous fluids will not improve the patient’s blood pressure. Anaphylactic shock, cardiogenic shock, and hemorrhagic shock are not the correct diagnoses for this patient. Anaphylactic shock is caused by exposure to an allergen, which is not present in this case. Cardiogenic shock is characterized by circulatory collapse and cool peripheries, while hemorrhagic shock causes vasoconstriction and cool peripheries to preserve blood volume. Additionally, the patient’s blood pressure did not improve after fluid resuscitation, making neurogenic shock a more likely diagnosis.

      Understanding Shock: Aetiology and Management

      Shock is a condition that occurs when there is inadequate tissue perfusion. It can be caused by various factors, including sepsis, haemorrhage, neurogenic injury, cardiogenic events, and anaphylaxis. Septic shock is a major concern, with a mortality rate of over 40% in patients with severe sepsis. Haemorrhagic shock is often seen in trauma patients, and the severity is classified based on the amount of blood loss and associated physiological changes. Neurogenic shock occurs following spinal cord injury, leading to decreased peripheral vascular resistance and cardiac output. Cardiogenic shock is commonly caused by ischaemic heart disease or direct myocardial trauma. Anaphylactic shock is a severe hypersensitivity reaction that can be life-threatening.

      The management of shock depends on the underlying cause. In septic shock, prompt administration of antibiotics and haemodynamic stabilisation are crucial. In haemorrhagic shock, controlling bleeding and maintaining circulating volume are essential. In neurogenic shock, peripheral vasoconstrictors are used to restore vascular tone. In cardiogenic shock, supportive treatment and surgery may be required. In anaphylactic shock, adrenaline is the most important drug and should be given as soon as possible.

      Understanding the aetiology and management of shock is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide timely and appropriate interventions to improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 3 - A 43-year-old woman is undergoing investigation for symmetrical polyarthritis that is widespread. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old woman is undergoing investigation for symmetrical polyarthritis that is widespread. She reports experiencing a blue tinge in her fingers during cold weather. During examination, a prominent rash is observed over her nose and cheeks, but not in her nasolabial folds. Her blood tests show positive results for anti-dsDNA. She is advised to take a drug that is described as a 'disease-modifying' drug. What kind of regular monitoring will she need while undergoing treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Visual acuity testing

      Explanation:

      This woman has classic symptoms of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), including a malar rash, polyarthritis, and Raynaud’s syndrome. A positive blood test for anti-dsDNA confirms the diagnosis. The main treatment for SLE is hydroxychloroquine, along with NSAIDs and steroids. However, there is a significant risk of severe and permanent retinopathy associated with hydroxychloroquine use. Therefore, the Royal College of Ophthalmologists recommends monitoring for retinopathy at baseline and every 6-12 months while on treatment. Visual acuity testing is a reasonable way to monitor for this. Routine monitoring of calcium levels, hearing, liver function, and neurological deficits of the limbs is not necessary as there is no evidence of hydroxychloroquine affecting these areas.

      Hydroxychloroquine: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Hydroxychloroquine is a medication commonly used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and systemic/discoid lupus erythematosus. It is similar to chloroquine, which is used to treat certain types of malaria. However, hydroxychloroquine has been found to cause bull’s eye retinopathy, which can result in severe and permanent visual loss. Recent data suggests that this adverse effect is more common than previously thought, and the most recent guidelines recommend baseline ophthalmological examination and annual screening, including colour retinal photography and spectral domain optical coherence tomography scanning of the macula. Despite this risk, hydroxychloroquine may still be used in pregnant women if needed. Patients taking this medication should be asked about visual symptoms and have their visual acuity monitored annually using a standard reading chart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 4 - A 26-year-old male comes to his doctor's office at the request of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old male comes to his doctor's office at the request of his friends. Upon examination, he discloses that he thinks everyone can hear his thoughts, as if he were a radio station, and that he hears voices commenting on his actions. The doctor observes that he has a blunted affect, alogia, and avolition. Additionally, the doctor notes that the patient repeats the final word of any inquiry posed to him.

      What term describes this phenomenon?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Echolalia

      Explanation:

      Echolalia is when someone repeats the speech of another person, including any questions asked. This is often seen in individuals with schizophrenia, particularly catatonic schizophrenia, which is characterized by negative symptoms such as a lack of emotional expression, poverty of speech, and poor motivation. The patient in question exhibits two of Schneider’s first-rank symptoms: thought broadcasting and third-person auditory hallucinations, and is therefore diagnosable with schizophrenia. Copropraxia refers to the involuntary performance of obscene or forbidden gestures or inappropriate touching, while echopraxia involves the meaningless repetition or imitation of others’ movements. Finally, a neologism is a word that has been made up.

      Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 5 - Liam, a 13-year-old with learning difficulties, visits his GP clinic. Following a practice...

    Incorrect

    • Liam, a 13-year-old with learning difficulties, visits his GP clinic. Following a practice meeting, it is concluded that Liam does not possess the capacity to make decisions regarding his medical treatment. What principles should be prioritized when making decisions for Liam?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Consent may be given by one parent for the treatment that is in her best interests

      Explanation:

      The GMC provides comprehensive guidance on obtaining consent from children. In cases where a child is incapable of giving consent, the agreement of one parent is adequate for treatment to be administered, provided it is in the child’s best interests. It is also crucial to involve Dawn in the decision-making process, despite her incapacity.

