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  • Question 1 - A 25-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a rash that has spread...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a rash that has spread across his trunk over the last 4 days. He is worried about the appearance of the rash. The patient has no significant medical history except for completing a course of phenoxymethylpenicillin for tonsillitis last week and takes no other regular medications. Upon examination, the doctor observes multiple scaly papules on the patient's trunk and upper limbs. The lesions are small and have a teardrop shape. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Guttate psoriasis

      Explanation:

      The tear-drop scaly papules that have suddenly appeared on the patient’s trunk and limbs suggest guttate psoriasis. This type of psoriasis is commonly seen in children and young adults who have recently had a Streptococcus infection, such as the tonsillitis infection that this patient had. The rash is characterized by multiple small scaly and red patches that have a teardrop shape.

      Disseminated varicella zoster, pityriasis rosea, and pityriasis versicolor are not likely diagnoses for this patient. Disseminated varicella zoster causes a different type of rash that includes macular, papular, and vesicular lesions that crust over time. Pityriasis rosea presents with a large round herald patch on the chest, abdomen, or back, and is thought to be triggered by viral or bacterial infections. Pityriasis versicolor is a fungal infection that causes patches that are paler than the surrounding skin, and is commonly found on the upper limbs and neck. However, exposure to heat and moisture can increase the risk of developing this rash.

      Guttate psoriasis is a type of psoriasis that is more commonly seen in children and adolescents. It is often triggered by a streptococcal infection that occurred 2-4 weeks prior to the appearance of the lesions. The name guttate comes from the Latin word for drop, as the lesions appear as small, tear-shaped papules on the trunk and limbs. These papules are pink and scaly, and the onset of the condition is usually acute, occurring over a few days.

      In most cases, guttate psoriasis will resolve on its own within 2-3 months. There is no clear evidence to support the use of antibiotics to treat the underlying streptococcal infection. Treatment options for guttate psoriasis include topical agents commonly used for psoriasis and UVB phototherapy. In cases where the condition recurs, a tonsillectomy may be necessary.

      It is important to differentiate guttate psoriasis from pityriasis rosea, another skin condition that can present with similar symptoms. Guttate psoriasis is often preceded by a streptococcal sore throat, while pityriasis rosea may be preceded by a respiratory tract infection. The appearance of guttate psoriasis is characterized by tear-shaped papules on the trunk and limbs, while pityriasis rosea presents with a herald patch followed by multiple oval lesions with a fine scale. While guttate psoriasis resolves within a few months, pityriasis rosea typically resolves after around 6 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old woman who is 14 weeks pregnant complains of worsening acne that...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman who is 14 weeks pregnant complains of worsening acne that is causing her distress. Despite using topical benzyl peroxide, she has noticed limited improvement. During examination, non-inflammatory lesions and pustules are observed on her face. What would be the most suitable next course of action?

      Your Answer: Oral erythromycin

      Explanation:

      If treatment for acne is required during pregnancy, oral erythromycin is a suitable option, as the other medications are not recommended.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that typically affects adolescents, with the face, neck, and upper trunk being the most commonly affected areas. It is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, leading to the formation of comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the presence and extent of inflammatory lesions, papules, and pustules.

      The management of acne vulgaris typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy such as topical retinoids or benzoyl peroxide. If this is not effective, topical combination therapy may be used, which includes a topical antibiotic, benzoyl peroxide, and topical retinoid. Oral antibiotics such as tetracyclines may also be prescribed, but they should be avoided in pregnant or breastfeeding women and children under 12 years of age. Erythromycin may be used in pregnancy, while minocycline is now considered less appropriate due to the possibility of irreversible pigmentation. Oral antibiotics should be used for a maximum of three months and always co-prescribed with a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance.

