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  • Question 1 - A 30-year-old woman who underwent a live related renal transplant for end-stage renal...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman who underwent a live related renal transplant for end-stage renal failure secondary to chronic pyelonephritis 4 months ago, now attends the clinic for routine follow up. She is taking tacrolimus and mycophenolate mofetil (MMF). Her urea and electrolytes are: Na+ 136 mmol/L, K+ 3.7 mmol/L, Urea 7.2 mmol/L, Creatinine 146 μmol/L. She was last seen in clinic 2 weeks previously when her urea was 4.2 mmol/l and creatinine 98 μmol/l. She is clinically well and asymptomatic. On examination she was apyrexial and normotensive. Her transplant site was non-tender with no swelling and there were no other signs to be found. Which initial investigations should be performed first?

      Your Answer: Mycophenolate mofetil levels

      Correct Answer: Urine and blood cultures

      Explanation:

      After renal transplant, asymptomatic patients can still have graft dysfunction as an early complication, with rising serum creatinine; therefore, urine and blood cultures should be ordered first. This should be followed by measuring the Tacrolimus levels, as this drug can be directly nephrotoxic. Next, a Doppler ultrasound of the transplant site should be ordered, to check for any obstructions or occlusions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      70.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 51 year old smoker was recently diagnosed with non small cell lung...

    Incorrect

    • A 51 year old smoker was recently diagnosed with non small cell lung carcinoma. Investigations show presence of a 3 x 3 x 2 cm tumour on the left side of the lower lung lobe. the mass has invaded the parietal pleura. Ipsilateral hilar node is also involved but there is no metastatic spread. What is the stage of this cancer?

      Your Answer: T3 N1 M0

      Correct Answer: T2 N1 M0

      Explanation:

      The tumour has only invaded the visceral pleura and measures 3cm in the greatest dimension. Hence it is designated at T2. Ipsilateral peribronchial and/or hilar lymph node involvement would make it N1. There is no distal metastasis so M would be 0.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      31.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The increased risk of oesophageal malignancy in patients with Barrett’s oesophagus is approximately:...

    Correct

    • The increased risk of oesophageal malignancy in patients with Barrett’s oesophagus is approximately:

      Your Answer: 50 - 100 times risk

      Explanation:

      Barrett’s oesophagus is the transformation of the normal squamous epithelium of the oesophagus to columnar, intestinal type epithelium. It is often seen in patients with reflux and there is a 50-100 fold increased risk of oesophageal adenocarcinoma in patients with Barrett’s oesophagus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 43-year-old right-handed migraineur is admitted to hospital having developed paraesthesia affecting her...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old right-handed migraineur is admitted to hospital having developed paraesthesia affecting her left arm. This came on suddenly during a migrainous attack while out shopping. The paraesthesia appeared to effect the entire left arm and in the last few hours, has spread to involve the left side of the face. She had had a similar episode several months ago whereby she developed some right-sided leg and arm weakness while at work. The weakness lasted several minutes and subsequently abated. At the time, she was also having one of her migraines. She has a long-standing history of migraines, which typically start with a prolonged aura and fortification spectra. Other then migraines, for which she has been taking pizotifen, she has no other past medical history. Her sister also suffers from migraines, and her mother has a history of dementia in her 50s. She is a non-smoker and drinks minimal alcohol. On examination she was orientated but apathetic. Her blood pressure was 130/65 mmHg, pulse 62/min, and temperature 36.2ºC. There were no carotid bruits and heart sounds were entirely normal. There was reduced sensation to all modalities over the left side of the face extending to the vertex and the entire left arm. Tone and reflexes appeared intact; however, handgrip was reduced on the left due to numbness. The lower limb appeared entirely normal. Magnetic resonance (MR) scan showed bilateral, multifocal, T2/FLAIR (fluid attenuated inversion recovery ) hyperintensities in the deep white matter. MR Spinal cord was normal. What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Multiple sclerosis

      Correct Answer: CADASIL (cerebral autosomal dominant arteriopathy with subcortical infarcts and leucoencephalopathy)