      Guidelines for Obtaining Consent in Children

      The General Medical Council has provided guidelines for obtaining consent in children. According to these guidelines, young people who are 16 years or older can be treated as adults and are presumed to have the capacity to make decisions. However, for children under the age of 16, their ability to understand what is involved determines whether they have the capacity to decide. If a competent child refuses treatment, a person with parental responsibility or the court may authorize investigation or treatment that is in the child’s best interests.

      When it comes to providing contraceptives to patients under 16 years of age, the Fraser Guidelines must be followed. These guidelines state that the young person must understand the professional’s advice, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to begin or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment, and will suffer physical or mental health consequences without contraceptive treatment. Additionally, the young person’s best interests require them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment with or without parental consent.

      Some doctors use the term Fraser competency when referring to contraception and Gillick competency when referring to general issues of consent in children. However, rumors that Victoria Gillick removed her permission to use her name or applied copyright have been debunked. It is important to note that in Scotland, those with parental responsibility cannot authorize procedures that a competent child has refused.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 6 - For which of the following conditions is urgent referral for upper endoscopy necessary?...

    Incorrect

    • For which of the following conditions is urgent referral for upper endoscopy necessary?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 73-year-old male with a three month history of dyspepsia which has failed to respond to a course of proton pump inhibitors

      Explanation:

      Criteria for Urgent Endoscopy Referral

      Criteria for urgent endoscopy referral include various symptoms such as dysphagia, dyspepsia, weight loss, anaemia, vomiting, Barrett’s oesophagus, family history of upper gastrointestinal carcinoma, pernicious anaemia, upper GI surgery more than 20 years ago, jaundice, and abdominal mass. Dysphagia is a symptom that requires urgent endoscopy referral at any age. Dyspepsia combined with weight loss, anaemia, or vomiting at any age also requires urgent referral. Dyspepsia in a patient aged 55 or above with onset of dyspepsia within one year and persistent symptoms requires urgent referral. Dyspepsia with one of the mentioned conditions also requires urgent referral.

      In the presented cases, the 56-year-old man has dyspepsia with an aortic aneurysm, which requires an ultrasound and vascular opinion. On the other hand, the case of unexplained weight loss, tenesmus, and upper right mass is likely to be a colonic carcinoma. It is important to be aware of these criteria to ensure timely and appropriate referral for urgent endoscopy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 7 - A 13-year-old boy comes to the clinic with swelling at the lower end...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old boy comes to the clinic with swelling at the lower end of his right femur. Upon examination, a calcified, nodular shadow is observed in his lung on a chest x-ray. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteosarcoma

      Explanation:

      Osteogenic Sarcoma: A Common Bone Cancer in Children and Adolescents

      Osteogenic sarcoma is a prevalent type of bone cancer that primarily affects children and adolescents. It is the third most common malignancy in this age group. The tumour usually originates in the metaphyseal regions of the distal femur, proximal tibia, and proximal humerus, but it can develop in any bone. The cancer can spread regionally within the same extremity or systemically to other organs, such as the lung. Unfortunately, the prognosis worsens dramatically when the tumour metastasises. A common radiological finding in such cases is chest nodules or cannonball lesions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old pregnant woman presents to the Emergency department with complaints of severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old pregnant woman presents to the Emergency department with complaints of severe itching, nausea, and lethargy. She is currently 38 weeks pregnant and this is her second pregnancy. Upon examination, she appears to be clinically jaundiced, but her vital signs are within normal limits. Laboratory tests reveal the following results: Hb 121 g/l, Platelets 189 * 109/l, WBC 8.7 * 109/l, Bilirubin 90 µmol/l, ALP 540 u/l, ALT 120 u/l, γGT 130 u/l, Albumin 35 g/l, and INR 1.0. The acute viral hepatitis screen is negative. Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cholestasis of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      The most probable condition is cholestasis of pregnancy, which is indicated by intense itching, jaundice, obstructive liver function tests, normal white blood cell count, and absence of coagulopathy. Severe itching is a typical symptom of cholestasis of pregnancy, while acute fatty liver of pregnancy presents with non-specific symptoms such as fatigue, malaise, and nausea. Given the normal results of the full blood count and viral screening, it is unlikely that the patient has HELLP syndrome or viral hepatitis. Lastly, pre-eclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure and protein in the urine.

      Liver Complications During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, there are several liver complications that may arise. One of the most common is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which occurs in about 1% of pregnancies and is typically seen in the third trimester. Symptoms include intense itching, especially in the palms and soles, as well as elevated bilirubin levels. Treatment involves the use of ursodeoxycholic acid for relief and weekly liver function tests. Women with this condition are usually induced at 37 weeks to prevent stillbirth, although maternal morbidity is not typically increased.

      Another rare complication is acute fatty liver of pregnancy, which may occur in the third trimester or immediately after delivery. Symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting, headache, jaundice, and hypoglycemia. Severe cases may result in pre-eclampsia. ALT levels are typically elevated, and support care is the primary management until delivery can be performed once the patient is stabilized.

