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Question 1
Incorrect
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A child presents with a severe acute asthma attack. After a poor response to their initial salbutamol nebulizer, you administer a second nebulizer that also contains ipratropium bromide. How long would it take for the ipratropium bromide to have its maximum effect?
Your Answer: 15-30 minutes
Correct Answer: 30-60 minutes
Explanation:Ipratropium bromide is a medication that falls under the category of antimuscarinic drugs. It is commonly used to manage acute asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). While it can provide short-term relief for chronic asthma, it is generally recommended to use short-acting β2 agonists as they act more quickly and are preferred.
According to the guidelines set by the British Thoracic Society (BTS), nebulized ipratropium bromide (0.5 mg every 4-6 hours) can be added to β2 agonist treatment for patients with acute severe or life-threatening asthma, or those who do not respond well to initial β2 agonist therapy.
For mild cases of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, aerosol inhalation of ipratropium can be used for short-term relief, as long as the patient is not already using a long-acting antimuscarinic drug like tiotropium. The maximum effect of ipratropium occurs within 30-60 minutes after use, and its bronchodilating effects can last for 3-6 hours. Typically, treatment with ipratropium is recommended three times a day to maintain bronchodilation.
The most common side effect of ipratropium bromide is dry mouth. Other potential side effects include constipation, cough, paroxysmal bronchospasm, headache, nausea, and palpitations. It is important to note that ipratropium can cause urinary retention in patients with prostatic hyperplasia and bladder outflow obstruction. Additionally, it can trigger acute closed-angle glaucoma in susceptible patients.
For more information on the management of asthma, it is recommended to refer to the BTS/SIGN Guideline on the Management of Asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman comes in with a one-week history of fatigue, fever, headache, muscle aches, and a dry cough that has now started to produce a small amount of sputum. She has also been experiencing occasional episodes of diarrhea for the past two days. During the examination, audible crackles are heard at the base of her lungs. Her blood test results today show evidence of hemolytic anemia and the presence of cold agglutinins.
What is the SINGLE most appropriate antibiotic to prescribe for this patient?Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav
Correct Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:This patient presents with symptoms and signs that are consistent with an atypical pneumonia, most likely caused by an infection with Mycoplasma pneumoniae. The clinical features of Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection include a flu-like illness that precedes respiratory symptoms, along with fever, myalgia, headache, diarrhea, and cough (initially dry but often becoming productive). Focal chest signs typically develop later in the course of the illness.
Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection is commonly associated with the development of erythema multiforme, a rash characterized by multiple red lesions on the limbs that evolve into target lesions a few days after the rash appears. Additionally, this infection can also cause Steven-Johnson syndrome. It is worth noting that haemolytic anaemia with cold agglutinins can complicate Mycoplasma pneumoniae infections, providing further evidence for the diagnosis.
The recommended first-line antibiotic for treating this case would be a macrolide, such as clarithromycin. Doxycycline can also be used but is generally considered a second-line option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man comes in with a history of a high temperature, loss of smell, a persistent cough, and increasing difficulty breathing. He underwent a COVID-19 test two days ago, which has returned positive.
Which established scoring system can be utilized to forecast the risk of severe respiratory illness within 24 hours for patients admitted from the emergency department with COVID-19?Your Answer: CURB-65 Score
Correct Answer: qCSI Score
Explanation:The qCSI Score, also known as the Quick COVID-19 Severity Index, is a tool that can predict the risk of critical respiratory illness in patients who are admitted from the emergency department with COVID-19. This score takes into consideration three criteria: respiratory rate, pulse oximetry, and oxygen flow rate. By assessing these factors, the qCSI Score can provide an estimation of the 24-hour risk of severe respiratory complications in these patients.
On the other hand, the qSOFA Score is a different tool that is used to identify high-risk patients for in-hospital mortality when there is a suspicion of infection, particularly in cases of sepsis. However, it is important to note that the qSOFA Score is not specifically designed for use in the setting of febrile neutropenia.
