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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance following a car accident where...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance following a car accident where her car was hit by a truck. She has sustained severe facial injuries and shows signs of airway obstruction. Her cervical spine is immobilized. The anesthesiologist has tried to intubate her but is unsuccessful and decides to perform a surgical cricothyroidotomy.

      Which of the following statements about surgical cricothyroidotomy is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is contraindicated in the presence of a laryngeal fracture

      Explanation:

      A surgical cricothyroidotomy is a procedure performed in emergency situations to secure the airway by making an incision in the cricothyroid membrane. It is also known as an emergency surgical airway (ESA) and is typically done when intubation and oxygenation are not possible.

      There are certain conditions in which a surgical cricothyroidotomy should not be performed. These include patients who are under 12 years old, those with laryngeal fractures or pre-existing or acute laryngeal pathology, individuals with tracheal transection and retraction of the trachea into the mediastinum, and cases where the anatomical landmarks are obscured due to trauma.

      The procedure is carried out in the following steps:
      1. Gathering and preparing the necessary equipment.
      2. Positioning the patient on their back with the neck in a neutral position.
      3. Sterilizing the patient’s neck using antiseptic swabs.
      4. Administering local anesthesia, if time permits.
      5. Locating the cricothyroid membrane, which is situated between the thyroid and cricoid cartilage.
      6. Stabilizing the trachea with the left hand until it can be intubated.
      7. Making a transverse incision through the cricothyroid membrane.
      8. Inserting the scalpel handle into the incision and rotating it 90°. Alternatively, a haemostat can be used to open the airway.
      9. Placing a properly-sized, cuffed endotracheal tube (usually a size 5 or 6) into the incision, directing it into the trachea.
      10. Inflating the cuff and providing ventilation.
      11. Monitoring for chest rise and auscultating the chest to ensure adequate ventilation.
      12. Securing the airway to prevent displacement.

      Potential complications of a surgical cricothyroidotomy include aspiration of blood, creation of a false passage into the tissues, subglottic stenosis or edema, laryngeal stenosis, hemorrhage or hematoma formation, laceration of the esophagus or trachea, mediastinal emphysema, and vocal cord paralysis or hoarseness.

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  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old woman comes to the emergency department after falling while drunk. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to the emergency department after falling while drunk. She has a 6.5 cm cut on the back of her head and says she feels a tingling sensation in the area of the cut. Which of the following structures provides sensory innervation to the back of the head?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C2 and C3 cervical nerves

      Explanation:

      The main sensory supply to the back of the scalp comes from the C2 and C3 cervical nerves. The scalp receives innervation from branches of both the trigeminal nerve and the cervical nerves, as depicted in the illustration in the notes. The C2 and C3 cervical nerves are primarily responsible for supplying sensation to the posterior scalp.

      Further Reading:

      The scalp is the area of the head that is bordered by the face in the front and the neck on the sides and back. It consists of several layers, including the skin, connective tissue, aponeurosis, loose connective tissue, and periosteum of the skull. These layers provide protection and support to the underlying structures of the head.

      The blood supply to the scalp primarily comes from branches of the external carotid artery and the ophthalmic artery, which is a branch of the internal carotid artery. These arteries provide oxygen and nutrients to the scalp tissues.

      The scalp also has a complex venous drainage system, which is divided into superficial and deep networks. The superficial veins correspond to the arterial branches and are responsible for draining blood from the scalp. The deep venous network is drained by the pterygoid venous plexus.

      In terms of innervation, the scalp receives sensory input from branches of the trigeminal nerve and the cervical nerves. These nerves transmit sensory information from the scalp to the brain, allowing us to perceive touch, pain, and temperature in this area.

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  • Question 3 - A 42-year-old male is brought into the ED by ambulance following a car...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old male is brought into the ED by ambulance following a car accident with suspected internal abdominal injury. Upon arrival in the ED, his blood pressure was recorded as 102/68 mmHg and his pulse rate was 114 bpm. Initial resuscitation measures have been initiated, and a fluid bolus of 500 ml of 0.9% saline has been administered. The patient's vital signs are reassessed after the bolus and are as follows:

      Blood pressure: 92/66 mmHg
      Pulse rate: 124 bpm
      Respiration rate: 29 bpm
      SpO2: 98% on 15 liters of oxygen
      Temperature: 36.1 ºC

      What percentage of the patient's circulating blood volume would you estimate has been lost?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 30-40%

      Explanation:

      Shock is a condition characterized by inadequate tissue perfusion due to circulatory insufficiency. It can be caused by fluid loss or redistribution, as well as impaired cardiac output. The main causes of shock include haemorrhage, diarrhoea and vomiting, burns, diuresis, sepsis, neurogenic shock, anaphylaxis, massive pulmonary embolism, tension pneumothorax, cardiac tamponade, myocardial infarction, and myocarditis.

      One common cause of shock is haemorrhage, which is frequently encountered in the emergency department. Haemorrhagic shock can be classified into different types based on the amount of blood loss. Type 1 haemorrhagic shock involves a blood loss of 15% or less, with less than 750 ml of blood loss. Patients with type 1 shock may have normal blood pressure and heart rate, with a respiratory rate of 12 to 20 breaths per minute.

      Type 2 haemorrhagic shock involves a blood loss of 15 to 30%, with 750 to 1500 ml of blood loss. Patients with type 2 shock may have a pulse rate of 100 to 120 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of 20 to 30 breaths per minute. Blood pressure is typically normal in type 2 shock.

      Type 3 haemorrhagic shock involves a blood loss of 30 to 40%, with 1.5 to 2 litres of blood loss. Patients with type 3 shock may have a pulse rate of 120 to 140 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of more than 30 breaths per minute. Urine output is decreased to 5-15 mls per hour.

      Type 4 haemorrhagic shock involves a blood loss of more than 40%, with more than 2 litres of blood loss. Patients with type 4 shock may have a pulse rate of more than 140 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of more than 35 breaths per minute. They may also be drowsy, confused, and possibly experience loss of consciousness. Urine output may be minimal or absent.

      In summary, shock is a condition characterized by inadequate tissue perfusion. Haemorrhage is a common cause of shock, and it can be classified into different types based on the amount of blood loss. Prompt recognition and management of shock are crucial in order to prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes

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  • Question 4 - A 15 year old is brought into the emergency department with burns to...

    Incorrect

    • A 15 year old is brought into the emergency department with burns to the feet which she sustained whilst removing an item from a lit bonfire. The patient's father is worried she has full thickness burns. Which of the following signs is indicative of a full thickness burn?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Painless

      Explanation:

      Full thickness burns are devoid of pain as they result in the complete destruction of the superficial nerve endings. These burns usually display characteristics such as a lack of sensation, a coloration of the burnt skin in shades of white, brown, or black, a texture that is waxy or leathery, and a dry appearance without any blistering.

      Further Reading:

      Burn injuries can be classified based on their type (degree, partial thickness or full thickness), extent as a percentage of total body surface area (TBSA), and severity (minor, moderate, major/severe). Severe burns are defined as a >10% TBSA in a child and >15% TBSA in an adult.

      When assessing a burn, it is important to consider airway injury, carbon monoxide poisoning, type of burn, extent of burn, special considerations, and fluid status. Special considerations may include head and neck burns, circumferential burns, thorax burns, electrical burns, hand burns, and burns to the genitalia.

      Airway management is a priority in burn injuries. Inhalation of hot particles can cause damage to the respiratory epithelium and lead to airway compromise. Signs of inhalation injury include visible burns or erythema to the face, soot around the nostrils and mouth, burnt/singed nasal hairs, hoarse voice, wheeze or stridor, swollen tissues in the mouth or nostrils, and tachypnea and tachycardia. Supplemental oxygen should be provided, and endotracheal intubation may be necessary if there is airway obstruction or impending obstruction.

      The initial management of a patient with burn injuries involves conserving body heat, covering burns with clean or sterile coverings, establishing IV access, providing pain relief, initiating fluid resuscitation, measuring urinary output with a catheter, maintaining nil by mouth status, closely monitoring vital signs and urine output, monitoring the airway, preparing for surgery if necessary, and administering medications.

