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  • Question 1 - A 25-year-old homosexual male has tested positive for both IgM anti-HBc antibody and...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old homosexual male has tested positive for both IgM anti-HBc antibody and hepatitis B surface antigens. What is his current disease state?

      Your Answer: Acutely infected

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B and its Markers

      Hepatitis B surface antigen is a marker that indicates the presence of the hepatitis B virus in the cells of the host. This marker is present in both chronic and acute infections. Patients infected with hepatitis B will produce antibodies to the core antigen. IgM antibodies are indicative of acute infection and are not present in chronic infections. On the other hand, IgG antibodies to the core antigen are present even after the infection has been cleared.

      Antibodies to the surface antigen are produced in individuals who have been vaccinated against hepatitis B. This confers natural immunity once the infection has been cleared. the markers of hepatitis B is crucial in diagnosing and managing the infection. It is important to note that chronic hepatitis B can lead to serious liver damage and even liver cancer if left untreated. Therefore, early detection and treatment are essential in preventing complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      10.8
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  • Question 2 - A 78-year-old male is brought to the Emergency department by ambulance after experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old male is brought to the Emergency department by ambulance after experiencing a cardiac arrest. The ambulance crew is currently performing resuscitation attempts. Upon arrival, the patient has been intubated and connected to a defibrillator monitor, which shows a slow sinus rhythm (pulseless electrical activity) at a rate of 30 complexes per minute. The patient has been administered the full drugs protocol in accordance with the latest Adult Advanced Life Support guidelines. What do these guidelines recommend regarding the use of adrenaline during cardiac arrest?

      Your Answer: If the patient is bradycardic, atropine should be used instead of adrenaline during resuscitation attempts

      Correct Answer: Adrenaline 1 mg should be given immediately and then two cycles whilst in this rhythm

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline is an integral part of Advanced Life Support attempts during cardiac arrest, with a recommended dose of 1 mg given immediately and then after every 2 cycles. However, there is increasing evidence that the use of adrenaline during resuscitation attempts may be detrimental to a patient’s chance of survival. Atropine, a drug used in bradycardia, was removed from the algorithm for Advanced Life Support in 2010 as there was little evidence it had any effect in cardiac arrest situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      61.7
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  • Question 3 - A 57-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with increasing lethargy. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with increasing lethargy. She has a history of drinking a bottle of vodka daily and has been experiencing persistent vomiting for the past week.

      On examination, her pulse is 96/min and blood pressure is 109/70 mmHg. The following blood results are obtained:

      - pH 7.32 (7.36-7.44)
      - PaO2 12.0 kPa (11.3-12.6)
      - PaCO2 3.1 kPa (4.7-6.0)
      - Standard bicarbonate 10 mmol/L (20-28)
      - Base excess −8 mmol/L (+/−2)
      - Lactate 1.2 mmol/L (0.5-2.2)
      - Sodium 142 mmol/L (137-144)
      - Potassium 3.4 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      - Urea 6.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      - Creatinine 72 µmol/L (60-110)
      - Plasma glucose 3.4 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)
      - Urine analysis Ketones +++

      What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: IV 5% dextrose plus 40 mmoles potassium chloride followed by thiamine

      Correct Answer: IV thiamine followed by 5% dextrose plus 40 mmoles potassium chloride

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Starvation Ketosis in Alcoholic Abuse Patients

      Alcoholic abuse patients with starvation ketosis exhibit low pH, low bicarbonate, low base excess, and compensatory low PaCO2. The appropriate treatment for this condition is intravenous (IV) dextrose. However, it is important to note that glucose can trigger Wernicke’s encephalopathy, a neurological disorder that affects the brain’s ability to process information. Therefore, before administering IV dextrose, patients with alcoholic abuse and starvation ketosis require initial treatment with IV Pabrinex.

      In summary, patients with alcoholic abuse and starvation ketosis require prompt medical attention to prevent further complications. The treatment involves administering IV Pabrinex before IV dextrose to avoid triggering Wernicke’s encephalopathy. This approach can help stabilize the patient’s condition and prevent further health complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      67.1
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  • Question 4 - A 23-year-old gardener experiences a sudden onset of breathlessness and right-sided chest pain...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old gardener experiences a sudden onset of breathlessness and right-sided chest pain while tending to the plants. He is quickly taken to the hospital, but his condition deteriorates during the examination conducted by a junior doctor.

      The doctor notes a deviated trachea to the left and very faint breath sounds over the right lung. However, with the assistance of a senior doctor, the patient's condition improves rapidly.

      What is the likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Tension pneumothorax

      Explanation:

      Recognizing and Treating Tension Pneumothorax

      Sudden chest pain and difficulty breathing in a previously healthy young man may indicate the presence of pneumothorax. It is important to be able to recognize and treat a tension pneumothorax if it occurs during a physical examination. There are many stories of patients developing tension pneumothorax while in the hospital, so it is crucial to be prepared.

