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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old white man comes to his general practitioner complaining of progressive low back pain over the past four years. The pain is worse at night when he lies down and improves as he moves around during the day, but it does not go away with rest. Upon further questioning, he reports having experienced three episodes of acute eye pain with sensitivity to light and blurry vision in the past two years. He sought treatment from an ophthalmologist, and the symptoms resolved with steroids and eye drops. X-rays reveal some inflammatory and arthritic changes in the sacroiliac joints. Despite treatment, the disease has continued to progress, and ten years later, x-rays show calcification of the anterior spinal ligament. What is the most likely positive finding in this patient?
Your Answer: Rheumatoid factor
Correct Answer: HLA-B27
Explanation:Understanding HLA and Autoimmune Diseases
HLA-B27 is a genetic marker associated with ankylosing spondylitis, an autoimmune disease that primarily affects the spine. This disease is more common in males and typically presents in the 20s and 30s. Other autoimmune manifestations, such as anterior uveitis, can also occur in individuals with HLA-B27. Additionally, young men with this genetic marker may be prone to reactive arthritis after chlamydia or gonorrhoeal urethritis.
Rheumatoid factor, on the other hand, is not associated with HLA-B27 or ankylosing spondylitis. While stiffness that improves with exercise may be seen in rheumatoid arthritis, this disease typically affects peripheral joints and does not lead to calcification of the anterior spinal ligament.
Other HLA markers are associated with different autoimmune diseases. HLA-DR3 is linked to type 1 diabetes mellitus, HLA-DR5 is associated with pernicious anaemia and Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, and HLA-B8 is linked to Graves’ disease. Understanding these genetic markers can aid in the diagnosis and management of autoimmune diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 55-year-old carpet layer presented with acute pain and swelling affecting his left knee. There is no history of trauma. Past medical history includes haemochromatosis for which he receives regular venesection.
Examination reveals a hot, tender, swollen left knee.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 135 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 4.0 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 200 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 12 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 5.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 120 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Knee aspirate: 12 000 white blood cells/ml (majority neutrophils); rhomboid-shaped, weakly positively birefringent crystals. No growth on culture.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?Your Answer: Pseudogout
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Knee Aspirate: Pseudogout, Gout, prepatellar Bursitis, Septic Arthritis, Osteoarthritis
A knee aspirate was performed on a patient who presented with knee pain. The aspirate revealed positively birefringent calcium pyrophosphate crystals, indicating pseudogout. This condition is associated with haemochromatosis and can be treated with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents, corticosteroid injections, or short courses of oral corticosteroids. Colchicine may also be an option for some patients. Familial pyrophosphate arthropathy, a rare form of the condition, may be linked to mutations in genes related to inorganic phosphate transport.
Gout is a differential diagnosis for this case, but the knee aspirate would reveal negatively birefringent crystals. prepatellar bursitis, a sterile condition not associated with crystals or raised white cell counts, can be ruled out. Septic arthritis would present with a systemic inflammatory response and rhomboid-shaped birefringent crystals would not be present. Osteoarthritis is a chronic condition and would not present acutely, and joint aspirate would not show rhomboid-shaped birefringent crystals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man was diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis and started on methotrexate. After six months, there was no improvement. He was switched to a combination of methotrexate and sulfasalazine, but there was still no improvement after a similar period of therapy.
What is the most effective treatment option at this point?Your Answer: Combination of gold, leflunomide and methotrexate
Correct Answer: Infliximab plus methotrexate
Explanation:Treatment Options for Rheumatoid Disease: A Comparison of Biological Therapies and DMARDs
Rheumatoid disease can be a debilitating condition that requires careful management. When standard disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs) fail to provide relief, biological therapies may be prescribed. Infliximab, adalimumab, and etanercept are some of the contemporary biological therapies available. Infliximab, in particular, is often co-prescribed with methotrexate, although it may cause a reversible lupus-like syndrome and tuberculosis reactivation.
Combining gold, leflunomide, and methotrexate is unlikely to help patients who have already failed DMARD therapy. Azathioprine may be considered in severe cases, but biological therapy is the preferred treatment when intensive DMARD therapy fails. The combination of gold and penicillamine is a viable option for patients who meet the criteria for biological therapy, according to National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines. DMARD monotherapy, such as leflunomide, is only recommended when dual therapy is contraindicated.
In summary, the choice of treatment for rheumatoid disease depends on the severity of the condition and the patient’s response to previous therapies. Biological therapies may offer relief for patients who have failed DMARD therapy, but careful monitoring for potential side effects is necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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In which condition is pseudofracture typically observed?
Your Answer: Osteoporosis
Correct Answer: Osteomalacia
Explanation:Osteomalacia: Causes and Symptoms
Osteomalacia is a condition that occurs due to a deficiency of vitamin D. This condition can be caused by various factors such as malabsorption, renal disease, chronic renal failure, and anticonvulsant therapy. The most common symptom of osteomalacia is bone pain, which is often accompanied by a proximal myopathy. These symptoms are also known as Looser’s zones.
