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  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old male presents to the GP with complaints of haemoptysis. He reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male presents to the GP with complaints of haemoptysis. He reports experiencing night sweats and has recently returned from a trip to India. The GP suspects tuberculosis and refers him to a respiratory specialist. What is the primary cytokine responsible for macrophage activation?

      Your Answer: IL-4

      Correct Answer: Interferon-γ

      Explanation:

      Overview of Cytokines and Their Functions

      Cytokines are signaling molecules that play a crucial role in the immune system. Interleukins are a type of cytokine that are produced by various immune cells and have specific functions. IL-1, produced by macrophages, induces acute inflammation and fever. IL-2, produced by Th1 cells, stimulates the growth and differentiation of T cell responses. IL-3, produced by activated T helper cells, stimulates the differentiation and proliferation of myeloid progenitor cells. IL-4, produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the proliferation and differentiation of B cells. IL-5, also produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the production of eosinophils. IL-6, produced by macrophages and Th2 cells, stimulates the differentiation of B cells and induces fever. IL-8, produced by macrophages, promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. IL-10, produced by Th2 cells, inhibits Th1 cytokine production and is known as an anti-inflammatory cytokine. IL-12, produced by dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells, activates NK cells and stimulates the differentiation of naive T cells into Th1 cells.

      In addition to interleukins, there are other cytokines with specific functions. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha, produced by macrophages, induces fever and promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. Interferon-gamma, produced by Th1 cells, activates macrophages. Understanding the functions of cytokines is important in developing treatments for various immune-related diseases.

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  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old individual presents with haemoptysis and weight loss, along with significant night...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old individual presents with haemoptysis and weight loss, along with significant night sweats. Upon examination, reduced breath sounds are noted over the apex of the right lung and nail clubbing is observed. The respiratory physician prescribes a combination of four antibiotics, including rifampicin, ethambutol, pyrazinamide, and isoniazid. What is the mechanism of action of rifampicin?

      Your Answer: Inhibit DNA synthesis

      Correct Answer: Inhibit RNA synthesis

      Explanation:

      RNA synthesis is inhibited by rifampicin, which is the primary medication used in the treatment of tuberculosis. The standard first-line therapy for tuberculosis includes a combination of rifampicin, ethambutol, pyrazinamide, and isoniazid.

      The mechanism of action of antibiotics can be categorized into inhibiting cell wall formation, protein synthesis, DNA synthesis, and RNA synthesis. Beta-lactams such as penicillins and cephalosporins inhibit cell wall formation by blocking cross-linking of peptidoglycan cell walls. Antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis include aminoglycosides, chloramphenicol, macrolides, tetracyclines, and fusidic acid. Quinolones, metronidazole, sulphonamides, and trimethoprim inhibit DNA synthesis, while rifampicin inhibits RNA synthesis.

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  • Question 3 - At 28 years old, Gwen seeks pre-conception advice from her haematologist regarding her...

    Incorrect

    • At 28 years old, Gwen seeks pre-conception advice from her haematologist regarding her Von Willebrand Disease (VWD). She is concerned about the potential risks of bleeding during pregnancy and childbirth, as well as the likelihood of passing on her condition to her child. Gwen is a carrier of VWD, while her partner Dylan does not have the condition. What is the probability of their child inheriting VWD?

      Your Answer: 25%

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      The offspring of Gwen and Dylan will have the Vv allele combination, resulting in inheriting VWD with a probability of 50%.

      Autosomal Dominant Inheritance: Characteristics and Complicating Factors

      Autosomal dominant diseases are genetic disorders that are inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. This means that both homozygotes and heterozygotes manifest the disease, and there is no carrier state. Both males and females can be affected, and only affected individuals can pass on the disease. The disease is passed on to 50% of children, and it normally appears in every generation. The risk remains the same for each successive pregnancy.

      However, there are complicating factors that can affect the inheritance of autosomal dominant diseases. One of these factors is non-penetrance, which refers to the lack of clinical signs and symptoms despite having an abnormal gene. For example, 40% of individuals with otosclerosis may not show any symptoms. Another complicating factor is spontaneous mutation, which occurs when there is a new mutation in one of the gametes. This means that 80% of individuals with achondroplasia have unaffected parents.

      In summary, autosomal dominant inheritance is characterized by certain patterns of inheritance, but there are also complicating factors that can affect the expression of the disease. Understanding these factors is important for genetic counseling and for predicting the risk of passing on the disease to future generations.

