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  • Question 1 - A 53 year old female, longstanding case of rheumatoid arthritis comes for a...

    Correct

    • A 53 year old female, longstanding case of rheumatoid arthritis comes for a review. Which of the following features are commonly associated with her condition?

      Your Answer: Proximal interphalangeal joint involvement in the hands

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid arthritis is a polyarthritis that results in symmetrical pain and swelling of the affected joints (also at rest). It particularly affects the metacarpophalangeal joints (MCPJs) and proximal interphalangeal joints (PIPJs), not the distal interphalangeal joints (DIPs).
      Ulcerative colitis and IBD are associated with seronegative arthritides, not RA. The condition can also cause various extra-articular manifestations such as ocular symptoms, rheumatoid nodules and pulmonary fibrosis. Scleritis, episcleritis and keratoconjunctivitis sicca are more common than uveitis. Early intervention with disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs) plays a decisive role in successful treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      47.7
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  • Question 2 - A 28 year old female presents to the rheumatology clinic for review. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old female presents to the rheumatology clinic for review. She has a history of adult onset Still's disease and complains of joint pains and persistent skin rash despite undergoing treatment with methotrexate and etanercept. On examination, an erythematous macular rash and active synovitis is noted. CRP is high (95 mg/dl). Which of the following interventions would be most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Rituximab

      Correct Answer: Anakinra

      Explanation:

      Adult onset Still’s disease (AOSD) is an uncommon systemic inflammatory disease on the clinical spectrum of autoinflammatory disorders. Its presentation and clinical course may result in several well-differentiated phenotypes: from a systemic and highly symptomatic pattern to a chronic articular pattern. Overproduction of numerous pro-inflammatory cytokines is observed in AOSD. Anakinra, a human interleukin (IL)-1R antagonist, has recently been approved in the treatment of AOSD. Denosumab is a RANK ligand inhibitor used in the treatment of osteoporosis. Mepolizumab is used in the treatment of severe asthma with elevated eosinophils. There is some evidence to support the use of tocilizumab, an anti-IL6 monoclonal antibody in adult onset Still’s, but there is stronger data favouring the use of tocilizumab in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. Rituximab is usually reserved for patients who are unresponsive to anakinra.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      27.3
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  • Question 3 - A 52 year old shopkeeper presents with pain in her hands. Examination reveals...

    Incorrect

    • A 52 year old shopkeeper presents with pain in her hands. Examination reveals plaques on the extensor surfaces of her upper limbs and a telescoping deformity of both index fingers. Nails show pitting and horizontal ridging. The patient is most likely suffering from which of the following?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Correct Answer: Arthritis mutilans

      Explanation:

      Arthritis mutilans is a rare (occurs in only 5% of the patients) and extremely severe form psoriatic arthritis characterized by resorption of bones and the consequent collapse of soft tissue. When this affects the hands, it can cause a phenomenon sometimes referred to as ‘telescoping fingers.’ The associated nail changes are also characteristic of arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      70
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 24 year old male, known case of hereditary angioneurotic oedema presents with...

    Correct

    • A 24 year old male, known case of hereditary angioneurotic oedema presents with recurrent fever and arthralgia which is accompanied by a rash on face and upper chest. These attacks have been refractory to treatment and have occurred recurrently requiring adrenaline on several occasions. Lab results reveal persistently reduced C4 levels. Which of the following is most likely causing his current symptoms?

      Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus

      Explanation:

      Angioedema secondary to C1 inhibitor deficiency has been rarely reported to be associated with systemic lupus erythematosus. A genetic defect of C1 inhibitor produces hereditary angioedema, which is usually presented with cutaneous painless oedema, but oedema of the genital area, gastrointestinal and laryngeal tracts have also been reported. In lupus patients, angioedema may be the result of an acquired type of C1 inhibitor deficiency, most probably due to antibody formation directed against the C1 inhibitor molecule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      71.1
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  • Question 5 - A 45 year old male presents with lower backache and pain in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old male presents with lower backache and pain in his hips. Blood tests are normal except for elevated serum alkaline phosphatase which is 1200 IU/l (45-105). Radiological examination shows combined osteolytic and osteosclerotic lesions. What is the most common site of occurrence of this disease?

