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  • Question 1 - A 75-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department with a fractured neck of...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department with a fractured neck of femur. The patient has a medical history of polymyalgia rheumatica, ischaemic heart disease, and dyspepsia. Their current medications include bisoprolol, ramipril, simvastatin, aspirin, omeprazole, and prednisolone. A bone profile is ordered as part of the diagnostic workup.
      What would be the probable findings for this patient?

      Your Answer: PTH - high, calcium - high, phosphate - low

      Correct Answer: PTH - normal, calcium - normal, phosphate - normal

      Explanation:

      Normal blood test values, including ALP, calcium, phosphate, and PTH, are commonly observed in patients with osteoporosis. However, in cases where osteoporosis is caused by chronic use of systemic steroids, the bone profile results may still appear normal. Other conditions, such as primary hyperparathyroidism, osteomalacia, CKD, and tertiary hyperparathyroidism, may present with abnormal blood test values, including high PTH, low calcium, and/or low phosphate.

      Understanding Osteoporosis

      Osteoporosis is a condition that affects the skeletal system, causing a loss of bone mass. As people age, their bone mineral density decreases, but osteoporosis is defined by the World Health Organisation as having a bone mineral density of less than 2.5 standard deviations below the young adult mean density. This condition is significant because it increases the risk of fragility fractures, which can lead to significant morbidity and mortality. In fact, around 50% of postmenopausal women will experience an osteoporotic fracture at some point.

      The primary risk factors for osteoporosis are age and female gender, but other factors include corticosteroid use, smoking, alcohol consumption, low body mass index, and family history. To assess a patient’s risk of developing a fragility fracture, healthcare providers may use screening tools such as FRAX or QFracture. Additionally, patients who have sustained a fragility fracture should be evaluated for osteoporosis.

      To determine a patient’s bone mineral density, a dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan is used to examine the hip and lumbar spine. If either of these areas has a T score of less than -2.5, treatment is recommended. The first-line treatment for osteoporosis is typically an oral bisphosphonate such as alendronate, although other treatments are available. Overall, osteoporosis is a significant condition that requires careful evaluation and management to prevent fragility fractures and their associated complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      90.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which statement accurately describes acute compartment syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement accurately describes acute compartment syndrome?

      Your Answer: Passive stretch of affected muscles exacerbates pain

      Explanation:

      Compartment Syndrome

      Compartment syndrome is a condition that occurs when the pressure within a muscle compartment increases to a level that exceeds arterial blood pressure. This can happen even without a fracture, such as in cases of crush injuries. The earliest and most reliable symptom of compartment syndrome is pain, which can be exacerbated by passive stretching of the muscles in the affected area. As the condition progresses, loss of peripheral pulses may occur, indicating that the pressure has reached a critical level.

      Treatment for compartment syndrome involves decompression of the affected compartment(s), including the skin. It is important to recognize the symptoms of compartment syndrome early on in order to prevent further damage and potential loss of function. By the signs and symptoms of this condition, individuals can seek prompt medical attention and receive the appropriate treatment to alleviate the pressure and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 49-year-old female patient visits her general practitioner after discovering a suspicious lump...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old female patient visits her general practitioner after discovering a suspicious lump in her left breast. Upon referral to a breast surgeon, she is diagnosed with a 1.5 cm HER2+ carcinoma. Although there are no palpable axillary lymph nodes during clinical examination, her pre-operative axillary ultrasound reveals multiple nodes that appear suspicious. What is the recommended course of action for managing the patient's axilla?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sentinel node biopsy

      Explanation:

      If a woman with breast cancer does not have any detectable lymph node swelling, a pre-operative axillary ultrasound can be used to identify any suspicious nodes. If a positive result is obtained, a sentinel node biopsy should be performed to determine the extent of nodal metastasis. This is preferred over a total axillary node clearance as it is less invasive. Letrozole is recommended for controlling the recurrence of the primary tumor in cases of ER+ disease. In situations where extensive nodal burden is identified during SNB, axillary radiotherapy can be used as an alternative to axillary node clearance. However, axillary clearance should not be the first option for managing axillary metastases, unless the sentinel node biopsy reveals a large number of involved nodes. The source of this information is the 2018 Nice guideline NG101.