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  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old man is admitted to the hospital after experiencing a sudden loss...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man is admitted to the hospital after experiencing a sudden loss of consciousness upon standing up from a chair. He has a medical history of asthma, migraine, atrial fibrillation, and benign prostate hypertrophy.

      The radiology reports come back normal, but his vital signs show a lying blood pressure of 120/77 mmHg and a standing blood pressure of 90/55 mmHg.

      After reviewing his medication chart, the doctor decides to discontinue a drug that may have caused his current condition.

      Which medication did the doctor discontinue?

      Your Answer: Doxazosin

      Explanation:

      Doxazosin is known to cause postural hypotension as an adverse effect. This medication is an alpha-1 blocker and is commonly used to manage hypertension and benign prostate hypertrophy. It is important to note that doxazosin can increase the risk of postural hypotension, especially when used in combination with other antihypertensive medications. As a result, it is likely that this medication would have been discontinued.

      On the other hand, paracetamol and venlafaxine are not typically associated with a decrease in blood pressure. Instead, they may cause an increase in blood pressure.

      Prednisolone, on the other hand, is known to raise blood pressure and would not be the correct answer in this scenario.

      Adrenoceptor Antagonists: Types and Examples

      Adrenoceptor antagonists are drugs that block the action of adrenaline and noradrenaline on specific receptors in the body. There are two main types of adrenoceptor antagonists: alpha antagonists and beta antagonists. Alpha antagonists block the action of adrenaline and noradrenaline on alpha receptors, while beta antagonists block their action on beta receptors.

      Examples of alpha antagonists include doxazosin, which blocks alpha-1 receptors, and tamsulosin, which acts mainly on urogenital tract by blocking alpha-1a receptors. Yohimbine is an example of an alpha-2 antagonist, while phenoxybenzamine, previously used in peripheral arterial disease, is a non-selective alpha antagonist.

      Beta antagonists include atenolol, which blocks beta-1 receptors, and propranolol, which is a non-selective beta antagonist. Carvedilol and labetalol are examples of mixed alpha and beta antagonists.

      Overall, adrenoceptor antagonists are important drugs that can be used to treat a variety of conditions, including hypertension, heart failure, and angina.

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  • Question 5 - An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department after a fall at home...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department after a fall at home resulting in a head injury. He has a medical history of atrial fibrillation and is taking warfarin for stroke prevention, with a target INR of 2.5. CT head reveals an acute subdural haemorrhage, and his INR is 5.5. As a healthcare provider, you opt to administer 5 mg of IV vitamin K. What is the mode of action of this medication?

      Your Answer: Acts as a co-factor in the carboxylation of factors II, VII, IX and X

      Explanation:

      To reverse the effects of warfarin and treat major bleeding, IV vitamin K should be administered as it acts as a cofactor in the carboxylation of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X. Prothrombin complex concentrate or fresh frozen plasma may also be given. It is important to note that vitamin K is fat-soluble and its levels may decrease in conditions affecting fat absorption, such as obstructive jaundice. Additionally, it may take up to 4 hours for vitamin K to produce a reduction in INR when given to reverse the effects of warfarin. DOACs such as apixaban, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban directly inhibit factor Xa, while dabigatran works by directly inhibiting thrombin (factor IIa). Heparin, on the other hand, activates antithrombin III, which inactivates factor Xa and thrombin.

      Understanding Vitamin K

      Vitamin K is a type of fat-soluble vitamin that plays a crucial role in the carboxylation of clotting factors such as II, VII, IX, and X. This vitamin acts as a cofactor in the process, which is essential for blood clotting. In clinical settings, vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarinisation, a process that inhibits blood clotting. However, it may take up to four hours for the INR to change after administering vitamin K.

      Vitamin K deficiency can occur in conditions that affect fat absorption since it is a fat-soluble vitamin. Additionally, prolonged use of broad-spectrum antibiotics can eliminate gut flora, leading to a deficiency in vitamin K. It is essential to maintain adequate levels of vitamin K to ensure proper blood clotting and prevent bleeding disorders.

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  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old male presents for an elective cholecystectomy. The anaesthetist administers the necessary...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male presents for an elective cholecystectomy. The anaesthetist administers the necessary medications, including an antiemetic, before the surgery. However, after 10 minutes, the patient experiences upward eye deviation and muscle spasms in the neck and arms. An IV injection of procyclidine is given.

      What is the mechanism of action of procyclidine?