      Your Answer: Lumbar spine

      Correct Answer: Pelvis

      Explanation:

      The patient most likely suffers from Paget’s disease of the bone as his radiological examination shows both osteolytic and osteosclerotic lesions. Any bone or bones can be affected, but Paget’s disease occurs most frequently in the pelvis > lumbar spine > femur > thoracic spine > sacrum > skull > tibia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      29.7
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  • Question 6 - A 30 year old female has been started on azathioprine after she was...

    Correct

    • A 30 year old female has been started on azathioprine after she was found to be intolerant of methotrexate. Routine blood monitoring shows the following values: Hb 7.9 g/dL, Plt 97*109/l, WBC 2.7*109/l. Azathioprine toxicity will most likely to occur in the presence of which of the following?

      Your Answer: Thiopurine methyltransferase deficiency

      Explanation:

      Azathioprine therapy can cause acute myelosuppression. Toxicity is in part caused by the incorporation of azathioprine-derived 6-thioguanine nucleotides (6-TGN) into deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA). The enzyme thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) plays an important role in azathioprine catabolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      20
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  • Question 7 - A 22 year old man is being evaluated for chronic lower backache. Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 22 year old man is being evaluated for chronic lower backache. Which of the following would most strongly point towards the diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis?

      Your Answer: Accentuated lumbar lordosis

      Correct Answer: Reduced lateral flexion of the lumbar spine

      Explanation:

      Ankylosing spondylitis (spondylarthritis) is a chronic inflammatory disease of the axial skeleton that leads to partial or even complete fusion and rigidity of the spine. Males are disproportionately affected and upwards of 90% of patients are positive for the HLA-B27 genotype, which predisposes to the disease. The most characteristic early finding is pain and stiffness in the neck and lower back, caused by inflammation of the vertebral column and the sacroiliac joints. The pain typically improves with activity and is especially prominent at night. Other articular findings include tenderness to percussion and displacement of the sacroiliac joints (Mennell’s sign), as well as limited spine mobility, which can progress to restrictive pulmonary disease.
      The most common extra-articular manifestation is acute, unilateral anterior uveitis. Diagnosis is primarily based on symptoms and x-ray of the sacroiliac joints, with HLA-B27 testing and MRI reserved for inconclusive cases. There is no curative treatment, but regular physiotherapy can slow progression of the disease. Additionally, NSAIDs and/or tumour necrosis factor-α inhibitors may improve symptoms. In severe cases, surgery may be considered to improve quality of life. The spine adopts a bamboo shape, not lordosis. The pain usually improves as the day progresses. leg raise test causes pain in cases of meningitis etc not in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 8 - A 24 year old man presents to the clinic complaining of lower limb...

    Incorrect

    • A 24 year old man presents to the clinic complaining of lower limb joint pain and lower backache for the past 2 weeks. He remembers getting a mild gastrointestinal infection while in Spain 6 weeks ago that settled spontaneously. There has been eye irritation that has now settled. Past surgical history includes an appendectomy 3 years back. Vital examination shows a temperature of 37.5 C. Lab results reveal a normal WBC and raised ESR. Which of the following is true?

      Your Answer: Aspirated synovial fluid from an inflamed joint will clinch the diagnosis

      Correct Answer: Rheumatoid factor is likely to be negative

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis, (formerly known as Reiter’s syndrome), is an autoimmune condition that occurs after a bacterial infection of the gastrointestinal or urinary tract. It is categorized as a seronegative spondylarthritis because of its association with HLA-B27. Reactive arthritis primarily affects young men and usually presents with musculoskeletal or extra‑articular symptoms. The characteristic triad consists of arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis. The diagnosis is based on clinical features such as patient history and physical examination; there are no specific tests for reactive arthritis. Treatment is primarily symptomatic and consists of the administration of NSAIDs, as most patients recover spontaneously. extraarticular dermatologic manifestations include skin lesions of the glans resembling psoriasis (balanitis circinata); hyperkeratinisation of the palms and soles (keratoderma blenorrhagicum), oral ulcers. There usually is no rash and the diagnosis is unrelated to the presence of rheumatoid factor. This is a clinical diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      74.4
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  • Question 9 - A 49 year old female presents to the clinic complaining of pain in...

    Correct

    • A 49 year old female presents to the clinic complaining of pain in her left elbow that is localized to the left lateral epicondyle. She has spent the weekend painting her house. A diagnosis of lateral epicondylitis is suspected. The pain would characteristically worsen on which of the following movements?