Another scoring system, known as the CURB-65 Score, is utilized to estimate the mortality risk associated with community-acquired pneumonia. This score helps healthcare professionals determine whether a patient should receive inpatient or outpatient treatment based on their likelihood of experiencing adverse outcomes.
Lastly, the SCAP Score is a scoring system that predicts the risk of adverse outcomes in patients with community-acquired pneumonia who present to the emergency department. By assessing various clinical factors, this score can provide valuable information to healthcare providers regarding the potential severity of the illness and the need for further intervention.
In addition to these scores, there is also the MASCC Risk Index Score, which is specifically used in the context of cancer patients receiving supportive care. This score helps assess the risk of complications in this vulnerable population and aids in making informed decisions regarding their treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 4
Incorrect
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You evaluate a 70 year old male who complains of chest tightness during physical activity. The patient reports a gradual increase in shortness of breath during exertion over the past half year. During the examination, you observe a murmur and suspect aortic stenosis. Which of the following characteristics is commonly seen in symptomatic individuals with aortic stenosis?
Your Answer: Loud S2
Correct Answer: Slow rising pulse
Explanation:Severe aortic stenosis is characterized by several distinct features. These include a narrow pulse pressure, which refers to the difference between the systolic and diastolic blood pressure readings. Additionally, individuals with severe aortic stenosis may exhibit a slow rising pulse, meaning that the pulse wave takes longer to reach its peak. Another common feature is a delayed ejection systolic murmur, which is a heart sound that occurs during the ejection phase of the cardiac cycle. The second heart sound (S2) may also be soft or absent in individuals with severe aortic stenosis. Another potential finding is the presence of an S4 heart sound, which occurs during the filling phase of the cardiac cycle. A thrill, which is a palpable vibration, may also be felt in severe cases. The duration of the murmur, as well as the presence of left ventricular hypertrophy or failure, are additional features that may be observed in individuals with severe aortic stenosis.
Further Reading:
Valvular heart disease refers to conditions that affect the valves of the heart. In the case of aortic valve disease, there are two main conditions: aortic regurgitation and aortic stenosis.
Aortic regurgitation is characterized by an early diastolic murmur, a collapsing pulse (also known as a water hammer pulse), and a wide pulse pressure. In severe cases, there may be a mid-diastolic Austin-Flint murmur due to partial closure of the anterior mitral valve cusps caused by the regurgitation streams. The first and second heart sounds (S1 and S2) may be soft, and S2 may even be absent. Additionally, there may be a hyperdynamic apical pulse. Causes of aortic regurgitation include rheumatic fever, infective endocarditis, connective tissue diseases like rheumatoid arthritis and systemic lupus erythematosus, and a bicuspid aortic valve. Aortic root diseases such as aortic dissection, spondyloarthropathies like ankylosing spondylitis, hypertension, syphilis, and genetic conditions like Marfan’s syndrome and Ehler-Danlos syndrome can also lead to aortic regurgitation.
Aortic stenosis, on the other hand, is characterized by a narrow pulse pressure, a slow rising pulse, and a delayed ESM (ejection systolic murmur). The second heart sound (S2) may be soft or absent, and there may be an S4 (atrial gallop) that occurs just before S1. A thrill may also be felt. The duration of the murmur is an important factor in determining the severity of aortic stenosis. Causes of aortic stenosis include degenerative calcification (most common in older patients), a bicuspid aortic valve (most common in younger patients), William’s syndrome (supravalvular aortic stenosis), post-rheumatic disease, and subvalvular conditions like hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM).