      Burns can be classified based on the depth of injury, ranging from simple erythema to full thickness burns that penetrate into subcutaneous tissue. The extent of a burn can be estimated using methods such as the rule of nines or the Lund and Browder chart, which takes into account age-specific body proportions.

      Fluid management is crucial in burn injuries due to significant fluid losses. Evaporative fluid loss from burnt skin and increased permeability of blood vessels can lead to reduced intravascular volume and tissue perfusion. Fluid resuscitation should be aggressive in severe burns, while burns <15% in adults and <10% in children may not require immediate fluid resuscitation. The Parkland formula can be used to calculate the intravenous fluid requirements for someone with a significant burn injury.

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  • Question 5 - A 52-year-old individual is brought to the emergency room after a car accident....

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old individual is brought to the emergency room after a car accident. They present with a fracture in the middle of their left femur and complain of abdominal pain. The patient appears restless. The following are their vital signs:

      Blood pressure: 112/94 mmHg
      Pulse rate: 102 bpm
      Respiration rate: 21 rpm
      SpO2: 97% on room air
      Temperature: 36 ºC

      Considering the possibility of significant blood loss, what grade of hypovolemic shock would you assign to this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Grade 2

      Explanation:

      Grade 2 shock is characterized by a pulse rate of 100 to 120 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of 20 to 30 breaths per minute. These clinical features align with the symptoms of grade 2 hypovolemic shock, as indicated in the below notes.

      Further Reading:

      Shock is a condition characterized by inadequate tissue perfusion due to circulatory insufficiency. It can be caused by fluid loss or redistribution, as well as impaired cardiac output. The main causes of shock include haemorrhage, diarrhoea and vomiting, burns, diuresis, sepsis, neurogenic shock, anaphylaxis, massive pulmonary embolism, tension pneumothorax, cardiac tamponade, myocardial infarction, and myocarditis.

      One common cause of shock is haemorrhage, which is frequently encountered in the emergency department. Haemorrhagic shock can be classified into different types based on the amount of blood loss. Type 1 haemorrhagic shock involves a blood loss of 15% or less, with less than 750 ml of blood loss. Patients with type 1 shock may have normal blood pressure and heart rate, with a respiratory rate of 12 to 20 breaths per minute.

      Type 2 haemorrhagic shock involves a blood loss of 15 to 30%, with 750 to 1500 ml of blood loss. Patients with type 2 shock may have a pulse rate of 100 to 120 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of 20 to 30 breaths per minute. Blood pressure is typically normal in type 2 shock.

      Type 3 haemorrhagic shock involves a blood loss of 30 to 40%, with 1.5 to 2 litres of blood loss. Patients with type 3 shock may have a pulse rate of 120 to 140 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of more than 30 breaths per minute. Urine output is decreased to 5-15 mls per hour.

      Type 4 haemorrhagic shock involves a blood loss of more than 40%, with more than 2 litres of blood loss. Patients with type 4 shock may have a pulse rate of more than 140 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of more than 35 breaths per minute. They may also be drowsy, confused, and possibly experience loss of consciousness. Urine output may be minimal or absent.

      In summary, shock is a condition characterized by inadequate tissue perfusion. Haemorrhage is a common cause of shock, and it can be classified into different types based on the amount of blood loss. Prompt recognition and management of shock are crucial in order to prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes

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  • Question 6 - You are evaluating a 25-year-old patient who has arrived at the emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 25-year-old patient who has arrived at the emergency department by ambulance following a fall from a second-floor balcony. The patient reports experiencing upper abdominal discomfort, which raises concerns about potential hepatic and splenic injuries. In the trauma setting, which imaging modality would be considered the gold standard for assessing these organs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Computerised tomography

      Explanation:

      CT scan is considered the most reliable imaging technique for diagnosing intra-abdominal conditions. It is also considered the gold standard for evaluating organ damage. However, it is crucial to carefully consider the specific circumstances before using CT scan, as it may not be suitable for unstable patients or those who clearly require immediate surgical intervention. In such cases, other methods like FAST can be used to detect fluid in the abdominal cavity, although it is not as accurate in assessing injuries to solid organs or hollow structures within the abdomen.

      Further Reading:

      Abdominal trauma can be classified into two categories: blunt trauma and penetrating trauma. Blunt trauma occurs when compressive or deceleration forces are applied to the abdomen, often resulting from road traffic accidents or direct blows during sports. The spleen and liver are the organs most commonly injured in blunt abdominal trauma. On the other hand, penetrating trauma involves injuries that pierce the skin and enter the abdominal cavity, such as stabbings, gunshot wounds, or industrial accidents. The bowel and liver are the organs most commonly affected in penetrating injuries.

      When it comes to imaging in blunt abdominal trauma, there are three main modalities that are commonly used: focused assessment with sonography in trauma (FAST), diagnostic peritoneal lavage (DPL), and computed tomography (CT). FAST is a non-invasive and quick method used to detect free intraperitoneal fluid, aiding in the decision on whether a laparotomy is needed. DPL is also used to detect intraperitoneal blood and can be used in both unstable blunt abdominal trauma and penetrating abdominal trauma. However, it is more invasive and time-consuming compared to FAST and has largely been replaced by it. CT, on the other hand, is the gold standard for diagnosing intra-abdominal pathology and is used in stable abdominal trauma patients. It offers high sensitivity and specificity but requires a stable and cooperative patient. It also involves radiation and may have delays in availability.

      In the case of penetrating trauma, it is important to assess these injuries with the help of a surgical team. Penetrating objects should not be removed in the emergency department as they may be tamponading underlying vessels. Ideally, these injuries should be explored in the operating theater.

      In summary, abdominal trauma can be classified into blunt trauma and penetrating trauma. Blunt trauma is caused by compressive or deceleration forces and commonly affects the spleen and liver. Penetrating trauma involves injuries that pierce the skin and commonly affect the bowel and liver. Imaging modalities such as FAST, DPL, and CT are used to assess and diagnose abdominal trauma, with CT being the gold standard. Penetrating injuries should be assessed by a surgical team and should ideally be explored in the operating theater.

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  • Question 7 - A 37 year old male is brought into the emergency department with severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 37 year old male is brought into the emergency department with severe chest injuries following a car accident. FAST scanning shows the presence of around 100 ml of fluid in the pericardium. The patient's blood pressure is 118/78 mmHg and pulse rate is 92. What is the recommended course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transfer to theatre for thoracotomy

      Explanation:

      For individuals with traumatic cardiac tamponade, thoracotomy is the recommended treatment. In the case of a trauma patient with a significant buildup of fluid around the heart and the potential for tamponade, it is advised to transfer stable patients to the operating room for thoracotomy instead of performing pericardiocentesis. Pericardiocentesis, when done correctly, is likely to be unsuccessful due to the presence of clotted blood in the pericardium. Additionally, performing pericardiocentesis would cause a delay in the thoracotomy procedure. If access to the operating room is not possible, pericardiocentesis may be considered as a temporary solution.

      Further Reading:

      Cardiac tamponade, also known as pericardial tamponade, occurs when fluid accumulates in the pericardial sac and compresses the heart, leading to compromised blood flow. Classic clinical signs of cardiac tamponade include distended neck veins, hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and pulseless electrical activity (PEA). Diagnosis is typically done through a FAST scan or an echocardiogram.

      Management of cardiac tamponade involves assessing for other injuries, administering IV fluids to reduce preload, performing pericardiocentesis (inserting a needle into the pericardial cavity to drain fluid), and potentially performing a thoracotomy. It is important to note that untreated expanding cardiac tamponade can progress to PEA cardiac arrest.

      Pericardiocentesis can be done using the subxiphoid approach or by inserting a needle between the 5th and 6th intercostal spaces at the left sternal border. Echo guidance is the gold standard for pericardiocentesis, but it may not be available in a resuscitation situation. Complications of pericardiocentesis include ST elevation or ventricular ectopics, myocardial perforation, bleeding, pneumothorax, arrhythmia, acute pulmonary edema, and acute ventricular dilatation.