      Breast cancer management varies depending on the stage of the cancer, type of tumor, and patient’s medical history. Treatment options may include surgery, radiotherapy, hormone therapy, biological therapy, and chemotherapy. Surgery is typically the first option for most patients, except for elderly patients with metastatic disease who may benefit more from hormonal therapy. Prior to surgery, an axillary ultrasound is recommended for patients without palpable axillary lymphadenopathy, while those with clinically palpable lymphadenopathy require axillary node clearance. The type of surgery offered depends on various factors, such as tumor size, location, and type. Breast reconstruction is also an option for patients who have undergone a mastectomy.

      Radiotherapy is recommended after a wide-local excision to reduce the risk of recurrence, while mastectomy patients may receive radiotherapy for T3-T4 tumors or those with four or more positive axillary nodes. Hormonal therapy is offered if tumors are positive for hormone receptors, with tamoxifen being used in pre- and perimenopausal women and aromatase inhibitors like anastrozole in postmenopausal women. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of endometrial cancer, venous thromboembolism, and menopausal symptoms. Biological therapy, such as trastuzumab, is used for HER2-positive tumors but cannot be used in patients with a history of heart disorders. Chemotherapy may be used before or after surgery, depending on the stage of the tumor and the presence of axillary node disease. FEC-D is commonly used in the latter case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 67-year-old woman is brought to Accident and Emergency after being found near-unconscious...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman is brought to Accident and Emergency after being found near-unconscious by her daughter. Her daughter indicates that she has a long-term joint disorder that has been controlled with oral medication and uses steroids excessively. She has recently been suffering from depression and has had poor compliance with medications. On examination, she is responsive to pain. Her pulse is 130 bpm and blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. She is afebrile.
      Basic blood investigations reveal:
      Investigation Patient Normal value
      Haemoglobin 121 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 6.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 233 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 129 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 6.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 93 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Glucose 2.7 mmol/l <11.1 mmol/l (random)
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Addisonian crisis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis: Addisonian Crisis and Other Conditions

      Addisonian crisis is a condition caused by adrenal insufficiency, often due to autoimmune disease or other factors such as tuberculosis or adrenal haemorrhage. Symptoms are vague and insidious, including weight loss, depression, anorexia, and gastrointestinal upset. Diagnosis is made through a short ACTH stimulation test. Emergency treatment involves IV hydrocortisone and fluids, while long-term treatment involves oral cortisol and mineralocorticoid. Any stressful activity should lead to an increase in steroid dosage.

      Other conditions, such as insulin overdose, salicylate overdose, meningococcal septicaemia, and paracetamol overdose, may present with similar symptoms but can be ruled out based on the clinical information given. Insulin overdose can cause low glucose levels due to loss of the anti-insulin effect of cortisol. Salicylate overdose can cause a range of symptoms, but the ones described here are not suggestive of this condition. Meningococcal septicaemia may present with hypotension and tachycardia, but the remaining features do not fit this diagnosis. Paracetamol overdose typically presents with liver toxicity symptoms, which are not described in the given information. Therefore, the specific symptoms described are indicative of an Addisonian crisis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
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  • Question 5 - A 21-year-old male comes to the emergency department with a complaint of vomiting...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old male comes to the emergency department with a complaint of vomiting fresh blood after a 72-hour drinking binge. He denies regular alcohol abuse.

      During the examination, his pulse is found to be 92 beats per minute and his blood pressure is 146/90 mmHg.