      Finally, conditions such as Gilbert’s and Dubin-Johnson syndrome may be exacerbated during pregnancy. Additionally, HELLP syndrome, which stands for haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets, is a serious complication that can occur in the third trimester and requires immediate medical attention. Overall, it is important for pregnant women to be aware of these potential liver complications and to seek medical attention if any symptoms arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old man presents with sudden onset abdominal pain that worsens when lying...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with sudden onset abdominal pain that worsens when lying down. He reports feeling nauseous and has been vomiting. The nursing staff notes that he has a rapid heart rate and a fever of 38.1°C. Upon examination, his abdomen is tender and there is significant guarding. Bruising is present around his belly button. The patient admits to drinking six cans of strong beer daily and smoking two packs of cigarettes per day. He recalls being hospitalized two years ago for vomiting blood but cannot remember the treatment he received. He has no other significant medical history and does not take any regular medications. What is the most likely cause of the man's symptoms and presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pancreatitis with retroperitoneal haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis for a man with abdominal pain, nausea, and periumbilical bruising

      The man in question presents with classic symptoms of pancreatitis, including abdominal pain that radiates to the back and worsens on lying down. However, his periumbilical bruising suggests retroperitoneal haemorrhage, which can also cause flank bruising. Given his alcohol consumption, coagulopathy is a possible contributing factor. Hepatic cirrhosis could explain coagulopathy, but not the rapid onset of abdominal pain or the absence of ecchymosis elsewhere. A ruptured duodenal ulcer or bleeding oesophageal varices are less likely causes, as there is no evidence of upper gastrointestinal bleeding this time. A pancreatic abscess is a potential complication of pancreatitis, but would typically have a longer onset and more systemic symptoms. Therefore, the differential diagnosis includes pancreatitis with retroperitoneal haemorrhage, possibly related to coagulopathy from alcohol use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 10 - Bethany Johnson, a 20-year-old student, visits her GP complaining of generalized itching. She...

    Incorrect

    • Bethany Johnson, a 20-year-old student, visits her GP complaining of generalized itching. She reports no allergies or recent changes in cosmetic or detergent products. During the examination, the GP observes multiple excoriation marks throughout her body. Bethany also mentions experiencing fatigue and weight gain recently. What is the probable cause of her systemic pruritus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Causes and diagnostic workup of systemic pruritus

      Systemic pruritus, or generalized itching, can have various underlying causes, including pregnancy, primary biliary cholangitis, renal failure, diabetes, leukaemia, polycythaemia, psychological factors, and hypothyroidism. To diagnose the condition, blood tests are typically performed to rule out these potential causes. Hypothyroidism may be suspected if the patient also experiences weight gain and fatigue. Treatment for systemic pruritus involves addressing the underlying condition, as well as using measures such as keeping the skin cool, applying emollients, and taking sedating antihistamines at night.

      Other conditions that may cause pruritus but are less likely in this case include iron deficiency anaemia, which typically presents with pallor rather than weight gain, and cholestasis, which usually causes jaundice, dark urine, and pale stool. Lymphoma, a type of cancer affecting the lymphatic system, may cause weight loss and lymphadenopathy rather than weight gain. Widespread dermatitis, characterized by a rash, is another possible cause of pruritus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 11 - A 40-year-old woman was admitted to the psychiatric ward with paranoid delusions, auditory...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman was admitted to the psychiatric ward with paranoid delusions, auditory hallucinations and violent behaviour. There was no past medical history. She was diagnosed with schizophrenia and given intramuscular haloperidol regularly. Four days later, she became febrile and confused. The haloperidol was stopped, but 2 days later, she developed marked rigidity, sweating and drowsiness. She had a variable blood pressure and pulse rate. Creatine phosphokinase was markedly raised.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome: A Potentially Life-Threatening Reaction to Neuroleptic Medication

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a rare but serious reaction to neuroleptic medication. It is characterized by hyperpyrexia (high fever), autonomic dysfunction, rigidity, altered consciousness, and elevated creatine phosphokinase levels. Treatment involves stopping the neuroleptic medication and cooling the patient. Medications such as bromocriptine, dantrolene, and benzodiazepines may also be used.

      It is important to note that other conditions, such as cerebral abscess, meningitis, and phaeochromocytoma, do not typically present with the same symptoms as NMS. Serotonin syndrome, while similar, usually presents with different symptoms such as disseminated intravascular coagulation, renal failure, tachycardia, hypertension, and tachypnea.

      If you or someone you know is taking neuroleptic medication and experiences symptoms of NMS, seek medical attention immediately. Early recognition and treatment can be life-saving.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 12 - A 17-year-old girl presents with amenorrhoea for 6 months. She has a history...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old girl presents with amenorrhoea for 6 months. She has a history of irregular periods with a cycle ranging from 25-39 days long and has missed a whole cycle before. She is concerned about the potential impact on her future fertility. The patient denies being sexually active and has no syndromic features on examination. There is no significant acne or excess body hair. She has a BMI of 20 kg/m² and is currently training for a half marathon. What is the probable cause of her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypothalamic hypogonadism

      Explanation:

      Secondary amenorrhoea is a common issue in highly athletic women, often caused by hypothalamic hypogonadism. This is the case for a young woman who is training for a marathon and has experienced oligomenorrhoea in the past. When a woman’s body has low levels of fat, the hypothalamus releases less gonadotrophin-releasing hormone, leading to hypogonadism. This is believed to occur because very low-fat levels are not conducive to successful pregnancy in females.