      Explanation:

      CADASIL is the most common form of hereditary stroke disorder. This case has a strong history of migraine with aura with stroke-like episodes, characteristic of CADASIL. Additionally, there is positive family history of migraine and early dementia but no other vascular risk factors like hypertension, diabetes, or hypercholesterolaemia, which all confirm the suspicion of CADASIL, an arteriopathy where there is thickening of the smooth muscle cells in the blood vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      132.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 3-year-old boy has been brought to the hospital by his mother with...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old boy has been brought to the hospital by his mother with pallor, lethargy and abdominal enlargement. His mother said she only noticed these symptoms two weeks ago but further questioning reveals that they have been progressively worsening over a longer period of time. The boy was born naturally following an uncomplicated pregnancy. Past and family histories are not significant and the family hasn't been on any vacations recently. However, the mother mentions a metabolic disorder present in the family history but couldn't remember the exact name. Clinical examination reveals generalised pallor, abdominal enlargement, massive splenomegaly and hepatomegaly. The spleen is firm but not tender and there is no icterus or lymphadenopathy. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gaucher's disease

      Explanation:

      Gaucher’s disease is characterized by hepatosplenomegaly, cytopenia, sometimes severe bone involvement and, in certain forms, neurological impairment. The variability in the clinical presentations of GD may be explained by the continuum of phenotypes. However, three major phenotypic presentations can usually be distinguished. Type-1 GD is usually named non-neuronopathic GD; type-2 and type-3 are termed neuronopathic-GD. Gaucher disease (GD, ORPHA355) is a rare, autosomal recessive genetic disorder. It is caused by a deficiency of the lysosomal enzyme, glucocerebrosidase, which leads to an accumulation of its substrate, glucosylceramide, in macrophages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      75.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which one of the following is a contraindication to the use of a...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following is a contraindication to the use of a triptan in the management of migraine?

      Your Answer: A history of ischaemic heart disease

      Explanation:

      A history of ischaemic heart disease in a contraindication for prescribing triptans because they act by constricting cerebral and also coronary vessels, increasing the risk of stroke.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 21-year-old patient is referred to the tertiary neurology clinic because of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old patient is referred to the tertiary neurology clinic because of a possible diagnosis of Juvenile Parkinson’s disease. His symptoms began predominantly with dystonia affecting the lower limbs, but he now has more classical signs of older onset Parkinson’s including tremor, bradykinesia, and rigidity. You map out his family tree and understand that his sister developed Parkinson’s at the age of 16 but that his parents do not have signs of Parkinson’s. Which of the following is the most likely mode of inheritance?

      Your Answer: Autosomal dominant with incomplete penetrance

      Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive

      Explanation:

      Juvenile Onset Parkinson’s is an autosomal recessive condition that usually presents in late childhood to early adulthood, initially with gait disorders caused by lower limb dystonia that later develops to the more classical signs Parkinson’s.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      79
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A study's objective is to find the normal reference range for IgE levels...

    Correct

    • A study's objective is to find the normal reference range for IgE levels in the adult population. What percentage of individuals will have IgE levels higher than 2 standard deviations from the mean, assuming that the IgE levels follow a normal distribution?

      Your Answer: 2.30%

      Explanation:

      Normal distribution describes the spread of many biological and clinical measurements. Usually, 68.3% lies within 1 standard deviation (SD) of the mean, 95.4% lies within 2 SD of the mean and 99.7% lies within 3 SD of the mean.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old man is referred to the clinic by his GP. He complains...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man is referred to the clinic by his GP. He complains of lethargy and tiredness. He has recently been discharged from the hospital after being admitted to the intensive care unit following a motorbike accident. His thyroid function testing is : TSH 0.3 IU/l (0.5-4.5), Free T4 8 pmol/l (9-25), Free T3 3.1 pmol/l (3.4-7.2). Which of the following is most likely to be the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sick euthyroid syndrome

      Explanation:

      Euthyroid sick syndrome (also known as nonthyroidal illness syndrome) can be described as abnormal findings on thyroid function tests that occurs in the setting of a nonthyroidal illness (NTI), without pre-existing hypothalamic-pituitary and thyroid gland dysfunction. After recovery from an NTI, these thyroid function test result abnormalities should be completely reversible.
      Multiple alterations in serum thyroid function test findings have been recognized in patients with a wide variety of NTIs without evidence of pre-existing thyroid or hypothalamic-pituitary disease. The most prominent alterations are low serum triiodothyronine (T3) and elevated reverse T3 (rT3), leading to the general term low T3 syndrome. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), thyroxine (T4), free T4 (FT4), and free T4 index (FTI) also are affected in variable degrees based on the severity and duration of the NTI. As the severity of the NTI increases, both serum T3 and T4 levels drop, but they gradually normalize as the patient recovers.
      Reverse T3 is used to differentiate between this condition and secondary thyroid failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      52.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old female admitted for a course of chemotherapy, has been taking high...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female admitted for a course of chemotherapy, has been taking high dose steroids for a few days. The nurses report that she is very agitated and talks about trying to open the window of her room and jump out from the fourth floor. You review her notes and see that she admits to drinking a few glasses of wine per week and has smoked cannabis on a few occasions. On examination her BP is 145/88 mmHg, her pulse is 80 bpm. Blood investigations reveal: Haemoglobin: 12.1 g/dL (11.5-16.5) WBC count: 16.2 x 103/dL (4-11) Platelets: 200 x 109/L (150-400) C-reactive protein: 9 nmol/l (<10) Sodium: 140 mmol/l (135-146) Potassium: 3.9 mmol/l (3.5-5) Creatinine: 92 μmol/l (79-118) Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Corticosteroid-related psychosis

      Explanation:

      Agitation, hypomania and suicidal intent within a few days after initiating corticosteroid therapy is highly suggestive of a diagnosis of corticosteroid-induced psychosis.

      In some patients corticosteroid related psychosis has been diagnosed up to 12 weeks or more after commencing therapy.

      Euphoria and hypomania are considered to be the most common psychiatric symptoms reported during short courses of steroids.
      During long-term treatment, depressive symptoms were the most common.
      Higher steroid doses appear to carry an increased risk for such adverse effects; however, there is no significant relationship between dose and time to onset, duration, and severity of symptoms.

      Management: Reduction or cessation of corticosteroids is the mainstay of treatment for steroid psychosis. For those patients who cannot tolerate this reduction/cessation of steroids, mood stabilizers may be of some benefit.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      90.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A scientist is using denaturation, annealing and elongation to amplify a desired fragment...

    Incorrect

    • A scientist is using denaturation, annealing and elongation to amplify a desired fragment of DNA. Which molecular technique is he using?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

      Explanation:

      PCR is a simple, yet elegant, enzymatic assay, which allows for the amplification of a specific DNA fragment from a complex pool of DNA. PCR can be performed using source DNA from a variety of tissues and organisms, including peripheral blood, skin, hair, saliva, and microbes. Only trace amounts of DNA are needed for PCR to generate enough copies to be analysed using conventional laboratory methods. For this reason, PCR is a sensitive assay. Each PCR assay requires the presence of template DNA, primers, nucleotides, and DNA polymerase. The DNA polymerase is the key enzyme that links individual nucleotides together to form the PCR product. The above mentioned components are mixed in a test tube or 96-well plate and then placed in a machine that allows repeated cycles of DNA amplification to occur in three basic steps. The machine is essentially a thermal cycler. It has a thermal block with holes, into which the test tubes or plates holding the PCR reaction mixture are inserted. The machine raises and lowers the temperature of the block in discrete, precise and pre-programmed steps. The reaction solution is first heated above the melting point of the two complementary DNA strands of the target DNA, which allows the strands to separate, a process called denaturation. The temperature is then lowered to allow the specific primers to bind to the target DNA segments, a process known as hybridization or annealing. Annealing between primers and the target DNA occurs only if they are complementary in sequence (e.g. A binding to G). The temperature is raised again, at which time the DNA polymerase is able to extend the primers by adding nucleotides to the developing DNA strand. With each repetition of these three steps, the number of copied DNA molecules doubles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 60 yr. old man with atrial fibrillation (AF) who is on warfarin,...