      It is important to note that pericardiocentesis is typically used as a temporary measure until a thoracotomy can be performed. Recent articles published on the RCEM learning platform suggest that pericardiocentesis has a low success rate and may delay thoracotomy, so it is advised against unless there are no other options available.

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  • Question 8 - You are caring for a polytrauma patient with a penetrating chest injury. The...

    Incorrect

    • You are caring for a polytrauma patient with a penetrating chest injury. The FAST scan shows cardiac tamponade. If left untreated, expanding cardiac tamponade can lead to which of the following arrhythmias?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pulseless electrical activity

      Explanation:

      If a polytrauma patient with a penetrating chest injury has an expanding cardiac tamponade that is left untreated, it can potentially lead to pulseless electrical activity.

      Further Reading:

      Cardiac tamponade, also known as pericardial tamponade, occurs when fluid accumulates in the pericardial sac and compresses the heart, leading to compromised blood flow. Classic clinical signs of cardiac tamponade include distended neck veins, hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and pulseless electrical activity (PEA). Diagnosis is typically done through a FAST scan or an echocardiogram.

      Management of cardiac tamponade involves assessing for other injuries, administering IV fluids to reduce preload, performing pericardiocentesis (inserting a needle into the pericardial cavity to drain fluid), and potentially performing a thoracotomy. It is important to note that untreated expanding cardiac tamponade can progress to PEA cardiac arrest.

      Pericardiocentesis can be done using the subxiphoid approach or by inserting a needle between the 5th and 6th intercostal spaces at the left sternal border. Echo guidance is the gold standard for pericardiocentesis, but it may not be available in a resuscitation situation. Complications of pericardiocentesis include ST elevation or ventricular ectopics, myocardial perforation, bleeding, pneumothorax, arrhythmia, acute pulmonary edema, and acute ventricular dilatation.

      It is important to note that pericardiocentesis is typically used as a temporary measure until a thoracotomy can be performed. Recent articles published on the RCEM learning platform suggest that pericardiocentesis has a low success rate and may delay thoracotomy, so it is advised against unless there are no other options available.

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  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old woman is involved in a car accident. Her observations are taken...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is involved in a car accident. Her observations are taken one hour after arriving at the Emergency Department. Her pulse rate is 88 bpm, BP is 130/50 mmHg, respiratory rate 16 breaths/minute, and her urine output over the past hour has been 40 ml. She has some bruising evident on her arm and is slightly nervous. The patient weighs approximately 65 kg.
      How would you classify her haemorrhage according to the ATLS haemorrhagic shock classification?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Class I

      Explanation:

      This patient’s physiological parameters are mostly within normal range, but there is an increased pulse pressure and slight anxiety, suggesting a class I haemorrhage. It is crucial to be able to identify the degree of blood loss based on vital signs and mental status changes. The Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) classification for haemorrhagic shock correlates the amount of blood loss with expected physiological responses in a healthy 70 kg individual. In a 70 kg male patient, the total circulating blood volume is approximately five litres, which accounts for about 7% of their total body weight.

      The ATLS haemorrhagic shock classification is as follows:

      CLASS I:
      – Blood loss: Up to 750 mL
      – Blood loss (% blood volume): Up to 15%
      – Pulse rate: Less than 100 bpm
      – Systolic BP: Normal
      – Pulse pressure: Normal (or increased)
      – Respiratory rate: 14-20 breaths per minute
      – Urine output: Greater than 30 ml/hr
      – CNS/mental status: Slightly anxious

      CLASS II:
      – Blood loss: 750-1500 mL
      – Blood loss (% blood volume): 15-30%
      – Pulse rate: 100-120 bpm
      – Systolic BP: Normal
      – Pulse pressure: Decreased
      – Respiratory rate: 20-30 breaths per minute
      – Urine output: 20-30 ml/hr
      – CNS/mental status: Mildly anxious

      CLASS III:
      – Blood loss: 1500-2000 mL
      – Blood loss (% blood volume): 30-40%
      – Pulse rate: 120-140 bpm
      – Systolic BP: Decreased
      – Pulse pressure: Decreased
      – Respiratory rate: 30-40 breaths per minute
      – Urine output: 5-15 ml/hr
      – CNS/mental status: Anxious, confused

      CLASS IV:
      – Blood loss: More than 2000 mL
      – Blood loss (% blood volume): More than 40%
      – Pulse rate: Greater than 140 bpm
      – Systolic BP: Decreased
      – Pulse pressure: Decreased
      – Respiratory rate: More than 40 breaths per minute
      – Urine output: Negligible
      – CNS/mental status: Confused, lethargic

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  • Question 10 - A 42-year-old woman was involved in a car accident where her car collided...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman was involved in a car accident where her car collided with a tree at high speed. She was not wearing a seatbelt and was thrown forward onto the steering wheel of her car. She has severe bruising over her anterior chest wall and is experiencing chest pain. A chest X-ray reveals a significantly widened mediastinum, deviation of the trachea to the left, and fractures of the third and fourth ribs. Her vital signs are HR 88, BP 130/78, SaO2 98% on high flow oxygen.

      At which anatomical site is an injury MOST likely to have occurred in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Near the ligamentum arteriosum

      Explanation:

      Traumatic aortic rupture is a relatively common cause of sudden death following major trauma, especially high-speed road traffic accidents (RTAs). It is estimated that 15-20% of deaths from RTAs are due to this injury. If the aortic rupture is promptly recognized and treated, patients who survive the initial injury can fully recover.

      Surviving patients often have an incomplete laceration near the ligamentum arteriosum of the aorta. The continuity is maintained by either an intact adventitial layer or a contained mediastinal hematoma, which prevents immediate exsanguination and death.

      Detecting traumatic aortic rupture can be challenging as many patients do not exhibit specific symptoms, and other injuries may also be present, making the diagnosis unclear.

      Chest X-ray findings can aid in the diagnosis and include fractures of the 1st and 2nd ribs, a grossly widened mediastinum, a hazy left lung field, obliteration of the aortic knob, deviation of the trachea to the right, presence of a pleural cap, elevation and rightward shift of the right mainstem bronchus, depression of the left mainstem bronchus, obliteration of the space between the pulmonary artery and aorta, and deviation of the esophagus (or NG tube) to the right.

      Helical contrast-enhanced CT scanning is highly sensitive and specific for detecting aortic rupture, but it should only be performed on hemodynamically stable patients.

      Treatment options include primary repair or resection of the torn segment with replacement using an interposition graft. Endovascular repair is also now considered an acceptable alternative approach.

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  • Question 11 - A 32-year-old construction worker is brought into the emergency department with burns to...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old construction worker is brought into the emergency department with burns to the right forearm. The patient explains that he was smoking a cigarette while driving back from work when the cigarette accidentally fell onto his arm, igniting his sleeve which might have been soaked in gasoline from work. You observe circumferential burns encompassing the entire right forearm. What would be your primary concern regarding potential complications?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Compartment syndrome

      Explanation:

      Compartment syndrome can occur when there are circumferential burns on the arms or legs. This typically happens with full thickness burns, where the burnt skin becomes stiff and compresses the compartment, making it difficult for blood to flow out. To treat this condition, escharotomy and possibly fasciotomy may be necessary.

      Further Reading:

      Burn injuries can be classified based on their type (degree, partial thickness or full thickness), extent as a percentage of total body surface area (TBSA), and severity (minor, moderate, major/severe). Severe burns are defined as a >10% TBSA in a child and >15% TBSA in an adult.

      When assessing a burn, it is important to consider airway injury, carbon monoxide poisoning, type of burn, extent of burn, special considerations, and fluid status. Special considerations may include head and neck burns, circumferential burns, thorax burns, electrical burns, hand burns, and burns to the genitalia.

      Airway management is a priority in burn injuries. Inhalation of hot particles can cause damage to the respiratory epithelium and lead to airway compromise. Signs of inhalation injury include visible burns or erythema to the face, soot around the nostrils and mouth, burnt/singed nasal hairs, hoarse voice, wheeze or stridor, swollen tissues in the mouth or nostrils, and tachypnea and tachycardia. Supplemental oxygen should be provided, and endotracheal intubation may be necessary if there is airway obstruction or impending obstruction.