      Combined oral contraceptives (COCP) are an alternative to oral antibiotics in women, and Dianette (co-cyrindiol) may be used as it has anti-androgen properties. However, it has an increased risk of venous thromboembolism compared to other COCPs, so it should generally be used second-line and for only three months. Oral isotretinoin is a potent medication that should only be used under specialist supervision, and it is contraindicated in pregnancy. Finally, there is no evidence to support dietary modification in the management of acne vulgaris.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old man with a history of Parkinson's disease comes to the clinic...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of Parkinson's disease comes to the clinic complaining of an itchy, red rash on his neck, behind his ears, and around the nasolabial folds. He experienced a similar outbreak last year but did not seek medical attention. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Seborrhoeic dermatitis

      Explanation:

      Patients with Parkinson’s disease are more likely to experience seborrhoeic dermatitis.

      Understanding Seborrhoeic Dermatitis in Adults

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a chronic skin condition that affects around 2% of the general population. It is caused by an inflammatory reaction related to the overgrowth of a fungus called Malassezia furfur, which is a normal inhabitant of the skin. The condition is characterized by eczematous lesions that appear on the sebum-rich areas of the body, such as the scalp, periorbital, auricular, and nasolabial folds. It can also lead to the development of otitis externa and blepharitis.

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is often associated with other medical conditions, such as HIV and Parkinson’s disease. The management of the condition depends on the affected area. For scalp disease, over-the-counter preparations containing zinc pyrithione and tar are usually the first-line treatment. If these are not effective, ketoconazole is the preferred second-line agent. Selenium sulphide and topical corticosteroids may also be useful.

      For the face and body, topical antifungals such as ketoconazole and topical steroids are often used. However, it is important to use steroids for short periods only to avoid side effects. Seborrhoeic dermatitis can be difficult to treat, and recurrences are common. Therefore, it is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to manage the condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 4 - Which one of the following statements regarding scabies is untrue? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding scabies is untrue?

      Your Answer: Patients who complain of pruritus 4 weeks following treatment should be retreated

      Explanation:

      It is typical for itching to continue for a period of 4-6 weeks after elimination.

      Scabies: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Scabies is a skin condition caused by the Sarcoptes scabiei mite, which is spread through prolonged skin contact. It is most commonly seen in children and young adults. The mite burrows into the skin and lays its eggs in the stratum corneum, leading to intense itching. This itching is caused by a delayed-type IV hypersensitivity reaction to the mites/eggs, which occurs about 30 days after the initial infection. Symptoms of scabies include widespread itching, linear burrows on the fingers, interdigital webs, and flexor aspects of the wrist. In infants, the face and scalp may also be affected. Scratching can lead to secondary features such as excoriation and infection.

      The first-line treatment for scabies is permethrin 5%, while malathion 0.5% is second-line. Patients should be advised to avoid close physical contact with others until treatment is complete. All household and close physical contacts should be treated at the same time, even if asymptomatic. Clothing, bedding, and towels should be laundered, ironed, or tumble-dried on the first day of treatment to kill off mites. The insecticide should be applied to all areas, including the face and scalp, contrary to the manufacturer’s recommendation. Patients should apply the insecticide cream or liquid to cool, dry skin, paying close attention to areas between fingers and toes, under nails, armpit area, and creases of the skin such as at the wrist and elbow. The insecticide should be left on the skin for 8-12 hours for permethrin or 24 hours for malathion before washing off. Treatment should be repeated 7 days later.

      Crusted scabies, also known as Norwegian scabies, is seen in patients with suppressed immunity, especially HIV. The crusted skin will be teeming with hundreds of thousands of organisms. Isolation is essential, and ivermectin is the treatment of choice.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 5 - A 67-year-old woman presents with blistering lesions on her leg and is suspected...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman presents with blistering lesions on her leg and is suspected to have bullous pemphigoid. What would be the most suitable course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Trial of topical corticosteroids and review in 2 weeks

      Correct Answer: Refer to secondary care

      Explanation:

      Understanding Bullous Pemphigoid

      Bullous pemphigoid is an autoimmune disease that causes blistering of the skin due to the development of antibodies against hemidesmosomal proteins BP180 and BP230. This condition is more common in elderly patients and is characterized by itchy, tense blisters that typically appear around flexures. However, the blisters usually heal without scarring, and there is usually no mucosal involvement.