    Incorrect

    • A 60 yr. old man with atrial fibrillation (AF) who is on warfarin, is awaiting tooth extraction. His latest INR 2 weeks ago was 2.7 and his target INR is 2.0-3.0. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Check INR 72 hours before procedure, proceed if INR < 3.5

      Explanation:

      The latest research recommends that simple tooth extraction in patients on warfarin treatment can be performed safely without high risk of bleeding, providing that the INR is equal to or less than 3.5 on the day of extraction. A close follow-up and monitoring of patients taking warfarin is mandatory after dental extraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Choose the correct statement regarding interferon: ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the correct statement regarding interferon:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Interferon-alpha and interferon-beta bind to the same type of receptor

      Explanation:

      Type I interferons (IFNs) form a network of homologous cytokines that bind to a shared, heterodimeric cell surface receptor and engage signalling pathways that activate innate and adaptive immune responses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - An 80-year-old woman with advanced COPD has been admitted to the medicine ward...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman with advanced COPD has been admitted to the medicine ward in an unconscious state. She appears to have an acute lower respiratory tract infection. After consulting with an anaesthesiologist it was concluded that she was not a candidate for intensive care unit admission and thus, a decision was made to start the patient on doxapram therapy. Which of the following best fits the characteristics of doxapram?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is contraindicated in hyperthyroidism

      Explanation:

      The two statements that fit the characteristics of doxapram are, epilepsy is a contraindication for doxapram use and concurrent use with theophylline may increase agitation.

      Doxapram is a central respiratory stimulant. In clinical practice, doxapram is usually used for patients who have an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who are unsuitable for admission to the intensive therapy unit for ventilatory support. Doxapram infusion may buy an extra 24 h to allow for recovery.

      Contraindications include: ischaemic heart disease, epilepsy, cerebral oedema, acute stroke, asthma, hypertension, hyperthyroidism, and pheochromocytoma.
      The infusion may worsen agitation and dyspnoea and lead to hypertension, nausea, vomiting and urinary retention.

      Drug interactions:
      Concomitant administration of doxapram and aminophylline (theophylline) can cause increased skeletal muscle activity, agitation, and hyperactivity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 32 year old male who has recently returned from a trip to...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old male who has recently returned from a trip to Thailand presents with congestion of eyes and swelling of the knee joint. He completed a course of antibiotics for dysentery 4 weeks back. He experiences no dysuria and urine examination is normal. Which further information would be most useful in establishing a diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: History and physical examination

      Explanation:

      The patient most likely has reactive arthritis which is usually diagnosed on history and clinical examination. The classic triad of symptoms include conjunctivitis, urethritis and arthritis. Arthritis and conjunctivitis may occur 4-6 weeks after a gastrointestinal or genitourinary infection. Arthritis usually occurs acutely, mostly involving the lower limb and is asymmetrical. Blood culture, urine culture and arthrocentesis (joint aspiration) will not yield positive results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What is the correct formula to calculate the positive predictive value? (TP =...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct formula to calculate the positive predictive value? (TP = true positive; FP = false positive; TN = true negative; FN = false negative)

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: TP / (TP + FP)

      Explanation:

      Positive predictive value is the probability that subjects with a positive screening test truly have the disease.