      Your Answer: Resisted wrist extension with the elbow extended

      Explanation:

      Lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) is an overuse injury of the hand and finger extensor tendons that originate in the lateral humeral epicondyle that occurs following repeated or excessive pronation/supination and extension of the wrist (e.g., in racquet sports). Clinical features include pain and tenderness over the lateral epicondyle and along extensor muscles, thickening of the tendons. The examiner holds the patient’s hand with the thumb placed over the lateral epicondyle – The patient makes a fist, supinates the forearm, deviates radially, and extends the fist against the examiner’s resistance which results in pain over the lateral epicondyle. Conservative treatment includes rest, physiotherapy and orthotic braces. If this fails corticosteroids and lidocaine injections are employed. Surgery is indicated in patients with persistent symptoms despite 6 months of conservative treatment. Excision of abnormal tendon tissue; longitudinal incisions (tenotomies) in scarred and fibrotic areas to promote healing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      56.9
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  • Question 10 - A 47 year old woman presents with joint pains and a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 47 year old woman presents with joint pains and a history of recurrent infections over the past few months. Labs reveal a positive rheumatoid factor and low white cell count. Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following features would be present in her case?

      Your Answer: Distal interphalangeal joint involvement

      Correct Answer: Splenomegaly

      Explanation:

      Felty syndrome is a severe subtype of seropositive Rheumatoid arthritis. Clinical triad consists of arthritis, splenomegaly, and neutropenia (leads to an increased risk of recurrent bacterial infections). Other symptoms include skin ulcers of the lower limbs (indicating vasculitis), hepatomegaly, fever, and chest pain (indicating pleuritis or pericarditis). It is associated with increased risk of developing non-Hodgkin lymphoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      72.5
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  • Question 11 - A 78 year old woman presents to the clinic complaining of left sided...

    Incorrect

    • A 78 year old woman presents to the clinic complaining of left sided temporal headaches and jaw claudication that has been going on for a month. A left temporal artery biopsy is negative. Results show: Hb: 130g/l Platelets: 359*109/L, WBC: 10*109/L, CRP: 89mg/l Which of the following options would be the next best step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: CT brain

      Correct Answer: Commence prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Temporal arteritis is a chronic large- and medium-sized vessel vasculitis that typically involves the temporal arteries. Classical symptoms include temporal headaches, jaw claudication, amaurosis fugax. Physical exam shows scalp tenderness, palpation of the temporal area may demonstrate an absent pulse, knot-like swelling and vision loss. Lab results reveal an increased erythematous sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein. Temporal artery biopsy confirms the diagnosis. Management approach: high-dose systemic corticosteroids should be promptly administered even before the diagnosis is established. Temporal artery biopsy confirms the diagnosis. Inability to manage this or administer glucocorticoids might lead to development of blindness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      43
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  • Question 12 - A 23 year old male presents with a history of lower back pain...

    Correct

    • A 23 year old male presents with a history of lower back pain for the last one year. Presence of which of the following features most likely points towards ankylosing spondylitis?

      Your Answer: Bilateral erosion of sacroiliac joints on X-ray

      Explanation:

      Bilateral erosions of the sacroiliac joints on pelvic radiographs of patients with ankylosing spondylitis are an important feature of the modified New York classification criteria. Although HLA-B27 is commonly associated with AS, it can also be found in normal individuals. Back stiffness is worse in the morning and gets better as the day progresses. Tenderness and limited lumbar motion can be associated with other spine problems as well and is not characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      21.8
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  • Question 13 - A 26 year old woman is 32 weeks pregnant. She has a history...

    Correct

    • A 26 year old woman is 32 weeks pregnant. She has a history of Sjogren Syndrome. The foetus would be at a risk for which of the following?