      The initial management of a patient with burn injuries involves conserving body heat, covering burns with clean or sterile coverings, establishing IV access, providing pain relief, initiating fluid resuscitation, measuring urinary output with a catheter, maintaining nil by mouth status, closely monitoring vital signs and urine output, monitoring the airway, preparing for surgery if necessary, and administering medications.

      Burns can be classified based on the depth of injury, ranging from simple erythema to full thickness burns that penetrate into subcutaneous tissue. The extent of a burn can be estimated using methods such as the rule of nines or the Lund and Browder chart, which takes into account age-specific body proportions.

      Fluid management is crucial in burn injuries due to significant fluid losses. Evaporative fluid loss from burnt skin and increased permeability of blood vessels can lead to reduced intravascular volume and tissue perfusion. Fluid resuscitation should be aggressive in severe burns, while burns <15% in adults and <10% in children may not require immediate fluid resuscitation. The Parkland formula can be used to calculate the intravenous fluid requirements for someone with a significant burn injury.

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  • Question 12 - A 35 year old male presents to the emergency department after twisting his...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old male presents to the emergency department after twisting his right ankle while playing basketball. He reports pain on the outer side of his ankle and foot, and experiences discomfort when putting weight on it.

      After conducting a physical examination, the healthcare provider decides to order ankle and foot X-rays based on the Ottawa foot & ankle rules. According to these guidelines, which of the following scenarios would warrant a foot X-ray?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tenderness over navicular

      Explanation:

      An X-ray of the foot is recommended when there is pain in the base of the fifth metatarsal or the navicular bone, as well as an inability to bear weight immediately after an injury or in the emergency department. The Ottawa ankle rules can also be used to determine if an X-ray is necessary for ankle injuries. These rules focus on two specific areas (the malleolar and midfoot zones) to determine if an X-ray of the ankle or foot is needed. More information on these rules can be found in the notes below.

      Further Reading:

      Ankle fractures are traumatic lower limb and joint injuries that involve the articulation between the tibia, fibula, and talus bones. The ankle joint allows for plantar and dorsiflexion of the foot. The key bony prominences of the ankle are called malleoli, with the medial and posterior malleolus being prominences of the distal tibia and the lateral malleolus being a prominence of the distal fibula. The distal fibula and tibia are joined together by the distal tibiofibular joint or syndesmosis, which is comprised of three key ligaments. An ankle X-ray series is often used to guide clinical decision making in patients with ankle injuries, using the Ottawa ankle rules to determine if an X-ray is necessary. Ankle fractures are commonly described by the anatomical fracture pattern seen on X-ray relative to the malleoli involved, such as isolated malleolus fractures, bimalleolar fractures, and trimalleolar fractures. The Weber classification is a commonly used system for distal fibula fractures, categorizing them as Weber A, B, or C based on the level and extent of the fracture.

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  • Question 13 - A 35 year old female presents to the emergency department following a motor...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old female presents to the emergency department following a motor vehicle collision. Which system should be utilized to evaluate the potential for cervical spine injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Canadian C-spine rules

      Explanation:

      When a 35-year-old female comes to the emergency department after a motor vehicle collision, it is important to assess the potential for cervical spine injury. To do this, the Canadian C-spine rules should be utilized. These rules provide a systematic approach to determine whether imaging, such as X-rays, is necessary to evaluate the cervical spine. The Canadian C-spine rules take into account various factors such as the patient’s age, mechanism of injury, and presence of certain symptoms or physical findings. By following these rules, healthcare professionals can effectively evaluate the potential for cervical spine injury and determine the appropriate course of action for further assessment and management.

      Further Reading:

      When assessing for cervical spine injury, it is recommended to use the Canadian C-spine rules. These rules help determine the risk level for a potential injury. High-risk factors include being over the age of 65, experiencing a dangerous mechanism of injury (such as a fall from a height or a high-speed motor vehicle collision), or having paraesthesia in the upper or lower limbs. Low-risk factors include being involved in a minor rear-end motor vehicle collision, being comfortable in a sitting position, being ambulatory since the injury, having no midline cervical spine tenderness, or experiencing a delayed onset of neck pain. If a person is unable to actively rotate their neck 45 degrees to the left and right, their risk level is considered low. If they have one of the low-risk factors and can actively rotate their neck, their risk level remains low.

      If a high-risk factor is identified or if a low-risk factor is identified and the person is unable to actively rotate their neck, full in-line spinal immobilization should be maintained and imaging should be requested. Additionally, if a patient has risk factors for thoracic or lumbar spine injury, imaging should be requested. However, if a patient has low-risk factors for cervical spine injury, is pain-free, and can actively rotate their neck, full in-line spinal immobilization and imaging are not necessary.

      NICE recommends CT as the primary imaging modality for cervical spine injury in adults aged 16 and older, while MRI is recommended as the primary imaging modality for children under 16.

      Different mechanisms of spinal trauma can cause injury to the spine in predictable ways. The majority of cervical spine injuries are caused by flexion combined with rotation. Hyperflexion can result in compression of the anterior aspects of the vertebral bodies, stretching and tearing of the posterior ligament complex, chance fractures (also known as seatbelt fractures), flexion teardrop fractures, and odontoid peg fractures. Flexion and rotation can lead to disruption of the posterior ligament complex and posterior column, fractures of facet joints, lamina, transverse processes, and vertebral bodies, and avulsion of spinous processes. Hyperextension can cause injury to the anterior column, anterior fractures of the vertebral body, and potential retropulsion of bony fragments or discs into the spinal canal. Rotation can result in injury to the posterior ligament complex and facet joint dislocation.

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  • Question 14 - A 45-year-old presents to the emergency department following a seemingly minor rear-end car...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old presents to the emergency department following a seemingly minor rear-end car accident. There are no reported sensory deficits. What clinical finding would indicate the need for radiological evaluation of the cervical spine in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patient unable to actively rotate their neck 45 degrees to the left and right

      Explanation:

      The ability to rotate the neck actively by 45 degrees to the left and right is a crucial distinction between the ‘no risk’ and ‘low risk’ categories when applying the Canadian C-spine rules. In this case, the patient does not exhibit any high-risk factors for cervical spine injury according to the Canadian C-spine rule. However, they do have a low-risk factor due to their involvement in a minor rear-end motor collision. If a patient with a low-risk factor is unable to actively rotate their neck by 45 degrees in either direction, they should undergo imaging. It is important to note that while the patient’s use of anticoagulation medication may affect the need for brain imaging, it typically does not impact the decision to perform a CT scan of the cervical spine.

      Further Reading:

      When assessing for cervical spine injury, it is recommended to use the Canadian C-spine rules. These rules help determine the risk level for a potential injury. High-risk factors include being over the age of 65, experiencing a dangerous mechanism of injury (such as a fall from a height or a high-speed motor vehicle collision), or having paraesthesia in the upper or lower limbs. Low-risk factors include being involved in a minor rear-end motor vehicle collision, being comfortable in a sitting position, being ambulatory since the injury, having no midline cervical spine tenderness, or experiencing a delayed onset of neck pain. If a person is unable to actively rotate their neck 45 degrees to the left and right, their risk level is considered low. If they have one of the low-risk factors and can actively rotate their neck, their risk level remains low.

      If a high-risk factor is identified or if a low-risk factor is identified and the person is unable to actively rotate their neck, full in-line spinal immobilization should be maintained and imaging should be requested. Additionally, if a patient has risk factors for thoracic or lumbar spine injury, imaging should be requested. However, if a patient has low-risk factors for cervical spine injury, is pain-free, and can actively rotate their neck, full in-line spinal immobilization and imaging are not necessary.

      NICE recommends CT as the primary imaging modality for cervical spine injury in adults aged 16 and older, while MRI is recommended as the primary imaging modality for children under 16.