      What is the probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mallory-Weiss tear

      Explanation:

      Causes of Gastrointestinal Bleeding

      Gastrointestinal bleeding can be caused by various factors, including Mallory-Weiss tears, aortoduodenal fistula, Meckel’s diverticulum, oesophageal varices, and peptic ulcers. Mallory-Weiss tears occur in the gastro-oesophageal junction due to forceful or prolonged coughing or vomiting, often after excessive alcohol intake or epileptic convulsions. This can result in vomiting bright red blood or passing blood per rectum. Aortoduodenal fistula is caused by erosion of the duodenum into the aorta due to tumour or previous repair of the aorta with a synthetic graft. Meckel’s diverticulum, which occasionally occurs in the ileum, may contain ectopic gastric mucosa, leading to rectal bleeding. Oesophageal varices are dilated venous collaterals that result from portal hypertension in patients with liver cirrhosis. Finally, peptic ulcers are the most common cause of upper gastrointestinal bleeds, with mucosal erosions developing due to non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, steroids, or prolonged alcohol abuse. Despite the potential severity of these conditions, bleeding usually stops spontaneously.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old man arrives at the emergency department following his fifth suicide attempt...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man arrives at the emergency department following his fifth suicide attempt in the past two years. He was discovered by his ex-girlfriend, who ended their relationship the day before due to his intense mood swings and overwhelmingly negative emotions. He has no communication with his family and appears unkempt. When questioned, he expresses feelings of worthlessness and a belief that everyone will eventually leave him. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Emotionally unstable personality disorder (EUPD)

      Explanation:

      The correct diagnosis for this patient is emotionally unstable personality disorder. This disorder is characterized by impulsive behavior, disturbances in self-image, and a fear of abandonment. Patients with this disorder often experience severe mood swings and intense negative emotions, including explosive anger outbursts and a chronic sense of emptiness. They tend to have intense relationships with others and may have a history of self-harm or suicide attempts.

      Bipolar disorder is an incorrect diagnosis as there is no evidence of past manic episodes. Histrionic personality disorder is also incorrect as the patient does not exhibit the typical attention-seeking behavior and preoccupation with physical appearance. Major depressive disorder is also not the correct diagnosis as it does not account for the patient’s intense interpersonal relationships and fear of abandonment.

      Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.

      Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.

      Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      0
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  • Question 7 - A 40-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with bloody bowel motions and...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with bloody bowel motions and abdominal cramping for the last eight hours. He is also complaining of fatigue.
      He has a past medical history significant for Crohn’s disease, but is non-compliant with azathioprine as it gives him severe nausea. He takes no other regular medications. He has no drug allergies and does not smoke or drink alcohol.
      Physical examination reveals diffuse abdominal pain, without abdominal rigidity.
      His observations are as follows:
      Temperature 37.5 °C
      Blood pressure 105/88 mmHg
      Heart rate 105 bpm
      Respiratory rate 20 breaths/min
      Oxygen saturation (SpO2) 99% (room air)
      His blood tests results are shown below:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      White cell count (WCC) 14.5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      C-reactive protein (CRP) 51.2 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
      Haemoglobin 139 g/l 135–175 g/l
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous (IV) steroids

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing a worsening of their Crohn’s disease, likely due to poor medication compliance. Symptoms include bloody bowel movements, fatigue, and elevated inflammatory markers. Admission to a Medical Ward for IV hydration, electrolyte replacement, and corticosteroids is necessary as the patient is systemically unwell. Stool microscopy, culture, and sensitivity should be performed to rule out any infectious causes. Azathioprine has been prescribed but has caused side-effects and takes too long to take effect. Immediate surgery is not necessary as the patient has stable observations and a soft abdomen. Infliximab is an option for severe cases but requires screening for tuberculosis. Oral steroids may be considered for mild cases, but given the patient’s non-compliance and current presentation, they are not suitable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
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  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus, well controlled on insulin, attends...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus, well controlled on insulin, attends the Fetal Medicine Clinic for a growth scan at 36 weeks. The scan has been unremarkable, and the consultant will discuss the mode and timing of delivery today. The baby is cephalic, and the placenta is posterior and high.
      Which of the following statements regarding the mode and timing of delivery in patients with diabetes is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Women with gestational diabetes should give birth no later than 40+6 weeks’ gestation

      Explanation:

      Managing Delivery in Women with Diabetes during Pregnancy

      Women with diabetes during pregnancy require special attention during delivery to ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby. Here are some important considerations:

      Delivery should not be delayed beyond 40+6 weeks’ gestation to avoid the risk of stillbirth.