      Your Answer: All correct

      Explanation:

      Women with Sjögren syndrome are likely to experience more complications during pregnancy than women without an autoimmune disease as the anti-Ro and anti-La antibodies cross the placenta and lead to various life threatening complications. Studies show a high incidence of poor fetal outcomes for these patients. Congenital heart block, neonatal lupus, congestive cardiac failure, hydrops fetalis can all be caused as a result of Sjogren syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      37.3
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  • Question 14 - A 28 year old woman presents with painful genital ulceration. She reports that...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old woman presents with painful genital ulceration. She reports that these attacks have been recurrent over the past 4 years. She has been treated previously with oral acyclovir but this has had little effect on the duration of her symptoms. Over the past year, she has noticed almost weekly attacks of mouth ulcers that heal slowly. Past medical history is significant for treatment of thrombophlebitis two years ago. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Herpes simplex virus type 2

      Correct Answer: Behcet's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Behçet disease is a rare vasculitic disorder that is characterized by a triple-symptom complex of recurrent oral aphthous ulcers, genital ulcers, and uveitis. The systemic manifestations can be variable. Ocular disease has the greatest morbidity, followed by vascular disease generally from active vasculitis. Cutaneous manifestations can occur in up 75% of patients with Behcet disease and can range from acneiform lesions, to nodules and erythema nodosum. GI manifestations can be severe. Differentiating Behçet disease from active inflammatory bowel disease can be clinically difficult. Herpes would have ideally responded to acyclovir. Sarcoidosis does not have genital and oral ulcerations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 15 - A 31 year old female complains of bilateral proximal muscle weakness. There is...

    Correct

    • A 31 year old female complains of bilateral proximal muscle weakness. There is marked blanching of fingers especially in response to cold weather. Lab results are as follows: Anti Jo-1: positive, ANA: positive, CK: 2000 U/L, ESR: 60mm/hr, EMG: myopathic changes. Presence of which of the following signifies the worst prognosis?

      Your Answer: Interstitial lung disease

      Explanation:

      Polymyositis is an inflammatory disorder causing symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness. It is thought to be a T-cell mediated cytotoxic process directed against muscle fibres. It may be idiopathic or associated with connective tissue disorders. It may also be associated with malignancy for example small cell lung carcinoma.
      Dermatomyositis is a variant of the disease where skin manifestations are prominent, for example a purple (heliotrope) rash on the cheeks and eyelids.
      It typically affects middle-aged, female: male 3:1. Features include proximal muscle weakness +/- tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease: e.g. fibrosing alveolitis or organising pneumonia, dysphagia, dysphonia. Investigations: elevated creatine kinase, other muscle enzymes (lactate dehydrogenase (LD), aldolase, AST and ALT) are also elevated in 85-95% of patients, EMG, muscle biopsy. Anti-Jo-1 antibodies are seen in pattern of disease associated with lung involvement, Raynaud’s and fever. Interstitial lung disease plays a major role in morbidity and mortality in patients with polymyositis and is considered a major risk factor for premature death in patients with myositis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      98.8
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  • Question 16 - An 18 year old boy, thin with a tall stature, and a high...

    Incorrect

    • An 18 year old boy, thin with a tall stature, and a high arched palate arrives at the hospital with a spontaneous pneumothorax. He is accompanied by his brother who has a similar appearance. You suspect Marfan's Syndrome. The gene encoding which of the following proteins is defective in this condition?

      Your Answer: Actin

      Correct Answer: Fibrillin-1

      Explanation:

      A variety of proteins compose the structure of microfibrils, the most prominent of which are the two fibrillins. Fibrillin-1 a scaffolding protein is encoded by FBN1 on human chromosome 15q21 and fibrillin-2 is encoded by FBN2 on 5q23. Mutations in FBN1 produce Marfan syndrome, a pleiotropic autosomal dominant connective tissue disorder with prominent manifestations in the skeleton, eye and cardiovascular system. A number of conditions related to Marfan syndrome are also due to FBN1 mutations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 17 - A 43 year old man with hemochromatosis presents with a painful and swollen...

    Correct

    • A 43 year old man with hemochromatosis presents with a painful and swollen right knee. X-ray shows extensive chondrocalcinosis but no fracture. Given the most likely diagnosis, which of the following would be present in the joint fluid aspirate?

      Your Answer: Positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals

      Explanation:

      Pseudogout is a paroxysmal joint inflammation due to calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition (calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate). Arthrocentesis should be performed, especially in acute cases.
      Polarized light microscopy: detection of rhomboid-shaped, positively birefringent CPPD crystals.
      Synovial fluid findings: 10,000-50,000 WBCs/μL with > 90% neutrophils.
      X-ray findings: cartilage calcification of the affected joint (chondrocalcinosis).
      Fibrocartilage (meniscus, annulus fibrosus of intervertebral disc) and hyaline cartilage (joint cartilage) may be affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      110.5
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  • Question 18 - Presence of which of the following indicates a worse prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis?...