      Your Answer: Muscarinic antagonist

      Explanation:

      Procyclidine is capable of crossing the blood-brain barrier and acts as a muscarinic antagonist. It is commonly used to alleviate oculogyric crisis, which is caused by an excess of cholinergic activity at the neuromuscular junction due to dopamine deficiency resulting from the administration of dopamine D2 antagonists like metoclopramide. Procyclidine works by reducing cholinergic transmission in such cases.

      Understanding Oculogyric Crisis: Symptoms, Causes, and Management

      Oculogyric crisis is a medical condition characterized by involuntary upward deviation of the eyes, often accompanied by restlessness and agitation. This condition is usually triggered by certain drugs or medical conditions, such as antipsychotics, metoclopramide, and postencephalitic Parkinson’s disease.

      The symptoms of oculogyric crisis can be distressing and uncomfortable for the patient. They may experience a sudden and uncontrollable movement of their eyes, which can cause discomfort and disorientation. In some cases, the patient may also feel restless and agitated, making it difficult for them to focus or relax.

      To manage oculogyric crisis, doctors may prescribe intravenous antimuscarinic medications such as benztropine or procyclidine. These drugs work by blocking the action of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that is involved in muscle movement. By reducing the activity of acetylcholine, these medications can help to alleviate the symptoms of oculogyric crisis and restore normal eye movement.

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  • Question 7 - A 28-year-old woman, with two children, visits her doctor at 32 weeks gestation...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman, with two children, visits her doctor at 32 weeks gestation to receive her pertussis vaccine. She consents to participate in a research study that aims to assess the levels of immunoglobulins produced in response to the vaccine.

      Following the vaccination, a specific immunoglobulin is observed to have a significantly elevated concentration. This immunoglobulin is capable of fixing complement and crossing the blood-placental barrier to enter the fetal circulation.

      Which immunoglobulin is being referred to in this scenario?

      Your Answer: IgG

      Explanation:

      The antibody subtype that is capable of fixing complement and passing through the blood-placental barrier to enter the fetal circulation is IgG.

      Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.

      IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.

      IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.

      IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.

      IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.

      IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.

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  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old male visits his GP with a similar complaint. He reports grazing...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male visits his GP with a similar complaint. He reports grazing his leg while hiking in the hills. Despite cleaning the wound, he experiences inflammation and tenderness upon touch. Additionally, he has a fever and feels ill. Due to his penicillin allergy, you prescribe clarithromycin. What is the most precise explanation of this drug's mechanism of action?

      Your Answer: Disruption of bacterial cell wall synthesis

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of the 50s ribosome subunit

      Explanation:

      Macrolides prevent the production of proteins by attaching to the 23S rRNA found in the 50S ribosomal subunit, which hinders translocation. Clarithromycin, a macrolide, obstructs protein synthesis by binding to the 50S subunit of the bacterial ribosome. Tetracyclines, on the other hand, inhibit the 30S subunit. Bacterial nucleic acid synthesis is disrupted by quinolones, sulfonamides, and trimethoprim. Penicillin and cephalosporins work by interfering with cell wall synthesis, while lincomycins prevent bacterial cell membrane synthesis.

      Macrolides are a class of antibiotics that include erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin. They work by blocking translocation during bacterial protein synthesis, ultimately inhibiting bacterial growth. While they are generally considered bacteriostatic, their effectiveness can vary depending on the dose and type of organism being treated. Resistance to macrolides can occur through post-transcriptional methylation of the 23S bacterial ribosomal RNA.

      However, macrolides can also have adverse effects. They may cause prolongation of the QT interval and gastrointestinal side-effects, such as nausea. Cholestatic jaundice is a potential risk, but using erythromycin stearate may reduce this risk. Additionally, macrolides are known to inhibit the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP3A4, which metabolizes statins. Therefore, it is important to stop taking statins while on a course of macrolides to avoid the risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. Azithromycin is also associated with hearing loss and tinnitus.

      Overall, while macrolides can be effective antibiotics, they do come with potential risks and side-effects. It is important to weigh the benefits and risks before starting a course of treatment with these antibiotics.

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  • Question 9 - A man in his early 40s complains of numbness in his feet. Upon...

    Correct

    • A man in his early 40s complains of numbness in his feet. Upon examination, there is a decrease in sensation and a positive Romberg's test. The source of the problem is determined to be a sexually transmitted infection. What is the probable cause?

      Your Answer: Syphilis

      Explanation:

      Tabes dorsalis, a dysfunction of the dorsal column, is a symptom of syphilis in its tertiary stage. It can be identified through a positive Romberg’s test, where the patient may lose balance and fall backwards when standing with their eyes closed. However, this symptom is not linked to Chlamydia, gonorrhoeae, or trichomoniasis.

      Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. The infection progresses through primary, secondary, and tertiary stages, with an incubation period of 9-90 days. The primary stage is characterized by a painless ulcer at the site of sexual contact, along with local lymphadenopathy. Women may not always exhibit visible symptoms. The secondary stage occurs 6-10 weeks after primary infection and presents with systemic symptoms such as fevers and lymphadenopathy, as well as a rash on the trunk, palms, and soles. Other symptoms may include buccal ulcers and genital warts. Tertiary syphilis can lead to granulomatous lesions of the skin and bones, ascending aortic aneurysms, general paralysis of the insane, tabes dorsalis, and Argyll-Robertson pupil. Congenital syphilis can cause blunted upper incisor teeth, linear scars at the angle of the mouth, keratitis, saber shins, saddle nose, and deafness.

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  • Question 10 - Samantha is 49-years-old and is being treated for hypertension and gout. Besides a...

    Correct

    • Samantha is 49-years-old and is being treated for hypertension and gout. Besides a recent gout flare-up, she is currently in good health. Her current medications include Lisinopril, Amlodipine, Bendroflumethiazide, Naproxen, and Allopurinol. During her bi-annual GP review, a random venous glucose test shows a reading of 12.1 mmol/L, and a subsequent oral glucose tolerance test reveals a result of 9.2 mmol/L. What is the most probable reason for her abnormal glucose levels?

      Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Explanation:

      Drugs that can cause impaired glucose tolerance

      Impaired glucose tolerance can be caused by certain medications. These drugs include thiazides, furosemide (although less common), steroids, tacrolimus, ciclosporin, interferon-alpha, nicotinic acid, and antipsychotics. Beta-blockers can also cause a slight impairment of glucose tolerance and should be used with caution in diabetics as they can interfere with the metabolic and autonomic responses to hypoglycemia. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential side effects and monitor patients accordingly, especially those with pre-existing diabetes or at risk for developing diabetes. Adequate management and monitoring can help prevent further complications and ensure optimal patient care.

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  • Question 11 - An anaesthetist trainee administers neostigmine to a 60-year-old patient at the end of...

    Incorrect

    • An anaesthetist trainee administers neostigmine to a 60-year-old patient at the end of a brief surgical procedure to reverse the effect of a muscle relaxant. However, no effect is observed. Which of the following skeletal muscle relaxants may have been used during induction of anaesthesia?

      Your Answer: Pancuronium

      Correct Answer: Suxamethonium

      Explanation:

      Suxamethonium is a type of skeletal muscle relaxant that causes depolarization. Unlike non-depolarizing agents such as tubocurarine, pancuronium, vecuronium, and rocuronium, it cannot be reversed by anticholinesterases because it is broken down by butyrylcholinesterase. Neostigmine, an anticholinesterase, prolongs the effects of acetylcholine by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase in the synaptic cleft, but it cannot reverse the effects of suxamethonium since it is not metabolized by acetylcholinesterase.

      Cholinergic receptors are proteins found in the body that are activated by the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. They are present in both the central and peripheral nervous systems and can be divided into two groups: nicotinic and muscarinic receptors. Nicotinic receptors are ligand-gated ion channels that allow the movement of sodium into the cell and potassium out, resulting in an inward flow of positive ions. Muscarinic receptors, on the other hand, are G-protein coupled receptors that exert their downstream effect by linking with different G-proteins.

      Nicotinic receptors are named after their binding capacity for nicotine, but they respond to acetylcholine. They are found in preganglionic neurons of the autonomic nervous system and at neuromuscular junctions. At preganglionic neurons, they create a local membrane depolarization through the movement of sodium into the cell, while at neuromuscular junctions, they initiate a wave of depolarization across the muscle cell. Muscarinic receptors are found in effector organs of the parasympathetic autonomic nervous system and are divided into five classes. They mediate various effects through different G-protein systems.

      Cholinergic receptors can be targeted pharmacologically using agonists and antagonists. For example, muscarinic antagonist ipratropium can be used to induce bronchodilation in asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. In myasthenia gravis, an autoimmune disease, antibodies are directed against the nicotinic receptor on the neuromuscular junction, resulting in skeletal muscle weakness. Understanding the effects associated with each type of cholinergic receptor is important in understanding physiological responses to drugs and disease.

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  • Question 12 - A 62-year-old man presents to the ED with ataxia, confusion, and nystagmus. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man presents to the ED with ataxia, confusion, and nystagmus. The diagnosis of Wernicke's encephalopathy is confirmed by a thiamine deficiency found in his blood tests. Which enzyme's production is reliant on this vitamin?

