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Question 1
Correct
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An 80-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a tender, hot, and painful knee. Upon aspiration and light microscopy, rhomboid crystals with weakly positive birefringence are detected.
What is the composition of these crystals?Your Answer: Calcium pyrophosphate
Explanation:Pseudogout is a condition where calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals are deposited in the joints, causing inflammation. This is different from gout, which is caused by the deposition of monosodium urate crystals due to factors such as inadequate urea excretion or high purine intake from foods like seafood.
Treatment for pseudogout involves the use of anti-inflammatory medications and joint replacement surgery may be necessary if the condition causes significant joint damage.
In gout, urea levels may be increased, but during an acute attack, they may actually be decreased. Struvite stones are formed from bacterial products, while staghorn stones are large stones that are often caused by Proteus mirabilis and can obstruct the renal pelvis.
Understanding Pseudogout
Pseudogout, also known as acute calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition disease, is a type of microcrystal synovitis that occurs when calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals are deposited in the synovium. This condition is commonly associated with increasing age, but younger patients who develop pseudogout usually have an underlying risk factor such as haemochromatosis, hyperparathyroidism, low magnesium or phosphate levels, acromegaly, or Wilson’s disease.
The knee, wrist, and shoulders are the most commonly affected joints in pseudogout. Diagnosis is made through joint aspiration, which reveals weakly-positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals, and x-rays, which show chondrocalcinosis. In the knee, linear calcifications of the meniscus and articular cartilage can be seen.
Management of pseudogout involves joint fluid aspiration to rule out septic arthritis, followed by treatment with NSAIDs or intra-articular, intra-muscular, or oral steroids, similar to the treatment for gout. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms of pseudogout can help with early diagnosis and effective management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 2
Correct
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You are evaluating a patient with Dupuytren's contracture in a pre-operative orthopaedic clinic. You request the patient to flex their fingers at the distal interphalangeal joints.
Which muscle's function is being evaluated in this case?Your Answer: Flexor digitorum profundus
Explanation:The function of flexor digitorum profundus is to flex the fingers at both interphalangeal joints and the metacarpophalangeal joints, with a specific responsibility for flexing the distal interphalangeal joint. In contrast, flexor digitorum superficialis only flexes the metacarpophalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the fingers, and must be isolated from the action of flexor digitorum profundus to assess its function. Flexor hallucis longus, on the other hand, flexes the joints of the great toe but not the distal interphalangeal joints.
The forearm flexor muscles include the flexor carpi radialis, palmaris longus, flexor carpi ulnaris, flexor digitorum superficialis, and flexor digitorum profundus. These muscles originate from the common flexor origin and surrounding fascia, and are innervated by the median and ulnar nerves. Their actions include flexion and abduction of the carpus, wrist flexion, adduction of the carpus, and flexion of the metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 3
Correct
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Which of the following bones is associated with the distal articular surface of the cuboid?
Your Answer: 5th metatarsal
Explanation:The cuboid bone is situated on the outer side of the foot, positioned between the heel bone at the back and the fourth and fifth toe bones towards the front.
The foot has two arches: the longitudinal arch and the transverse arch. The longitudinal arch is higher on the medial side and is supported by the posterior pillar of the calcaneum and the anterior pillar composed of the navicular bone, three cuneiforms, and the medial three metatarsal bones. The transverse arch is located on the anterior part of the tarsus and the posterior part of the metatarsus. The foot has several intertarsal joints, including the sub talar joint, talocalcaneonavicular joint, calcaneocuboid joint, transverse tarsal joint, cuneonavicular joint, intercuneiform joints, and cuneocuboid joint. The foot also has various ligaments, including those of the ankle joint and foot. The foot is innervated by the lateral plantar nerve and medial plantar nerve, and it receives blood supply from the plantar arteries and dorsalis pedis artery. The foot has several muscles, including the abductor hallucis, flexor digitorum brevis, abductor digit minimi, flexor hallucis brevis, adductor hallucis, and extensor digitorum brevis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of a painful rash on his face after experiencing lethargy and headache for 3 days. The man's vital signs are within normal limits. Upon examination, a distinct line of blisters is observed on the upper left side of his face.