    Incorrect

    • Presence of which of the following indicates a worse prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis?

      Your Answer: Rapid onset

      Correct Answer: Anti-CCP antibodies

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid arthritis is both common and chronic, with significant consequences for multiple organ systems. Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibody testing is particularly useful in the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis, with high specificity, presence early in the disease process, and ability to identify patients who are likely to have severe disease and irreversible damage. However, its sensitivity is low, and a negative result does not exclude disease. Anti-CCP antibodies have not been found at a significant frequency in other diseases to date, and are more specific than rheumatoid factor for detecting rheumatoid arthritis. The other factors that are mentioned do not play a key prognostic role.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 19 - A 31 year old female with systemic lupus erythematosus wants to know if...

    Incorrect

    • A 31 year old female with systemic lupus erythematosus wants to know if she has any predisposing factors for the disease. Which of the following carries the greatest risk of developing SLE?

      Your Answer: First-degree relative

      Correct Answer: Monozygotic twin

      Explanation:

      An overall concordance rate in monozygotic twins was documented to be 25% as compared to dizygotic twins with 3%. First degree relatives have a chance of around 3% of developing the disease. Caucasians show an increase frequency of HLA-B8. The Japanese lupus patients had a stronger association with HLA-DR2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      21.4
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  • Question 20 - A 42 year old obese man complains of a painful swollen ankle. The...

    Correct

    • A 42 year old obese man complains of a painful swollen ankle. The pain has worsened over the past 2 weeks. He is a diabetic and gives a history of recent alcohol consumption. Joint aspirate shows rhomboid crystals with numerous neutrophils. Radiological examination shows evidence of chondrocalcinosis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pseudogout

      Explanation:

      Pseudogout is a paroxysmal joint inflammation due to calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition (calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate). Aetiology includes mostly idiopathic (primary form) and secondary form occurring as a result of joint trauma, familial chondrocalcinosis, hyperparathyroidism, hemochromatosis, gout, hypophosphatemia. Clinical presentation: Often asymptomatic.
      Acute (pseudogout attack): monoarthritis (rarely oligoarthritis), mostly affecting the knees and other large joints (e.g., hips, wrists, and ankles). It may become chronic (can affect multiple joints). Osteoarthritis with CPPD (most common form of symptomatic CPPD): progressive joint degeneration with episodes of acute inflammatory arthritis typical of pseudogout attacks. Arthrocentesis should be performed, especially in acute cases. Polarized light microscopy: detection of rhomboid-shaped, positively birefringent CPPD crystals. Synovial fluid findings: 10,000-50,000 WBCs/μL with > 90% neutrophils. X-ray findings: cartilage calcification of the affected joint (chondrocalcinosis). Fibrocartilage (meniscus, annulus fibrosus of intervertebral disc) and hyaline cartilage (joint cartilage) may be affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 21 - A 42 year old female with a history of SLE presents with an...

    Correct

    • A 42 year old female with a history of SLE presents with an exacerbation of wrist pain. Which of the following markers would be the most suitable for monitoring disease activity?

      Your Answer: Anti-dsDNA titres

      Explanation:

      A high level of anti-dsDNA in the blood is strongly associated with lupus and is often significantly increased during or just prior to a flare-up. When the anti-dsDNA is positive and the person tested has other clinical signs and symptoms associated with lupus, it means that the person tested likely has lupus. This is especially true if an anti-Sm test is also positive.

      In the evaluation of someone with lupus nephritis, a high level (titre) of anti-dsDNA is generally associated with ongoing inflammation and damage to the kidneys.

      A very low level of anti-dsDNA is considered negative but does not exclude a diagnosis of lupus. Only about 65-85% of those with lupus will have anti-dsDNA.