      While an ultrasound may reveal many cysts on the ovaries, this woman does not meet the Rotterdam criteria for a diagnosis of polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS). Although she experiences oligomenorrhoea, she does not exhibit signs of hyperandrogenism and has a lower-normal weight. It is also possible that she is pregnant, and a urine or serum pregnancy test should be conducted to rule out this possibility, even if she claims not to be sexually active.

      While primary ovarian failure is a potential cause, it is not the most likely explanation in this case. However, it should still be investigated with gonadotrophins. If ovarian failure is present, gonadotrophin levels will be elevated, indicating that the hypothalamus and pituitary gland are not providing negative feedback on hormone release.

      Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management

      Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods in women. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls without secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.

      There are various causes of amenorrhoea, including gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and thyrotoxicosis. To determine the underlying cause of amenorrhoea, initial investigations such as full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels are necessary.

      The management of amenorrhoea depends on the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause in women 40 years of age or older and treat the underlying cause accordingly. It is important to note that hypothyroidism may also cause amenorrhoea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 13 - A 72-year-old man presented to his GP with complaints of fatigue, unintentional weight...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presented to his GP with complaints of fatigue, unintentional weight loss, and night sweats. He reported feeling generally down. Upon further questioning, he mentioned experiencing stiffness and pain in his shoulders and neck, particularly in the morning and lasting for about half an hour.
      What would be the most appropriate investigation to perform in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Diagnosis of Polymyalgia Rheumatica

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a condition that causes pain and stiffness in proximal muscle groups, often accompanied by systemic symptoms. While other potential diagnoses such as infections or neoplasia should be considered, PMR is typically characterised by raised levels of inflammatory markers, particularly erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). Treatment with corticosteroids usually results in rapid improvement, and lack of response to steroids may indicate a need to re-evaluate the diagnosis. Autoantibody screening and nerve conduction velocity tests are not helpful in diagnosing PMR, while muscle biopsy may be performed to exclude polymyositis. A temporal artery biopsy may be considered if the patient has symptoms of giant cell arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 14 - Sophie is a 16-year-old girl who is admitted with abdominal pain. An ultrasound...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 16-year-old girl who is admitted with abdominal pain. An ultrasound scan report comes back with findings consistent with appendicitis. Her parents do not want her to undergo surgery.

      Sophie appears to be a mature and intelligent young woman and is currently in a stable condition. After extensive discussions with her parents and the surgical team, Sophie expresses her desire to undergo surgery. However, her parents are unhappy with her decision and threaten to sue the hospital if she goes through with the operation.

      What is the appropriate course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Obtain written consent for appendicectomy from Jessica and take her to theatre

      Explanation:

      Jessica is deemed to have Gillick competence by the medical team, as she is a bright young woman who has thoroughly discussed the situation and appears to comprehend it. Therefore, she can provide consent for the procedure, even if her parents disagree. As she is stable, written consent should be obtained instead of verbal consent, which could be used in an emergency. It is not advisable to try and persuade her parents of the advantages of surgery, as this could delay her treatment. If Jessica has given her own valid consent, there is no need to wait for her parents’ decision. According to GMC’s 0-18 years guidance, parents cannot override the competent consent of a young person for treatment that is deemed to be in their best interests. However, parental consent can be relied upon when a child lacks the capacity to provide consent.

      Guidelines for Obtaining Consent in Children

      The General Medical Council has provided guidelines for obtaining consent in children. According to these guidelines, young people who are 16 years or older can be treated as adults and are presumed to have the capacity to make decisions. However, for children under the age of 16, their ability to understand what is involved determines whether they have the capacity to decide. If a competent child refuses treatment, a person with parental responsibility or the court may authorize investigation or treatment that is in the child’s best interests.

      When it comes to providing contraceptives to patients under 16 years of age, the Fraser Guidelines must be followed. These guidelines state that the young person must understand the professional’s advice, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to begin or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment, and will suffer physical or mental health consequences without contraceptive treatment. Additionally, the young person’s best interests require them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment with or without parental consent.

      Some doctors use the term Fraser competency when referring to contraception and Gillick competency when referring to general issues of consent in children. However, rumors that Victoria Gillick removed her permission to use her name or applied copyright have been debunked. It is important to note that in Scotland, those with parental responsibility cannot authorize procedures that a competent child has refused.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old female patient visits her GP seeking emergency contraception after engaging in...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female patient visits her GP seeking emergency contraception after engaging in unprotected sexual activity around 96 hours ago. She is presently undergoing treatment for pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) with antibiotics.

      Which emergency contraceptive would be the most suitable option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ulipristal acetate (EllaOne)

      Explanation:

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 16 - A 16-year-old is brought to her General Practitioner by her parents after they...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old is brought to her General Practitioner by her parents after they noticed her eating habits had become irregular. The parents report that the patient eats large volumes of foods and is sometimes found vomiting shortly after eating dinner. This behaviour has been occurring for the past 6 months. On examination, the patient’s vital signs are normal and she has a body mass index (BMI) of 23. She has excoriations on the knuckles of her right hand. She also has erosions on her teeth and swelling bilaterally on the lateral aspects of the face along the mandibular rami.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bulimia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Common Mental Health Disorders: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Bulimia Nervosa
      Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by binge eating followed by purging, usually in the form of vomiting. Patients with bulimia nervosa often have normal BMI, despite purging behavior. Symptoms associated with vomiting include teeth erosion, swelling along the mandibular rami (parotitis), and excoriations of the knuckles (Russell’s sign).