What is the most frequent complication associated with this condition in the elderly population?Your Answer: Bacterial superinfection
Correct Answer: Neuralgia
Explanation:The most common complication of shingles is post-herpetic neuralgia, which is characterized by a burning pain in the affected dermatome. This condition is likely to occur in older individuals, who are also at risk of experiencing more severe and prolonged pain. While bacterial superinfection of cutaneous lesions can occur, it is typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus or group A streptococcal species. Shingles can also lead to complications such as pneumonia, meningoencephalitis, hepatitis, and acute retinal necrosis if it affects internal organs.
Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The diagnosis is usually clinical and management includes analgesia, antivirals, and reminding patients they are potentially infectious. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, herpes zoster ophthalmicus, and herpes zoster oticus. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of a gradually worsening rash on his face that has been present for the past 2 months. The patient has no significant medical history and appears to be in good health. During the examination, the doctor notes the presence of numerous papules, pustules, and comedones on the patient's forehead, cheeks, and chin. What is the responsible pathogen for this condition?
Your Answer: Staphylococcus epidermidis
Correct Answer: Propionibacterium acnes
Explanation:Propionibacterium acnes is the bacteria responsible for contributing to the formation of acne.
The patient’s facial papules, pustules, and comedones indicate a diagnosis of acne vulgaris, which is more prevalent in adolescents and those with oily skin. While bacteria can play a role in the development of acne, it is important to note that acne vulgaris is not a contagious rash. Propionibacterium acnes is the most common pathogen associated with acne vulgaris, as it triggers enzymes and inflammatory mediators that worsen the existing rash and inflammation.
Staphylococcus aureus is linked to bacterial skin conditions like impetigo and cellulitis, which often require more intensive antibiotic treatment.
Staphylococcus epidermidis is a commensal bacterium typically found on the skin’s surface. It may cause opportunistic bacterial skin infections in immunocompromised patients, but it is not involved in acne development.
Streptococcus pyogenes also causes bacterial skin infections like cellulitis and erysipelas, similar to Staphylococcus aureus. If either bacterium were implicated in acne vulgaris, it would cause significant inflammation and infection (e.g., fever, erythema, swelling). However, they do not play a role in the normal development of acne.
Understanding Acne Vulgaris
Acne vulgaris is a prevalent skin condition that typically affects teenagers, with around 80-90% of them experiencing it. It commonly appears on the face, neck, and upper trunk and is characterized by the blockage of hair follicles with keratin plugs, leading to the formation of comedones, inflammation, and pustules. However, acne may persist beyond adolescence, with 10-15% of females and 5% of males over 25 years old still being affected.
The pathophysiology of acne vulgaris is multifactorial. It involves the overgrowth of skin cells in hair follicles, leading to the formation of keratin plugs that obstruct the follicles. Although androgen levels may control the activity of sebaceous glands, which produce oil, they are often normal in patients with acne. Additionally, the anaerobic bacterium Propionibacterium acnes can colonize the blocked follicles, leading to inflammation and the formation of pimples.
Overall, understanding the pathophysiology of acne vulgaris is crucial in developing effective treatments for this common skin condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 6
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with a complaint of a painful, red toe. The pain began a few hours ago and has been getting worse. Upon examination, her 1st metatarsophalangeal joint is inflamed, erythematous, and tender to the touch.
What are the joint aspiration findings that would confirm a gout flare diagnosis?Your Answer: Negatively birefringent needle-shaped monosodium urate crystals
Explanation:Joint aspiration is a valuable diagnostic tool for differentiating between various causes of joint swelling, including septic arthritis and pseudogout. In the case of gout, joint aspiration will reveal needle-shaped monosodium urate crystals that are negatively birefringent under polarised light. These crystals form when uric acid levels remain persistently high and deposit in tissues, leading to the characteristic inflammatory response seen in gout.
It is important to note that a green-colored aspirate with a positive gram stain for Staphylococcus aureus is not indicative of gout, but rather suggests septic arthritis. In this case, the aspirate may have a raised white cell count and appear yellow or green.
Similarly, the presence of negatively birefringent needle-shaped calcium oxalate crystals is not associated with gout, but rather with kidney stones. These crystals form when there are high concentrations of calcium oxalate in the urine and are typically octahedral or envelope-shaped.
Finally, positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped calcium pyrophosphate crystals are not seen in gout, but rather in pseudogout. Pseudogout presents with similar symptoms to gout and more commonly affects the knee joint.