      Different mechanisms of spinal trauma can cause injury to the spine in predictable ways. The majority of cervical spine injuries are caused by flexion combined with rotation. Hyperflexion can result in compression of the anterior aspects of the vertebral bodies, stretching and tearing of the posterior ligament complex, chance fractures (also known as seatbelt fractures), flexion teardrop fractures, and odontoid peg fractures. Flexion and rotation can lead to disruption of the posterior ligament complex and posterior column, fractures of facet joints, lamina, transverse processes, and vertebral bodies, and avulsion of spinous processes. Hyperextension can cause injury to the anterior column, anterior fractures of the vertebral body, and potential retropulsion of bony fragments or discs into the spinal canal. Rotation can result in injury to the posterior ligament complex and facet joint dislocation.

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  • Question 15 - A 42-year-old woman was involved in a car accident where her vehicle collided...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman was involved in a car accident where her vehicle collided with a wall at a high speed. She was not wearing a seatbelt and was thrown forward onto the steering wheel. She is experiencing severe bruising on her anterior chest wall and is complaining of chest pain. A chest X-ray reveals a significantly widened mediastinum, tracheal deviation to the right, and fractures of the first and second ribs. Her vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 94, blood pressure of 128/73, and oxygen saturation of 99% on high flow oxygen.

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Traumatic aortic rupture

      Explanation:

      Traumatic aortic rupture is a relatively common cause of sudden death following major trauma, especially high-speed road traffic accidents (RTAs). It is estimated that 15-20% of deaths from RTAs are due to this injury. If the aortic rupture is promptly recognized and treated, patients who survive the initial injury can fully recover.

      Surviving patients often have an incomplete laceration near the ligamentum arteriosum of the aorta. The continuity is maintained by either an intact adventitial layer or a contained mediastinal hematoma, which prevents immediate exsanguination and death.

      Detecting traumatic aortic rupture can be challenging as many patients do not exhibit specific symptoms, and other injuries may also be present, making the diagnosis unclear.

      Chest X-ray findings can aid in the diagnosis and include fractures of the 1st and 2nd ribs, a grossly widened mediastinum, a hazy left lung field, obliteration of the aortic knob, deviation of the trachea to the right, presence of a pleural cap, elevation and rightward shift of the right mainstem bronchus, depression of the left mainstem bronchus, obliteration of the space between the pulmonary artery and aorta, and deviation of the esophagus (or NG tube) to the right.

      Helical contrast-enhanced CT scanning is highly sensitive and specific for detecting aortic rupture, but it should only be performed on hemodynamically stable patients.

      Treatment options include primary repair or resection of the torn segment with replacement using an interposition graft. Endovascular repair is also now considered an acceptable alternative approach.

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  • Question 16 - A 7-year-old girl is brought into the resus room after a car accident....

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl is brought into the resus room after a car accident. She is struggling to breathe, and you cannot hear any breath sounds on the right side. Her trachea is shifted to the left, and her neck veins are swollen. Based on your clinical assessment, you diagnose her with a tension pneumothorax and decide to perform a needle thoracocentesis.
      Where should you perform the needle thoracocentesis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2nd intercostal space midclavicular line

      Explanation:

      A tension pneumothorax occurs when there is an air leak from the lung or chest wall that acts like a one-way valve. This causes air to build up in the pleural space without any way to escape. As a result, pressure in the pleural space increases and pushes the mediastinum into the opposite hemithorax. If left untreated, this can lead to cardiovascular instability, shock, and cardiac arrest.

      The clinical features of tension pneumothorax include respiratory distress and cardiovascular instability. Tracheal deviation away from the side of the injury, unilateral absence of breath sounds on the affected side, and a hyper-resonant percussion note are also characteristic. Other signs include distended neck veins and cyanosis, which is a late sign. It’s important to note that both tension pneumothorax and massive haemothorax can cause decreased breath sounds on auscultation. However, percussion can help differentiate between the two conditions. Hyper-resonance suggests tension pneumothorax, while dullness suggests a massive haemothorax.

      Tension pneumothorax is a clinical diagnosis and should not be delayed for radiological confirmation. Requesting a chest X-ray in this situation can delay treatment and put the patient at risk. Immediate decompression through needle thoracocentesis is the recommended treatment. Traditionally, a large-bore needle or cannula is inserted into the 2nd intercostal space in the midclavicular line of the affected hemithorax. However, studies on cadavers have shown better success in reaching the thoracic cavity when the 4th or 5th intercostal space in the midaxillary line is used in adult patients. ATLS now recommends this location for needle decompression in adults. The site for needle thoracocentesis in children remains the same, using the 2nd intercostal space in the midclavicular line. It’s important to remember that needle thoracocentesis is a temporary measure, and the insertion of a chest drain is the definitive treatment.

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  • Question 17 - You are summoned to a cardiac arrest in the resuscitation area of your...

    Incorrect

    • You are summoned to a cardiac arrest in the resuscitation area of your Emergency Department. As part of your treatment, a dose of adrenaline is given.
      Which of the following is NOT a beta-adrenergic effect of adrenaline?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Systemic vasoconstriction

      Explanation:

      The effects of adrenaline on alpha-adrenergic receptors result in the narrowing of blood vessels throughout the body, leading to increased pressure in the coronary and cerebral arteries. On the other hand, the effects of adrenaline on beta-adrenergic receptors enhance the strength of the heart’s contractions and increase the heart rate, which can potentially improve blood flow to the coronary and cerebral arteries. However, it is important to note that these positive effects may be counteracted by the simultaneous increase in oxygen consumption by the heart, the occurrence of abnormal heart rhythms, reduced oxygen levels due to abnormal blood flow patterns, impaired small blood vessel function, and worsened heart function following a cardiac arrest.

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  • Question 18 - A 14-year-old girl was cycling down a hill when a car backed up...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl was cycling down a hill when a car backed up in front of her, resulting in a collision. She visits the emergency department, reporting upper abdominal pain caused by the handlebars. You determine that a FAST scan is necessary. What is the main objective of performing a FAST scan for blunt abdominal trauma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Detect the presence of intraperitoneal fluid

      Explanation:

      The primary goal of performing a FAST scan in cases of blunt abdominal trauma is to identify the existence of intraperitoneal fluid. According to the Royal College of Emergency Medicine (RCEM), the purpose of using ultrasound in the initial evaluation of abdominal trauma is specifically to confirm the presence of fluid within the peritoneal cavity, with the assumption that it is blood. However, it is important to note that ultrasound is not reliable for diagnosing injuries to solid organs or hollow viscus.

      Further Reading:

      Abdominal trauma can be classified into two categories: blunt trauma and penetrating trauma. Blunt trauma occurs when compressive or deceleration forces are applied to the abdomen, often resulting from road traffic accidents or direct blows during sports. The spleen and liver are the organs most commonly injured in blunt abdominal trauma. On the other hand, penetrating trauma involves injuries that pierce the skin and enter the abdominal cavity, such as stabbings, gunshot wounds, or industrial accidents. The bowel and liver are the organs most commonly affected in penetrating injuries.

      When it comes to imaging in blunt abdominal trauma, there are three main modalities that are commonly used: focused assessment with sonography in trauma (FAST), diagnostic peritoneal lavage (DPL), and computed tomography (CT). FAST is a non-invasive and quick method used to detect free intraperitoneal fluid, aiding in the decision on whether a laparotomy is needed. DPL is also used to detect intraperitoneal blood and can be used in both unstable blunt abdominal trauma and penetrating abdominal trauma. However, it is more invasive and time-consuming compared to FAST and has largely been replaced by it. CT, on the other hand, is the gold standard for diagnosing intra-abdominal pathology and is used in stable abdominal trauma patients. It offers high sensitivity and specificity but requires a stable and cooperative patient. It also involves radiation and may have delays in availability.

      In the case of penetrating trauma, it is important to assess these injuries with the help of a surgical team. Penetrating objects should not be removed in the emergency department as they may be tamponading underlying vessels. Ideally, these injuries should be explored in the operating theater.

      In summary, abdominal trauma can be classified into blunt trauma and penetrating trauma. Blunt trauma is caused by compressive or deceleration forces and commonly affects the spleen and liver. Penetrating trauma involves injuries that pierce the skin and commonly affect the bowel and liver. Imaging modalities such as FAST, DPL, and CT are used to assess and diagnose abdominal trauma, with CT being the gold standard. Penetrating injuries should be assessed by a surgical team and should ideally be explored in the operating theater.