      Low to moderate levels of the autoantibody may be seen with other autoimmune disorders, such as Sjögren syndrome and mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 22 - A 26 year old male presents with right sided elbow and wrist pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 26 year old male presents with right sided elbow and wrist pain and left sided knee and ankle pain that has persisted for about two weeks. He recently returned from a trip to Thailand that last for two weeks. The patient admits to having unprotected sex while on holiday. Examination reveals swelling and tenderness of tendons around joints but no inflammation of the joints. A vesiculopustular skin rash is also observed. What is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gonococcal arthritis

      Explanation:

      Patients with disseminated gonococcal arthritis may present with dermatitis-arthritis syndrome (60%) of with localized septic arthritis. (40%). Arthritis-dermatitis syndrome includes the classic triad of dermatitis, tenosynovitis, and migratory polyarthritis. Gout usually involves a singe joint and does not cause vesicopustular skin rash. Reactive arthritis has ocular symptoms (conjunctivitis), urethritis, and arthritis. Fungal arthritis occurs rarely and it may occur after a surgical infection or fungal spread hematogenously. it presents with tender, red, hot and swollen joint with loss of range of motion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 23 - A 43 year old female presents with an array of symptoms including weakness,...

    Incorrect

    • A 43 year old female presents with an array of symptoms including weakness, lethargy, dysphagia, dry mouth, gritty sensation in her eyes and increased photosensitivity. In order to confirm the suspected diagnosis, which of the following tests should be performed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Labial gland biopsy

      Explanation:

      To confirm the diagnosis, especially in patients with negative anti-Ro or anti-La antibodies, labial gland biopsy is done. In performing a labial biopsy, the surgeon typically makes a shallow 1/2 inch wide incision on either side of the inner lip after numbing the area with a local anaesthetic. Schirmer’s test determines whether the eye produces enough tears to keep it moist. This test can be done for ocular symptoms of Sjogren syndrome but is of no diagnostic importance as it can be positive with many other diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 24 - A 64 year old woman who is of Asian descent and is diabetic...

    Incorrect

    • A 64 year old woman who is of Asian descent and is diabetic (controlled by diet) presents with generalized body aches and difficulty rising from sitting for the last few months. Her blood glucose levels are in the normal range. Lab examination reveals normal blood cell count, low serum phosphate, calcium at the lower range, and raised alkaline phosphatase levels. Radiological examination shows which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Linear areas of low density

      Explanation:

      Osteomalacia is a condition due to defective mineralization of osteoid. Occurs as a result of Vitamin D deficiency secondary to poor dietary intake and sun exposure, malabsorption e.g., inflammatory bowel disease and gastrointestinal bypass surgery. Radiological findings include reduced bone mineral density (a non specific finding), inability to radiologically distinguish vertebral body trabeculae (the film appears poor quality), looser pseudo fractures, fissures, or narrow radiolucent lines (these are the characteristic findings). Osteolytic or punched out lesions may be seen with multiple myeloma and bony metastases. Areas of sclerosis may be observed with conditions like osteosclerosis and Paget disease. A Brodie abscess is a subacute osteomyelitis, which may persist for years before progressing to a chronic, frank osteomyelitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 25 - A 74 year old man presents with 12 kg weight loss and persistent...

    Incorrect

    • A 74 year old man presents with 12 kg weight loss and persistent back pain that is unrelated to activity for the past several months. Laboratory findings show : WCC: 6.7 x 109/l (5.4 neutrophils, 1.2 lymphocytes and 0.2 monocytes), Haemoglobin: 11.2 g/dL, Haematocrit: 33.3%, MCV: 88 fl, Platelet count: 89 x 109/l. The biochemistry shows: sodium 144 mmol/L, potassium 4.5 mmol/L, chloride 100 mmol/L, bicarbonate 26 mmol/L, urea 14 mmol/L, creatinine 90 μmol/L, glucose of 5.4 mmol/l. A CT scan of the spine reveals scattered 0.4 to 1.2 cm bright lesions in the vertebral bodies. Which of the following additional laboratory test findings is he most likely to have?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum prostate specific antigen of 35 microgram/l

      Explanation:

      Old age, persistent backache, weight loss, and osteosclerotic lesions make prostatic adenocarcinoma the most likely diagnosis. The sequelae include severe pain, pathological fractures, hypercalcemia and cord compression. Prostatic adenocarcinoma is detected by elevated levels of prostate specific antigen. Positive serology for borrelia burgdorferi would hint at Lyme disease which does not cause osteosclerotic bone lesions, neither would Neisseria gonorrhoeae have such a presentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 26 - Which of the following statements is the most characteristic of primary Raynaud's phenomena?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is the most characteristic of primary Raynaud's phenomena?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fingers are symmetrically involved during an attack