Malabsorption, which is the inability of the body to absorb nutrients from food, can lead to osteomalacia. Renal disease, such as familial hypophosphataemic rickets, can also cause this condition. Chronic renal failure, which is the gradual loss of kidney function, can also lead to osteomalacia. Additionally, anticonvulsant therapy, which is used to treat seizures, can cause a deficiency of vitamin D and lead to osteomalacia.
If you experience bone pain or a proximal myopathy, it is important to seek medical attention. A doctor can diagnose osteomalacia through blood tests and imaging studies. Treatment typically involves vitamin D and calcium supplements, as well as addressing the underlying cause of the deficiency. With proper treatment, the symptoms of osteomalacia can be managed and the condition can be prevented from worsening.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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In which disease is the distal interphalangeal joint typically impacted?
Your Answer: Gout
Correct Answer: Psoriatic arthritis
Explanation:Characteristics of Different Arthritis Types
Psoriatic arthritis is a type of arthritis that commonly affects the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints. It is often accompanied by psoriasis around the adjacent nail, and other joint involvement is typically more asymmetric than in rheumatoid arthritis. On the other hand, Reactive arthritis is characterized by uveitis, urethritis, and arthritis that does not involve the DIP. Gout, another type of arthritis, does not typically affect the DIP either. While rheumatoid arthritis can occasionally affect the DIP, it is classically a MCP and PIP arthritis. Lastly, bursitis is a pathology of the bursa, not the joint itself. the characteristics of different types of arthritis can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A patient in their mid-40s wakes up experiencing severe pain, redness, and swelling at the base of their big toe.
What is the most suitable course of treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Allopurinol
Correct Answer: Indomethacin
Explanation:NSAIDs for Gout Treatment
Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are commonly used to treat acute attacks of gout. Among the NSAIDs, indomethacin is the most frequently prescribed due to its potent anti-inflammatory properties. However, it is important to note that aspirin and aspirin-containing products should be avoided during acute gout attacks as they can actually trigger or worsen the condition. Therefore, it is crucial to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication for gout, especially during an acute attack. Proper use of NSAIDs can help alleviate the pain and inflammation associated with gout, improving the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is experiencing shortness of breath during light activity and has developed a dry cough. Upon testing, her oxygen saturation was found to be 87% while breathing normally. A chest x-ray revealed a diffuse bilateral interstitial infiltrate. Despite an extensive infection screening, no infections were found, leading doctors to believe that her symptoms are a result of a drug she is taking. Which medication is the most likely culprit for this adverse reaction?
Your Answer: Hydroxychloroquine
Correct Answer: Methotrexate
Explanation:Potential Side Effects of Common Rheumatoid Arthritis Medications
Methotrexate, a commonly prescribed medication for rheumatoid arthritis, has been known to cause acute pneumonitis and interstitial lung disease. Although this is a rare complication, it can be fatal and should be closely monitored. Azathioprine, another medication used to treat rheumatoid arthritis, can lead to bone marrow suppression and increase the risk of infection. Cyclosporin, often used in combination with other medications, can cause neurological and visual disturbances. Hydroxychloroquine, while generally well-tolerated, can lead to abdominal pain and visual disturbances in cases of toxicity. Sulfasalazine, another medication used to treat rheumatoid arthritis, can affect liver function tests and cause bone marrow suppression, requiring careful monitoring.
It is important for patients to be aware of the potential side effects of their medications and to communicate any concerns with their healthcare provider. Regular monitoring and follow-up appointments can help to identify and manage any adverse effects. With proper management, the benefits of these medications can outweigh the risks for many patients with rheumatoid arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old semi-professional rugby player presents with a red, hot, swollen left knee. There has been no history of trauma. He recently had a negative sexual health check and has not had any new partners since. Upon examination, the left knee is unable to fully extend and there is a large effusion. The clinical suspicion is septic arthritis. What is the most probable organism responsible for this condition?
Your Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Septic Arthritis: Causes and Treatment
Septic arthritis is a rheumatological emergency that requires urgent attention. A red, hot, swollen joint may indicate septic arthritis, which can be caused by a variety of pathogens. The most common pathogen is Staphylococcus aureus, and joint destruction can occur within 24 hours if left untreated. It is important to consider and treat septic arthritis urgently or until firmly excluded by joint aspiration. The empirical antibiotic regime should be consulted in local health authority guidelines or with a microbiologist. Intravenous drugs should be used for 2 weeks and a total course of 6 weeks completed. Other pathogens that can cause septic arthritis include Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Streptococcus viridans, and Salmonella typhi. It is important to consider the patient’s medical history and risk factors when determining the cause of septic arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 42-year-old known intravenous (iv) drug user presents to her general practitioner with complaints of fever, morning stiffness, and joint pain. The patient reports a constant, dull pain in the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints bilaterally, with an intensity of 3/10. Her medical history is unremarkable, but her family history includes a skin condition and rheumatoid arthritis. The patient consumes 15 alcoholic units per week and smokes two packs of cigarettes per day. On physical examination, the patient is febrile with a temperature of 38.1 °C. The DIP joints are warm and swollen, and there is symmetric nail pitting. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient's current presentation?
