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  • Question 1 - A 36-year-old patient presented to the general practitioner with a complaint of a...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old patient presented to the general practitioner with a complaint of a pale, velvety, hypopigmented patch on his chest and shoulder that he has been experiencing for the past few months. He reports no pain, itching, or scaling on the lesion. The patient has a medical history of rheumatoid arthritis and is currently taking methotrexate. Upon examination, scraping revealed scaling.
      What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Tinea versicolor

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Conditions: Symptoms and Causes

      Skin conditions can range from mild to severe and can be caused by a variety of factors. Here are some common skin conditions and their symptoms:

      Tinea Versicolor: This fungal infection appears as pale, velvety, hypopigmented macules that do not tan and are non-scaly. It is usually non-pruritic or mildly pruritic and occurs on the chest, back, and shoulders.

      Tinea Corporis: This fungal infection causes ring-shaped, scaly patches with central clearing and a distinct border.

      Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis: This is a serious skin hypersensitivity reaction that affects a large portion of the body surface area. It is usually drug-induced and can be caused by NSAIDs, steroids, methotrexate, allopurinol, or penicillins. The Nikolsky sign is usually present and the skin easily sloughs off.

      Vitiligo: This autoimmune condition causes areas of depigmentation lacking melanocytes. It is usually associated with other autoimmune conditions such as hyperparathyroidism.

      Fixed Drug Reaction: This sharply distinguished lesion occurs in the same anatomic site with repeated drug exposure. It is most commonly caused by barbiturates, tetracycline, NSAIDs, phenytoin, or clarithromycin.

      Understanding Common Skin Conditions and Their Symptoms

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 2 - A 6-year-old girl with known coeliac disease develops a symmetrical prurigo with numerous...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl with known coeliac disease develops a symmetrical prurigo with numerous vesicles on her shoulders, back, and buttocks. She is also currently experiencing several mouth ulcers.
      What is the probable diagnosis for her skin rash?

      Your Answer: Dermatitis herpetiformis

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Conditions: Symptoms and Treatments

      Dermatitis herpetiformis is a rare skin condition that is linked to gluten sensitivity. It causes clusters of blisters to appear symmetrically on the scalp, shoulders, buttocks, elbows, and knees. Treatment involves a gluten-free diet and medication to reduce itching.

      Atopic dermatitis, also known as eczema, is a chronic and itchy skin condition that is very common. It can appear anywhere on the body and is often treated with topical steroids and moisturizers.

      Seborrheic dermatitis is a chronic form of eczema that mainly affects the scalp and face. It causes redness, itching, and flaking of the skin. Treatment involves medicated shampoos and topical creams.

      Guttate psoriasis is a type of psoriasis that causes small, teardrop-shaped plaques all over the body. It often follows a streptococcal throat infection and is treated with topical steroids and phototherapy.

      Eczema pompholyx, also known as hand/foot eczema, is characterized by blisters on the hands and feet. Treatment involves avoiding irritants and using topical steroids and moisturizers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old man with psoriasis affecting the scalp and legs visits his General...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man with psoriasis affecting the scalp and legs visits his General Practitioner with ongoing symptoms despite using once-daily Betnovate® (potent steroid) and a vitamin D analogue for six weeks. What should be the next course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Refer to Dermatology

      Correct Answer: Stop steroid treatment and continue vitamin D analogue twice daily

      Explanation:

      Management of Psoriasis: Next Steps and Referral Considerations

      Psoriasis management follows a stepwise approach, as per NICE guidance. For a patient who has already received eight weeks of once-daily potent steroid with a vitamin D analogue, the next step is to stop the steroid and start twice-daily vitamin D analogue. Steroids should not be applied at the same site for more than eight weeks, after which patients require a 4-week ‘treatment break’. If there is still no improvement in symptoms at the end of the 4-week steroid-free break, twice-daily steroids can be trialled or a coal tar preparation can be started.

      Referral to Dermatology may be necessary if the patient is severely affected by psoriasis or struggling to manage the condition. However, starting the next stage of treatment, which is twice-daily vitamin D analogue, would be the most appropriate while awaiting secondary care review.

      Continuing steroids for a further four weeks would result in an excessively long duration of steroid treatment and risk side-effects such as skin thinning. Patients should have a minimum of four weeks steroid-free after an 8-week treatment course.

      While some patients with severe psoriasis may require an ultra-potent steroid, this patient has already received eight weeks of a potent steroid and requires a 4-week steroid-free break. Following this, it may be appropriate to trial a short course of an ultra-potent steroid or to retrial the potent steroid twice daily.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 4 - An 80-year-old female comes to the clinic from her nursing home with an...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old female comes to the clinic from her nursing home with an atypical rash on her arms and legs. The rash appeared after starting furosemide for her mild ankle swelling. Upon examination, there are multiple tense lesions filled with fluid, measuring 1-2 cm in diameter on her arms and legs. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pemphigoid

      Explanation:

      Pemphigoid: A Skin Condition Caused by Furosemide

      Pemphigoid is a skin condition that typically affects elderly individuals, presenting as tense blisters on the arms and legs. The use of furosemide, a diuretic, is a common cause of this condition. While other diuretics can also cause pemphigoid, it is a rarer occurrence. A positive immunofluorescence test confirms the diagnosis, and treatment with steroids is usually successful.