      Your Answer: Amylase

      Correct Answer: Pyruvate dehydrogenase

      Explanation:

      Vitamin B1, also known as thiamine, is a cofactor for a group of enzymes needed for the Krebs cycle, including pyruvate dehydrogenase. Deficiency in vitamin B1 can lead to a deprivation of energy and a buildup of lactate, which can cause pathological brain function. This can manifest as cerebellar signs such as ataxia and nystagmus, as well as confusion. Thiamine deficiency is commonly seen in alcoholics. Amylase, lysyl hydroxylase, and retinoic acid are not related to this condition and would not account for the symptoms described in the stem.

      The Importance of Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) in the Body

      Vitamin B1, also known as thiamine, is a water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. It plays a crucial role in the body as one of its phosphate derivatives, thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP), acts as a coenzyme in various enzymatic reactions. These reactions include the catabolism of sugars and amino acids, such as pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex, and branched-chain amino acid dehydrogenase complex.

      Thiamine deficiency can lead to clinical consequences, particularly in highly aerobic tissues like the brain and heart. The brain can develop Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, which presents symptoms such as nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. Meanwhile, the heart can develop wet beriberi, which causes dilated cardiomyopathy. Other conditions associated with thiamine deficiency include dry beriberi, which leads to peripheral neuropathy, and Korsakoff’s syndrome, which causes amnesia and confabulation.

      The primary causes of thiamine deficiency are alcohol excess and malnutrition. Alcoholics are routinely recommended to take thiamine supplements to prevent deficiency. Overall, thiamine is an essential vitamin that plays a vital role in the body’s metabolic processes.

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  • Question 13 - A 43-year-old man is brought to the emergency department via ambulance after being...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old man is brought to the emergency department via ambulance after being found collapsed on the street. He is barely responsive and has a heart rate of 120 beats per minute, blood pressure of 80/40 mmHg, oxygen saturations of 92%, and a temperature of 39 ºC. During a full secondary survey, gas gangrene is discovered on his lower limbs. Biopsy results later confirm that the causative organism is Clostridium perfringens. What is the responsible toxin for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Cereulide

      Correct Answer: Alpha toxin

      Explanation:

      Gas gangrene is a severe infection caused by Clostridium perfringens, which produces alpha-toxin, a lecithinase. This toxin causes local haemolysis, leading to areas of hypoperfusion and subsequent hypoxia, creating an anaerobic environment that allows the bacteria to thrive and cause further damage.

      Cereulide, Exfoliatin, and Exotoxin A are incorrect as they are produced by Bacillus cereus, Staphylococcus aureus, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa, respectively, and cause different illnesses or symptoms such as vomiting and diarrhoea, blistering of the skin, and inhibition of protein synthesis.

      Exotoxins vs Endotoxins: Understanding the Differences

      Exotoxins and endotoxins are two types of toxins produced by bacteria. Exotoxins are secreted by bacteria, while endotoxins are only released when the bacterial cell is lysed. Exotoxins are typically produced by Gram-positive bacteria, with some exceptions like Vibrio cholerae and certain strains of E. coli.

      Exotoxins can be classified based on their primary effects, which include pyrogenic toxins, enterotoxins, neurotoxins, tissue invasive toxins, and miscellaneous toxins. Pyrogenic toxins stimulate the release of cytokines, resulting in fever and rash. Enterotoxins act on the gastrointestinal tract, causing either diarrheal or vomiting illness. Neurotoxins act on the nerves or neuromuscular junction, causing paralysis. Tissue invasive toxins cause damage to tissues, while miscellaneous toxins have various effects.

      On the other hand, endotoxins are lipopolysaccharides that are released from Gram-negative bacteria like Neisseria meningitidis. These toxins can cause fever, sepsis, and shock. Unlike exotoxins, endotoxins are not actively secreted by bacteria but are instead released when the bacterial cell is lysed.

      Understanding the differences between exotoxins and endotoxins is important in diagnosing and treating bacterial infections. While exotoxins can be targeted with specific treatments like antitoxins, endotoxins are more difficult to treat and often require supportive care.

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  • Question 14 - A 32-year-old man who is HIV-positive comes in for a medication review. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man who is HIV-positive comes in for a medication review. During the discussion of his prescribed drugs, you observe that he is taking an integrase inhibitor, which functions by obstructing the enzyme integrase. This enzyme is responsible for inserting viral genetic material into human genomes.

      Which specific medication is he likely taking?