Understanding Gout: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Gout is a type of arthritis that causes inflammation and pain in the joints. Patients experience episodes of intense pain that can last for several days, followed by periods of no symptoms. The acute episodes usually reach their peak within 12 hours and can affect various joints, with the first metatarsophalangeal joint being the most commonly affected. Swelling and redness are also common symptoms of gout.
If left untreated, repeated acute episodes of gout can lead to joint damage and chronic joint problems. To diagnose gout, doctors may perform synovial fluid analysis to look for needle-shaped, negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals under polarised light. Uric acid levels may also be checked once the acute episode has subsided, as they can be high, normal, or low during the attack.
Radiological features of gout include joint effusion, well-defined punched-out erosions with sclerotic margins, and eccentric erosions. Unlike rheumatoid arthritis, gout does not cause periarticular osteopenia. Soft tissue tophi may also be visible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 7
Correct
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A 25-year-old male patient is diagnosed with appendicitis and requires an appendicectomy. The surgical procedure begins with a 5cm incision at McBurney's point. What is the first structure that will be encountered during the dissection?
Your Answer: External oblique aponeurosis
Explanation:The rectus sheath is located more medially than the external oblique, which is encountered first. The external oblique muscle is the most superficial muscle of the abdominal wall and originates from the 5th to 12th ribs. It inserts into the linea alba, pubic tubercle, and anterior half of the iliac crest by passing inferomedially. The muscle is innervated by the thoracoabdominal nerves (T7-T11) and subcostal nerves.
Muscles and Layers of the Abdominal Wall
The abdominal wall is composed of various muscles and layers that provide support and protection to the organs within the abdominal cavity. The two main muscles of the abdominal wall are the rectus abdominis and the quadratus lumborum. The rectus abdominis is located anteriorly, while the quadratus lumborum is located posteriorly.
The remaining abdominal wall is made up of three muscular layers, each passing from the lateral aspect of the quadratus lumborum to the lateral margin of the rectus sheath. These layers are muscular posterolaterally and aponeurotic anteriorly. The external oblique muscle lies most superficially and originates from the 5th to 12th ribs, inserting into the anterior half of the outer aspect of the iliac crest, linea alba, and pubic tubercle. The internal oblique arises from the thoracolumbar fascia, the anterior 2/3 of the iliac crest, and the lateral 2/3 of the inguinal ligament, while the transversus abdominis is the innermost muscle, arising from the inner aspect of the costal cartilages of the lower 6 ribs, the anterior 2/3 of the iliac crest, and the lateral 1/3 of the inguinal ligament.
During abdominal surgery, it is often necessary to divide either the muscles or their aponeuroses. It is desirable to divide the aponeurosis during a midline laparotomy, leaving the rectus sheath intact above the arcuate line and the muscles intact below it. Straying off the midline can lead to damage to the rectus muscles, particularly below the arcuate line where they may be in close proximity to each other. The nerve supply for these muscles is the anterior primary rami of T7-12.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which of these nerves passes through the greater and lesser sciatic foramina?
Your Answer: Sciatic nerve
Correct Answer: Pudendal nerve
Explanation:The structures passing through the lesser and greater sciatic foramina, from medial to lateral, are the pudendal nerve, internal pudendal artery, and nerve to obturator internus. The pudendal nerve originates from the ventral rami of the second, third, and fourth sacral nerves and passes through the greater sciatic foramen before crossing the spine of the ischium and reentering the pelvis through the lesser sciatic foramen. It gives off the inferior rectal nerves and terminates into the perineal nerve and the dorsal nerve of the penis or clitoris.
The Greater Sciatic Foramen and its Contents
The greater sciatic foramen is a space in the pelvis that is bounded by various ligaments and bones. It serves as a passageway for several important structures, including nerves and blood vessels. The piriformis muscle is a landmark for identifying these structures as they pass through the sciatic notch. Above the piriformis muscle, the superior gluteal vessels can be found, while below it are the inferior gluteal vessels, the sciatic nerve (which passes through it in only 10% of cases), and the posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh.
The boundaries of the greater sciatic foramen include the greater sciatic notch of the ilium, the sacrotuberous ligament, the sacrospinous ligament, and the ischial spine. The anterior sacroiliac ligament forms the superior boundary. Structures passing through the greater sciatic foramen include the pudendal nerve, the internal pudendal artery, and the nerve to the obturator internus.