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  • Question 19 - A 35-year-old man is brought into resus by blue light ambulance. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man is brought into resus by blue light ambulance. He has been involved in a car accident and has suffered severe injuries. You assess his airway and are concerned about the potential for airway obstruction.
      What is the primary risk factor for airway obstruction in a patient with severe injuries?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A carboxyhaemoglobin level of 15%

      Explanation:

      Early assessment of the airway is a critical aspect of managing a patient who has suffered burns. Airway blockage can occur rapidly due to direct injury, such as inhalation injury, or as a result of swelling caused by the burn. If there is a history of trauma, the airway should be evaluated and treated while maintaining control of the cervical spine.

      Signs of airway obstruction may not be immediately apparent, as swelling typically does not occur right away. Children with thermal burns are at a higher risk of airway obstruction compared to adults due to their smaller airway size, so they require careful observation.

      There are several risk factors for airway obstruction in burned patients, including inhalation injury, the presence of soot in the mouth or nostrils, singed nasal hairs, burns to the head, face, or neck, burns inside the mouth, a large burn area with increasing depth, and associated trauma. A carboxyhemoglobin level above 10% is also suggestive of an inhalation injury.

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  • Question 20 - A 42-year-old man was involved in a car accident where his vehicle collided...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man was involved in a car accident where his vehicle collided with a wall. He was rescued at the scene and has been brought to the hospital by ambulance. He is currently wearing a cervical immobilization device. He is experiencing chest pain on the left side and difficulty breathing. As the leader of the trauma response team, his vital signs are as follows: heart rate 110, blood pressure 102/63, oxygen saturation 90% on room air. His Glasgow Coma Scale score is 15 out of 15. Upon examination, he has extensive bruising on the left side of his chest, reduced chest expansion, dullness to percussion, and decreased breath sounds throughout the entire left side of his chest. He is receiving high-flow oxygen and a blood transfusion of his specific blood type has been initiated.

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chest drain insertion

      Explanation:

      A massive haemothorax occurs when more than 1500 mL of blood, which is about 1/3 of the patient’s blood volume, rapidly accumulates in the chest cavity. The classic signs of a massive haemothorax include decreased chest expansion, decreased breath sounds, and dullness to percussion. Both tension pneumothorax and massive haemothorax can cause decreased breath sounds, but they can be differentiated through percussion. Hyperresonance indicates tension pneumothorax, while dullness suggests a massive haemothorax.

      The first step in managing a massive haemothorax is to simultaneously restore blood volume and decompress the chest cavity by inserting a chest drain. In most cases, the bleeding in a haemothorax has already stopped by the time management begins, and simple drainage is sufficient. It is important to use a chest drain of adequate size (preferably 36F) to ensure effective drainage of the haemothorax without clotting.

      If 1500 mL of blood is immediately drained or if the rate of ongoing blood loss exceeds 200 mL per hour for 2-4 hours, early thoracotomy should be considered.

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  • Question 21 - The FY1 doctor seeks your guidance concerning an elderly patient they are managing...

    Incorrect

    • The FY1 doctor seeks your guidance concerning an elderly patient they are managing who has experienced a head injury. They are uncertain whether they should request a CT head scan for their patient. Which of the following is NOT among the clinical criteria for an urgent CT head scan in an elderly individual?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 episode of vomiting

      Explanation:

      If an adult with a head injury experiences more than one episode of vomiting, it is recommended to undergo a CT scan of the head. There are several criteria for an urgent CT scan in individuals with a head injury, including a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of less than 13 on initial assessment in the emergency department (ED), a GCS score of less than 15 at 2 hours after the injury on assessment in the ED, suspected open or depressed skull fracture, any sign of basal skull fracture (such as haemotympanum, ‘panda’ eyes, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ear or nose, or Battle’s sign), post-traumatic seizure, new focal neurological deficit, and being on anticoagulation medication. If any of these signs are present, a CT scan should be performed within 1 hour, except for patients on anticoagulation medication who should undergo a CT scan within 8 hours if none of the other signs are present. However, if a patient on anticoagulation medication has any of the other signs, the CT scan should be performed within 1 hour.

      Further Reading:

      Indications for CT Scanning in Head Injuries (Adults):
      – CT head scan should be performed within 1 hour if any of the following features are present:
      – GCS < 13 on initial assessment in the ED
      – GCS < 15 at 2 hours after the injury on assessment in the ED
      – Suspected open or depressed skull fracture
      – Any sign of basal skull fracture (haemotympanum, ‘panda’ eyes, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ear or nose, Battle’s sign)
      – Post-traumatic seizure
      – New focal neurological deficit
      – > 1 episode of vomiting

      Indications for CT Scanning in Head Injuries (Children):
      – CT head scan should be performed within 1 hour if any of the features in List 1 are present:
      – Suspicion of non-accidental injury
      – Post-traumatic seizure but no history of epilepsy
      – GCS < 14 on initial assessment in the ED for children more than 1 year of age
      – Paediatric GCS < 15 on initial assessment in the ED for children under 1 year of age
      – At 2 hours after the injury, GCS < 15
      – Suspected open or depressed skull fracture or tense fontanelle
      – Any sign of basal skull fracture (haemotympanum, ‘panda’ eyes, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ear or nose, Battle’s sign)
      – New focal neurological deficit
      – For children under 1 year, presence of bruise, swelling or laceration of more than 5 cm on the head

      – CT head scan should be performed within 1 hour if none of the above features are present but two or more of the features in List 2 are present:
      – Loss of consciousness lasting more than 5 minutes (witnessed)
      – Abnormal drowsiness
      – Three or more discrete episodes of vomiting
      – Dangerous mechanism of injury (high-speed road traffic accident, fall from a height.

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  • Question 22 - A 48 year old welder is admitted to the emergency department with burns...

    Incorrect

    • A 48 year old welder is admitted to the emergency department with burns to the chest after sparks from the welding machine ignited some gasoline-soaked rags that were nearby on the ground, causing his T-shirt to catch fire. Upon examination, the patient presents with full thickness burns encircling the chest. What would be the primary complication you would be most worried about in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Impaired ventilation

      Explanation:

      Circumferential burns on the thorax can limit the expansion of the chest and hinder proper ventilation. When burns penetrate deeply, they can cause the formation of dead tissue called eschar, which is usually white or black in color. This eschar is contracted and inflexible compared to healthy tissue, leading to restricted movement and impaired breathing. In some cases, burns on the thorax can result in respiratory failure. Marjolin’s ulcer, a rare condition, refers to the development of squamous cell carcinoma in burnt or scarred tissue. Burn injuries often lead to the release of excess potassium into the bloodstream, which can cause hyperkalemia. Carbon monoxide poisoning typically occurs when someone inhales CO over a prolonged period, usually due to incomplete combustion of hydrocarbons. However, the history provided in this case does not align with prolonged exposure to carbon monoxide.

      Further Reading:

      Burn injuries can be classified based on their type (degree, partial thickness or full thickness), extent as a percentage of total body surface area (TBSA), and severity (minor, moderate, major/severe). Severe burns are defined as a >10% TBSA in a child and >15% TBSA in an adult.

      When assessing a burn, it is important to consider airway injury, carbon monoxide poisoning, type of burn, extent of burn, special considerations, and fluid status. Special considerations may include head and neck burns, circumferential burns, thorax burns, electrical burns, hand burns, and burns to the genitalia.

      Airway management is a priority in burn injuries. Inhalation of hot particles can cause damage to the respiratory epithelium and lead to airway compromise. Signs of inhalation injury include visible burns or erythema to the face, soot around the nostrils and mouth, burnt/singed nasal hairs, hoarse voice, wheeze or stridor, swollen tissues in the mouth or nostrils, and tachypnea and tachycardia. Supplemental oxygen should be provided, and endotracheal intubation may be necessary if there is airway obstruction or impending obstruction.