Your Answer: Appearance of a silver, scaly rash
Explanation:Differentiating Arthritides: Understanding Clinical and Laboratory Findings
Arthritis is a common condition that affects the joints, and it can be challenging to distinguish between the various types that exist. However, by considering the patient’s medical history, physical examination, and laboratory findings, clinicians can make an accurate diagnosis.
For instance, psoriatic arthritis is an inflammatory subtype of arthritis that often affects the DIP joints, sausage digits, and nails. The classic X-ray finding of psoriatic arthritis is the pencil in a cup appearance, although it is not specific to the disease. In contrast, rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by PIP and MCP joint involvement, wrist and cervical spine pain, and positive rheumatoid factor and anti-CCP antibodies.
Septic arthritis is a medical emergency that usually involves large joints and is associated with high fever, chills, and rapid joint destruction. Synovial fluid analysis may reveal Gram-positive cocci in cases of septic arthritis caused by Staphylococcus aureus.
Osteoarthritis, on the other hand, is a degenerative joint disease that is associated with subchondral cyst formation, joint space narrowing, and osteophyte formation. It typically affects the DIP and PIP joints and large weight-bearing joints, but it is not an inflammatory arthritis.
In summary, understanding the clinical and laboratory findings associated with different types of arthritis is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 49-year-old carpet layer presents to the clinic for review. He has been complaining of severe anterior knee pain for a few days. On examination, you notice that the left knee is warm and there is swelling on the patella. There is local pain on patellar pressure and pain with knee flexion.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 131 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 5.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 185 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 12 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
Knee aspirate: Gram stain negative for bacteria; fluid contains occasional white cells; culture is negative.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?Your Answer: Pre–patellar bursitis
Explanation:Differentiating Knee Conditions: A Case-Based Approach
A patient presents with a red, tender, and inflamed knee. The differential diagnosis includes prepatellar bursitis, osteoarthritis, localised cellulitis, rheumatoid arthritis, and gout.
prepatellar bursitis, also known as housemaid’s knee, carpet layer’s knee, or nun’s knee, is often caused by repetitive knee trauma. Treatment involves non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents and local corticosteroid injection. Septic bursitis requires appropriate antibiotic cover and drainage.
Osteoarthritis is a diagnosis of exclusion and does not typically cause a red, tender, inflamed knee. Knee aspirate in this case would not show white cells.
Localised cellulitis may result in erythema but is unlikely to cause knee swelling. Knee aspirate in this case would not show white cells.
Rheumatoid arthritis is unlikely to present in men of this age and typically affects small joints of the fingers, thumbs, wrists, feet, and ankles.
Gout can be diagnosed through the presence of negatively birefringent crystals seen on joint microscopy.
In conclusion, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s symptoms and appropriate diagnostic tests are necessary to differentiate between these knee conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old carpenter presents to the general practitioner (GP) with an acutely swollen and painful left thumb. The pain came on rapidly over the course of 24 hours, without history of trauma or injury. The patient describes the thumb as being extremely painful and particularly tender to touch. The patient is a type 2 diabetic, which is well controlled with metformin. He does not smoke, but drinks around ten pints of beer at weekends.
Examination reveals a swelling, erythema and tenderness over the first metacarpophalangeal joint. The clinician suspects a possible crystal arthropathy.
With regard to gout, which of the following statements is true?Your Answer: All cases of acute gout have an elevated serum urate
Correct Answer: Gout may be seen in patients with chronic haemolytic anaemia
Explanation:Mythbusting Gout: Clarifying Common Misconceptions
Gout is a painful and often misunderstood condition. Here are some common misconceptions about gout, and the truth behind them:
1. Gout may be seen in patients with chronic haemolytic anaemia.
2. Gout may occur in those with elevated urate levels (although levels may be normal during an acute attack) such as those with haemolytic anaemia.
3. Gout only affects the first metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint.
4. Gout most commonly affects the first metatarsophalangeal joint. However, it is not the only joint affected.
5. Allopurinol is effective in the treatment of acute gout.
6. Acute gout is treated with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), colchicine or prednisolone, but not allopurinol. Allopurinol is effective in the prevention of gout because it reduces serum urate levels by blocking urate production (xanthine oxidase inhibition).
7. A diagnosis of gout is made if there are positively birefringent crystals in the joint aspirate.
8. Gout is an inflammatory arthritis that occurs as a result of deposition of negatively birefringent urate crystals in the joint.