In contrast, the lesser sciatic foramen is a smaller space that contains the tendon of the obturator internus, the pudendal nerve, the internal pudendal artery and vein, and the nerve to the obturator internus. Understanding the contents and boundaries of these foramina is important for clinicians who may need to access or avoid these structures during surgical procedures or other interventions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 9
Correct
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The following statements regarding the rectus abdominis muscle are true except:
Your Answer: It lies in a muscular aponeurosis throughout its length
Explanation:The rectus abdominis muscle originates from the pubis and inserts into the 5th, 6th, and 7th costal cartilages. It is located within the rectus sheath, which also contains the superior and inferior epigastric artery and vein. The muscle is responsible for flexing the thoracic and lumbar spine and is innervated by the anterior primary rami of T7-12. The aponeurosis of the rectus abdominis is incomplete below the arcuate line.
Muscles and Layers of the Abdominal Wall
The abdominal wall is composed of various muscles and layers that provide support and protection to the organs within the abdominal cavity. The two main muscles of the abdominal wall are the rectus abdominis and the quadratus lumborum. The rectus abdominis is located anteriorly, while the quadratus lumborum is located posteriorly.
The remaining abdominal wall is made up of three muscular layers, each passing from the lateral aspect of the quadratus lumborum to the lateral margin of the rectus sheath. These layers are muscular posterolaterally and aponeurotic anteriorly. The external oblique muscle lies most superficially and originates from the 5th to 12th ribs, inserting into the anterior half of the outer aspect of the iliac crest, linea alba, and pubic tubercle. The internal oblique arises from the thoracolumbar fascia, the anterior 2/3 of the iliac crest, and the lateral 2/3 of the inguinal ligament, while the transversus abdominis is the innermost muscle, arising from the inner aspect of the costal cartilages of the lower 6 ribs, the anterior 2/3 of the iliac crest, and the lateral 1/3 of the inguinal ligament.
During abdominal surgery, it is often necessary to divide either the muscles or their aponeuroses. It is desirable to divide the aponeurosis during a midline laparotomy, leaving the rectus sheath intact above the arcuate line and the muscles intact below it. Straying off the midline can lead to damage to the rectus muscles, particularly below the arcuate line where they may be in close proximity to each other. The nerve supply for these muscles is the anterior primary rami of T7-12.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy presents to the orthopaedic clinic with complaints of right knee pain. He has been experiencing pain for the past 4 months, which usually lasts for a few hours. During examination, he displays an antalgic gait and appears to have a shortened right leg. While the right knee appears normal, he experiences pain on internal and external rotation of the right hip. Imaging reveals flattening of the femoral head. What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Osteopetrosis
Correct Answer: Perthes disease
Explanation:Understanding Perthes’ Disease
Perthes’ disease is a condition that affects the hip joints of children between the ages of 4-8 years. It is caused by a lack of blood supply to the femoral head, leading to bone infarction and degeneration. Boys are five times more likely to develop this condition, and around 10% of cases are bilateral. Symptoms include hip pain, limping, stiffness, and reduced range of hip movement. Early changes can be seen on x-rays, such as widening of the joint space, while later changes include decreased femoral head size and flattening.
Diagnosis is typically made through a plain x-ray, but a technetium bone scan or magnetic resonance imaging may be necessary if symptoms persist despite a normal x-ray. Complications of Perthes’ disease can include osteoarthritis and premature fusion of the growth plates.
The Catterall staging system is used to classify the severity of the disease, with Stage 1 being the mildest and Stage 4 being the most severe. Management options include casting or bracing to keep the femoral head within the acetabulum, observation for children under 6 years old, and surgical intervention for severe deformities in older children.
Overall, most cases of Perthes’ disease will resolve with conservative management, and early diagnosis can improve outcomes. It is important for parents and healthcare providers to be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention if they suspect a child may be affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 11
Correct
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A 45-year-old carpenter comes to your medical practice complaining of weakness and numbness in his right hand. During the examination, you observe a decrease in sensation on the palmar side of his index finger, middle finger, and the radial half of his ring finger. Tinel's sign is positive, leading you to diagnose carpal tunnel syndrome. Which nerve is the most probable cause of this condition?