      Your Answer: Nevirapine

      Correct Answer: Raltegravir

      Explanation:

      Integrase inhibitors, also known as ‘gravirs’, block the enzyme responsible for inserting the viral genome into the DNA of the host cell. Raltegravir is an example of a drug with this mechanism of action, and other drugs with the suffix ‘-gravir’ also function as integrase inhibitors. By preventing HIV viral information from integrating into host DNA, these drugs effectively halt further replication of HIV virions. It is important to note that Maraviroc, Nevirapine, and Rifampicin are not integrase inhibitors and do not function in the same way as ‘gravirs’.

      Antiretroviral therapy (ART) is a treatment for HIV that involves a combination of at least three drugs. This combination typically includes two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI) and either a protease inhibitor (PI) or a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI). ART reduces viral replication and the risk of viral resistance emerging. The 2015 BHIVA guidelines recommend that patients start ART as soon as they are diagnosed with HIV, rather than waiting until a particular CD4 count.

      Entry inhibitors, such as maraviroc and enfuvirtide, prevent HIV-1 from entering and infecting immune cells. Nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI), such as zidovudine, abacavir, and tenofovir, can cause peripheral neuropathy and other side effects. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI), such as nevirapine and efavirenz, can cause P450 enzyme interaction and rashes. Protease inhibitors (PI), such as indinavir and ritonavir, can cause diabetes, hyperlipidaemia, and other side effects. Integrase inhibitors, such as raltegravir and dolutegravir, block the action of integrase, a viral enzyme that inserts the viral genome into the DNA of the host cell.

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  • Question 15 - A 25-year-old male visits his doctor with concerns about his upcoming job interview....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male visits his doctor with concerns about his upcoming job interview. He is feeling extremely anxious and believes that he will not perform well.

      The doctor reassures him that this is a typical reaction triggered by the sympathetic nervous system, also referred to as the 'fight or flight' response.

      What type of receptors are responsible for mediating this response?

      Your Answer: Nuclear receptors

      Correct Answer: G protein-coupled receptors

      Explanation:

      Adrenergic receptors, which mediate responses involving hormones, local mediators, and neurotransmitters, are the largest of all cell surface receptors and are classified as G protein-coupled receptors. These receptors activate trimeric GTP binding proteins (G-proteins) that, in turn, activate an enzyme or an ion channel (effector) in the plasma membrane, initiating a sequence of other effects. In contrast, enzyme-coupled receptors, such as tyrosine kinase associated receptors and histidine kinase associated receptors, act as enzymes or associate with enzymes inside cells to activate various intracellular signaling pathways. Finally, ligand-gated ion channel receptors, also known as ionotropic receptors, are responsible for the rapid transmission of signals across synapses in the nervous system by causing changes in membrane potential.

      Adrenergic receptors are a type of G protein-coupled receptors that respond to the catecholamines epinephrine and norepinephrine. These receptors are primarily involved in the sympathetic nervous system. There are four types of adrenergic receptors: α1, α2, β1, and β2. Each receptor has a different potency order and primary action. The α1 receptor responds equally to norepinephrine and epinephrine, causing smooth muscle contraction. The α2 receptor has mixed effects and responds equally to both catecholamines. The β1 receptor responds equally to epinephrine and norepinephrine, causing cardiac muscle contraction. The β2 receptor responds much more strongly to epinephrine than norepinephrine, causing smooth muscle relaxation.

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  • Question 16 - A 70-year-old man visits his doctor for his yearly hypertension check-up. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man visits his doctor for his yearly hypertension check-up. He is presently on the highest possible dose of ramipril, amlodipine, and indapamide. During the check-up, his blood pressure is recorded as 156/95 mmHg. The doctor advises him on lifestyle changes and suggests doxazosin. Can you explain the mechanism of action of this medication?

      Your Answer: Mixed alpha and beta antagonist

      Correct Answer: Alpha-1 antagonist

      Explanation:

      Doxazosin is an alpha-1 antagonist that specifically targets the peripheral vasculature. By blocking these receptors, it can effectively decrease blood pressure, peripheral vascular resistance, and vasoconstriction, making it a useful antihypertensive medication.

      The options of alpha-2 antagonist, beta-1 antagonist, and beta-2 antagonist are incorrect. Alpha-2 receptors inhibit the release of norepinephrine, acetylcholine, and insulin, and there is no significant use for alpha-2 antagonists in mainstream healthcare. Beta-1 receptors affect the heart, and beta-2 receptors work peripherally, affecting peripheral vascular resistance and bronchoconstriction. Antagonists of these receptors would respectively decrease heart rate and myocardial contractility or cause non-specific effects on both beta-1 and beta-2 receptors.