9. All cases of acute gout have an elevated serum urate.
10. Although a raised serum urate can be used to support the diagnosis, many will not be raised. Similarly, if a patient has a raised serum urate, they do not automatically have the clinical picture of gout.In conclusion, it is important to dispel these common myths about gout in order to properly diagnose and treat this painful condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 76-year-old woman, who was previously in good health, presents for review. For the past 2–3 months, she has suffered from increasing pain and stiffness, particularly in the early part of the day, affecting her shoulders and, most recently, her hips. There has also been low-grade fever and she has lost 4 kg in weight. Examination reveals normal proximal muscle strength.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 111 g/l 115–155 g/l
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 96 fl 76–98 fl
White cell count (WCC) 6.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 345 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 75 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 5.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 130 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Creatine kinase 31 IU/l 23–175 IU/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 45 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
Chest X-ray (CXR) Slight cardiomegaly, otherwise normal
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR)
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Shoulder and Pelvic Girdle Pain
Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a likely diagnosis for a patient presenting with shoulder and pelvic girdle pain without muscle weakness and a markedly raised ESR. Rapid improvement of symptoms with corticosteroids and a subsequent fall in ESR confirms the diagnosis. Temporal arthritis, a vasculitis associated with PMR, should also be considered in patients over 50 presenting with headache, vision loss, and jaw claudication. Myositis and dermatomyositis are less likely diagnoses due to the patient’s normal CK and lack of muscle weakness. Rheumatoid arthritis is unlikely given the patient’s age and the classic joint involvement pattern.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 35-year-old man presents with a 5-day history of pain and swelling affecting the right knee and left ankle. On further questioning, he complained of dysuria and had woken with both eyes ‘stuck together’ for the last three days. He thinks that his urinary symptoms may be linked to the unprotected sex he had three weeks ago. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Reactive Arthritis Symptoms
A patient presents with arthropathy, conjunctivitis, and urethritis, which are classic symptoms of reactive arthritis. The probable underlying cause is chlamydial infection or gonorrhea, as the patient has had recent unprotected sex. Primary syphilis, genital herpes, trichomoniasis, and E. coli infection are unlikely differential diagnoses. Syphilis causes a painless sore on the genitals, while genital herpes presents with blisters and is not associated with arthropathy. Trichomoniasis is commonly asymptomatic and presents with dysuria, frequency, and balanitis in men. E. coli is a common cause of UTI, but the patient’s symptoms are broader than those of a typical UTI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 40-year-old woman presents with pain of the hand, wrist, ankle and knee which is asymmetrical and has been going on for the past few months. She has developed a rash on her face and has developed a dry cough and pain on inspiration. She has a child but has had two previous miscarriages (Gravida 3, Para 1). She has no other concurrent medical problems or medications.
Testing for which one of the following autoantibodies is most likely to reveal the diagnosis in this patient?Your Answer: Anti-dsDNA
Explanation:Understanding Autoantibodies: Differentiating Connective Tissue Diseases
Autoantibodies are antibodies produced by the immune system that mistakenly attack the body’s own tissues. These antibodies can be used as diagnostic markers for various connective tissue diseases. Here, we will discuss the different types of autoantibodies and their association with specific diseases.
Anti-dsDNA is highly specific for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), a multisystem connective tissue disease that can affect the heart, lungs, kidneys, and brain. Patients with SLE may present with a malar rash, polyarthritis, and pleuritis, as well as an increased rate of miscarriage.
Anti-Jo is associated with myositis, such as polymyositis or dermatomyositis, which present with muscle pain and a rash but no pleuritic pain or an associated history of miscarriage.
Anti-Ro is associated with Sjögren syndrome, which can have similar features to SLE, including myalgia or polyarthralgia in 50% of patients, as well as skin features of purpura and annular erythema. However, it will not cause pleuritic pain.
Anti-centromere is associated with limited cutaneous scleroderma, a multisystem autoimmune disease resulting in abnormal growth of connective tissue. It can cause nonspecific musculoskeletal pain but not an associated history of pleuritic and miscarriage.
Anti-Rh is an antibody to a receptor on blood cells and is not associated with connective tissue disease.
In conclusion, the presence or absence of autoantibodies does not confirm or exclude a diagnosis of connective tissue disease. A diagnosis is based on a combination of clinical presentation and laboratory tests. Understanding the association between autoantibodies and specific diseases can aid in the diagnosis and management of these complex conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 15
Correct
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A previously healthy 60-year-old hypertensive teacher complains of pain, redness, and swelling in the left knee that began 10 hours ago. The patient has a family history of hypertension and joint issues. What is the most crucial investigation to determine the cause of the knee symptoms?
Your Answer: Joint aspiration for microscopy and culture
Explanation:Importance of Joint Aspiration in Identifying the Cause of Acute Monoarthropathy
When a patient presents with acute monoarthropathy, it is important to identify the cause of their symptoms. The most important investigation in this case is joint aspiration. This procedure involves taking a sample of fluid from the affected joint and examining it under a microscope to identify any infective organisms. This is crucial in cases where septic arthritis is suspected, as appropriate therapy can be guided based on the results. On the other hand, if the cause is gout, joint aspiration can reveal the presence of crystals in the fluid. X-rays are of no value in septic arthritis as they only become abnormal following joint destruction. Therefore, joint aspiration is the most important investigation in identifying the cause of acute monoarthropathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old male presents with lower back pain and painful feet that feel like walking on pebbles. He has been generally healthy, but he recently returned from a trip to Corfu where he had a diarrheal illness. He admits to infrequently taking ecstasy but takes no other medication. On examination, he has limited movement and pain in the sacroiliac joints and soreness in the soles of his feet upon deep palpation. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Gonococcal arthritis
Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:After a diarrhoeal illness, the patient may be at risk of developing reactive arthritis, which is a possible diagnosis for both sacroiliitis and plantar fasciitis. However, it is less likely to be related to inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) if there is only one acute episode of diarrhoea.