      To diagnose bullous pemphigoid, a skin biopsy is necessary, and immunofluorescence shows IgG and C3 at the dermoepidermal junction. Treatment for this condition involves referral to a dermatologist for biopsy and confirmation of diagnosis, as well as the use of oral corticosteroids as the mainstay of treatment. Topical corticosteroids, immunosuppressants, and antibiotics may also be used.

      It is worth noting that while mucosal involvement is seen in some patients, it is not a classic feature of bullous pemphigoid and is therefore not always mentioned in exam questions. Overall, understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of bullous pemphigoid is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care for patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 6 - A 29-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of hair loss. She...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of hair loss. She reports noticing that her hair has become significantly thinner and that she is shedding more hair than usual, both on her pillow and in the shower drain. She denies any other symptoms and has no significant medical history except for giving birth to her first child 6 months ago. She is not taking any medications regularly and there is no family history of hair loss. On examination, her scalp hair is uniformly thin, but there are no areas of complete hair loss. Her systemic examination is unremarkable and her vital signs are within normal limits. Blood tests, including iron studies and thyroid function, are all normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Telogen effluvium

      Explanation:

      Telogen effluvium is characterized by hair loss and thinning as a result of experiencing significant stress. In this case, the patient’s recent physical stress from giving birth is a likely cause of her hair becoming thinner due to telogen effluvium. The hair loss patterns observed do not match those of alopecia areata or alopecia totalis, which respectively cause distinct areas of complete hair loss or complete loss of all hair on the head and face.

      Input:
      Alopecia may be divided into scarring (destruction of hair follicle) and non-scarring (preservation of hair follicle). Scarring alopecia can be caused by trauma, burns, radiotherapy, lichen planus, discoid lupus, and untreated tinea capitis. Non-scarring alopecia can be caused by male-pattern baldness, drugs such as cytotoxic drugs, carbimazole, heparin, oral contraceptive pill, and colchicine, nutritional deficiencies such as iron and zinc deficiency, autoimmune conditions such as alopecia areata, telogen effluvium, hair loss following a stressful period such as surgery, and trichotillomania.

      Output:
      – Alopecia can be categorized into scarring and non-scarring types.
      – Scarring alopecia is caused by trauma, burns, radiotherapy, lichen planus, discoid lupus, and untreated tinea capitis.
      – Non-scarring alopecia is caused by male-pattern baldness, drugs such as cytotoxic drugs, carbimazole, heparin, oral contraceptive pill, and colchicine, nutritional deficiencies such as iron and zinc deficiency, autoimmune conditions such as alopecia areata, telogen effluvium, hair loss following a stressful period such as surgery, and trichotillomania.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 7 - A 75-year-old woman visits her general practitioner with a complaint of itchy white...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old woman visits her general practitioner with a complaint of itchy white plaques on her vulva and inner thigh. She denies experiencing any vaginal discharge or bleeding. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lichen sclerosus

      Explanation:

      Lichen sclerosus is a condition characterized by itchy white spots that are commonly observed on the vulva of older women. While candida can also cause itching and white patches, it would not result in lesions appearing on the inner thigh as well.

      Understanding Lichen Sclerosus

      Lichen sclerosus, previously known as lichen sclerosus et atrophicus, is an inflammatory condition that commonly affects the genitalia, particularly in elderly females. This condition leads to the atrophy of the epidermis, resulting in the formation of white plaques. The most prominent feature of lichen sclerosus is the presence of white patches that may scar. Patients may also experience itching and pain during intercourse or urination.

      Diagnosis of lichen sclerosus is usually made based on clinical examination, but a biopsy may be performed if atypical features are present. Management of this condition involves the use of topical steroids and emollients. Patients with lichen sclerosus are at an increased risk of developing vulval cancer, and routine follow-up is necessary to monitor for any changes.

      The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists advise against performing a skin biopsy if a diagnosis can be made on clinical examination. However, a biopsy may be necessary if the patient fails to respond to treatment or if there is a suspicion of neoplastic change. The British Association of Dermatologists also recommends a biopsy if there are atypical features or diagnostic uncertainty. Patients under routine follow-up will need a biopsy if there is a suspicion of neoplastic change, if the disease fails to respond to treatment, if there is extragenital lichen sclerosus, or if second-line therapy is to be used.