      The initial management of a patient with burn injuries involves conserving body heat, covering burns with clean or sterile coverings, establishing IV access, providing pain relief, initiating fluid resuscitation, measuring urinary output with a catheter, maintaining nil by mouth status, closely monitoring vital signs and urine output, monitoring the airway, preparing for surgery if necessary, and administering medications.

      Burns can be classified based on the depth of injury, ranging from simple erythema to full thickness burns that penetrate into subcutaneous tissue. The extent of a burn can be estimated using methods such as the rule of nines or the Lund and Browder chart, which takes into account age-specific body proportions.

      Fluid management is crucial in burn injuries due to significant fluid losses. Evaporative fluid loss from burnt skin and increased permeability of blood vessels can lead to reduced intravascular volume and tissue perfusion. Fluid resuscitation should be aggressive in severe burns, while burns <15% in adults and <10% in children may not require immediate fluid resuscitation. The Parkland formula can be used to calculate the intravenous fluid requirements for someone with a significant burn injury.

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  • Question 23 - A 28 year old female is brought into the emergency department after a...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old female is brought into the emergency department after a jet skiing accident at a local lake. The patient fell off the jet ski but her leg got caught in the handlebars and she was submerged for 2-3 minutes before being freed. The patient's friends started rescue breaths and chest compressions as the patient was unconscious but were stopped after approximately 30 seconds by an off duty lifeguard who assessed the patient and determined she was breathing spontaneously and had a pulse. On examination, the patient is breathing spontaneously with intermittent coughing, oxygen saturation levels are 97% on room air, a few crackling sounds are heard in the lower parts of the lungs, and the patient's Glasgow Coma Scale score is 13 out of 15.

      Which of the following should be included in the initial management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Obtain an arterial blood gas sample for evidence of hypoxia

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG) sample from all patients who have experienced submersion (drowning) as even individuals without symptoms may have a surprising level of hypoxia. Draining the lungs is not effective and not recommended. There is no strong evidence to support the routine use of antibiotics as a preventive measure. Steroids have not been proven to be effective in treating drowning. All drowning patients, except those with normal oxygen levels, normal saturations, and normal lung sounds, should receive supplemental oxygen as significant hypoxia can occur without causing difficulty in breathing.

      Further Reading:

      Drowning is the process of experiencing respiratory impairment from submersion or immersion in liquid. It can be classified as cold-water or warm-water drowning. Risk factors for drowning include young age and male sex. Drowning impairs lung function and gas exchange, leading to hypoxemia and acidosis. It also causes cardiovascular instability, which contributes to metabolic acidosis and cell death.

      When someone is submerged or immersed, they will voluntarily hold their breath to prevent aspiration of water. However, continued breath holding causes progressive hypoxia and hypercapnia, leading to acidosis. Eventually, the respiratory center sends signals to the respiratory muscles, forcing the individual to take an involuntary breath and allowing water to be aspirated into the lungs. Water entering the lungs stimulates a reflex laryngospasm that prevents further penetration of water. Aspirated water can cause significant hypoxia and damage to the alveoli, leading to acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).

      Complications of drowning include cardiac ischemia and infarction, infection with waterborne pathogens, hypothermia, neurological damage, rhabdomyolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).

      In children, the diving reflex helps reduce hypoxic injury during submersion. It causes apnea, bradycardia, and peripheral vasoconstriction, reducing cardiac output and myocardial oxygen demand while maintaining perfusion of the brain and vital organs.

      Associated injuries with drowning include head and cervical spine injuries in patients rescued from shallow water. Investigations for drowning include arterial blood gases, chest X-ray, ECG and cardiac monitoring, core temperature measurement, and blood and sputum cultures if secondary infection is suspected.

      Management of drowning involves extricating the patient from water in a horizontal position with spinal precautions if possible. Cardiovascular considerations should be taken into account when removing patients from water to prevent hypotension and circulatory collapse. Airway management, supplemental oxygen, and ventilation strategies are important in maintaining oxygenation and preventing further lung injury. Correcting hypotension, electrolyte disturbances, and hypothermia is also necessary. Attempting to drain water from the lungs is ineffective.

      Patients without associated physical injury who are asymptomatic and have no evidence of respiratory compromise after six hours can be safely discharged home. Ventilation strategies aim to maintain oxygenation while minimizing ventilator-associated lung injury.

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  • Question 24 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with neck pain after a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with neck pain after a car accident. After conducting a clinical examination and identifying a low-risk factor for cervical spine injury, you decide to order imaging for this patient. What type of imaging would you recommend?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CT cervical spine

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, when it comes to imaging for cervical spine injury, CT is recommended as the primary modality for adults aged 16 and above, while MRI is recommended for children. This applies to patients who are either at high risk for cervical spine injury or are unable to actively rotate their neck 45 degrees to the left and right.

      Further Reading:

      When assessing for cervical spine injury, it is recommended to use the Canadian C-spine rules. These rules help determine the risk level for a potential injury. High-risk factors include being over the age of 65, experiencing a dangerous mechanism of injury (such as a fall from a height or a high-speed motor vehicle collision), or having paraesthesia in the upper or lower limbs. Low-risk factors include being involved in a minor rear-end motor vehicle collision, being comfortable in a sitting position, being ambulatory since the injury, having no midline cervical spine tenderness, or experiencing a delayed onset of neck pain. If a person is unable to actively rotate their neck 45 degrees to the left and right, their risk level is considered low. If they have one of the low-risk factors and can actively rotate their neck, their risk level remains low.

      If a high-risk factor is identified or if a low-risk factor is identified and the person is unable to actively rotate their neck, full in-line spinal immobilization should be maintained and imaging should be requested. Additionally, if a patient has risk factors for thoracic or lumbar spine injury, imaging should be requested. However, if a patient has low-risk factors for cervical spine injury, is pain-free, and can actively rotate their neck, full in-line spinal immobilization and imaging are not necessary.

      NICE recommends CT as the primary imaging modality for cervical spine injury in adults aged 16 and older, while MRI is recommended as the primary imaging modality for children under 16.

      Different mechanisms of spinal trauma can cause injury to the spine in predictable ways. The majority of cervical spine injuries are caused by flexion combined with rotation. Hyperflexion can result in compression of the anterior aspects of the vertebral bodies, stretching and tearing of the posterior ligament complex, chance fractures (also known as seatbelt fractures), flexion teardrop fractures, and odontoid peg fractures. Flexion and rotation can lead to disruption of the posterior ligament complex and posterior column, fractures of facet joints, lamina, transverse processes, and vertebral bodies, and avulsion of spinous processes. Hyperextension can cause injury to the anterior column, anterior fractures of the vertebral body, and potential retropulsion of bony fragments or discs into the spinal canal. Rotation can result in injury to the posterior ligament complex and facet joint dislocation.

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  • Question 25 - A 45-year-old woman is brought into the emergency room by an ambulance with...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman is brought into the emergency room by an ambulance with sirens blaring after being involved in a car accident. She was hit by a truck while crossing the street and is suspected to have a pelvic injury. Her condition is unstable, and the hospital has activated the massive transfusion protocol. You decide to also administer tranexamic acid and give an initial dose of 1 g intravenously over a period of 10 minutes.
      What should be the subsequent dose of tranexamic acid and how long should it be administered for?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 g IV over 8 hours

      Explanation:

      ATLS guidelines now suggest administering only 1 liter of crystalloid fluid during the initial assessment. If patients do not respond to the crystalloid, it is recommended to quickly transition to blood products. Studies have shown that infusing more than 1.5 liters of crystalloid fluid is associated with higher mortality rates in trauma cases. Therefore, it is advised to prioritize the early use of blood products and avoid large volumes of crystalloid fluid in trauma patients. In cases where it is necessary, massive transfusion should be considered, defined as the transfusion of more than 10 units of blood in 24 hours or more than 4 units of blood in one hour. For patients with evidence of Class III and IV hemorrhage, early resuscitation with blood and blood products in low ratios is recommended.

      Based on the findings of significant trials, such as the CRASH-2 study, the use of tranexamic acid is now recommended within 3 hours. This involves administering a loading dose of 1 gram intravenously over 10 minutes, followed by an infusion of 1 gram over eight hours. In some regions, tranexamic acid is also being utilized in the prehospital setting.