Sacroiliitis is a condition that affects the sacroiliac joint, which is located at the base of the spine where it connects to the pelvis. It causes inflammation and pain in the lower back, buttocks, and legs. Plantar fasciitis, on the other hand, is a condition that affects the plantar fascia, a thick band of tissue that runs along the bottom of the foot. It causes pain and stiffness in the heel and arch of the foot.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 40-year-old school teacher who enjoys running long distances comes to the clinic complaining of cramp-like pain in the forefoot that has been bothering them for the past week. During the examination, tenderness was noted over the dorsal distal portion of the second metatarsal. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: March fracture
Explanation:Common Foot Injuries and Their Causes
March fracture, Lisfranc injury, Hallux Rigidus, Jones fracture, and proximal fifth metatarsal avulsion fracture are all common foot injuries that can cause significant pain and discomfort. A March fracture is a stress fracture of one of the metatarsal bones caused by repetitive stress, often seen in soldiers and hikers. Lisfranc injury occurs when one or more metatarsal bones are displaced from the tarsus due to excessive kinetic energy, such as in a traffic collision. Hallux Rigidus is degenerative arthritis that causes bone spurs at the metatarsophalangeal joint of the big toe, resulting in stiffness and pain. Jones fracture is a fracture in the fifth metatarsal of the foot, while proximal fifth metatarsal avulsion fracture is caused by forcible inversion of the foot in plantar flexion.
Based on the onset of symptoms and tenderness over the distal portion of the second metatarsal, a March fracture is the most likely diagnosis. It is important to seek medical attention for any foot injury to prevent further damage and ensure proper healing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents with bilateral ankle and wrist pain that has been gradually worsening over the past 5 days. She complains of fatigue and feelings of lack of energy. She mentions a dry cough and shortness of breath on exertion, lasting for more than a year. On examination, her vital signs are within normal limits, except for the presence of a mild fever. There are several reddish, painful, and tender lumps on the anterior of the lower legs. A chest X-ray shows bilateral hilar masses of ,1 cm in diameter.
Which of the following test results is most likely to be found in this patient?Your Answer: Elevated cytoplasmic anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (c-ANCA)
Correct Answer: Elevated serum angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)
Explanation:Differentiating between Elevated Serum Markers in a Patient with Arthropathy and Hilar Lymphadenopathy
The presence of arthropathy and hilar lymphadenopathy in a patient can be indicative of various underlying conditions. In this case, the patient’s elevated serum markers can help differentiate between potential diagnoses.
Elevated serum angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) is a common finding in sarcoidosis, which is likely the cause of the patient’s symptoms. Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy with or without pulmonary fibrosis is the most typical radiological sign of sarcoidosis. Additionally, acute arthropathy in sarcoidosis patients, known as Löfgren syndrome, is associated with erythema nodosum and fever.
On the other hand, elevated cytoplasmic anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (c-ANCA) is present in granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA), which presents with necrotising granulomatous lesions in the upper and lower respiratory tract and renal glomeruli. It is not typically associated with hilar lymphadenopathy.
Hyperuricaemia and elevated double-stranded (ds) DNA antibody are not relevant to this case, as they are not associated with the patient’s symptoms. Hyperglycaemia is also not a factor in this case.
In conclusion, the combination of arthropathy and hilar lymphadenopathy can be indicative of various underlying conditions. Elevated serum markers can help differentiate between potential diagnoses, such as sarcoidosis and GPA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 79-year-old woman, with a history of recurrent falls, had a recent fall on her outstretched right hand. An X-ray revealed a fracture of the distal radius with volar displacement. She has multiple risk factors for osteoporosis, and a DEXA scan was requested. What score is indicative of a diagnosis of osteoporosis?
Your Answer: T score: < −2.5
Explanation:When it comes to bone density, T scores are an important measure to understand. A T score of less than -2.5 is indicative of osteoporosis, while a T score between -1 and -2.5 suggests osteopenia. On the other hand, a T score of 0-1 is considered normal, but may still require monitoring. A T score greater than 2.5 is also normal, but may not be the case if the patient has experienced a fragility fracture. It’s important to note that Z scores, which take into account age and gender, can also provide insight into bone density. Understanding T scores and their implications can help healthcare professionals and patients take preventative measures to maintain bone health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 20
Correct
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A middle-aged man without prior medical history is experiencing increasing back pain and right hip pain for the past decade. The pain worsens towards the end of the day. He has bony enlargement of the distal interphalangeal joints. Radiographs reveal prominent osteophytes involving the vertebral bodies and sclerosis with narrowing of the joint space at the right acetabulum. What is the most likely pathologic process occurring in this patient?