      Avoidant Personality Disorder
      Avoidant personality disorder is characterized by a person who desires social connections but is too shy to form relationships due to fear of rejection. This is different from the schizoid personality, which prefers to be alone.

      Anorexia Nervosa
      Anorexia nervosa is associated with decreased dietary intake, with or without purging behavior. Patients with anorexia nervosa tend to have extremely low BMI due to low calorie intake. They also suffer from early osteoporosis and electrolyte abnormalities due to malnutrition.

      Binge Eating Disorder
      Binge eating disorder is characterized by purely binge eating, without purging behavior. Patients with binge eating disorder often experience distress and weight gain.

      Gender Dysphoria
      Gender dysphoria is characterized by a strong identification with a gender other than that assigned at birth. This can be managed through social transition (living as their preferred gender) or medical transition (hormone or surgical treatments that are gender-affirming).

      Understanding Common Mental Health Disorders

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 17 - A 35-year-old woman with a history of asthma and eczema visits her General...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with a history of asthma and eczema visits her General Practitioner and inquires about the reason for her continued wheezing hours after being exposed to pollen. She has a known allergy to tree pollen.
      What is the most suitable explanation for this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inflammation followed by mucosal oedema

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Mechanisms of Allergic Asthma

      Allergic asthma is a condition that is mediated by immunoglobulin E (IgE). When IgE binds to an antigen, it triggers mast cells to release histamine, leukotrienes, and prostaglandins, which cause bronchospasm and vasodilation. This leads to inflammation and edema of the mucosal lining of the airways, resulting in persistent symptoms or late symptoms after an acute asthma attack.

      While exposure to another allergen could trigger an asthma attack, it is not the most appropriate answer if you are only aware of a known allergy to tree pollen. Smooth muscle hypertrophy may occur in the long-term, but the exact mechanism and functional effects of airway remodeling in asthma are not fully understood. Pollen stuck on Ciliary would act as a cough stimulant, clearing the pollen from the respiratory tract. Additionally, the Ciliary would clear the pollen up the respiratory tract as part of the mucociliary escalator.

      It is important to note that pollen inhaled into the respiratory system is not systemically absorbed. Instead, it binds to immune cells and exhibits immune effects through cytokines produced by Th1 and Th2 cells. Understanding the mechanisms of allergic asthma can help individuals manage their symptoms and prevent future attacks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 18 - A 75-year-old patient with prostate cancer is initiated on goserelin therapy. After a...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old patient with prostate cancer is initiated on goserelin therapy. After a week of starting the treatment, he visits a nearby emergency department with complaints of aggravated lower urinary tract symptoms and newly developed back pain. What could have been done to prevent this deterioration?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pretreatment with flutamide

      Explanation:

      In the initial phase of treatment, goserelin may lead to a temporary aggravation of prostatic cancer symptoms, known as the ‘flare effect’. This is due to an initial surge in luteinizing hormone production before receptor down-regulation occurs. To counteract this, flutamide, a synthetic antiandrogen, can be administered beforehand to mitigate the tumour flare by blocking androgen receptors. The sudden onset of back pain in this patient is a cause for concern and requires further examination to determine if spinal metastasis is present.

      Management of Prostate Cancer

      Localised prostate cancer (T1/T2) can be managed through various treatment options depending on the patient’s life expectancy and preference. Conservative approaches such as active monitoring and watchful waiting can be considered, as well as radical prostatectomy and radiotherapy (external beam and brachytherapy). On the other hand, localised advanced prostate cancer (T3/T4) may require hormonal therapy, radical prostatectomy, or radiotherapy. However, patients who undergo radiotherapy may develop proctitis and are at a higher risk of bladder, colon, and rectal cancer.

      For metastatic prostate cancer, the primary goal is to reduce androgen levels. A combination of approaches is often used, including anti-androgen therapy, synthetic GnRH agonist or antagonists, bicalutamide, cyproterone acetate, abiraterone, and bilateral orchidectomy. GnRH agonists such as Goserelin (Zoladex) may result in lower LH levels longer term by causing overstimulation, which disrupts endogenous hormonal feedback systems. This may cause a rise in testosterone initially for around 2-3 weeks before falling to castration levels. To prevent a rise in testosterone, anti-androgen therapy is often used initially. However, this may result in a tumour flare, which stimulates prostate cancer growth and may cause bone pain, bladder obstruction, and other symptoms. GnRH antagonists such as degarelix are being evaluated to suppress testosterone while avoiding the flare phenomenon. Chemotherapy with docetaxel may also be an option for the treatment of hormone-relapsed metastatic prostate cancer in patients who have no or mild symptoms after androgen deprivation therapy has failed, and before chemotherapy is indicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 19 - A 28-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of fever, malaise and headache. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of fever, malaise and headache. During the examination, the GP notices a macular rash on her trunk and limbs. The patient confirms that the rash is not causing any itching. The GP suspects that the patient may have developed secondary syphilis. If the patient had untreated chancre-associated primary syphilis, how many weeks would it take for secondary syphilis to appear?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2–8 weeks

      Explanation:

      The Timeline and Symptoms of Secondary Syphilis

      Secondary syphilis is a multisystem disease that usually develops between 2 and 8 weeks following the appearance of a chancre. In women, chancres can be found on the labia, vulva, or cervix, making it easy to miss the primary stage.