      Understanding lichen sclerosus is important for early diagnosis and management of this condition. Patients with this condition should seek medical attention if they experience any symptoms or changes in their condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 8 - Which of the following is not typically associated with hirsutism in individuals? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not typically associated with hirsutism in individuals?

      Your Answer: Cushing's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Porphyria cutanea tarda

      Explanation:

      Hypertrichosis is the result of Porphyria cutanea tarda, not hirsutism.

      Understanding Hirsutism and Hypertrichosis

      Hirsutism and hypertrichosis are two conditions that involve excessive hair growth in women. Hirsutism is typically caused by androgen-dependent hair growth, while hypertrichosis is caused by androgen-independent hair growth. The most common cause of hirsutism is polycystic ovarian syndrome, but it can also be caused by other conditions such as Cushing’s syndrome, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, and obesity. Hypertrichosis, on the other hand, can be caused by drugs like minoxidil and ciclosporin, as well as congenital conditions like hypertrichosis lanuginosa and terminalis.

      To assess hirsutism, doctors use the Ferriman-Gallwey scoring system, which assigns scores to nine different body areas. A score of over 15 is considered to indicate moderate or severe hirsutism. Management of hirsutism typically involves weight loss if the patient is overweight, as well as cosmetic techniques like waxing and bleaching. Combined oral contraceptive pills like co-cyprindiol and ethinylestradiol and drospirenone may also be used, but co-cyprindiol should not be used long-term due to the increased risk of venous thromboembolism. For facial hirsutism, topical eflornithine may be used, but it is contraindicated in pregnancy and breastfeeding.

      Overall, understanding the causes and management of hirsutism and hypertrichosis is important for women who experience excessive hair growth. By working with their doctors, they can find the best treatment options to manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 9 - A 58-year-old woman develops a red and hot right shin. She is afebrile...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman develops a red and hot right shin. She is afebrile and otherwise well. She has no known allergies. Her Wells' score is -2.
      Which of the following would be the best option?
      Select the SINGLE best option from the list below. Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Oral co-amoxiclav

      Correct Answer: Oral flucloxacillin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Cellulitis and the Use of Doppler Ultrasound for DVT Diagnosis

      Cellulitis is a common bacterial skin infection that can be treated with oral flucloxacillin, according to UK antimicrobial guidelines. Hospital admission for cellulitis treatment is only necessary for febrile and ill patients or those with comorbidities. Oral co-amoxiclav is recommended for facial cellulitis, but not for cellulitis in other locations. Oral vancomycin is used for Clostridium difficile infection, not cellulitis.

      A Doppler ultrasound scan can be useful in diagnosing deep venous thrombosis (DVT), but it is unlikely to be necessary for a patient with cellulitis who is otherwise well and has a low Wells’ score. The Wells’ score is a tool used to assess the likelihood of DVT based on clinical features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner concerned about a red, itchy...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner concerned about a red, itchy rash that developed while she was on holiday in Spain. On examination, she has an inflamed eczematous rash on her face, neck, arms and legs, with a few blisters. She has sparing of skin in areas that have been covered by her swimwear. She is currently being treated for acne and takes no other regular medications. She has no other known medical conditions.
      Which of the following medications is most likely to have caused this patient’s rash?

      Your Answer: Oral erythromycin

      Correct Answer: Oral lymecycline

      Explanation:

      Understanding Photosensitivity and Acne Treatments

      Photosensitivity is a common side-effect of certain medications used to treat acne. This abnormal reaction to ultraviolet (UV) radiation can cause a rash, particularly when exposed to UVA rays. Primary photosensitive conditions include polymorphic light eruption or solar urticaria, while secondary photosensitivity may be caused by medications such as tetracyclines or retinoids, or exposure to psoralens released by plants.