      It is important to differentiate pemphigoid from pemphigus, which presents in younger age groups and causes flaccid blisters that easily erupt, leading to widespread lesions. Overall, recognizing the signs and symptoms of pemphigoid and identifying its underlying cause can lead to effective treatment and management of this skin condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 5 - A 42-year-old West Indian diplomat, while on secondment in the United Kingdom, develops...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old West Indian diplomat, while on secondment in the United Kingdom, develops an uncomfortable raised rash on the anterior aspects of both her lower legs. She has prided herself with her remarkably good health over the years. She has recently visited Nigeria, Guyana and Vietnam for her work.
      What would be the most appropriate initial investigation to conduct?

      Your Answer: Chest X-ray

      Explanation:

      The patient is presenting with erythema nodosum, which may have an unknown cause or could be related to their extensive travel history. While a skin biopsy may provide a definitive diagnosis, the best initial investigation is a chest X-ray to rule out tuberculosis and sarcoidosis. A blood film is not necessary as there is no indication of malaria. An ultrasound of the abdomen is not useful in this case, as the skin lesions are the primary concern. Stool microbiology is not necessary as there is no mention of diarrhea. While a skin biopsy may provide information on the lesions themselves, it does not aid in identifying the underlying cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old man presents to the Dermatology Outpatient Department with mildly itchy, erythematous...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents to the Dermatology Outpatient Department with mildly itchy, erythematous plaques with oily, yellow scales on the scalp, forehead and behind his ears. The plaques have been present for two weeks. He has no significant medical history and is otherwise well.
      What is the definitive management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Ketoconazole shampoo and topical corticosteroid therapy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Seborrhoeic Dermatitis: Focus on Ketoconazole Shampoo and Topical Corticosteroid Therapy

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a common skin condition characterized by erythematous patches with fine scaling on the scalp, forehead, and behind the ears. To manage this condition, a four-week course of mild-potency topical corticosteroid therapy with ketoconazole shampoo is recommended. This treatment approach has been shown to improve the signs and symptoms of seborrhoeic dermatitis. While antihistamines can provide symptomatic relief, they do not address the underlying cause of the disease. Oral corticosteroids and retinoids are not recommended for the treatment of seborrhoeic dermatitis. Vitamin C also has no role in the management of this condition. Overall, the combination of ketoconazole shampoo and topical corticosteroid therapy is a safe and effective treatment option for seborrhoeic dermatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old music teacher who presented to her General Practitioner (GP) with a...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old music teacher who presented to her General Practitioner (GP) with a skin lesion on her forearm. On examination, the lesion is a 4-mm red, raised lesion with multiple scratch marks surrounding it. The GP wishes to refer Mrs Green to a local dermatologist.
      Which of the following descriptions most accurately describes this lesion?

      Your Answer: erythematosus papule with excoriation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Dermatological Terms: Describing Skin Lesions

      Accurately describing skin lesions is crucial in diagnosing skin conditions. Dermatological terms can help healthcare professionals communicate effectively about skin lesions. Here are some common terms:

      – Bulla: A fluid-filled lesion (blister) that may be single or multiloculated.
      – Crust: Dried serum, pus, or blood.
      – Erythema: Vascular dilation and inflammation producing redness on the skin.
      – Excoriation: Scratch marks, often self-induced and secondary to itching.
      – Lichenification: Chronic thickening and increased marking of the skin caused by scratching.
      – Macule: A change in color or texture of the skin without any change in elevation. When >1 cm in diameter, it is called a ‘patch.’
      – Nodule: A raised lesion with a rounded surface greater than 0.5 cm in diameter.
      – Papule: A solid, raised lesion less than 1 cm in diameter.
      – Plaque: An elevated plateau of the skin, often greater than 0.5 cm.
      – Pustule: A pus-filled lesion.
      – Scale: Flakes arising from an abnormal stratum corneum.
      – Telangiectasia: Small dilated blood vessels near the skin surface.
      – Vesicle: A fluid-filled lesion less than 1 cm in diameter.
      – Weal: A raised compressible area of dermal edema.

      Understanding Dermatological Terms: Describing Skin Lesions

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 8 - At this stage, what is the most appropriate treatment for John Parker, a...

    Correct

    • At this stage, what is the most appropriate treatment for John Parker, a 28-year-old IT consultant who has been diagnosed with plaque psoriasis confined to his elbows?

      Your Answer: Dovobet®

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Localised Plaque Psoriasis

      Localised plaque psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that causes red, scaly patches on the skin. There are several treatment options available, including Dovobet®, Infliximab, Methotrexate, Photochemotherapy (PUVA), and Retinoids.

      Dovobet® is an ointment or gel that contains both calcipotriol and betamethasone dipropionate. It works synergistically to relieve the symptoms of localised plaque psoriasis. However, it is contraindicated for patients with certain conditions and precautions should be taken in prescribing for certain patients.

      Infliximab is an anti-TNF alpha biologic agent that is used in systemic arthritis, particularly psoriatic arthritis. It is not used for localised plaque psoriasis.

      Methotrexate is an antifolate immunosuppressant and chemotherapy agent. It would not be a first-line therapy for localised psoriasis.

      Photochemotherapy (PUVA) is a type of ultraviolet radiation treatment that can be used for localised psoriasis but would not be first line.

      Retinoids are derived from vitamin A and cause proliferation and reduced keratinisation of skin cells. They would not be first line for localised psoriasis.