      Adrenoceptor Antagonists: Types and Examples

      Adrenoceptor antagonists are drugs that block the action of adrenaline and noradrenaline on specific receptors in the body. There are two main types of adrenoceptor antagonists: alpha antagonists and beta antagonists. Alpha antagonists block the action of adrenaline and noradrenaline on alpha receptors, while beta antagonists block their action on beta receptors.

      Examples of alpha antagonists include doxazosin, which blocks alpha-1 receptors, and tamsulosin, which acts mainly on urogenital tract by blocking alpha-1a receptors. Yohimbine is an example of an alpha-2 antagonist, while phenoxybenzamine, previously used in peripheral arterial disease, is a non-selective alpha antagonist.

      Beta antagonists include atenolol, which blocks beta-1 receptors, and propranolol, which is a non-selective beta antagonist. Carvedilol and labetalol are examples of mixed alpha and beta antagonists.

      Overall, adrenoceptor antagonists are important drugs that can be used to treat a variety of conditions, including hypertension, heart failure, and angina.

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      • General Principles
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  • Question 17 - Ehlers Danlos syndrome is typically a result of collagen type V defects. Which...

    Incorrect

    • Ehlers Danlos syndrome is typically a result of collagen type V defects. Which type of collagen is the most prevalent?

      Your Answer: Collagen Type V

      Correct Answer: Collagen Type I

      Explanation:

      The most prevalent type of collagen is Type I, which can be found in bones, skin, and tendons. Type II collagen is present in hyaline cartilage and vitreous humor, while Type III collagen is found in reticular fibers and granulation tissue. Type IV collagen is located in the basal lamina, lens, and basement membrane, and Type V collagen is present in most interstitial tissue and placental tissue.

      Understanding Collagen and its Associated Disorders

      Collagen is a vital protein found in connective tissue and is the most abundant protein in the human body. Although there are over 20 types of collagen, the most important ones are types I, II, III, IV, and V. Collagen is composed of three polypeptide strands that are woven into a helix, with numerous hydrogen bonds providing additional strength. Vitamin C plays a crucial role in establishing cross-links, and fibroblasts synthesize collagen.

      Disorders of collagen can range from acquired defects due to aging to rare congenital disorders. Osteogenesis imperfecta is a congenital disorder that has eight subtypes and is caused by a defect in type I collagen. Patients with this disorder have bones that fracture easily, loose joints, and other defects depending on the subtype. Ehlers Danlos syndrome is another congenital disorder that has multiple subtypes and is caused by an abnormality in types 1 and 3 collagen. Patients with this disorder have features of hypermobility and are prone to joint dislocations and pelvic organ prolapse, among other connective tissue defects.

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  • Question 18 - A 28-year-old man visits a doctor after noticing the recent appearance of some...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man visits a doctor after noticing the recent appearance of some skin lesions on his shin. He works in social healthcare and has no significant medical history except for an appendectomy seven years ago. He denies smoking, using illicit drugs, and drinks alcohol occasionally. He had a couple of needle-stick injuries while caring for known HIV-positive individuals but never received any HIV prophylaxis or underwent testing for HIV. Upon agreeing to an HIV test, he was found to be HIV-positive. What is the most strongly associated condition with being HIV-positive?

      Your Answer: Strawberry hemangioma

      Correct Answer: Kaposi sarcoma

      Explanation:

      The patient has a skin lesion associated with HIV, most likely Kaposi sarcoma caused by HHV8. Other vascular neoplasms include angiosarcoma, pyogenic granuloma, glomus tumor, and strawberry hemangioma.

      Kaposi’s sarcoma is a type of cancer that is caused by the human herpes virus 8 (HHV-8). It is characterized by the appearance of purple papules or plaques on the skin or mucosa, such as in the gastrointestinal and respiratory tract. These skin lesions may eventually ulcerate, while respiratory involvement can lead to massive haemoptysis and pleural effusion. Treatment options for Kaposi’s sarcoma include radiotherapy and resection. It is commonly seen in patients with HIV.