Management of aortic valve disease depends on the severity of symptoms. Asymptomatic patients are generally observed, while symptomatic patients may require valve replacement. Surgery may also be considered for asymptomatic patients with a valvular gradient greater than 40 mmHg and features such as left ventricular systolic dysfunction. Balloon valvuloplasty is limited to patients with critical aortic stenosis who are not fit for valve replacement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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You evaluate a teenager with tetralogy of Fallot in a pediatric cardiology clinic.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of tetralogy of Fallot?Your Answer: Ventricular septal defect
Correct Answer: Left ventricular hypertrophy
Explanation:Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is the most prevalent cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease. It is characterized by four distinct features: pulmonary infundibular stenosis, overriding aorta, ventricular septal defect, and right ventricular hypertrophy. TOF is often associated with various congenital syndromes, including DiGeorge syndrome (22q11 microdeletion syndrome), Trisomy 21, Foetal alcohol syndrome, and Maternal phenylketonuria.
Nowadays, many cases of TOF are identified during antenatal screening or early postnatal assessment due to the presence of a heart murmur. Initially, severe cyanosis is uncommon shortly after birth because the patent ductus arteriosus provides additional blood flow to the lungs. However, once the ductus arteriosus closes, typically a few days after birth, cyanosis can develop.
In cases where TOF goes undetected, the clinical manifestations may include severe cyanosis, poor feeding, breathlessness, dyspnea on exertion (such as prolonged crying), hypercyanotic spells triggered by activity, agitation, developmental delay, and failure to thrive. A cardiac examination may reveal a loud, long ejection systolic murmur caused by pulmonary stenosis, a systolic thrill at the lower left sternal edge, an aortic ejection click, and digital clubbing. Radiologically, a characteristic finding in TOF is a ‘boot-shaped’ heart (Coeur en sabot).
Treatment for TOF often involves two stages. Initially, a palliative procedure is performed to alleviate symptoms, followed by a total repair at a later stage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatal Emergencies
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 23 year old female comes to the emergency department complaining of left ear pain that has been present for 2 days. She mentions that the pain started the day after she went swimming. Upon examination of the left ear with an otoscope, the entire tympanic membrane is visible and appears red, but intact. There is also redness and swelling in the left ear canal with minimal white debris. The patient is diagnosed with mild otitis externa on the left side.
What would be the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Advise that no treatment is required and patient should expect resolution in 3-5 days
Correct Answer: Prescribe otomize spray for 7 days
Explanation:For mild cases of otitis externa, using ear drops or spray as the initial treatment is a reasonable option. The insertion of a medicated wick, known as a Pope wick, is typically reserved for patients with severely narrowed external auditory canals. Microsuction, on the other hand, is helpful for patients with excessive debris in their ear canal but is not necessary for this particular patient. In general, microsuction is usually only used for severe cases of otitis externa that require referral to an ear, nose, and throat specialist for further management.
Further Reading:
Otitis externa is inflammation of the skin and subdermis of the external ear canal. It can be acute, lasting less than 6 weeks, or chronic, lasting more than 3 months. Malignant otitis externa, also known as necrotising otitis externa, is a severe and potentially life-threatening infection that can spread to the bones and surrounding structures of the ear. It is most commonly caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
Symptoms of malignant otitis externa include severe and persistent ear pain, headache, discharge from the ear, fever, malaise, vertigo, and profound hearing loss. It can also lead to facial nerve palsy and other cranial nerve palsies. In severe cases, the infection can spread to the central nervous system, causing meningitis, brain abscess, and sepsis.
Acute otitis externa is typically caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa or Staphylococcus aureus, while chronic otitis externa can be caused by fungal infections such as Aspergillus or Candida albicans. Risk factors for otitis externa include eczema, psoriasis, dermatitis, acute otitis media, trauma to the ear canal, foreign bodies in the ear, water exposure, ear canal obstruction, and long-term antibiotic or steroid use.
Clinical features of otitis externa include itching of the ear canal, ear pain, tenderness of the tragus and/or pinna, ear discharge, hearing loss if the ear canal is completely blocked, redness and swelling of the ear canal, debris in the ear canal, and cellulitis of the pinna and adjacent skin. Tender regional lymphadenitis is uncommon.