      In conclusion, the choice of treatment for localised plaque psoriasis depends on the severity of the condition, the patient’s medical history, and other factors. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 9 - A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic with blisters on her skin. She...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic with blisters on her skin. She reports that some of the blisters have healed and left scars, but others are still growing and new ones are appearing. Despite taking antibiotics prescribed by her primary care physician, the blisters have not improved. Upon examination, the patient has multiple superficial skin lesions and oral lesions that easily slough off. A skin punch biopsy with immunofluorescent examination reveals circular intra-epidermal deposits. What other symptoms may this patient be experiencing?

      Your Answer: Antibodies against desmosomes

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pemphigus Vulgaris: An Autoimmune Blistering Condition

      Pemphigus vulgaris is a blistering condition that primarily affects middle-aged individuals. It is caused by IgG autoantibodies against desmosomal components, specifically desmogleins 1 and 3, in the superficial layers of the skin. This results in flaccid blisters that easily rupture, leading to erosions and scarring. The oral mucosa is often affected early on, and Nikolsky’s sign is positive. Immunofluorescence reveals intra-epidermal circular deposits, and antibodies against desmosomes are typically positive. Treatment involves high-dose steroids and may require life-long maintenance doses. In contrast, bullous pemphigoid, which affects older individuals, is characterized by antibodies against hemidesmosomes in the deeper basement membrane of the skin, resulting in tense, firm blisters that do not rupture easily. Psoriasis, alopecia, and HIV are not linked to pemphigus vulgaris.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 10 - A 6-month-old infant has been diagnosed with diaper rash. What is the best...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old infant has been diagnosed with diaper rash. What is the best course of action for treating a mild case of diaper rash?

      Your Answer: Topical betamethasone

      Correct Answer: Exposure to air

      Explanation:

      Napkin Rash: Causes and Treatment

      Napkin rash, also known as nappy rash, is a common skin condition that affects infants. It is caused by a variety of factors, including contact dermatitis, bacterial and fungal infections, psoriasis, and atopic dermatitis. The condition is often exacerbated by the presence of infantile eczema, but it is not more common in boys or less common in soy-fed infants.

      The primary cause of napkin rash is contact dermatitis, which occurs when the skin comes into contact with ammonia from urine. This can cause burning and irritation, leading to a rash. Infection with bacteria and Candida yeasts can also cause nappy rash, as can psoriasis and atopic dermatitis affecting the nappy area. Infection is often superimposed, making the condition more severe.

      Prevention is the best treatment for napkin rash. Frequent nappy changing and fluid feeding early in the day can help lessen night-time urination, reducing the risk of contact dermatitis. Anti-fungal lotions may also be useful in treating the condition. By the causes and treatment options for napkin rash, parents can help their infants avoid this uncomfortable and painful condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 11 - A 40-year-old man presents with generalized pruritus and excoriation marks on his skin....

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man presents with generalized pruritus and excoriation marks on his skin. He has visible needle track marks in his antecubital fossae and shiny nails. His sclerae appear normal and he denies any significant medical or surgical history. He works as a truck driver and has no significant exposure to industrial chemicals or organic dust. He has no family history of atopy and smokes six cigarettes a day while only drinking alcohol socially once a week. What is the most appropriate initial test to perform?

      Your Answer: Blood for HIV antibody

      Explanation:

      Investigating Pruritus in a Male Patient

      Pruritus, or itching, can be a symptom of various underlying conditions. In the case of a male patient without apparent cause of pruritus, an HIV antibody test would be the most appropriate first-line investigation, along with other tests such as blood sugar, thyroid profile, and urea and electrolytes. This is because HIV infection can present with intractable pruritus before other symptoms appear. Allergen skin tests may be used in suspected allergic reactions, but they would be inappropriate in this case as there is no indication of such a reaction. The anti-M2 antibody test is used for primary biliary cirrhosis, which is a rare possibility in this case. A chest x-ray is not a useful first-line test as there is no indication of malignancy. Kidney diseases can give rise to pruritus, but there is no mention of kidney disease here. It is important to consider the patient’s medical history, including any potential risk factors such as IV drug abuse, which may be the source of infection. Further investigations may be necessary depending on the results of initial tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old man without prior history of skin issues comes in with severe...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man without prior history of skin issues comes in with severe itching that worsens at night. The rash is made up of small, red, extremely itchy bumps on the limbs and torso. His girlfriend is also experiencing itching. Upon closer examination of his skin, what finding would most likely confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Burrows

      Explanation:

      Understanding Scabies: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Scabies is a skin condition caused by the infestation of the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, variety hominis. The female mite burrows into the skin, creating characteristic lesions known as burrows. However, the absence of burrows does not rule out a diagnosis of scabies. Other symptoms include erythema, or redness and scaling of the skin, and excoriations, or skin abrasions caused by scratching. In severe cases, crusting patches may develop, particularly in crusted scabies, a highly contagious variant of the condition. Prurigo nodules, or small bumps on the skin, may also occur in scabies, especially in young children. It is important to seek medical attention if you suspect you have scabies, as prompt treatment can prevent the spread of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 13 - A 55-year-old man with a history of hypercholesterolaemia and psoriasis is admitted to...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man with a history of hypercholesterolaemia and psoriasis is admitted to the hospital after experiencing central crushing chest pain. He was diagnosed with a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) and received appropriate treatment. While in the hospital, he had a psoriasis flare-up.
      Which medication is most likely responsible for the psoriasis flare-up?