Your Answer: Osteoarthritis
Explanation:Differentiating Types of Arthritis
Degenerative osteoarthritis is a condition that becomes more prevalent and symptomatic as one ages. It is characterized by the erosion and loss of articular cartilage. On the other hand, rheumatoid arthritis typically affects the small joints of the hands and feet, leading to marked joint deformity due to a destructive pannus. Gouty arthritis, on the other hand, is more likely to cause swelling and deformity with joint destruction, and the pain is not related to usage. Osteomyelitis, meanwhile, is an ongoing infection that produces marked bone deformity, not just joint narrowing. Lastly, Lyme disease produces a chronic arthritis, but it is typically preceded by a deer tick bite with a skin lesion. It is much less common than osteoarthritis. By the differences between these types of arthritis, proper diagnosis and treatment can be given to patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman presents with a one-month history of non-specific malaise. She experiences stiffness, particularly in the mornings, and has difficulty lifting her arms to comb her hair. She also has constant pain in her arms, shoulders, and jaw when chewing. She has lost 4 kg in weight and has a persistent headache. She smokes 10 cigarettes a day and drinks 10 units of alcohol per week. On examination, she has tenderness with reduced mobility in the proximal muscles of her arms and legs. Her investigations reveal a low Hb, high WCC, and elevated ESR. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica
Explanation:Polymyalgia Rheumatica/Temporal arthritis: Symptoms and Treatment
Polymyalgia rheumatica/temporal arthritis is a condition that can cause a variety of symptoms. It may present with predominantly polymyalgia symptoms such as muscle pain and stiffness, or arthritis symptoms such as headaches, scalp tenderness, and jaw claudication. Systemic features like fever, malaise, and weight loss may also be present. Weakness is not a typical feature, but it may be apparent due to pain or stiffness with weight loss. The ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate) is usually very high in this condition.
Temporal arthritis is a serious complication of this condition that can result in blindness. It is important to note that temporal arthritis is a vasculitis that affects medium and large-sized arteries throughout the body, not just the temporal artery. The superficial temporal artery supplies the orbit of the eye and is a branch of the external carotid artery, while the ophthalmic artery supplies the majority of the blood to the eye itself and is a branch of the internal carotid artery. Inflammation and narrowing of the temporal artery can cause blindness.
If temporal arthritis is suspected, it must be treated with high-dose steroids. This condition is a reminder that prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old paediatric nurse presents with complaints of fatigue, joint discomfort throughout her body, and a rash on her face that has worsened since returning from a recent trip to Portugal. On examination, there is no evidence of small joint synovitis, but the facial rash is prominent. Blood tests reveal a haemoglobin level of 103 g/l, MCV of 88.8 fl, platelet count of 99 × 109/l, and a WCC of 2.8 × 109/l. What is the most appropriate treatment option at this stage?
Your Answer: Sun avoidance
Correct Answer: Hydroxychloroquine
Explanation:The patient in this scenario has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) with mild symptoms, primarily affecting the joints and skin. The first-line treatment for this type of SLE is hydroxychloroquine, which can induce remission and reduce recurrence. However, patients on this medication must be monitored for drug-induced retinopathy. Methotrexate may be used in more severe cases with active joint synovitis. Sun avoidance is important to prevent flares, but it is not enough to treat the patient’s current symptoms. Infliximab is not typically used to treat SLE, and rituximab is reserved for last-line therapy. Azathioprine is commonly used as a steroid-sparing agent in SLE, but hydroxychloroquine is more appropriate for this patient’s current presentation. The main adverse effect of azathioprine is bone marrow suppression, which can be life-threatening in some patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old teacher presents with complaints of lethargy and widespread aches and pains, particularly in the shoulders and hands. She has been absent from work for the past 5 months due to her symptoms. Her medical history includes a diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome. Despite a brief course of steroids and anti-inflammatory medication, she has not experienced any improvement. Physical examination reveals multiple tender points in different muscle groups, but no evidence of joint disease. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Polymyalgia
Correct Answer: Fibromyalgia
Explanation:Understanding Fibromyalgia and Differential Diagnosis
Fibromyalgia is a functional condition that affects voluntary muscles, commonly presenting in females aged 20-40 years. It is characterized by multiple trigger points over soft tissues in the neck, intrascapular region, and spine, along with poor sleep patterns and fatigue. While there is no known cure, patients are encouraged to establish a regular sleep pattern and participate in a graded exercise program. Differential diagnosis is important to exclude other rheumatological conditions that may present similarly but have different treatment options. Polymyalgia rheumatica, polymyositis, hypothyroidism, and systemic lupus erythematosus are some of the conditions that need to be ruled out. Steroids are the mainstay of treatment for polymyalgia rheumatica, while hypothyroidism presents with different symptoms such as constipation, dry hair, and weight gain. Systemic lupus erythematosus typically presents with a butterfly rash over the face and other symptoms such as anaemia, pleuritic chest pain, and haematuria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 24
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A 35-year-old married man was on a business trip in Thailand when he developed diarrhoea that lasted for 1 week. He returned to the United States and, a few weeks later, visited his primary care physician (PCP) complaining of pain in his knee and both heels. His eyes have become red and he has developed some painless, red, confluent plaques on his hands and feet, which his PCP has diagnosed as psoriasis.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Understanding Reactive Arthritis and Differential Diagnosis
Reactive arthritis is a condition characterized by the presence of urethritis, arthritis, and conjunctivitis. It typically occurs 1-3 weeks after an initial infection, with Chlamydia trachomatis and Salmonella, Shigella, and Campylobacter being the most common causative agents. In addition to the classic triad of symptoms, patients may also experience keratoderma blennorrhagica and buccal and lingual ulcers.