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  • Question 26 - A child who has been involved in a car accident undergoes a traumatic...

    Incorrect

    • A child who has been involved in a car accident undergoes a traumatic cardiac arrest. You perform an anterolateral thoracotomy.
      What is the accurate anatomical location for the incision that needs to be made?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4th intercostal space from the sternum to the posterior axillary line

      Explanation:

      An anterolateral thoracotomy is a surgical procedure performed on the front part of the chest wall. It is commonly used in Emergency Department thoracotomy, with a preference for a left-sided approach in patients with traumatic arrest or left-sided chest injuries. However, in patients with right-sided chest injuries and profound hypotension but have not arrested, a right-sided approach is recommended.

      The procedure is carried out in the following steps:
      – An incision is made along the 4th or 5th intercostal space, starting from the sternum at the front and extending to the posterior axillary line.
      – The incision should be deep enough to partially cut through the latissimus dorsi muscle.
      – The skin, subcutaneous fat, and superficial portions of the pectoralis and serratus muscles are divided.
      – The parietal pleura is divided, allowing entry into the pleural cavity.
      – The intercostal muscles are completely cut, and a rib spreader is placed and opened to provide visualization of the thoracic cavity.
      – The anterolateral approach allows access to important anatomical structures during resuscitation, including the pulmonary hilum, heart, and aorta.

      In cases where there is suspicion of a right-sided heart injury, an additional incision can be made on the right side, extending across the entire chest. This is known as a bilateral anterolateral thoracotomy or a clamshell thoracotomy.

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  • Question 27 - You are treating a patient who fell from a rooftop and has sustained...

    Incorrect

    • You are treating a patient who fell from a rooftop and has sustained a fracture to the left calcaneus. Which of the following injuries is frequently associated with calcaneal fractures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vertebral fracture

      Explanation:

      When patients have calcaneal fractures, it is important to evaluate them for any additional injuries that may be present. These can include vertebral fractures, fractures in the opposite calcaneus, and injuries to the cuboid bone.

      Further Reading:

      Calcaneus fractures are a common type of lower limb and joint injury. The calcaneus, or heel bone, is the most frequently fractured tarsal bone. These fractures are often intra-articular, meaning they involve the joint. The most common cause of calcaneus fractures is a fall or jump from a height.

      When assessing calcaneus fractures, X-rays are used to visualize the fracture lines. Two angles are commonly assessed to determine the severity of the fracture. Böhler’s angle, which measures the angle between two tangent lines drawn across the anterior and posterior borders of the calcaneus, should be between 20-40 degrees. If it is less than 20 degrees, it indicates a calcaneal fracture with flattening. The angle of Gissane, which measures the depression of the posterior facet of the subtalar joint, should be between 120-145 degrees. An increased angle of Gissane suggests a calcaneal fracture.

      In the emergency department, the management of a fractured calcaneus involves identifying the injury and any associated injuries, providing pain relief, elevating the affected limb(s), and referring the patient to an orthopedic specialist. It is important to be aware that calcaneus fractures are often accompanied by other injuries, such as bilateral fractures of vertebral fractures.

      The definitive management of a fractured calcaneus can be done conservatively or through surgery, specifically open reduction internal fixation (ORIF). The orthopedic team will typically order a CT or MRI scan to classify the fracture and determine the most appropriate treatment. However, a recent UK heel fracture trial suggests that in most cases, ORIF does not improve fracture outcomes.

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      • Trauma
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  • Question 28 - A 42 year old man is brought into the emergency department after a...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 year old man is brought into the emergency department after a car accident. He has significant bruising on the right side of his chest. You suspect he may have a hemothorax. When would thoracotomy be considered as a treatment option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prompt drainage of ≥1500 ml of blood following chest drain insertion

      Explanation:

      Thoracotomy is recommended when there is a need for prompt drainage of at least 1500 ml of blood following the insertion of a chest drain. Additionally, it is indicated when there is a continuous blood loss of more than 200 ml per hour for a period of 2-4 hours or when there is a persistent requirement for blood transfusion.

      Further Reading:

      Haemothorax is the accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity of the chest, usually resulting from chest trauma. It can be difficult to differentiate from other causes of pleural effusion on a chest X-ray. Massive haemothorax refers to a large volume of blood in the pleural space, which can impair physiological function by causing blood loss, reducing lung volume for gas exchange, and compressing thoracic structures such as the heart and IVC.

      The management of haemothorax involves replacing lost blood volume and decompressing the chest. This is done through supplemental oxygen, IV access and cross-matching blood, IV fluid therapy, and the insertion of a chest tube. The chest tube is connected to an underwater seal and helps drain the fluid, pus, air, or blood from the pleural space. In cases where there is prompt drainage of a large amount of blood, ongoing significant blood loss, or the need for blood transfusion, thoracotomy and ligation of bleeding thoracic vessels may be necessary. It is important to have two IV accesses prior to inserting the chest drain to prevent a drop in blood pressure.

      In summary, haemothorax is the accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity due to chest trauma. Managing haemothorax involves replacing lost blood volume and decompressing the chest through various interventions, including the insertion of a chest tube. Prompt intervention may be required in cases of significant blood loss or ongoing need for blood transfusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
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  • Question 29 - A young patient who has been in a car accident experiences a traumatic...

    Incorrect

    • A young patient who has been in a car accident experiences a traumatic cardiac arrest. You decide to perform an anterolateral thoracotomy.
      During this procedure, which structures will need to be divided?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Latissimus dorsi

      Explanation:

      An anterolateral thoracotomy is a surgical procedure performed on the front part of the chest wall. It is commonly used in Emergency Department thoracotomy, with a preference for a left-sided approach in patients experiencing traumatic arrest or left-sided chest injuries. However, in cases where patients have not arrested but present with severe low blood pressure and right-sided chest injuries, a right-sided approach is recommended.

      The procedure is conducted as follows: an incision is made along the 4th or 5th intercostal space, starting from the sternum at the front and extending to the posterior axillary line. The incision should be deep enough to partially cut through the latissimus dorsi muscle. Subsequently, the skin, subcutaneous fat, and superficial portions of the pectoralis and serratus muscles are divided. The parietal pleura is then divided, allowing access to the pleural cavity. The intercostal muscles are completely cut, and a rib spreader is inserted and opened to provide visualization of the thoracic cavity.

      The anterolateral approach enables access to crucial anatomical structures during resuscitation, including the pulmonary hilum, heart, and aorta. In cases where a right-sided heart injury is suspected, an additional incision can be made on the right side, extending across the entire chest. This procedure is known as a bilateral anterolateral thoracotomy or a clamshell thoracotomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
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  • Question 30 - A 45-year-old woman is brought into resus by blue light ambulance following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman is brought into resus by blue light ambulance following a car crash. She was hit by a truck while driving a car and has a suspected pelvic injury. She is currently on a backboard with cervical spine protection and a pelvic binder in place. The massive transfusion protocol is activated.
      Which of the following is the definition of a massive transfusion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The transfusion of more than 4 units of blood in 1 hour

      Explanation:

      ATLS guidelines now suggest administering only 1 liter of crystalloid fluid during the initial assessment. If patients do not respond to the crystalloid, it is recommended to quickly transition to blood products. Studies have shown that infusing more than 1.5 liters of crystalloid fluid is associated with higher mortality rates in trauma cases. Therefore, it is advised to prioritize the early use of blood products and avoid large volumes of crystalloid fluid in trauma patients. In cases where it is necessary, massive transfusion should be considered, defined as the transfusion of more than 10 units of blood in 24 hours or more than 4 units of blood in one hour. For patients with evidence of Class III and IV hemorrhage, early resuscitation with blood and blood products in low ratios is recommended.

      Based on the findings of significant trials, such as the CRASH-2 study, the use of tranexamic acid is now recommended within 3 hours. This involves administering a loading dose of 1 gram intravenously over 10 minutes, followed by an infusion of 1 gram over eight hours. In some regions, tranexamic acid is also being utilized in the prehospital setting.

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