      Symptoms of secondary syphilis include mild fever, malaise, and headache. A rash on the trunk and limbs is also common, which may involve the palms and soles of the feet. If left untreated, the rash can last up to 12 weeks.

      It’s important to note that clinical manifestations of secondary syphilis will resolve without treatment, but relapse may occur within the first year.

      In summary, the timeline for secondary syphilis is between 2 and 8 weeks following the chancre, and symptoms include fever, malaise, headache, and a rash on the trunk and limbs. Early detection and treatment are crucial to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 20 - A 57-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of occasional vaginal bleeding. She reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of occasional vaginal bleeding. She reports that her last menstrual cycle was 22 months ago. She denies experiencing any discomfort, painful urination, or changes in bowel movements, and notes that these episodes only occur after sexual intercourse. The patient has been regularly screened for cervical cancer.
      During an abdominal and pelvic examination, no abnormalities are detected. The patient is promptly referred to a specialist for further evaluation, and test results are pending.
      What is the primary reason for her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vaginal atrophy

      Explanation:

      Endometrial cancer is the cause of PMB in a minority of patients, with vaginal atrophy being the most common cause. Approximately 90% of patients with PMB do not have endometrial cancer.

      Understanding Postmenopausal Bleeding

      Postmenopausal bleeding refers to vaginal bleeding that occurs after a woman has gone 12 months without a menstrual period. While most cases do not involve cancer, it is important to rule out this possibility in all women. The most common cause of postmenopausal bleeding is vaginal atrophy, which occurs due to a reduction in estrogen following menopause. Other causes include hormone replacement therapy, endometrial hyperplasia, endometrial cancer, cervical cancer, ovarian cancer, and vaginal cancer.

      To investigate postmenopausal bleeding, women over the age of 55 should undergo an ultrasound within two weeks to check for endometrial cancer. If referred on a cancer pathway, a transvaginal ultrasound is the preferred method of investigation. Treatment options depend on the underlying cause of the bleeding. For vaginal atrophy, topical estrogen and lifestyle changes can help alleviate symptoms, while HRT may also be used. If the bleeding is due to a specific type of HRT, switching to a different preparation may be helpful. In cases of endometrial hyperplasia, dilation and curettage may be necessary to remove excess tissue.

      Overall, it is important for women experiencing postmenopausal bleeding to seek medical attention and undergo appropriate testing to rule out any serious underlying conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 21 - A 28-year-old patient is admitted with vomiting and abdominal pain. She was noted...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old patient is admitted with vomiting and abdominal pain. She was noted to have marked buccal pigmentation.
      Examination reveals dehydration, pulse 100 bpm, blood pressure (BP) 90/60 mmHg. Initial blood tests show: glucose 2.9 mmol/l, sodium (Na+) 126 mmol/l, potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l, urea 8.2 mmol/l, creatinine 117 µmol/l.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Addison’s disease

      Explanation:

      Medical Conditions: Addison’s Disease and Other Differential Diagnoses

      Addison’s Disease:
      Addison’s disease, or primary hypoadrenalism, is a condition characterized by chronic adrenal insufficiency. The most common cause in the UK is autoimmune destruction of the adrenals, while worldwide tuberculosis is the most common cause. Other causes include long-term exogenous steroid use, cancer, or haemorrhage damage. Symptoms develop gradually, but patients can present in Addisonian crisis if there is a sudden deterioration in adrenal function or a physiological stress that the residual adrenal function is not capable of coping with. Treatment is with long-term replacement of corticosteroids and aldosterone. Treatment of a crisis requires intravenous glucocorticoids, as well as supportive measures and fluid resuscitation.

      Differential Diagnoses:
      Peutz–Jeghers syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition characterized by perioral freckling and small bowel polyps. Insulinoma causes hypoglycaemia, but the other features are absent. Cushing syndrome is a result of excess corticosteroid, while Conn syndrome is also known as primary hyperaldosteronism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 22 - A 65-year-old man comes in with symptoms of lower urinary tract and is...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man comes in with symptoms of lower urinary tract and is given the option of a PSA test. As per NHS recommendations, which of the following factors may affect the PSA level?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vigorous exercise in the past 48 hours

      Explanation:

      Prostate specific antigen (PSA) is an enzyme produced by both normal and cancerous prostate cells. It is commonly used as a marker for prostate cancer, but its effectiveness as a screening tool is still debated. The NHS Prostate Cancer Risk Management Programme (PCRMP) has released guidelines for handling requests for PSA testing in asymptomatic men. While a recent European trial showed a reduction in prostate cancer deaths, it also revealed a high risk of over-diagnosis and over-treatment. As a result, the National Screening Committee has decided not to introduce a screening programme, but rather allow men to make an informed decision. The PCRMP recommends age-adjusted upper limits for PSA levels, while NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest a lower threshold for referral. PSA levels can also be raised by factors such as benign prostatic hyperplasia, prostatitis, and urinary tract infections.