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      • General Principles
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  • Question 19 - A 67-year-old male with a history of HIV infection arrives at the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old male with a history of HIV infection arrives at the emergency department complaining of a worsening headache over the past three weeks. He denies any neck stiffness but reports feeling generally unwell, with a fever and malaise. The patient has a known history of non-compliance with his anti-retroviral medications. A sample of cerebrospinal fluid is obtained through a lumbar puncture and sent for culture. The India ink stain on the sample is positive. What is the most likely organism responsible for this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Neisseria meningitidis

      Correct Answer: Cryptococcus neoformans

      Explanation:

      The patient’s subacute meningitis presentation, without the typical neck stiffness, raises concern for potential cryptococcal disease, especially given their HIV status. Cryptococcus neoformans is a fungal infection that commonly causes sub-acute meningitis in those with HIV and can be diagnosed using the India ink stain. Treatment typically involves amphotericin B and flucytosine. Tuberculosis meningitis is also a possibility in this case, as it can present similarly and is seen in those with severe immunosuppression. Streptococcus pneumoniae and Neisseria meningitidis are less likely causes given the prolonged presentation and HIV status. Toxoplasma gondii is a common cerebral infection in those with HIV but typically presents as abscess development and does not stain with India ink.

      Neurological complications are common in patients with HIV. Focal neurological lesions such as toxoplasmosis, primary CNS lymphoma, and tuberculosis can cause symptoms such as headache, confusion, and drowsiness. Toxoplasmosis is the most common cause of cerebral lesions in HIV patients and is treated with sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine. Primary CNS lymphoma, which is associated with the Epstein-Barr virus, is treated with steroids, chemotherapy, and whole brain irradiation. Differentiating between toxoplasmosis and lymphoma is important for proper treatment. Generalized neurological diseases such as encephalitis, cryptococcus, progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML), and AIDS dementia complex can also occur in HIV patients. Encephalitis may be due to CMV or HIV itself, while cryptococcus is the most common fungal infection of the CNS. PML is caused by infection of oligodendrocytes by JC virus, and AIDS dementia complex is caused by the HIV virus itself. Proper diagnosis and treatment of these neurological complications is crucial for improving outcomes in HIV patients.

      Neurological Complications in HIV Patients
      Introduction to the common neurological complications in HIV patients, including focal neurological lesions such as toxoplasmosis, primary CNS lymphoma, and tuberculosis.
      Details on the diagnosis and treatment of toxoplasmosis and primary CNS lymphoma, including the importance of differentiating between the two.
      Overview of generalized neurological diseases in HIV patients, including encephalitis, cryptococcus, PML, and AIDS dementia complex.
      Importance of proper diagnosis and treatment for improving outcomes in HIV patients with neurological complications.

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      • General Principles
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  • Question 20 - A 36-year-old man has contracted an RNA flavivirus due to his intravenous drug...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man has contracted an RNA flavivirus due to his intravenous drug use. He has been given a medication 'X' that is a guanine purine nucleoside analogue. This medication obstructs an enzyme in the de novo purine synthesis pathway, which impedes the capping of viral mRNA and its production.

      What is the probable identity of drug 'X'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ribavarin

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is Ribavirin, which is an antiviral drug that acts as a guanosine analogue. It inhibits the de-novo purine synthesis pathway by blocking inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase (IMP), leading to reduced viral replication and preventing the capping of viral mRNA. Ribavirin is commonly used to treat hepatitis C and respiratory syncytial virus (RSV).

      Nevirapine is an incorrect answer as it is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI) used to treat HIV, and it does not affect the de-novo purine synthesis pathway.

      Oseltamivir is also an incorrect answer as it is not a guanosine analogue. It is a neuraminidase inhibitor used to treat influenzae A and B.

      Remdesivir is another incorrect answer as it is an adenosine analogue that inhibits viral-RNA-dependent-RNA polymerase, leading to reduced viral RNA production. It was recently approved for use in treating specific cases of COVID-19.

      Antiviral agents are drugs used to treat viral infections. They work by targeting specific mechanisms of the virus, such as inhibiting viral DNA polymerase or neuraminidase. Some common antiviral agents include acyclovir, ganciclovir, ribavirin, amantadine, oseltamivir, foscarnet, interferon-α, and cidofovir. Each drug has its own mechanism of action and indications for use, but they all aim to reduce the severity and duration of viral infections.

      In addition to these antiviral agents, there are also specific drugs used to treat HIV, a retrovirus. Nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI), protease inhibitors (PI), and non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI) are all used to target different aspects of the HIV life cycle. NRTIs work by inhibiting the reverse transcriptase enzyme, which is needed for the virus to replicate. PIs inhibit a protease enzyme that is necessary for the virus to mature and become infectious. NNRTIs bind to and inhibit the reverse transcriptase enzyme, preventing the virus from replicating. These drugs are often used in combination to achieve the best possible outcomes for HIV patients.

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