      Positive predictive value = true positive / ( true positive + false positive)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 62 year old man arrives at the clinic with a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 62 year old man arrives at the clinic with a history of cough and intermittent haemoptysis for the last 3 months. He has a 50 pack year smoking history and is currently waiting for bronchoscopy to assess a left lower lobe collapse. The patient also has a marked muscle weakness and wasting of proximal muscles of his shoulders and pelvic girdle. His wife states that lately he has been unable to eat solids. Which of the following statements would be true regarding this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He may have a photosensitive facial rash

      Explanation:

      The patient has presented with signs of small cell lung cancer. The associated proximal muscle weakness is most probably due to dermatomyositis which occurs as a paraneoplastic syndrome associated with lung carcinoma. In most cases, the first symptom is a distinctive skin rash on the face, eyelids, chest, nail cuticle areas, knuckles, knees or elbows. The rash is patchy and usually a bluish-purple colour. Corticosteroids are helpful in the management of the cutaneous changes and muscle weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 58-year-old female patient is being investigated for breathlessness, cough, and severe weight...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old female patient is being investigated for breathlessness, cough, and severe weight loss. On the medical ward round, her CXR is reviewed showing hilar lymphadenopathy and multiple peripheral lung metastases. Which of the following tumours is least likely to be the underlying cause of this lung appearance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brain

      Explanation:

      All of the aforementioned listed tumours, except brain tumours, can metastasise to lungs and produce the typical CXR picture consisting of hilar lymphadenopathy with either diffuse multinodular shadows resembling miliary disease or multiple large well-defined masses (canon balls). Occasionally, cavitation or calcification may also be seen.

      Most brain tumours, however, do not metastasise. Some, derived form neural elements, do so but in these cases, intraparenchymal metastases generally precede distant haematogenous spread.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 29 year old male visits the clinic and complains of increased anxiety,...

    Incorrect

    • A 29 year old male visits the clinic and complains of increased anxiety, dizziness, and headache which started a week after he crashed his motorcycle. A CT scan of his brain showed no abnormality when it was done. His symptoms resolved four months after he had that episode. What did his original symptoms likely represent?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Post-concussion syndrome

      Explanation:

      Post-concussion syndrome is a complex disorder in which various symptoms, such as headaches and dizziness, last for weeks and sometimes months after the injury that caused the concussion.

      Concussion is a mild traumatic brain injury that usually happens after a blow to the head. It can also occur with violent shaking and movement of the head or body. You don’t have to lose consciousness to get a concussion or post-concussion syndrome. In fact, the risk of post-concussion syndrome doesn’t appear to be associated with the severity of the initial injury.

      Post-concussion symptoms include:
      Headaches
      Dizziness
      Fatigue
      Irritability
      Anxiety
      Insomnia
      Loss of concentration and memory
      Ringing in the ears
      Blurry vision
      Noise and light sensitivity
      Rarely, decreases in taste and smell

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 73-year-old female is being reviewed in the osteoporosis clinic. She had a...

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old female is being reviewed in the osteoporosis clinic. She had a fracture of her left hip 5 years ago and was started on alendronate. Following the development of persistent musculoskeletal pain, alendronate was replaced with risedronate, which was also stopped for similar reasons. Strontium ranelate was therefore started but was also stopped due to the development of deep vein thrombosis in the right leg. Her current T-score is -4.1. A decision is made to start a trial of denosumab. What is the mechanism of action of denosumab?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits RANK ligand, which in turn inhibits the maturation of osteoclasts

      Explanation:

      The principal mechanism by which strontium inhibits osteoclast activity is by enhancing the secretion of osteoprotegerin (OPG) and by reducing the expression of the receptor activator of nuclear factor κB ligand (RANKL) in osteoblasts.

      Osteoporosis is defined as low bone mineral density caused by altered bone microstructure ultimately predisposing patients to low-impact, fragility fractures.

      Management:
      Vitamin D and calcium supplementation should be offered to all women unless the clinician is confident they have adequate calcium intake and are vitamin D replete
      Alendronate is the first-line treatment. Around 25% of patients cannot tolerate alendronate, usually due to upper gastrointestinal problems. These patients should be offered risedronate or etidronate.
      Strontium ranelate and raloxifene are recommended if patients cannot tolerate bisphosphonates.
      Other medications that are useful in the treatment of osteoporosis are denosumab, teriparatide, raloxifene, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 62year-old manpresents with exertional chest pain and is found to have extensive...