      Your Answer: Beta blockers

      Explanation:

      Medications and Psoriasis: Which Drugs to Avoid

      Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can be triggered by various factors, including stress, infection, and certain medications. While sunlight can help alleviate psoriasis symptoms in most patients, it can worsen the condition in some individuals. Among the drugs that can exacerbate psoriasis are β blockers, antimalarials, lithium, and interferons. Therefore, if possible, people with psoriasis should avoid taking these medications. However, drugs such as clopidogrel, glyceryl trinitrate spray, low-molecular-weight heparin, and statins are not known to cause psoriasis flares. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication if you have psoriasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 14 - A 68-year-old rancher comes in with a small white spot on his right...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old rancher comes in with a small white spot on his right cheek that has been gradually increasing in size over the past few months. It has now developed a central ulcer. What is the probable type of this lesion?

      Your Answer: Amelanotic malignant melanoma

      Correct Answer: Basal cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Lesion on the Face: Indications of Basal Cell Carcinoma

      A slow-growing lesion on the face with a central ulcer located above a line drawn from the angle of the mouth to the ear lobe is a possible indication of basal cell carcinoma. This type of cancer tends to develop slowly, and the presence of an ulcer in the center of the lesion is a common characteristic. In contrast, squamous cell carcinoma grows much faster than basal cell carcinoma.

      Another skin condition that may be mistaken for basal cell carcinoma is seborrhoeic keratoses. However, seborrhoeic keratoses have a papillary warty surface, which is different from the smooth surface of basal cell carcinoma.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 15 - A 29-year-old male patient comes to you with a complaint of an erythematosus...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old male patient comes to you with a complaint of an erythematosus rash in his groin area. He reports that the rash was initially raised and red, but it has now healed and left behind hyperpigmentation. Interestingly, he mentions that he has experienced this same rash in the same location before. Upon further questioning, he reveals that he had taken ibuprofen for a strained ankle prior to the onset of the rash. What is the probable cause of this presentation?

      Your Answer: Herpes genitalis

      Correct Answer: Fixed drug eruption

      Explanation:

      Fixed Drug Eruptions: Recurring Lesions Caused by Medications

      Fixed drug eruptions are a type of skin reaction that occurs when a person takes a medication to which they are allergic. These eruptions are characterized by circular, violaceous, and oedematous plaques that appear in the same area where the offending drug was given. The lesions usually occur within 30 minutes to eight hours after drug administration and can be found in various parts of the body, with the hands, feet, and genitalia being the most common locations.

      One of the distinguishing features of fixed drug eruptions is that the lesions tend to recur in the same area whenever the person takes the offending drug again. The lesions may resolve on their own, but they often leave behind macular hyperpigmentation, which is a darkening of the skin in the affected area. In some cases, perioral and periorbital lesions may also occur.

      Overall, fixed drug eruptions can be a frustrating and uncomfortable experience for those who suffer from them. It is important to identify the offending drug and avoid it in the future to prevent further outbreaks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 16 - A 21-year-old woman presents with acne vulgaris. On examination there are mixed comedones...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old woman presents with acne vulgaris. On examination there are mixed comedones and pustules. She has three slight acne scars to her left cheek. The lesions are multiple and prominent but do not extend beyond the face. She has not tried any medications for the acne to date and is requesting your advice on treatment. You note that she last attended for an emergency contraception prescription, which was in the last 6 weeks. She does not use any regular contraception and does not want to commence contraception as she indicates she is no longer sexually active. She says that she does not feel overly self-conscious about her acne but wants something to help improve the appearance of the spots.
      Which treatment plan is most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Topical application of clindamycin and benzoyl peroxide

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Acne Vulgaris: A Comprehensive Guide

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that affects many individuals, particularly during adolescence. It is characterized by blocked hair follicles and sebaceous glands, resulting in inflammatory and non-inflammatory lesions on the face, back, and chest. The severity of acne can range from mild to severe, with the latter causing scarring and significant distress to the patient.

      There are several treatment options available for acne vulgaris, depending on the severity of the condition. For mild to moderate acne, topical benzoyl peroxide can be prescribed as monotherapy. However, for moderate acne with a risk of scarring, a combination therapy of a topical antibiotic and benzoyl peroxide, such as clindamycin aqueous solution, is recommended.

      In cases of extensive acne on the back or shoulders, or if there is a significant risk of scarring or skin pigmentation, an oral antibiotic may be considered for an 8-week period. However, it is important to note that oral antibiotics should be used judiciously to avoid the development of antibiotic resistance.

      For severe acne or acne causing severe distress to the patient, referral to a dermatologist for treatment with isotretinoin may be necessary. Isotretinoin is a retinoid that is used for systemic treatment of severe acne. However, it should only be given to women on contraception as it is teratogenic.

      In conclusion, the treatment of acne vulgaris requires a tailored approach based on the severity of the condition and the risk of scarring or other complications. A combination of topical and oral therapies, as well as referral to a dermatologist when necessary, can help to effectively manage this chronic skin condition.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 17 - A 54-year-old patient presented to the general practitioner with complaints of bloody diarrhoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old patient presented to the general practitioner with complaints of bloody diarrhoea that has persisted for the past 6 months. The patient also reported experiencing fever, weight loss, abdominal pain, and a painful, erythematosus rash on the anterior surface of the leg. A positive faecal occult blood test was obtained, and colonoscopy revealed crypt abscesses. What type of skin lesion is frequently observed in this patient?