When considering differential diagnoses, it is important to note that inflammatory arthritides can be seropositive or seronegative. Seronegative spondyloarthritides include ankylosing spondylitis, psoriatic arthritis, enteropathic arthritis, reactive arthritis, and gonococcal arthritis.
Gonococcal arthritis is a form of septic arthritis that typically affects a single joint and presents with a hot, red joint and systemic signs of infection. Ankylosing spondylitis, on the other hand, does not present with any clinical features in this patient. Enteropathic arthritis is associated with inflammatory bowel disease, which is less likely in a patient with a recent history of travel and diarrhea. Psoriatic arthritis is unlikely to present simultaneously with psoriasis in a young, previously healthy patient without any prior history of either condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man visits his GP complaining of pain and swelling in his right elbow. He mentions feeling generally unwell for the past few days and remembers hitting his elbow while cycling the previous week. During the examination, his temperature is 37.7 °C, his heart rate is 78 bpm, and his blood pressure is 124/78 mmHg. There is a warm, erythematous swelling on the posterior aspect of his right elbow.
What is the most suitable course of action for this probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Refer for urgent aspiration
Correct Answer: Oral flucloxacillin and refer for urgent aspiration
Explanation:Management of Suspected Infected Olecranon Bursitis
Suspected infected olecranon bursitis requires prompt management to prevent complications. The following options are available:
Option 1: Oral flucloxacillin and refer for urgent aspiration
Empirical antibiotics, such as oral flucloxacillin, should be started immediately to cover for staphylococci and streptococci. However, urgent same-day aspiration should also be arranged to confirm the diagnosis and obtain antibiotic susceptibility.Option 2: Arrange for corticosteroid injection
If there are no signs of infection, corticosteroid injection may be considered after conservative measures have failed in aseptic olecranon bursitis. However, in suspected septic olecranon bursitis, urgent antibiotics and aspiration are required.Option 3: Oral flucloxacillin only
Empirical oral flucloxacillin should be started as soon as possible in suspected infected olecranon bursitis. However, referral for urgent aspiration is also necessary to confirm the diagnosis and obtain antibiotic susceptibility.Option 4: Oral amoxicillin and refer for urgent aspiration
Flucloxacillin, not amoxicillin, should be given for suspected septic olecranon bursitis to cover the most common organisms. Urgent aspiration should also be arranged to confirm the diagnosis and obtain antibiotic susceptibility.Option 5: Refer for urgent aspiration
Urgent aspiration is necessary to confirm the diagnosis and obtain antibiotic susceptibility. Empirical antibiotics should be started first while awaiting culture results. If the patient is seen in the Emergency Department, aspiration may be done first before starting antibiotics. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 26
Correct
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What is the most probable diagnosis for a 70-year-old woman who presents with bilateral shoulder pain and stiffness, fatigue, weight loss, and elevated ESR levels?
Your Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR)
Explanation:Differentiating between Rheumatic Diseases: A Case Study
Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common inflammatory rheumatic disease in the elderly population, presenting as pain and stiffness in the neck, shoulders, upper arms, and hips. In contrast, polymyositis is an autoimmune connective tissue disease that results in proximal muscle weakness. Multiple myeloma is a malignancy of plasma cells, causing bone pain, renal failure, and anaemia. Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic inflammatory, symmetrical polyarthropathy that tends to cause joint stiffness and pain within the small joints, as well as causing fatigue. Osteoarthritis is a degenerative arthritis that commonly affects the knee, hip, spine, and hands.
In this case study, the patient presented with shoulder stiffness, fatigue, low-grade fever, and anaemia. A diagnosis of PMR was made clinically and with the aid of a raised ESR. Treatment is with oral prednisolone, which should be reduced gradually once symptoms are controlled to avoid the risks of chronic steroid use.
It is important to differentiate between these rheumatic diseases as they have different underlying causes, presentations, and treatments. A thorough history, physical examination, and appropriate investigations are necessary for accurate diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 24-year-old Caucasian farmer presents to the outpatient department with a complaint of lower back pain that has been bothering him for the past two months. He reports that the pain is at its worst in the morning. He also experiences intermittent pain and swelling in his right ankle, which he injured while running a year ago. Two weeks ago, he visited the Emergency department with a painful red eye, which was treated with eye drops. He is a heavy smoker, consuming 45 cigarettes a day, and drinks five pints of beer every weekend. He denies any skin rashes or mucosal ulceration. His mother had rheumatoid arthritis, and his father had severe gout. On direct questioning, he admits to being diagnosed with chlamydia four months ago. During the examination, his right ankle was swollen at the site of Achilles' tendon insertion, but all other joints were unremarkable. Flexion of the lumbar spine was reduced. What is the most likely diagnosis for this man?