    Incorrect

    • A 62year-old manpresents with exertional chest pain and is found to have extensive coronary artery disease on angiogram. Which of the following cell types is most implicated in the development of coronary artery plaques?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Macrophages

      Explanation:

      An atheroma is an accumulation of degenerative material in the tunica intima (inner layer) of artery walls. The material consists of (mostly) macrophage cells, or debris, containing lipids (cholesterol and fatty acids), calcium and a variable amount of fibrous connective tissue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
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  • Question 22 - A 42-year-old male patient is admitted with recurrent pancreatitis. He also has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old male patient is admitted with recurrent pancreatitis. He also has a history of parotitis. CT scan is carried out revealing no pancreatic mass, but evidence of widespread lymphadenopathy is seen. Dedicated liver imaging reveals a stricture in the common bile duct but no stones. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IgG4 disease

      Explanation:

      IgG4-related disease (IgG4-RD) is a fibro-inflammatory condition that can affect nearly any organ system: the pancreas, biliary tree, salivary glands, periorbital tissues, kidneys, lungs, lymph nodes, meninges, aorta, breast, prostate, thyroid, pericardium, and skin. The histopathological features are similar across organs, regardless of the site. IgG4-RD is analogous to sarcoidosis, in which diverse organ manifestations are linked by similar histopathological characteristics. Raised concentrations of IgG4 in tissue and serum can be helpful in diagnosing IgG4 disease, but neither is a specific diagnostic marker.

      Some IgG4-RDs are:
      1. Autoimmune pancreatitis
      2. Riedel’s Thyroiditis
      3. Mediastinal and Retroperitoneal Fibrosis
      4. Periaortitis/periarteritis/Inflammatory aortic aneurysm
      5. Kuttner Tumour (submandibular glands)
      6. IgG4-related Mikulicz disease (lacrimal, parotid, and submandibular glands)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which one of the following is true of gamma delta T cells? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is true of gamma delta T cells?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: They play a role in the skin and gut

      Explanation:

      Gamma delta T cells are of low abundance in the body, are found in the gut mucosa, skin, lungs and uterus, and are involved in the initiation and propagation of immune responses. Their ligands are not known in detail, but the gamma delta T cell receptors recognise intact proteins rather than MHC-presented peptides. Like alpha beta T cells, they develop in the thymus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 61-year-old female presents to the A&E with malaise and muscle twitching. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old female presents to the A&E with malaise and muscle twitching. Her blood pressure is 114/78 mmHg and her pulse is 84/min. Blood exam reveals Calcium = 1.94 mmol/l and Albumin = 38 g/l. Which of the following tests is most useful in establishing her diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parathyroid hormone

      Explanation:

      Hypocalcaemia occurs in patients with impaired function of the parathyroid glands. This is most common after thyroid or parathyroid surgery, but it can be idiopathic—mostly in young adults and less often as part of a genetic syndrome, such as autoimmune polyglandular syndrome type 1. Usually, the first and most useful test to perform in such cases is the measurement of the parathyroid hormone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 60 yr. old man presented with difficulty in breathing. On examination he...

    Incorrect

    • A 60 yr. old man presented with difficulty in breathing. On examination he was severely dyspnoeic and tachycardic. What is the clinical sign that would favour the diagnosis of cardiac tamponade over constrictive pericarditis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pulsus paradoxus

      Explanation:

      Pulsus paradoxus is defined as the exaggerated fall in systolic blood pressure during inspiration by greater than 10 mmHg. Cardiac tamponade is the classic cause of pulsus paradoxus. Kussmaul’s sign (a rise in the jugular venous pressure on inspiration) is mostly seen in constrictive pericarditis. Hypotension, muffled heart sounds and raised JVP can be seen in both conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 77-year-old female who is a known to have COPD and metastatic lung...