      The treatment for tension pneumothorax involves needle thoracocentesis in the second intercostal space. It is not necessary to obtain a chest X-ray before performing this procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      25.3
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  • Question 5 - A 48-year-old woman presented to the general medical clinic with a complaint of...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old woman presented to the general medical clinic with a complaint of progressive diffuse myalgia and weakness that had been ongoing for three months. She reported experiencing difficulty walking up and down stairs due to weakness in her shoulder muscles and thighs. Her medical history included hypertension and hyperlipidemia, for which she took atenolol and simvastatin regularly. On examination, there were no abnormalities in the cranial nerves or detectable neck weakness. However, there was general myalgia in the upper limbs and proximal weakness of 3/5 with preserved distal power. A similar pattern of weakness was observed in the lower limbs with preserved tone, reflexes, and sensation.

      The following investigations were conducted: haemoglobin, white cell count, platelets, ESR (Westergren), serum sodium, serum potassium, serum urea, serum creatinine, plasma lactate, serum creatine kinase, fasting plasma glucose, serum cholesterol, plasma TSH, plasma T4, and plasma T3. Urinalysis was normal.

      Based on these findings, what is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Statin-induced myopathy

      Explanation:

      Statins and Muscle Disorders

      Myalgia, myositis, and myopathy are all known side effects of HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors, commonly known as statins. The risk of these muscle disorders increases when statins are taken in combination with a fibrate or with immunosuppressants. If therapy is not discontinued, rhabdomyolysis may occur, which can lead to acute renal failure due to myoglobinuria. Inclusion body myositis is a type of inflammatory myopathy that causes weakness in a distal and asymmetric pattern. On the other hand, McArdle’s disease is an autosomal recessive condition that typically presents in children with painful muscle cramps and myoglobinuria after intense exercise. This condition is caused by a deficiency in myophosphorylase, which impairs the body’s ability to utilize glucose. There are no additional neurological symptoms to suggest a mitochondrial disorder, and the plasma lactate level is normal. Finally, neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but serious side effect of antipsychotic medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      15
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  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old male presents with wheezing and a respiratory rate of 35/min, a...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male presents with wheezing and a respiratory rate of 35/min, a pulse of 120 beats per min, blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, and a peak expiratory flow rate of less than 50% predicted. He has received back-to-back nebulisers of salbutamol 5 mg and ipratropium 0.5 mg for the past 45 minutes and is currently on face mask oxygen. Additionally, he has been given hydrocortisone 100 mg IV, and the intensive care team has been notified.

      An arterial blood gas test was performed on high-flow oxygen, revealing a pH of 7.42 (7.36-7.44), PaCO2 of 5.0 kPa (4.7-6.0), PaO2 of 22 kPa (11.3-12.6), base excess of -2 mmol/L (+/-2), and SpO2 of 98.

      What is the recommended next step in therapy for this patient?

      Your Answer: Magnesium 1-2 g IV

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Life Threatening Asthma

      This patient is experiencing life threatening asthma, which requires immediate treatment. A normal PaCO2 in an asthmatic can indicate impending respiratory failure. The initial treatment involves administering β2-agonists, preferably nebuliser with oxygen, and repeating doses every 15-30 minutes. Nebulised ipratropium bromide should also be added for patients with acute severe or life threatening asthma. Oxygen should be given to maintain saturations at 94-98%, and patients with saturations less than 92% on air should have an ABG to exclude hypercapnia. Intravenous magnesium sulphate can be used if the patient fails to respond to initial treatment. Intensive care is indicated for patients with severe acute or life threatening asthma who are failing to respond to therapy. Steroids should also be given early in the attack to reduce mortality and improve outcomes.

      It is important to note that chest radiographs are not necessary unless there is suspicion of pneumothorax or consolidation, or if the patient is experiencing life threatening asthma, a failure to respond to treatment, or a need for ventilation. Additionally, all patients who are transferred to an intensive care unit should be accompanied by a doctor who can intubate if necessary. In this case, if the patient fails to respond to magnesium, intubation and ventilation may be necessary. It is crucial to discuss the patient’s condition with ITU colleagues during treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      23.8
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  • Question 7 - The following arterial blood gases (ABGs) were taken from an unconscious 50-year-old woman...

    Correct

    • The following arterial blood gases (ABGs) were taken from an unconscious 50-year-old woman in the Emergency department on FiO2 of 21%:
      pH 7.36 (7.36-7.44)
      pO2 13.0 kPa (11.3-12.6)
      pCO2 3.7 kPa (4.7-6.0)
      HCO3− 15 mmol/L (20-28)

      What is the correct interpretation of the ABG result?

      Your Answer: Compensated metabolic acidosis

      Explanation:

      Interpretation of ABG Results

      The pH and bicarbonate levels in the ABG results indicate the presence of acidosis. However, the low level of carbon dioxide suggests that it is more likely to be metabolic acidosis rather than respiratory acidosis. The body tries to compensate for the acidosis by increasing the respiratory rate, which helps to eliminate excess hydrogen ions as carbon dioxide. This compensation can also lead to high oxygen levels due to deep and rapid breathing. However, it is important to note that high oxygen levels may also be a result of oxygen therapy provided in the Emergency department. It is worth mentioning that delayed analysis of ABG samples can sometimes lead to inaccurate results, such as a falsely low pO2. However, there is no indication that this has occurred in this particular case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      50.1
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  • Question 8 - As the ward cover foundation year doctor, you receive a fast bleep at...