      Lymecycline, a tetracycline antibiotic commonly used to treat acne, is known to cause photosensitivity. Oral erythromycin, a macrolide antibiotic used to treat acne, does not typically cause photosensitive skin reactions. Topical azelaic acid and clindamycin are also used to treat acne but are not known to cause photosensitivity. Topical benzoyl peroxide may cause local skin reactions but is not associated with photosensitivity. It is important to be aware of the potential side-effects of acne treatments and to take precautions to protect the skin from UV radiation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 11 - A 32-year-old man with a past medical history of polyarthralgia, back pain, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man with a past medical history of polyarthralgia, back pain, and diarrhea presents with a 3 cm red lesion on his shin that is beginning to ulcerate. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Erythema nodosum

      Correct Answer: Pyoderma gangrenosum

      Explanation:

      It is probable that this individual is suffering from ulcerative colitis, a condition that is commonly linked to arthritis in large joints, sacroiliitis, and pyoderma gangrenosum.

      Understanding Pyoderma Gangrenosum

      Pyoderma gangrenosum is a rare inflammatory disorder that causes painful skin ulceration. While it can affect any part of the skin, it is most commonly found on the lower legs. This condition is classified as a neutrophilic dermatosis, which means that it is characterized by the infiltration of neutrophils in the affected tissue. The exact cause of pyoderma gangrenosum is unknown in 50% of cases, but it can be associated with inflammatory bowel disease, rheumatological conditions, haematological disorders, and other diseases.

      The initial symptoms of pyoderma gangrenosum may start suddenly with a small pustule, red bump, or blood-blister. The skin then breaks down, resulting in an ulcer that is often painful. The edge of the ulcer is typically described as purple, violaceous, and undermined. In some cases, systemic symptoms such as fever and myalgia may also be present. Diagnosis is often made by the characteristic appearance, associations with other diseases, the presence of pathergy, histology results, and ruling out other potential causes.

      Management of pyoderma gangrenosum typically involves oral steroids as first-line treatment due to the potential for rapid progression. Other immunosuppressive therapies such as ciclosporin and infliximab may also be used in difficult cases. It is important to note that any surgery should be postponed until the disease process is controlled on immunosuppression to avoid worsening the condition. Understanding pyoderma gangrenosum and seeking prompt medical attention can help manage this rare and painful condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 12 - A 28-year-old woman presents with a recurring, intensely itchy rash on the palms...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with a recurring, intensely itchy rash on the palms of her hands. She reports that these rashes tend to occur every summer. Despite trying over-the-counter emollients and antihistamines, there has been only marginal improvement. The patient is otherwise healthy with no other medical conditions and does not smoke.

      During examination, bilateral vesicles are observed on the palms and sides of the fingers. The palms appear dry with areas of skin peeling, while the rest of her body is unaffected.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pompholyx eczema

      Explanation:

      Palmoplantar pustulosis is often accompanied by psoriasis on other areas of the body and is strongly linked to smoking. Unlike pompholyx eczema, the connection to high temperatures and humidity is not as significant. Scabies, which is caused by the parasite Sarcoptes scabiei, results in severe itching of the hands and web spaces but is typically not a recurring issue. Symptoms include linear burrows and erythematous papules rather than vesicles.

      Understanding Pompholyx Eczema

      Pompholyx eczema, also known as dyshidrotic eczema, is a type of skin condition that affects both the hands and feet. It is often triggered by high temperatures and humidity, such as sweating. The main symptom of pompholyx eczema is the appearance of small blisters on the palms and soles, which can be intensely itchy and sometimes accompanied by a burning sensation. Once the blisters burst, the skin may become dry and crack.

      To manage pompholyx eczema, cool compresses and emollients can be used to soothe the affected areas. Topical steroids may also be prescribed to reduce inflammation and itching. It is important to avoid further irritation by wearing gloves or protective footwear and avoiding exposure to irritants. With proper management, the symptoms of pompholyx eczema can be controlled and minimized.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 13 - A 62-year-old man visits his primary care physician with worries about a growth...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old man visits his primary care physician with worries about a growth on his right lower eyelid. The lesion has been there for at least 3 months and has not increased in size. During examination, you observe a 3 mm lesion with rolled, pearly edges. Your suspicion is a basal cell carcinoma.
      What would be the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Urgent referral for surgical excision

      Explanation:

      When it comes to basal cell carcinoma, surgical excision is typically recommended and can be referred routinely. However, for high-risk areas such as the eyelids and nasal ala, urgent referral under the 2-week wait is necessary to prevent potential damage from delay.