      Your Answer: Erythema multiforme

      Correct Answer: Erythema nodosum

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Conditions and Their Causes

      Erythema Nodosum: A subcutaneous inflammation, erythema nodosum is often associated with inflammatory bowel disease, tuberculosis, sarcoidosis, or a recent streptococcal infection. It is characterized by raised nodules on the lower extremities.

      Morbilliform Rash: A mild hypersensitivity skin reaction, the morbilliform rash is a maculopapular eruption that blanches with pressure. It is caused by drugs such as penicillin, sulfonylurea, thiazide, allopurinol, and phenytoin.

      Erythema Multiforme: A target-like lesion that commonly appears on the palms and soles, erythema multiforme is usually caused by drugs such as penicillins, phenytoin, NSAIDs, or sulfa drugs. It can also be caused by Mycoplasma or herpes simplex.

      Tinea Corporis: A fungal infection, tinea corporis is characterized by ring-shaped, scaly patches with central clearing and a distinct border.

      Urticaria: A hypersensitivity reaction that results in wheals and hives, urticaria is most often associated with drug-induced mast cell activation. Aspirin, NSAIDs, and phenytoin are common culprits.

      Understanding Common Skin Conditions and Their Causes

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 18 - A 28-year-old man who has been experiencing a lot of stress at work...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man who has been experiencing a lot of stress at work lately presents with an itchy, red rash above the right corner of his mouth. The rash appeared 4 months ago, went away briefly, and then returned. He has used a topical corticosteroid to alleviate the symptoms, but had to discontinue it due to a flare-up of his facial acne. He admits to drinking excessive amounts of alcohol recently. On examination, there is a poorly defined red rash on the right side of his face, affecting the nasolabial fold. Additionally, there are fine, oily scales present.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Atopic dermatitis

      Correct Answer: Seborrhoeic dermatitis

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Conditions and Their Characteristics

      Seborrhoeic Dermatitis: This condition is characterized by an ill-defined, itchy, erythematosus rash with fine, greasy scales. It typically affects the scalp, nasolabial fold, or post-auricular skin in adolescents and adults.

      Dermatitis Herpetiformis: Often seen in patients with coeliac disease and malabsorption, this condition presents with intensely itchy grouped vesicles/papules over the extensor surfaces of the elbow, knee, upper back, and buttocks.

      Lichen Planus: This condition is characterized by flat-topped, pruritic, red to violaceous polygonal papules or plaques. Lesions are often located on the wrists.

      Atopic Dermatitis: This condition involves flexural regions in adult patients and is often associated with a history of atopy. The acute form of atopic dermatitis presents with erythema, oedema, vesicles, and papules.

      Psoriasis: This condition is characterized by thick, well-demarcated erythematous plaques with silvery scaling over the extensor surface of the elbows and knees.

      Characteristics of Common Skin Conditions

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 19 - A 50-year-old woman came to the skin clinic with flaccid blisters on the...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman came to the skin clinic with flaccid blisters on the inside of her mouth and the front of her chest, with some areas appearing red and weeping. The dermatologist performed a skin biopsy, which revealed a superficial intra-epidermal split just above the basal layer with acantholysis. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pemphigus vulgaris

      Explanation:

      Skin Disorders: Pemphigus Vulgaris, Bullous Pemphigoid, Dermatitis Herpetiformis, Epidermolysis Bullosa, and Tuberous Sclerosis

      Skin disorders can manifest in various ways, including blistering and erosions on the skin and/or mucous membranes. Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune disease that causes blistering and erosions on the skin and mucous membranes, with IgG autoantibodies to desmoglein 3 being a key characteristic. In contrast, bullous pemphigoid involves sub-epidermal splitting and tense blisters that are less easily ruptured. Dermatitis herpetiformis is characterised by intensely pruritic blisters on specific areas of the body, often associated with coeliac disease. Epidermolysis bullosa is a rare inherited disorder that causes fragile skin, while tuberous sclerosis is not associated with blistering. Diagnosis and treatment vary depending on the specific disorder.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 20 - A 6 year old boy with worsening dry, itchy skin, mainly affecting the...

    Correct

    • A 6 year old boy with worsening dry, itchy skin, mainly affecting the flexor surfaces on his arms, attends a routine GP clinic with his mother. Despite regular liberal use of emollient cream, the symptoms have not improved significantly. What would be the most suitable course of action for managing the child's eczema?

      Your Answer: Prescribe hydrocortisone cream 1%

      Explanation:

      Managing Eczema in Children: Treatment Options and Referral Considerations

      When a child presents with eczema, the first step is often to use emollient cream to manage the symptoms. However, if the eczema persists or worsens, a topical corticosteroid cream may be necessary. It is important to use this sparingly and in conjunction with emollients. While oral corticosteroids may be considered in severe cases, they should be used with caution and ideally under the guidance of a dermatologist. Emollient ointments may also be helpful, but a short course of topical corticosteroids is often more effective for managing flare-ups. If symptoms continue to worsen despite treatment, referral to a dermatology clinic may be necessary. Watchful waiting is not appropriate in this situation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 21 - An 82-year-old retired landscape gardener presents to clinic with his daughter, who is...