      The specificity and sensitivity of PSA testing are poor, with a significant number of men with elevated PSA levels not having prostate cancer, and some with normal PSA levels having the disease. Various methods are used to add meaning to PSA levels, including age-adjusted upper limits and monitoring changes in PSA levels over time. It is also debated whether digital rectal examination causes a rise in PSA levels. It is important to note that PSA testing should be postponed after certain events, such as ejaculation or instrumentation of the urinary tract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 23 - A 30-year-old woman presents with a history of heavy menses since she started...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents with a history of heavy menses since she started menstruating at the age of 13. She has regular periods every 28 days, which last for seven days, during which time she works from home as she needs to change pads every 1–2 hours.
      She is in a relationship and does not wish to conceive at present. A full blood count and a pelvic ultrasound are abnormal.
      You offer her the levonorgestrel intrauterine system (IUS), as per the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines.
      Which of the following is a contraindication to the insertion of levonorgestrel IUS?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Distorted fibroid uterus

      Explanation:

      The use of the levonorgestrel IUS as a contraceptive or treatment for menorrhagia is not recommended in women with a distorted fibroid uterus due to the complexity and difficulty of the procedure. Other contraindications include current pregnancy, pelvic inflammatory disease, trophoblastic disease, breast/endometrial/ovarian/cervical cancer, postpartum endometritis, septic abortion/miscarriage in the last three months, and cervical intra-epithelial neoplasia. Migraine with aura is an absolute contraindication to the use of the combined oral contraceptive pill, but the levonorgestrel IUS can be safely used. It is safe to use the levonorgestrel IUS during breastfeeding, and it can be used by women of all ages, regardless of parity. A history of venous thromboembolism is a contraindication to the use of the combined oral contraceptive pill, but the levonorgestrel IUS is safe to use according to NICE guidance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 24 - What is the most frequent negative outcome of nicotinic acid therapy in the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequent negative outcome of nicotinic acid therapy in the management of dyslipidemia patients?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Facial flushing

      Explanation:

      Common Side Effects of Nonsteroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs)

      Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are commonly used to relieve pain and inflammation. However, they can also cause side effects. The most common side effects of NSAIDs include facial flushing, which is caused by changes in prostaglandin metabolism. NSAIDs can also cause gastritis, peptic ulcer formation, hepatitis, gout, hyperglycemia, and rhabdomyolysis, especially when combined with statins. These side effects can be serious and should be monitored closely by a healthcare provider. It is important to discuss any concerns or questions about NSAIDs with a healthcare provider before taking them. Proper use and monitoring can help minimize the risk of side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 25 - The mother of a 3-year-old boy contacts you for advice on febrile convulsions....

    Incorrect

    • The mother of a 3-year-old boy contacts you for advice on febrile convulsions. Her son had his first seizure a few days ago while suffering from a viral respiratory infection. She describes it as a typical, simple febrile convulsion lasting 2-3 minutes with full recovery in about 30 minutes. The mother recalls being informed that there is a risk of recurrence, but she was not given any treatment and was discharged home. She wants to know when she should call an ambulance if it happens again.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A further simple febrile convulsion lasting > 5 minutes

      Explanation:

      Parents should be informed that if their child experiences a febrile convulsion lasting more than 5 minutes, they should call for an ambulance. While some children may have recurrent febrile convulsions, simple ones typically last up to 15 minutes and result in complete recovery within an hour. In these cases, parents can manage their child at home with clear guidance on when to seek medical help, including the use of buccal midazolam or rectal diazepam. However, if a febrile convulsion lasts longer than 5 minutes, an ambulance should be called. If there is a subsequent convulsion lasting less than 5 minutes with a recovery time of 30-60 minutes, the child may be able to stay at home. However, if a febrile convulsion lasts longer than 10 or 15 minutes, an ambulance should have already been called after the initial 5 minutes.

      Febrile convulsions are seizures caused by fever in children aged 6 months to 5 years. They typically last less than 5 minutes and are most commonly tonic-clonic. There are three types: simple, complex, and febrile status epilepticus. Children who have had a first seizure or any features of a complex seizure should be admitted to pediatrics. Regular antipyretics do not reduce the chance of a febrile seizure occurring. The overall risk of further febrile convulsion is 1 in 3, with risk factors including age of onset, fever duration, family history, and link to epilepsy. Children without risk factors have a 2.5% risk of developing epilepsy, while those with all three features have a much higher risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 26 - A 17-year-old boy with cystic fibrosis is due for his yearly check-up. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old boy with cystic fibrosis is due for his yearly check-up. He was diagnosed with cystic fibrosis 16 years ago. Despite having good exercise tolerance and minimal gastrointestinal symptoms, he has been hospitalized twice in the past year. His recent blood work shows iron-deficient anemia, and multiple sputum cultures have tested positive for Burkholderia species. His latest FEV1 is 55% of his predicted value. What aspect of his medical history poses the greatest risk for mortality?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Burkholderia species on sputum culture

      Explanation:

      Increases the likelihood of death and illness to a greater extent.

      Managing Cystic Fibrosis: A Multidisciplinary Approach

      Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a chronic condition that requires a multidisciplinary approach to management. Regular chest physiotherapy and postural drainage, as well as deep breathing exercises, are essential to maintain lung function and prevent complications. Parents are usually taught how to perform these techniques. A high-calorie diet, including high-fat intake, is recommended to meet the increased energy needs of patients with CF. Vitamin supplementation and pancreatic enzyme supplements taken with meals are also important.