Management of acute otitis externa involves general ear care measures, optimizing any underlying medical or skin conditions that are risk factors, avoiding the use of hearing aids or ear plugs if there is a suspected contact allergy, and avoiding the use of ear drops if there is a suspected allergy to any of its ingredients. Treatment options include over-the-counter acetic acid 2% ear drops or spray, aural toileting via dry swabbing, irrigation, or microsuction, and prescribing topical antibiotics with or without a topical corticosteroid. Oral antibiotics may be prescribed in severe cases or for immunocompromised individuals.
Follow-up is advised if symptoms do not improve within 48-72 hours of starting treatment, if symptoms have not fully resolved
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 7
Correct
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A 4 year old female is brought into the emergency department by concerned parents. They inform you that the patient started vomiting yesterday and has had multiple episodes of diarrhea since then. The patient has been drinking less than usual and has vomited after being given a drink. The parents mention that there has been no recent travel and that the patient's immunizations are up to date. On examination, the patient has dry lips and buccal mucosa. The abdomen is soft, but the child becomes irritable when the abdomen is palpated. The peripheries are warm with a capillary refill time of 2.5 seconds. The patient's vital signs are as follows:
Pulse: 146 bpm
Respiration rate: 32 bpm
Temperature: 37.9ºC
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Viral gastroenteritis
Explanation:Based on the given information, the most likely diagnosis for the 4-year-old female patient is viral gastroenteritis. This is supported by the symptoms of vomiting and diarrhea, as well as the fact that the patient has been drinking less than usual and has vomited after being given a drink. The absence of recent travel and up-to-date immunizations also suggest that this is a viral rather than a bacterial infection.
Further Reading:
Gastroenteritis is a common condition in children, particularly those under the age of 5. It is characterized by the sudden onset of diarrhea, with or without vomiting. The most common cause of gastroenteritis in infants and young children is rotavirus, although other viruses, bacteria, and parasites can also be responsible. Prior to the introduction of the rotavirus vaccine in 2013, rotavirus was the leading cause of gastroenteritis in children under 5 in the UK. However, the vaccine has led to a significant decrease in cases, with a drop of over 70% in subsequent years.
Norovirus is the most common cause of gastroenteritis in adults, but it also accounts for a significant number of cases in children. In England & Wales, there are approximately 8,000 cases of norovirus each year, with 15-20% of these cases occurring in children under 9.
When assessing a child with gastroenteritis, it is important to consider whether there may be another more serious underlying cause for their symptoms. Dehydration assessment is also crucial, as some children may require intravenous fluids. The NICE traffic light system can be used to identify the risk of serious illness in children under 5.
In terms of investigations, stool microbiological testing may be indicated in certain cases, such as when the patient has been abroad, if diarrhea lasts for more than 7 days, or if there is uncertainty over the diagnosis. U&Es may be necessary if intravenous fluid therapy is required or if there are symptoms and/or signs suggestive of hypernatremia. Blood cultures may be indicated if sepsis is suspected or if antibiotic therapy is planned.
Fluid management is a key aspect of treating children with gastroenteritis. In children without clinical dehydration, normal oral fluid intake should be encouraged, and oral rehydration solution (ORS) supplements may be considered. For children with dehydration, ORS solution is the preferred method of rehydration, unless intravenous fluid therapy is necessary. Intravenous fluids may be required for children with shock or those who are unable to tolerate ORS solution.
Antibiotics are generally not required for gastroenteritis in children, as most cases are viral or self-limiting. However, there are some exceptions, such as suspected or confirmed sepsis, Extraintestinal spread of bacterial infection, or specific infections like Clostridium difficile-associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis or giardiasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman with a history of sickle-cell disease undergoes a blood transfusion for severe anemia. Four weeks later, she arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of a skin rash, high body temperature, and diarrhea. Laboratory tests are ordered, revealing low levels of all blood cells and abnormal liver function.
What is the probable cause of this transfusion reaction?Your Answer: Antibodies against patient’s leukocytes
Correct Answer: T lymphocytes reacting against recipient’s tissues
Explanation:Blood transfusion is a potentially life-saving treatment that can provide great clinical benefits. However, it also carries several risks and potential problems. These include immunological complications, administration errors, infections, immune dilution, and transfusion errors. While there have been improvements in safety procedures and efforts to minimize the use of transfusion, errors and serious adverse reactions still occur and often go unreported.