    Incorrect

    • An 82-year-old retired landscape gardener presents to clinic with his daughter, who is concerned about a lesion on his scalp.
      The lesion is 45 mm × 30 mm, irregular, and she feels it has changed colour to become darker over recent months. He states it has occasionally bled and is more raised than before. He has a history of travel with the armed forces in South-East Asia.
      You suspect malignant melanoma.
      Which of the following features is most likely to be associated with a poor prognosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Bleeding

      Correct Answer: Depth of lesion on biopsy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prognostic Indicators for Melanoma Diagnosis

      When it comes to diagnosing melanoma, the depth of the lesion on biopsy is the most crucial factor in determining prognosis. The American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) depth is now used instead of Breslow’s thickness. A raised lesion may indicate nodular malignant melanoma, which has a poor prognosis. Bleeding may occur with malignant melanoma, but it is not a reliable prognostic indicator. While a change in color and irregular border may help identify melanoma, they are not directly linked to prognosis. The size of the lesion is also not a reliable indicator, as depth is required to assess prognosis. Understanding these prognostic indicators is essential for accurate diagnosis and treatment of melanoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 22 - A 38-year-old man presents with thick, demarcated, erythematous plaques with silvery scaling over...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old man presents with thick, demarcated, erythematous plaques with silvery scaling over the extensor surface of the elbows and knees. He has had these skin lesions on and off over the last 2 years. The lesions become less severe during summer, aggravate at the time of stress and recur at the site of skin trauma. Histopathological examination of the skin biopsy specimen shows epidermal hyperplasia and parakeratosis, with neutrophils inside the epidermis.
      What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Psoriasis

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Conditions and Their Characteristics

      Psoriasis, Lichen Planus, Seborrheic Dermatitis, Lichen Simplex Chronicus, and Tinea Corporis are all common skin conditions with distinct characteristics.

      Psoriasis is identified by thick, well-defined, erythematous plaques with silvery scaling over the extensor surface of the elbows and knees. The Koebner phenomenon, the occurrence of typical lesions at sites of trauma, is often seen in psoriasis. Exposure to ultraviolet light is therapeutic for psoriatic skin lesions, which is why the lesions become less severe during summer. Pruritus is not always present in psoriasis.

      Lichen Planus is characterised by flat-topped, pruritic, polygonal, red to violaceous papules or plaques. Lesions are often located on the wrist, with papules demonstrating central dimpling.

      Seborrheic Dermatitis manifests with itching, ill-defined erythema, and greasy scaling involving the scalp, nasolabial fold or post-auricular skin in adolescents and adults.

      Lichen Simplex Chronicus is characterised by skin lichenification in the area of chronic itching and scratching. Epidermal hyperplasia and parakeratosis with intraepidermal neutrophils are features of psoriasis, not lichen simplex chronicus.

      Tinea Corporis is a ringworm characterised by expanding patches with central clearing and a well-defined, active periphery. The active periphery is raised, pruritic, moist, erythematous and scaly with papules, vesicles and pustules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 23 - A 28-year-old fair-skinned woman presents with a facial rash and is concerned it...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old fair-skinned woman presents with a facial rash and is concerned it may be acne. She is frustrated as she did not experience it severely during her teenage years. The rash is characterized by erythema on the cheeks, nose, and centre of the forehead, with additional lesions present in the affected area. Based on this presentation, what skin lesion would suggest a diagnosis of acne vulgaris rather than rosacea?

      Your Answer: Crusting

      Correct Answer: Comedone

      Explanation:

      Differences and Similarities between Acne and Rosacea

      Acne vulgaris and rosacea are two common skin conditions that affect the face. While they share some similarities, they also have distinct differences.

      Acne vulgaris is characterized by a mixture of comedones, papules, pustules, nodules, and cysts. Comedones are formed when the cells lining the sebaceous duct proliferate excessively and block the duct. Open comedones are blackheads, while closed comedones are whiteheads. Other types of comedones include giant comedones and solar comedones. Acne vulgaris usually starts in puberty and can continue into adulthood.

      On the other hand, rosacea is a chronic or intermittent rash that affects the central face. It is characterized by blushing or flushing and persistent redness and telangiectasia. Telangiectasias are small, dilated blood vessels that appear as red lines on the skin. Papules and pustules may also develop, and the skin may be dry and flaky. The nose may have prominent pores due to sebaceous gland hyperplasia.

      While both acne and rosacea can present with papules, pustules, and crusting, comedones are a characteristic feature of acne and are not present in rosacea. Additionally, acne vulgaris usually starts in puberty and is more common in younger individuals, while rosacea typically affects those aged 30-60.

      In summary, while acne and rosacea share some similarities in their presentation, they also have distinct differences that can help differentiate between the two conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 24 - An 85-year-old man who lives alone visits his General Practitioner complaining of a...