      Delivery before 37 weeks is not recommended unless there are metabolic or other maternal or fetal complications.

      Vaginal delivery is not recommended in the presence of a macrosomic fetus, but the woman should be informed of the risks and make an informed decision.

      Induction or elective Caesarean section should be considered between 37+0 and 38+6 weeks’ gestation to minimize the risk of stillbirth and fetal macrosomia.

      Women with a previous Caesarean section can opt for vaginal birth after Caesarean section (VBAC) if the indication for the previous Caesarean section is not recurring.

      During delivery, intrapartum glucose levels should be monitored closely, and appropriate interventions should be taken to maintain glucose levels between 4 and 7 mmol/l.

      By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can ensure a safe delivery for women with diabetes during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
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  • Question 9 - A 57-year-old unemployed man presents to hospital with complaints of weight loss and...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old unemployed man presents to hospital with complaints of weight loss and weakness. He has difficulty climbing stairs and rising from his armchair at home. He lives alone and drinks 50 units of alcohol per week while smoking 20 cigarettes daily for 40 years. His blood pressure is 197/98 mmHg. Upon investigation, his Hb is 99 g/L, WBC is 9.8 ×109/L, platelets are 350 ×109/L, sodium is 145 mmol/L, potassium is 2.8 mmol/L, urea is 4.1 mmol/L, creatinine is 120 µmol/L, bicarbonate is 35 mmol/L, and glucose is 12.9 mmol/L. An arterial blood gas shows a pH of 7.26. Which investigation would be most useful in determining the cause of his illness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chest x ray

      Explanation:

      The patient has hypertension, hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis, high blood glucose, and weakness. Cushing’s syndrome is the likely diagnosis due to ectopic ACTH secretion by a small cell carcinoma of the lung. Myasthenia gravis is characterized by AChR autoantibodies. Muscle biopsy may be required for myopathy diagnosis. Renin and aldosterone levels may explain hypertension but not weakness. Guanidine hydrochloride was used for Lambert Eaton Syndrome but is no longer in use due to adverse effects. Osteomalacia can also cause proximal myopathy and vitamin D levels should be checked.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
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  • Question 10 - You are requested to evaluate a 22-year-old man who had undergone an incision...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to evaluate a 22-year-old man who had undergone an incision and drainage procedure for pilonidal abscess. The nursing staff is worried about his unusual behavior. He has admitted to social cannabis use in the past.

      Upon arrival, you observe that he is forcefully sticking out his tongue and bending his neck to the left and right. His eyes are looking upwards, and his pupils are dilated. His blood glucose level is 5 mmol/L, and all routine observations are normal. He was given paracetamol and an anti-emetic ten minutes ago.

      What is the most suitable course of treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous procyclidine

      Explanation:

      Oculogyric Crisis

      Oculogyric crisis is a type of acute dystonic reaction that is commonly associated with the use of neuroleptics and anti-emetic medications like metoclopramide. Unfortunately, the clinical spectrum of this condition is not well understood, which often leads to misdiagnosis as a psychogenic disorder. Symptoms of oculogyric crisis can occur suddenly or over several hours and may include restlessness, agitation, malaise, and a fixed stare. The most characteristic symptom is the upward deviation of the eyes, which may be sustained or accompanied by other eye movements like convergence or lateral deviation. Other associated symptoms may include neck flexion, mouth opening, tongue protrusion, and ocular pain. Fortunately, the symptoms of oculogyric crisis can be rapidly resolved with the use of medications like procyclidine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Musculoskeletal (0/1) 0%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
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