Your Answer: Median
Explanation:The carpal tunnel only allows the median nerve to pass through it, providing sensory innervation to the palmar aspect of the thumb, index, middle, and radial aspect of the ring finger. If the median nerve is damaged, it can also cause weakness in wrist flexion.
If any of the other nerves are affected, they would cause different patterns of sensory disturbance. For example, an ulnar nerve palsy would typically cause paresthesia on the ulnar half of the ring finger, the entire little finger, and the dorsal medial (ulnar) aspect of the hand. A radial nerve palsy would cause paresthesia on the dorsal lateral (radial) aspect of the hand, but not beyond the metacarpal-phalangeal joint. An axillary nerve palsy would only cause paresthesia in the deltoid area and not affect the sensation in the hands. Finally, a musculocutaneous nerve palsy would cause paresthesia along the lateral aspect of the forearm, but the sensation in the hand would remain intact.
Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. This can cause pain and pins and needles sensations in the thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even travel up the arm. Patients may shake their hand to alleviate the discomfort, especially at night. During an examination, weakness in thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence may be observed. Tapping on the affected area may also cause paraesthesia, and flexing the wrist can trigger symptoms.
There are several potential causes of carpal tunnel syndrome, including idiopathic factors, pregnancy, oedema, lunate fractures, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may reveal prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves. Treatment options may include a six-week trial of conservative measures such as wrist splints at night or corticosteroid injections. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression may be necessary, which involves dividing the flexor retinaculum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 12
Correct
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A 6-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents. He has swelling and tenderness in the middle part of his left forearm and is refusing to move it. The family seems uncooperative and difficult to engage with. Upon questioning, the mother claims the injury occurred from falling off the couch, while the father claims it happened while playing outside. Given the suspicious circumstances, you suspect a non-accidental injury.
What X-ray findings are commonly associated with this type of injury?Your Answer: Greenstick fracture of the radius and ulna
Explanation:Greenstick fractures are a type of bone injury that is frequently seen in children. While spiral fractures of the humerus are often linked to non-accidental injury (NAI), it is important to consider NAI as a possible cause for greenstick fractures as well.
Greenstick fractures typically occur in infants and children and can result from various causes, such as falling on an outstretched hand or experiencing a direct perpendicular impact.
In a greenstick fracture, one side of the bone’s cortex is disrupted, while the opposite cortex remains intact. This type of fracture is more common in younger individuals whose bones are not yet fully mineralized and are more likely to bend than break.
Adolescents and adults may experience Monteggia and Galeazzi fractures, which are common forearm injuries. These fractures involve a displaced fracture in one forearm bone and a dislocation of the other.
Paediatric Orthopaedics: Common Conditions and Treatments
Developmental dysplasia of the hip is a condition that is usually diagnosed in infancy through screening tests. It may be bilateral, and when it is unilateral, there may be leg length inequality. As the disease progresses, the child may limp and experience early onset arthritis. This condition is more common in extended breech babies. Treatment options include splints and harnesses or traction, and in later years, osteotomy and hip realignment procedures may be needed. In cases of arthritis, a joint replacement may be necessary, but it is best to defer this if possible as it will likely require revision. Initially, there may be no obvious changes on plain films, and ultrasound gives the best resolution until three months of age. On plain films, Shenton’s line should form a smooth arc.
Perthes Disease is characterized by hip pain, which may be referred to the knee, and usually occurs between the ages of 5 and 12. Bilateral disease occurs in 20% of cases. Treatment involves removing pressure from the joint to allow for normal development and physiotherapy. If diagnosed and treated promptly, the condition is usually self-limiting. X-rays will show a flattened femoral head, and in untreated cases, the femoral head will eventually fragment.
Slipped upper femoral epiphysis is typically seen in obese male adolescents. Pain is often referred to the knee, and limitation to internal rotation is usually seen. Knee pain is usually present two months prior to hip slipping, and bilateral disease occurs in 20% of cases. Treatment involves bed rest and non-weight bearing to avoid avascular necrosis. If severe slippage or risk of it occurring is present, percutaneous pinning of the hip may be required. X-rays will show the femoral head displaced and falling inferolaterally, resembling a melting ice cream cone. The Southwick angle gives an indication of disease severity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 13
Correct
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Into which of the following veins does the middle thyroid vein drain?