    Correct

    • An 85-year-old man who lives alone visits his General Practitioner complaining of a worsening itchy, red rash over his trunk, arms and legs. He has a medical history of psoriasis, hypertension and high cholesterol. Upon examination, the doctor observes an extensive erythematosus rash with scaling covering a large portion of his body. The patient has a normal temperature, a blood pressure of 110/88 mmHg and a heart rate of 101 bpm. What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient, considering the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Admit to hospital

      Explanation:

      Management of Erythroderma in an Elderly Patient Living Alone

      Erythroderma is a dermatological emergency that requires urgent treatment. In elderly patients who are systemically unwell and live alone, urgent admission to the hospital is necessary. This is the case for an 86-year-old man with a history of psoriasis who presents with erythroderma. The patient needs to be managed in the hospital due to the high risk of infection and dehydration. Topical emollients and steroids are essential in the management of erythroderma, but this patient requires intravenous fluids and close monitoring. Oral antibiotics are not indicated in the absence of features of infection. A topical steroid with a vitamin D analogue would be appropriate for a patient with psoriasis, but urgent assessment by Dermatology in an inpatient setting is necessary. An urgent outpatient Dermatology appointment is not appropriate for an elderly patient with abnormal observations and living alone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 25 - A 50-year-old woman presents with multiple large, ruptured, eroded plaques on her upper...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with multiple large, ruptured, eroded plaques on her upper arm, scalp and groin, along with an ulcerated blister on the mucosa of her lower lip. The cause is determined to be pemphigus vulgaris, with the pathogenesis of the disease attributed to IgG autoantibodies against which protein?

      Your Answer: Desmoglein

      Explanation:

      Autoantibodies and Skin Disorders: Understanding the Role of Desmoglein, Bullous Pemphigoid Antigen, Collagen Type XVIII, Keratin, and Desmoplakin

      Skin disorders can be caused by various factors, including autoimmune reactions. In particular, autoantibodies targeting specific proteins have been linked to several skin conditions. Here are some of the key proteins involved in these disorders:

      Desmoglein: This protein is targeted by autoantibodies in about 80% of pemphigus cases, specifically in pemphigus vulgaris. The autoantibodies disrupt desmosomes, leading to blister formation above the stratum basale.

      Bullous pemphigoid antigen and collagen type XVIII: These proteins are associated with bullous pemphigoid, which is characterized by autoimmune disruption of the hemidesmosome. This structure attaches the basal surface of cells in the stratum basale to the underlying epidermal basement membrane.

      Keratin: Mutations in genes encoding keratin have been linked to epidermolysis bullosa, a disorder that causes blistering and skin fragility.

      Desmoplakin: This intracellular protein links keratin intermediate filaments to desmosomes, but it is not directly involved in the pathogenesis of pemphigus vulgaris.

      Understanding the role of these proteins in skin disorders can help researchers develop better treatments and therapies for these conditions.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 26 - A 25-year-old woman presents with severe itching, mainly affecting her groin. The problem...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents with severe itching, mainly affecting her groin. The problem has been worsening over the past few weeks and is now unbearable. She admits to having slept with a new partner a few weeks before she noticed the problem. You notice an erythematosus, papular rash affecting the web spaces on the hands. She also has erythematous papules and scratch marks around the groin in particular. Investigations reveal normal values for haemoglobin, white cell count, platelets, sodium, potassium, and creatinine. When you draw on the web spaces between her fingers with a felt-tip, rubbing off the excess reveals a number of burrows. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sarcoptes scabiei hominis infection

      Explanation:

      Skin Conditions: Differential Diagnosis

      Scabies Infection
      A scabies infection is a likely diagnosis for a patient presenting with itching between the web spaces and in the groin. The infection is typically acquired through skin-to-skin contact, often after sexual intercourse. Symptoms may not appear until three to four weeks after initial contact, and treatment involves the use of a topical agent such as permethrin cream.

      Atopic Dermatitis
      Atopic dermatitis, or eczema, is an unlikely diagnosis for a patient presenting with symptoms in the groin and web spaces. It typically presents with a rash and itching on the flexor aspects of the joints and is unrelated to sexual activity.

      Folliculitis
      Folliculitis is an unlikely diagnosis for a patient presenting with symptoms in the groin and web spaces. It typically presents with pinpoint erythematosus lesions on the chest, face, scalp, or back and is unrelated to sexual activity.

      Erythema Infectiosum Infection
      Erythema infectiosum infection is a very unlikely diagnosis for a patient presenting with symptoms in the groin and web spaces. It primarily affects children and results from infection with parvovirus B19. Symptoms include a slapped cheek appearance, fever, headache, and coryza.

      Keratosis Pilaris Infection
      Keratosis pilaris is an unlikely diagnosis for a patient presenting with symptoms in the groin and web spaces. It typically affects the upper arms, buttocks, and thighs and presents with small white lesions that make the skin feel rough. It results from the buildup of keratin and is more common in patients with dry skin. It is unrelated to sexual activity.

      Differential Diagnosis of Skin Conditions

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 27 - A 7-year-old girl has a 3 cm-diameter patch of alopecia in the left...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl has a 3 cm-diameter patch of alopecia in the left parietal region with another smaller similar area nearby. The skin in the patch is itchy and the few remaining hairs seem to have fallen out near the scalp surface. Her father has noticed that the area of alopecia is spreading. There is no itching of the right scalp and there is no rash elsewhere on her body.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Alopecia areata

      Correct Answer: Tinea capitis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Causes of Hair Loss: A Guide

      Hair loss can be a distressing experience, but it is important to identify the underlying cause in order to determine the appropriate treatment. Here are some common causes of hair loss and their distinguishing features:

      Tinea Capitis: This fungal infection can cause abnormal scalp skin and alopecia. The affected area may be scaly or inflamed, and broken hairs do not taper at the base.