      Patients with CF should try to minimize contact with each other to prevent cross-infection with Burkholderia cepacia complex and Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Chronic infection with Burkholderia cepacia is an important CF-specific contraindication to lung transplantation. In cases where lung transplantation is necessary, careful consideration is required to ensure the best possible outcome.

      Lumacaftor/Ivacaftor (Orkambi) is a medication used to treat cystic fibrosis patients who are homozygous for the delta F508 mutation. Lumacaftor increases the number of CFTR proteins that are transported to the cell surface, while ivacaftor is a potentiator of CFTR that is already at the cell surface. This increases the probability that the defective channel will be open and allow chloride ions to pass through the channel pore.

      It is important to note that the standard recommendation for CF patients has changed from high-calorie, low-fat diets to high-calorie diets to reduce the amount of steatorrhea. With a multidisciplinary approach to management, patients with CF can lead fulfilling lives and manage their condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 27 - A 30-year-old woman presents to you with complaints of feeling down and fatigued....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to you with complaints of feeling down and fatigued. She struggles to fall asleep at night and has difficulty getting up in the morning. Despite her love for exercise, she lacks motivation and finds it hard to engage in physical activity.

      What is the duration of her symptoms that would warrant a diagnosis of a depressive episode?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Two weeks

      Explanation:

      DSM-IV Criteria for Diagnosing Depression

      Depression is a mental health condition that can significantly impact a person’s daily life. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has adopted the DSM-IV criteria for diagnosing depression. The key symptoms include persistent sadness or low mood and marked loss of interests or pleasure. These symptoms must be present for at least two weeks, most days, most of the time.

      In addition to the core symptoms, other associated symptoms may include disturbed sleep, changes in appetite and weight, fatigue, agitation or slowing of movements, poor concentration or indecisiveness, feelings of worthlessness or excessive guilt, and suicidal thoughts or acts.

      It is important to note that these symptoms can vary in duration. Some individuals may experience symptoms for only two days, while others may experience them for up to two months. If you or someone you know is experiencing symptoms of depression, it is important to seek professional help.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 28 - A 50-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner, complaining of a lump in...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner, complaining of a lump in her neck. She is a non-smoker and has no significant past medical history. On examination, there is a 2-cm firm, non-tender nodule on the left side of the anterior triangle of the neck, in the area of the thyroid.
      Investigations:
      Thyroid stimulating hormone: 2.5 mu/l (0.4–4.0 mu/l)
      Fine-needle aspiration biopsy: partial papillary architecture with some thyroid follicles present. Thyrocytes are abnormally large with an abnormal nucleus and cytoplasm and frequent mitoses. Psammoma bodies are also demonstrated in the sample.
      Which of the following fits best with the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Papillary thyroid carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Thyroid Cancer Types and Diagnosis

      Thyroid cancer can be classified into different types based on the cells involved. Papillary thyroid carcinoma is the most common type, where the papillary architecture of the thyroid is partially preserved. Surgery followed by radioiodine therapy is the standard treatment for this condition. Medullary thyroid carcinoma is less common and results in elevated calcitonin levels. Non-toxic multinodular goitre can be diagnosed through fine-needle aspiration biopsy, which shows colloid nodules. Follicular thyroid carcinoma exhibits variable morphology and is not consistent with fine-needle aspiration biopsy findings. Solitary toxic nodule can be ruled out if thyroid function is within normal limits. Proper diagnosis and treatment can lead to a high survival rate for patients under 40 years of age with papillary thyroid carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 29 - A 27-year-old woman presents for cervical cancer screening and her results indicate positive...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman presents for cervical cancer screening and her results indicate positive high-risk HPV and low-grade dyskaryosis on cytology. What should be the next course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for colposcopy

      Explanation:

      If a patient’s cervical cancer screening sample is positive for high-risk HPV and shows cytological abnormalities, the next step according to guidelines is to refer the patient for a colposcopy. During this procedure, the cervix is closely examined to identify any disease. If significant abnormalities are found, loop excision of the transformation zone may be necessary. It is not appropriate to return the patient to normal recall without further investigation. Repeating the sample in 3 months is not necessary for a patient with high-risk HPV and requires specialist assessment. However, repeating the sample in 3 months may be considered if the initial sample was inadequate. Similarly, repeating the sample in 12 months is not the next step and may only be recommended after colposcopy. At this stage, the patient needs further assessment. Repeating the sample in 12 months may be considered if the patient has high-risk HPV with normal cytological findings.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 30 - An older gentleman with prostate cancer is beginning treatment with morphine elixir for...

    Incorrect

    • An older gentleman with prostate cancer is beginning treatment with morphine elixir for painful bone metastases. What would be the most suitable advice to give to his caregiver?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A laxative will need to be used

      Explanation:

      Managing Pain in Terminally Ill Patients

      Managing pain in terminally ill patients can be challenging, but there are several strategies that can be employed to provide relief. When prescribing narcotics, it is important to start a laxative regimen to prevent constipation. Sedation may occur in the first few days, but this typically wears off. If pain relief is inadequate, the dose should be increased, although it is important to note that cocaine may produce hallucinations. It is also important to note that addiction is not a concern in terminally ill patients. Injections are typically three times more effective than oral medication. By employing these strategies, healthcare providers can help alleviate pain and improve the quality of life for terminally ill patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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