Rewritten: At what age does the middle thyroid vein drain into one of the following veins?Your Answer: Internal jugular
Explanation:If a ligature slips, the copious bleeding is due to the fact that it drains to the internal jugular vein.
Anatomy of the Thyroid Gland
The thyroid gland is a butterfly-shaped gland located in the neck, consisting of two lobes connected by an isthmus. It is surrounded by a sheath from the pretracheal layer of deep fascia and is situated between the base of the tongue and the fourth and fifth tracheal rings. The apex of the thyroid gland is located at the lamina of the thyroid cartilage, while the base is situated at the fourth and fifth tracheal rings. In some individuals, a pyramidal lobe may extend from the isthmus and attach to the foramen caecum at the base of the tongue.
The thyroid gland is surrounded by various structures, including the sternothyroid, superior belly of omohyoid, sternohyoid, and anterior aspect of sternocleidomastoid muscles. It is also related to the carotid sheath, larynx, trachea, pharynx, oesophagus, cricothyroid muscle, and parathyroid glands. The superior and inferior thyroid arteries supply the thyroid gland with blood, while the superior and middle thyroid veins drain into the internal jugular vein, and the inferior thyroid vein drains into the brachiocephalic veins.
In summary, the thyroid gland is a vital gland located in the neck, responsible for producing hormones that regulate metabolism. Its anatomy is complex, and it is surrounded by various structures that are essential for its function. Understanding the anatomy of the thyroid gland is crucial for the diagnosis and treatment of thyroid disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 14
Correct
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A 65-year-old man is scheduled for a revisional total hip replacement via a posterior approach. During the procedure, upon dividing the gluteus maximus along its fiber line, there is sudden arterial bleeding. Which vessel is most likely the source of the bleeding?
Your Answer: Inferior gluteal artery
Explanation:The internal iliac artery gives rise to the inferior gluteal artery, which travels along the deep side of the gluteus maximus muscle. This artery is often separated when using the posterior approach to the hip joint.
Anatomy of the Hip Joint
The hip joint is formed by the articulation of the head of the femur with the acetabulum of the pelvis. Both of these structures are covered by articular hyaline cartilage. The acetabulum is formed at the junction of the ilium, pubis, and ischium, and is separated by the triradiate cartilage, which is a Y-shaped growth plate. The femoral head is held in place by the acetabular labrum. The normal angle between the femoral head and shaft is 130 degrees.
There are several ligaments that support the hip joint. The transverse ligament connects the anterior and posterior ends of the articular cartilage, while the head of femur ligament (ligamentum teres) connects the acetabular notch to the fovea. In children, this ligament contains the arterial supply to the head of the femur. There are also extracapsular ligaments, including the iliofemoral ligament, which runs from the anterior iliac spine to the trochanteric line, the pubofemoral ligament, which connects the acetabulum to the lesser trochanter, and the ischiofemoral ligament, which provides posterior support from the ischium to the greater trochanter.
The blood supply to the hip joint comes from the medial circumflex femoral and lateral circumflex femoral arteries, which are branches of the profunda femoris. The inferior gluteal artery also contributes to the blood supply. These arteries form an anastomosis and travel up the femoral neck to supply the head of the femur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 15
Correct
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Which one of the following is true in relation to the sartorius muscle?
Your Answer: Forms the Pes anserinus with Gracilis and semitendinous muscle
Explanation:The superficial branch of the femoral nerve provides innervation to it. It is a constituent of the pes anserinus.
The Sartorius Muscle: Anatomy and Function
The sartorius muscle is the longest strap muscle in the human body and is located in the anterior compartment of the thigh. It is the most superficial muscle in this region and has a unique origin and insertion. The muscle originates from the anterior superior iliac spine and inserts on the medial surface of the body of the tibia, anterior to the gracilis and semitendinosus muscles. The sartorius muscle is innervated by the femoral nerve (L2,3).
The primary action of the sartorius muscle is to flex the hip and knee, while also slightly abducting the thigh and rotating it laterally. It also assists with medial rotation of the tibia on the femur, which is important for movements such as crossing one leg over the other. The middle third of the muscle, along with its strong underlying fascia, forms the roof of the adductor canal. This canal contains important structures such as the femoral vessels, the saphenous nerve, and the nerve to vastus medialis.