      Alopecia Areata: This autoimmune disease results in circular areas of hair loss without scaling, inflammation, or broken hair.

      Discoid Lupus Erythematosus: This condition causes red, scaly patches that leave white scars and permanent hair loss due to scarring alopecia.

      Psoriasis: Thick scaling on the scalp may cause mild hair loss, but it does not result in permanent balding. Psoriasis may also be present elsewhere on the body.

      Trichotillomania: Hair pulling disorder does not cause abnormalities to the scalp skin.

      By understanding the distinguishing features of these causes of hair loss, prompt and appropriate treatment can be initiated to prevent permanent hair loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 28 - A 60-year-old man presents for a follow-up appointment. He has been experiencing facial...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man presents for a follow-up appointment. He has been experiencing facial flushing and developed a red rash on his face a few months ago. Upon examination, there are numerous erythaematous papules scattered across his cheeks and his nose appears red and bulbous.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acne rosacea

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Conditions: Acne Rosacea, Systemic Lupus Erythaematosus, Seborrhoeic Dermatitis, Acne Vulgaris, and Nodulocystic Acne

      Skin conditions can be a source of discomfort and embarrassment for many people. Here are five common skin conditions and their features:

      Acne Rosacea is a chronic rash that affects the central face, typically in those aged 30 to 60. Symptoms include facial flushing, telangiectasia, rhinophyma, papules, and pustules. Treatment options include topical metronidazole and oral antibiotics.

      Systemic Lupus Erythaematosus is an autoimmune disorder that can affect various organs, including the skin. Common dermatological signs include a butterfly malar rash and discoid lupus.

      Seborrhoeic Dermatitis is a chronic or relapsing form of eczema that mainly affects the scalp, face, and upper trunk. Symptoms include indurated hyperpigmented plaques and creases around the nose, behind ears, and within eyebrows.

      Acne Vulgaris is a common variety of acne that affects the pilosebaceous unit. It is most common in young adults with high levels of sex hormones and is graded according to the number of comedones and inflammatory lesions seen.

      Nodulocystic Acne is a severe form of acne that affects the face, chest, and back, mainly in men. Symptoms include multiple inflamed and uninflamed nodules and scars.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 29 - A 58-year-old man comes to the clinic for his regular follow-up of psoriasis....

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man comes to the clinic for his regular follow-up of psoriasis. He had been managing it well with phototherapy six months ago, but recently his condition has worsened. He is currently using topical calcipotriol (Dovonex), topical coal tar ointment, and topical hydromol ointment, and is taking amoxicillin for a recent respiratory infection. He is in good health otherwise.

      During the examination, he has an erythematosus rash that covers most of his torso, with widespread plaques on his limbs and neck. The rash is tender and warm, and he is shivering. There are no oral lesions. His heart rate is 101 bpm, blood pressure is 91/45 mmHg, and temperature is 37.7 °C.

      What is the most crucial next step in treating this man?

      Your Answer: Arrange hospital admission

      Explanation:

      Emergency Management of Erythrodermic Psoriasis

      Erythrodermic psoriasis is a dermatological emergency that requires urgent hospital admission. This is evident in a patient presenting with a drop in blood pressure, tachycardia, borderline pyrexia, and rigors. Supportive care, including IV fluids, cool wet dressings, and a systemic agent, is necessary. The choice of systemic agent depends on the patient and may involve rapid-acting therapies like ciclosporin or slower agents like methotrexate. Discontinuing amoxicillin is crucial as it can cause Stevens–Johnson syndrome/toxic epidermal necrolysis. However, admission is essential in both emergency presentations. Starting ciclosporin or methotrexate orally is not appropriate without investigations. Repeat phototherapy should be avoided as it can worsen erythroderma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 30 - A 30-year-old man comes to the dermatology clinic with several small fleshy nodules...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man comes to the dermatology clinic with several small fleshy nodules around and under his finger and toe nails. Upon further inquiry, it is revealed that the patient has a history of seizures that are hard to manage.
      What is the probable underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Tuberous sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Genetic Tumor Disorders and Their Skin Manifestations

      There are several genetic disorders that predispose individuals to the formation of tumors, including those in the nervous system. These disorders can also have distinct skin manifestations that aid in their diagnosis.

      Tuberous Sclerosis: This rare multisystem genetic disease is caused by abnormalities on chromosome 9 and leads to the formation of benign tumors (hamartomas) in various organs, including the brain, eyes, skin, kidney, and heart. Skin problems associated with tuberous sclerosis include periungual fibromas, adenoma sebaceum, ‘ash leaf’ hypomelanotic macules, café-au-lait patches, subcutaneous nodules, and shagreen patches. Neurological symptoms such as seizures, developmental delay, behavioral problems, and learning difficulties can also occur.

      Neurofibromatosis I: This inherited condition causes tumors (neurofibromas) to grow within the nervous system and is characterized by café-au-lait spots on the skin.

      Von Hippel-Lindau Disease: This inherited tumor disorder is caused by a mutation in a tumor suppressor gene on chromosome 3 and is commonly associated with angiomatosis, hemangioblastomas, and pheochromocytomas.

      Neurofibromatosis II: This disorder presents with bilateral hearing loss due to the development of bilateral acoustic neuromas.

      Sturge-Weber Syndrome: This congenital disorder is identified by a port-wine stain on the forehead, scalp, or around the eye.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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