Your Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis
Explanation:Spondyloarthritis: A Group of Related Disorders
The patient’s history suggests the presence of spondyloarthritis, which is a group of related but distinct disorders. These include ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, psoriatic arthritis, and a subgroup of juvenile idiopathic arthritis. HLA-B27 is a predisposing factor for all these disorders and is present in a high percentage of patients with ankylosing spondylitis and reactive arthritis. Ankylosing spondylitis is a severe form of spondyloarthritis that mainly affects the entheses and leads to spinal immobility. TNF-antagonists are the primary treatment, but physiotherapy and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents also have a role.
Reactive arthritis is the most common type of inflammatory polyarthritis in young men and is an important differential diagnosis in this case. It typically follows genitourinary infection with Chlamydia trachomatis or enteric infections with certain strains of Salmonella or Shigella. Treatment with doxycycline can sometimes shorten the course of the disease if associated with Chlamydia infection. In general, non-steroidal anti-inflammatories are used for treatment, with intra-articular corticosteroids if large joints are involved.
In conclusion, spondyloarthritis is a group of related disorders that share a common predisposing factor and can cause significant morbidity. Ankylosing spondylitis and reactive arthritis are two of the most common types, and their diagnosis should be considered in patients with suggestive symptoms. Treatment options include TNF-antagonists, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents, and physiotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman who has suffered many years from aggressive rheumatoid arthritis presents for review. Most recently, she has suffered from two severe respiratory tract infections (which have been treated with oral clarithromycin) and has had worsening left upper quadrant pain. She currently takes low-dose prednisolone for her rheumatoid. On examination, there are obvious signs of active rheumatoid disease. Additionally, you can feel the tip of her spleen when you ask her to roll onto her right-hand side.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 91 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 1.9 × 109/l (neutrophil 0.9) 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 90 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Rheumatoid factor +++
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 52 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?Your Answer: Sarcoidosis
Correct Answer: Felty’s syndrome
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Splenomegaly, Neutropenia, and Active Rheumatoid Disease
Felty’s Syndrome:
The patient’s symptoms of splenomegaly, neutropenia, and active rheumatoid disease suggest Felty’s syndrome. This condition is thought to occur due to the sequestration and destruction of granulocytes, potentially caused by reduced granulocyte growth factors and autoantibodies/immune complexes formed against them. Felty’s syndrome affects 1-3% of patients with rheumatoid arthritis and has a higher prevalence in females. Treatment typically involves the use of methotrexate as a disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drug, with splenectomy reserved as a last resort.Lymphoma:
While lymphoma can present with lymphadenopathy, the absence of B-symptoms such as fever, night sweats, weight loss, or pruritus makes this diagnosis less likely in this case.Myeloma:
Myeloma often presents with anaemia and bone pain, as well as hypercalcaemia. Serum and urine electrophoresis are important investigations for this condition.Sarcoidosis:
Sarcoidosis commonly presents with respiratory symptoms such as wheeze, cough, and shortness of breath, as well as erythema nodosum and lymphadenopathy on examination. While the patient has a history of lower respiratory tract infections, her response to clarithromycin suggests an infective cause rather than sarcoidosis.Tuberculosis:
The patient does not have any clinical features or risk factors for tuberculosis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 29
Correct
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What is impacted by Heberden's arthropathy?
Your Answer: Distal interphalangeal joints
Explanation:Heberden’s Nodules
Heberden’s nodules are bony growths that form around the joints at the end of the fingers. These nodules are most commonly found on the second and third fingers and are caused by calcification of the cartilage in the joint. This condition is often associated with osteoarthritis and is more common in women. Heberden’s nodules typically develop in middle age.
Overall, Heberden’s nodules can be a painful and uncomfortable condition for those who experience them. However, the causes and symptoms of this condition can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and manage their symptoms effectively. With proper care and attention, it is possible to minimize the impact of Heberden’s nodules on daily life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man with inflammatory bowel disease has been experiencing lower back pain, stiffness, and buttock pain for the past six months. He notices that his pain improves after playing squash on Saturdays. He has tested positive for HLA-B27 and his blood tests, including C-reactive protein and erythrocyte sedimentation rate, are normal except for a mild hypochromic microcytic anemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Reactive arthritis
Correct Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Arthritis: Ankylosing Spondylitis, Osteoarthritis, Prolapsed Intervertebral Disc, Reactive Arthritis, and Rheumatoid Arthritis
Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of arthritis that commonly affects the sacroiliac joints, causing pain and stiffness that improves with exercise. It may also involve inflammation of the colon or ileum, which can lead to inflammatory bowel disease in some cases. The presence of the HLA-B27 gene is often associated with ankylosing spondylitis. Osteoarthritis, on the other hand, is unlikely in younger individuals and is not linked to bowel disease. Prolapsed intervertebral disc is characterized by severe lower back pain and sciatica, but stiffness is not a typical symptom. Reactive arthritis is usually triggered by a recent GI illness or sexually transmitted infection and is associated with arthritis, a psoriatic type rash, and conjunctivitis. Finally, rheumatoid arthritis rarely affects the sacroiliac joints as the primary site. It is important to understand the differences between these types of arthritis to receive proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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