In summary, the sartorius muscle is a unique muscle in the anterior compartment of the thigh that plays an important role in hip and knee flexion, thigh abduction, and lateral rotation. Its location and relationship to the adductor canal make it an important landmark for surgical procedures in the thigh region.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 16
Correct
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A 65-year-old man is set to undergo a surgical procedure to drain an abscess situated on the medial side of his lower leg. The anaesthetist plans to administer a saphenous nerve block by injecting a local anaesthetic through the adductor canal's roof. What is the muscular structure that the needle for the local anaesthetic must pass through?
Your Answer: Sartorius
Explanation:The Adductor Canal: Anatomy and Contents
The adductor canal, also known as Hunter’s or the subsartorial canal, is a structure located in the middle third of the thigh, immediately distal to the apex of the femoral triangle. It is bordered laterally by the vastus medialis muscle and posteriorly by the adductor longus and adductor magnus muscles. The roof of the canal is formed by the sartorius muscle. The canal terminates at the adductor hiatus.
The adductor canal contains three important structures: the saphenous nerve, the superficial femoral artery, and the superficial femoral vein. The saphenous nerve is a sensory nerve that supplies the skin of the medial leg and foot. The superficial femoral artery is a major artery that supplies blood to the lower limb. The superficial femoral vein is a large vein that drains blood from the lower limb.
In order to expose the contents of the adductor canal, the sartorius muscle must be removed. Understanding the anatomy and contents of the adductor canal is important for medical professionals who perform procedures in this area, such as nerve blocks or vascular surgeries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 17
Correct
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A 78-year-old man is receiving community physiotherapy after a prolonged period of immobility caused by depression. He is experiencing difficulty with hip abduction. Which muscle is primarily responsible for this movement?
Your Answer: Gluteus medius
Explanation:The correct muscle for hip abduction is the gluteus medius, which has anterior and posterior parts. The anterior part contributes to hip flexion and internal rotation, while the posterior part contributes to hip extension and external rotation. When both parts work together, they abduct the hip. The gluteus maximus primarily functions for hip extension and external rotation, while the hamstrings coordinate flexion and extension of the hip and knee joints but do not contribute to abduction. The iliopsoas primarily functions for hip extension.
Anatomy of the Hip Joint
The hip joint is formed by the articulation of the head of the femur with the acetabulum of the pelvis. Both of these structures are covered by articular hyaline cartilage. The acetabulum is formed at the junction of the ilium, pubis, and ischium, and is separated by the triradiate cartilage, which is a Y-shaped growth plate. The femoral head is held in place by the acetabular labrum. The normal angle between the femoral head and shaft is 130 degrees.
There are several ligaments that support the hip joint. The transverse ligament connects the anterior and posterior ends of the articular cartilage, while the head of femur ligament (ligamentum teres) connects the acetabular notch to the fovea. In children, this ligament contains the arterial supply to the head of the femur. There are also extracapsular ligaments, including the iliofemoral ligament, which runs from the anterior iliac spine to the trochanteric line, the pubofemoral ligament, which connects the acetabulum to the lesser trochanter, and the ischiofemoral ligament, which provides posterior support from the ischium to the greater trochanter.
The blood supply to the hip joint comes from the medial circumflex femoral and lateral circumflex femoral arteries, which are branches of the profunda femoris. The inferior gluteal artery also contributes to the blood supply. These arteries form an anastomosis and travel up the femoral neck to supply the head of the femur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Roughly what percentage of saliva production comes from the submandibular glands?
Your Answer: 40%
Correct Answer: 70%
Explanation:Anatomy of the Submandibular Gland
The submandibular gland is located beneath the mandible and is surrounded by the superficial platysma, deep fascia, and mandible. It is also in close proximity to various structures such as the submandibular lymph nodes, facial vein, marginal mandibular nerve, cervical branch of the facial nerve, deep facial artery, mylohyoid muscle, hyoglossus muscle, lingual nerve, submandibular ganglion, and hypoglossal nerve.
The submandibular duct, also known as Wharton’s duct, is responsible for draining saliva from the gland. It opens laterally to the lingual frenulum on the anterior floor of the mouth and is approximately 5 cm in length. The lingual nerve wraps around the duct, and as it passes forward, it crosses medial to the nerve to lie above it before crossing back, lateral to it, to reach a position below the nerve.