      Basal cell carcinoma (BCC) is a type of skin cancer that is commonly found in the Western world. It is one of the three main types of skin cancer and is characterized by slow growth and local invasion. BCC lesions are also known as rodent ulcers and rarely metastasize. The majority of BCC lesions are found on sun-exposed areas, particularly the head and neck. The most common type of BCC is nodular BCC, which initially appears as a pearly, flesh-colored papule with telangiectasia. As the lesion progresses, it may ulcerate, leaving a central crater. If BCC is suspected, a routine referral should be made. Management options include surgical removal, curettage, cryotherapy, topical cream such as imiquimod or fluorouracil, and radiotherapy.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 14 - A 58-year-old with a history of acne rosacea seeks guidance on treatment options....

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old with a history of acne rosacea seeks guidance on treatment options. Which of the following interventions is least helpful in managing the condition?

      Your Answer: Topical metronidazole

      Correct Answer: Low-dose topical corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      Understanding Rosacea: Symptoms and Management

      Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a chronic skin condition that has no known cause. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Over time, telangiectasia (visible blood vessels) may appear, followed by persistent redness with papules and pustules. In some cases, rhinophyma (enlarged nose) may develop, and there may be ocular involvement, such as blepharitis. Sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.

      Mild cases of rosacea may be treated with topical metronidazole, while topical brimonidine gel may be used for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics like oxytetracycline. Patients are advised to apply high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for those with prominent telangiectasia, and patients with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and management of rosacea can help individuals manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 15 - A 45-year-old female patient complains of painful erythematous lesions on her shins. Which...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old female patient complains of painful erythematous lesions on her shins. Which of the following is not commonly associated with this presentation?

      Your Answer: Syphilis

      Explanation:

      Erythema nodosum caused by syphilis is uncommon.

      Understanding Erythema Nodosum

      Erythema nodosum is a condition characterized by inflammation of the subcutaneous fat, resulting in tender, erythematous, nodular lesions. These lesions typically occur over the shins but may also appear on other parts of the body such as the forearms and thighs. The condition usually resolves within six weeks, and the lesions heal without scarring.

      There are several possible causes of erythema nodosum, including infections such as streptococci, tuberculosis, and brucellosis. Systemic diseases like sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, and Behcet’s can also lead to the condition. In some cases, erythema nodosum may be associated with malignancy or lymphoma. Certain drugs like penicillins, sulphonamides, and the combined oral contraceptive pill, as well as pregnancy, can also trigger the condition.

      Overall, understanding the causes and symptoms of erythema nodosum is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 16 - A middle-aged woman comes to you with concerns about skin lesions on her...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged woman comes to you with concerns about skin lesions on her chest. Upon examination, you notice two small red papules with visible fine vessels surrounding them. The lesions blanch when pressure is applied. What commonly used medication could be causing these lesions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive

      Explanation:

      Spider naevi are a type of skin angioma that are typically found in the distribution of the superior vena cava. While they can occur without any apparent cause, the presence of multiple lesions may indicate an excess of oestrogen in the body. This is often associated with liver cirrhosis, as the liver is responsible for processing oestrogens. However, it can also occur during pregnancy or as a side effect of oestrogen-containing medications.

      Understanding Spider Naevi

      Spider naevi, also known as spider angiomas, are characterized by a central red papule surrounded by capillaries. These lesions can be identified by their ability to blanch upon pressure. Spider naevi are typically found on the upper part of the body and are more common in childhood, affecting around 10-15% of people.

      To differentiate spider naevi from telangiectasia, one can press on the lesion and observe how it fills. Spider naevi fill from the center, while telangiectasia fills from the edge. It is important to note that spider naevi may be associated with liver disease, pregnancy, and the use of combined oral contraceptive pills.