      Explanation:

      A typical attack may last less than an hour but can also persist for longer. In primary Raynaud’s, attacks are more likely symmetric, episodic, and without evidence of peripheral vascular disease. Patients more commonly have a negative ANA and normal inflammatory markers. There should be no evidence of tissue gangrene, digital pitting, or tissue injury in primary Raynaud’s. In contrast, patients with secondary Raynaud’s will describe attacks that are more frequent, painful, often asymmetric and may lead to digital ulcerations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 27 - An 82 year old man arrives at the clinic with painful right upper...

    Incorrect

    • An 82 year old man arrives at the clinic with painful right upper arm that he has been experiencing for the last few months. The pain is gradually worsening and often wakes him up at night. He is a known case of Paget's disease involving his lumbar spine and pelvis and is currently taking oral bisphosphonates. On examination, shoulder movements are intact. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his arm pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteosarcoma

      Explanation:

      Paget’s accelerates the remodelling process with old bone breaking down more quickly which disrupts the normal growth process. New bone development eventually adjusts to the faster pace and speeds up on its own. The pace is too fast for healthy bone growth, and the regrowth ends up softer and weaker than normal. The effect of this accelerated process causes bone pain, fractures, and deformities. Since osteosarcoma is a type of bone cancer linked to abnormal bone growth, this makes it a rare but possible complication of Paget’s disease although the chances of developing osteosarcoma are minimal. Fractures are painful and restrict movement whereas this patients pain is gradually developing. Pain associated with osteoarthritis is usually mild to moderate and worsens as the day progresses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 28 - A 33 year old female presents with dyspnoea, myalgia, arthralgia and a skin...

    Incorrect

    • A 33 year old female presents with dyspnoea, myalgia, arthralgia and a skin rash. The presence of which of the following antibodies would be the most specific for SLE?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-Sm

      Explanation:

      Anti-Sm antibodies are essential for diagnosis of SLE, especially in anti-dsDNA-negative patients. ANA are also found in 95% of the patients with SLE but they may also occur with other conditions like Juvenile inflammatory arthritis, chronic activity hepatitis, and Sjogren’s syndrome. Anti-Ro, although also found with SLE are more characteristic of Sjogren Syndrome. RF is usually associated with rheumatoid arthritis and cANCA with Wegener’s granulomatosis, Churg Strauss, and microscopic polyangiitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 29 - Which of the following cancers is responsible in producing osteoblastic bone metastases instead...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following cancers is responsible in producing osteoblastic bone metastases instead of osteolytic?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prostate adenocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      Osteoblastic (or sclerotic) bone metastases, characterized by deposition of new bone, present in prostate cancer, carcinoid, small cell lung cancer, Hodgkin lymphoma or medulloblastoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 30 - A 41 year old woman who has a history of SLE presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 41 year old woman who has a history of SLE presents with a dry cough, dyspnoea and fever. She is being treated with a monthly dose of IV cyclophosphamide for Grade IV nephropathy. The last cyclophosphamide dose was 10 years ago. Lab investigations are as follows: WCC: 2.3 (lymphocyte count 0.7), Platelets: 81, Hb: 10.5, ESR: 56, CRP: 43, PO2: 7.2 kPa, PCO2: 3.6 kPa after walking out to the toilet. Chest X ray was unremarkable apart from some patchy pulmonary infiltration. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP)

      Explanation:

      Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia, is an opportunistic fungal lung infection occurring almost exclusively in immunocompromised individuals. In 50% of cases, PCP is the first manifestation of AIDS (acquired immune deficiency syndrome), but it may be caused by other immunodeficiency disorders. PCP should be suspected in patients with a history of progressive dyspnoea and a dry cough with resistance to standard antibiotic treatment. Signs that support this diagnosis include a CD4 count < 200/μL, an increased beta-D-glucan level, and diffuse bilateral infiltrates on chest x-ray. Management of PCP includes high-dose trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (TMP/SMX), treatment of the underlying immunodeficiency disorder, and steroids in the case of severe respiratory insufficiency. TB is less likely to be present in this case as ESR is relatively low and chest x-ray appeared normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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Rheumatology (10/21) 48%
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