The submandibular gland receives sympathetic innervation from the superior cervical ganglion and parasympathetic innervation from the submandibular ganglion via the lingual nerve. Its arterial supply comes from a branch of the facial artery, which passes through the gland to groove its deep surface before emerging onto the face by passing between the gland and the mandible. The anterior facial vein provides venous drainage, and the gland’s lymphatic drainage goes to the deep cervical and jugular chains of nodes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 19
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman from Afghanistan visits her GP complaining of weakness and bony pain in her legs. She denies experiencing any abdominal pain or changes in bowel habits and has no significant medical or surgical history. Upon conducting a blood test, the following results were obtained:
- Calcium: 1.8 mmol/L (normal range: 2.1-2.6)
- Phosphate: 0.5 mmol/L (normal range: 0.8-1.4)
- ALP: 240 u/L (normal range: 30-100)
- PTH: 78 pg/ml (normal range: 15-65)
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Osteomalacia
Explanation:The correct diagnosis for this patient is osteomalacia, which is characterized by low serum calcium, low serum phosphate, raised ALP, and raised PTH. It is important to identify the risk factors for osteomalacia, such as decreased sunlight exposure, which can lead to vitamin D deficiency and subsequent hypocalcaemia. In response to hypocalcaemia, PTH levels increase, as seen in this case.
Acute pancreatitis is an incorrect diagnosis as it does not fit the patient’s clinical picture. Osteoarthritis is also an incorrect diagnosis as it would not cause changes in serum calcium, ALP, or PTH levels. Primary hyperparathyroidism is also an incorrect diagnosis as it is associated with high levels of PTH and calcium, which is not seen in this patient.
Lab Values for Bone Disorders
When it comes to bone disorders, certain lab values can provide important information about the condition. In cases of osteoporosis, calcium, phosphate, alkaline phosphatase (ALP), and parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels are typically normal. However, in osteomalacia, calcium and phosphate levels are decreased while ALP and PTH levels are increased. Primary hyperparathyroidism, which can lead to osteitis fibrosa cystica, is characterized by increased calcium and PTH levels but decreased phosphate levels. Chronic kidney disease can result in secondary hyperparathyroidism, which is marked by decreased calcium levels and increased phosphate and PTH levels. Paget’s disease, on the other hand, typically shows normal calcium and phosphate levels but increased ALP levels. Finally, osteopetrosis is associated with normal levels of calcium, phosphate, ALP, and PTH. By analyzing these lab values, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and treat bone disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman visits the rheumatology clinic due to worsening joint pain caused by her longstanding rheumatoid arthritis. Her symptoms have progressed to the point where she can no longer perform her daily activities. She is interested in trying infliximab after hearing about it from a friend and reading about it online. She wants to know how the drug works and how it can potentially alleviate her symptoms.
What is the mechanism of action of infliximab?Your Answer: Anti-CD20
Correct Answer: Anti-TNF
Explanation:Infliximab targets TNF through its monoclonal antibody action, while rituximab targets CD20, cetuximab acts as an antagonist to epidermal growth factor receptor, alemtuzumab targets CD52, and OKT3 targets CD3.
Understanding Tumour Necrosis Factor and its Inhibitors
Tumour necrosis factor (TNF) is a cytokine that plays a crucial role in the immune system. It is mainly secreted by macrophages and has various effects on the immune system, such as activating macrophages and neutrophils, acting as a costimulator for T cell activation, and mediating the body’s response to Gram-negative septicaemia. TNF also has anti-tumour effects and binds to both the p55 and p75 receptor, inducing apoptosis and activating NFkB.
TNF has endothelial effects, including increased expression of selectins and production of platelet activating factor, IL-1, and prostaglandins. It also promotes the proliferation of fibroblasts and their production of protease and collagenase. TNF inhibitors are used to treat inflammatory conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis and Crohn’s disease. Examples of TNF inhibitors include infliximab, etanercept, adalimumab, and golimumab.
Infliximab is also used to treat active Crohn’s disease unresponsive to steroids. However, TNF blockers can have adverse effects such as reactivation of latent tuberculosis and demyelination. Understanding TNF and its inhibitors is crucial in the treatment of various inflammatory conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