      In summary, understanding spider naevi is important for proper diagnosis and management. By recognizing their distinct characteristics and potential associations, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care for their patients.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 17 - You assess a 23-year-old male patient who has newly developed extensive psoriatic plaques...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 23-year-old male patient who has newly developed extensive psoriatic plaques on his elbows and knees. He has no prior history of skin issues, but his mother has a history of psoriasis. You suggest using an emollient to manage the scaling. What would be the most suitable initial prescription for treating his plaques?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical steroid + topical calcipotriol

      Explanation:

      As a first-line treatment, NICE suggests using a strong corticosteroid and a vitamin D analogue separately, once a day for up to four weeks. The corticosteroid should be applied in the morning and the vitamin D analogue in the evening.

      NICE recommends a step-wise approach for chronic plaque psoriasis, starting with regular emollients and then using a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, followed by a vitamin D analogue twice daily, and then a potent corticosteroid or coal tar preparation if there is no improvement. Phototherapy, systemic therapy, and topical treatments are also options for management. Topical steroids should be used cautiously and vitamin D analogues may be used long-term. Dithranol and coal tar have adverse effects but can be effective.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 18 - A typically healthy 68-year-old man visits the doctor's office complaining of feeling unwell....

    Incorrect

    • A typically healthy 68-year-old man visits the doctor's office complaining of feeling unwell. He mentions experiencing a sharp ache in his right groin. After three days, he develops a strip of painful, red blisters on the top of his right foot.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Herpes zoster

      Explanation:

      This individual is experiencing shingles, which is caused by the herpes zoster virus and is characterized by a unique distribution along a specific dermatome.

      Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The rash is well demarcated by the affected dermatome and may be accompanied by fever and lethargy. Treatment includes analgesia, antivirals, and potentially oral corticosteroids. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, ocular and ear complications. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the risk of post-herpetic neuralgia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 19 - A 67-year-old woman presents to General Practitioner with a 2-day history of fever...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman presents to General Practitioner with a 2-day history of fever and pain in her right shin.
      On examination, she was found to have a tender erythematous skin swelling in the anterior aspect of her right shin. This measured around 10 cm × 4 cm. Her temperature was 38.2°C and the rest of her parameters included a heart rate of 120 bpm, respiratory rate of 21 bpm and oxygen saturation of 99%.
      What is the most appropriate next investigation?
      Select the SINGLE best option from the list below.
      Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Full blood count, urea and electrolytes and C-reactive protein (CRP)/erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Cellulitis: Which Ones are Necessary?

      Cellulitis is a clinical diagnosis, but certain tests may be necessary in patients with a systemic response. A full blood count, urea and electrolytes, and CRP/ESR are recommended to assess the severity of the infection. A wound swab and blood cultures may also be considered. An ABPI measurement is indicated in patients with suspected lower-limb arterial disease. A chest X-ray is not necessary unless co-existing lung pathology is suspected. In stable patients with no systemic upset, no further investigations are needed. A punch biopsy is not necessary for diagnosis but may be considered in other skin conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 20 - A 55-year-old diabetic female patient comes in with bilateral erythematous lesions on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old diabetic female patient comes in with bilateral erythematous lesions on her shins that have been present for four months. The lesions are surrounded by telangiectasia. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Necrobiosis lipoidica

      Explanation:

      There is no association between erythema nodosum and telangiectasia in the surrounding area.

      Skin Disorders Linked to Diabetes

      Diabetes mellitus is a chronic metabolic disorder that affects various organs in the body, including the skin. Several skin disorders are associated with diabetes, including necrobiosis lipoidica, infections such as candidiasis and staphylococcal, neuropathic ulcers, vitiligo, lipoatrophy, and granuloma annulare. Necrobiosis lipoidica is characterized by shiny, painless areas of yellow, red, or brown skin, typically on the shin, and is often associated with surrounding telangiectasia. Infections such as candidiasis and staphylococcal can also occur in individuals with diabetes. Neuropathic ulcers are a common complication of diabetes, and vitiligo and lipoatrophy are also associated with the condition. Granuloma annulare is a papular lesion that is often slightly hyperpigmented and depressed centrally, but recent studies have not confirmed a significant association between diabetes mellitus and this skin disorder. It is important for individuals with diabetes to be aware of these potential skin complications and to seek medical attention if they notice any changes in their skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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Dermatology (9/15) 60%
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