    Incorrect

    • A 77-year-old female who is a known to have COPD and metastatic lung cancer is admitted with increasing shortness of breath. Following discussion with her family, it is decided to withdraw active treatment including fluids and antibiotics as the admission likely represents a terminal event. Two days after admission, she becomes agitated and restless. What is the most appropriate management for her agitation and confusion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subcutaneous midazolam

      Explanation:

      Generally, underlying causes of confusion need to be looked for and treated as appropriate, for example, hypercalcaemia, infection, urinary retention, and medication. If specific treatments fail, the following may be tried:

      1. First choice: haloperidol
      2. Other options: chlorpromazine, levomepromazine

      In the terminal phase of the illness, agitation or restlessness is best treated with midazolam.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - In a patient with type-1 diabetes mellitus, which cells when affected, lead to...

    Incorrect

    • In a patient with type-1 diabetes mellitus, which cells when affected, lead to insulin deficiency?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: B cells of the pancreatic islets

      Explanation:

      Insulin is produced by the beta-cells in the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas while Glucagon is secreted from the alpha cells of the pancreatic islets of Langerhans.
      Type 1 diabetes mellitus is the culmination of lymphocytic infiltration and destruction of the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas. As beta-cell mass declines, insulin secretion decreases until the available insulin is no longer adequate to maintain normal blood glucose levels. After 80-90% of the beta cells are destroyed, hyperglycaemia develops and diabetes may be diagnosed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
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  • Question 28 - A 28 yr. old primigravida in her 24th week of pregnancy came for...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 yr. old primigravida in her 24th week of pregnancy came for the routine follow up. She was asymptomatic at the time of examination. Her blood pressure was 152/92 mmHg and pulse rate was 90 bpm. Her blood pressure at the booking visit had been 132/80 mmHg. Her other examination findings were normal. Which of the following is the best method to use to treat her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Labetalol

      Explanation:

      Methyldopa is the drug of first choice for the control of mild to moderate hypertension in pregnancy. Labetalol is also considered as a first line drug for hypertension in pregnancy. Calcium channel blockers and hydralazine are considered as second line drugs. Beta-blockers (except labetalol), angiotensin receptor blockers, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors and thiazides are not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 30 yr. old male patient presented with palpitations that occur randomly at...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 yr. old male patient presented with palpitations that occur randomly at rest. There have however been episodes of fast palpitations and dizziness on exertion. On examination there was a systolic murmur at the apex as well as a prominent apex beat and the chest was clear. Which of the following is LEAST likely to suggest a diagnosis of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A history of hypertension for 10 years

      Explanation:

      Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is an autosomal dominant condition. Patients present with sudden cardiac death, dyspnoea, syncope and presyncope, angina, palpitations, orthopnoea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea, Congestive heart failure and dizziness. Physical findings include double or triple apical impulse, prominent a wave in the JVP, an ejection systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur and a holosystolic murmur at the apex and axilla of mitral regurgitation.
      ECG shows ST-T wave abnormalities and LVH, axis deviation (right or left), conduction abnormalities (P-R prolongation, bundle-branch block), sinus bradycardia with ectopic atrial rhythm, atrial enlargement, abnormal and prominent Q wave in the anterior precordial and lateral limb leads.
      2D echocardiography shows abnormal systolic anterior leaflet motion of the mitral valve, LVH, left atrial enlargement, small ventricular chamber size, septal hypertrophy with septal-to-free wall ratio greater than 1.4:1, mitral valve prolapse and mitral regurgitation, decreased midaortic flow, partial systolic closure of the aortic valve in midsystole

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 30 - Double-stranded DNA is found in which of the following cell organelles? ...

    Incorrect

    • Double-stranded DNA is found in which of the following cell organelles?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mitochondria

      Explanation:

      Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) is a double-stranded molecule of 16.6 kb (Figure 1, lower panel). The two strands of mtDNA differ in their base composition, with one being rich in guanines, making it possible to separate a heavy (H) and a light (L) strand by density centrifugation in alkaline CsCl2 gradients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Nephrology (0/1) 0%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/3) 33%
Clinical Sciences (2/2) 100%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
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