    Correct

    • As the ward cover foundation year doctor, you receive a fast bleep at 2 am for a patient experiencing a tonic clonic seizure. The nurse informs you that the patient, who is in for neuro observations, sustained a head injury six hours ago in the Emergency Department. The patient currently has an IV cannula, but the nurse has already administered PR diazepam as prescribed on the drug chart. The seizure has been ongoing for about 8 minutes now.

      Fifteen minutes ago, the patient's neuro observations were as follows: HR 70, BP 135/65 mmHg, RR 18, O2 97% on room air, and BM 7.0.

      What would be your next course of drug therapy for this patient, who is slightly older than the previous case?

      Your Answer: Lorazepam 4 mg IV

      Explanation:

      Management Algorithm for Seizures

      It is crucial to have knowledge of the management algorithm for seizures to prevent prolonged seizures that can lead to cerebral damage and hypoxia. The first line of management is a benzodiazepine, which can be repeated if there is no improvement after five minutes of ongoing fitting. Intravenous administration is preferred, but if an IV line is not available, the rectal route is recommended for ease and speed of treatment. Rectal diazepam is commonly prescribed on the PRN section of the drug chart for nursing staff who cannot administer IV drugs.

      In cases where an IV line is present and seizures persist, an IV benzodiazepine such as lorazepam is preferred due to its quick onset and shorter duration of action. Buccal midazolam is now being used in children as a quick and easy route of administration that avoids distressing PR administration. If seizures continue despite two doses of benzodiazepines, phenytoin should be initiated, and senior and expert help is required. If seizures persist, intubation and ventilation may be necessary.

      It is important to remember to obtain an early blood sugar test as hypoglycemic patients may remain refractive to antiepileptic therapies until their sugars are normalized. The acronym ABC then DEFG (Do not ever forget glucose) can help in remembering the order of management steps. Proper management of seizures can prevent further complications and ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      83.6
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  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old woman presents with sudden chest pain and difficulty breathing. She recently...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with sudden chest pain and difficulty breathing. She recently returned from a trip to Italy with her family. She has no significant medical history but takes oral contraceptives. On examination, her pulse is 100 bpm, temperature is 37°C, oxygen saturation is 95%, respiratory rate is 28/min, and blood pressure is 116/76 mmHg. Chest examination is unremarkable and chest x-ray is normal. What is the most appropriate diagnostic test to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: CTPA scan

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Pulmonary Embolism in a Woman with Chest Pain and Dyspnoea

      This woman is experiencing chest pain and difficulty breathing, with a rapid heart rate and breathing rate. However, there are no visible signs on chest examination and her chest x-ray appears normal. Despite having no fever, her oxygen levels are lower than expected for a healthy person. To rule out a pulmonary embolism, doctors must consider risk factors such as recent air travel and use of oral contraceptives.

      The gold standard for diagnosing a pulmonary embolism is a CT pulmonary angiogram, as it can detect even large saddle emboli near the pulmonary arteries. While VQ scanning was previously used, it can miss these larger emboli. Additionally, doctors may perform Doppler ultrasounds of the venous system to check for deep vein thrombosis.

      This presentation is not indicative of atypical pneumonia, such as Legionella, as the patient’s temperature would be expected to be high and chest signs would be present. Overall, a thorough evaluation is necessary to accurately diagnose and treat a pulmonary embolism in a patient with chest pain and dyspnoea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      16
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  • Question 10 - A 26-year-old man with a history of asthma is admitted to the hospital...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old man with a history of asthma is admitted to the hospital for a left lower lobe pneumonia. He is prescribed amoxicillin, but within two minutes of taking the antibiotic, he complains of feeling unwell. A rapidly developing, erythematosus, macular rash appears on his trunk and limbs, along with large wheals on his torso. He also experiences lip and tongue swelling and a harsh wheeze is heard when his chest is auscultated. His blood pressure is 84/39 mmHg, and his heart rate is 167 bpm, which is determined to be a sinus tachycardia when connected to cardiac monitoring. His oxygen saturation levels are at 90% on air, so he is put on high flow oxygen.

      What is the most appropriate drug to administer next?

      Your Answer: Adrenaline 1:1000 0.5 ml (500 mcg equivalent) intramuscular

      Explanation:

      The vignette describes a classical anaphylactic reaction, possibly caused by recent administration of penicillin. Anaphylaxis is characterized by massive mast cell degranulation and cytokine release, leading to rash, swelling, mucous membrane swelling, airway obstruction, hypotension, tachycardia, and wheezing. Treatment includes hydrocortisone, chlorphenamine, and adrenaline, which acts as an agonist at all subtypes of the adrenergic receptor to maintain blood pressure and alleviate wheezing. Intravenous adrenaline is not recommended outside of the intensive care setting, but may be used in life-threatening situations such as cardiac arrest. Intravenous fluids should also be considered. Metoprolol, a β-1 antagonist drug, is not part of the anaphylaxis algorithm and is contraindicated in asthmatic patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      20.6
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Emergency Medicine (8/10) 80%
Passmed