One rare complication of blood transfusion is transfusion-associated graft-vs-host disease (TA-GVHD). This condition typically presents with fever, rash, and diarrhea 1-4 weeks after the transfusion. Laboratory findings may show pancytopenia and abnormalities in liver function. Unlike GVHD after marrow transplantation, TA-GVHD leads to severe marrow aplasia with a mortality rate exceeding 90%. Unfortunately, there are currently no effective treatments available for this condition, and survival is rare, with death usually occurring within 1-3 weeks of the first symptoms.
During a blood transfusion, viable T lymphocytes from the donor are transfused into the recipient’s body. In TA-GVHD, these lymphocytes engraft and react against the recipient’s tissues. However, the recipient is unable to reject the donor lymphocytes due to factors such as immunodeficiency, severe immunosuppression, or shared HLA antigens. Supportive management is the only option for TA-GVHD.
The following summarizes the main complications and reactions that can occur during a blood transfusion:
Complication Features Management
Febrile transfusion reaction
– Presents with a 1-degree rise in temperature from baseline, along with chills and malaise.
– Most common reaction, occurring in 1 out of 8 transfusions.
– Usually caused by cytokines from leukocytes in transfused red cell or platelet components.
– Supportive management, with the use of paracetamol for symptom relief.Acute haemolytic reaction
– Symptoms include fever, chills, pain at the transfusion site, nausea, vomiting, and dark urine.
– Often accompanied by a feeling of ‘impending doom’.
– Most serious type of reaction, often due to ABO incompatibility caused by administration errors.
– Immediate action required: stop the transfusion, administer IV fluids, and consider diuretics if necessary.Delayed haemolytic reaction
– Typically occurs 4-8 days after a blood transfusion.
– Symptoms include fever, anemia and/or hyperbilirubinemia -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 9
Correct
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A child who was diagnosed with bacterial conjunctivitis seven days ago presents with ongoing symptoms. During their last visit, they were reassured and given advice on general measures, but no antibiotics were prescribed. The symptoms have now worsened, and the eye is extremely sticky and crusted.
What is the most suitable course of action in managing this child's condition?Your Answer: Send swabs for viral PCR and bacterial culture and prescribe empirical topical antibiotics
Explanation:Here is a revised version of the guidance on the management of bacterial conjunctivitis:
– It is important to inform the patient that most cases of bacterial conjunctivitis will resolve on their own within 5-7 days without any treatment.
– However, if the condition is severe or if there is a need for rapid resolution, topical antibiotics may be prescribed. In some cases, a delayed treatment strategy may be appropriate, and the patient should be advised to start using topical antibiotics if their symptoms have not improved within 3 days.
– There are several options for topical antibiotics, including Chloramphenicol 0.5% drops (to be applied every 2 hours for 2 days, then 4 times daily for 5 days) and Chloramphenicol 1% ointment (to be applied four times daily for 2 days, then twice daily for 5 days). Fusidic acid 1% eye drops can also be used as a second-line treatment, to be applied twice daily for 7 days.
– It is important to note that there is no recommended exclusion period from school, nursery, or childminders for isolated cases of bacterial conjunctivitis. However, some institutions may have their own exclusion policies.
– Provide the patient with written information and explain the red flags that indicate the need for an urgent review.
– Arrange a follow-up appointment to confirm the diagnosis and ensure that the symptoms have resolved.
– If the patient returns with ongoing symptoms, it may be necessary to send swabs for viral PCR (to test for adenovirus and Herpes simplex) and bacterial culture. Empirical topical antibiotics may also be prescribed if they have not been previously given.
– Consider referring the patient to ophthalmology if the symptoms persist for more than 7 to 10 days after initiating treatment.For more information, you can refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on Infective Conjunctivitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 12 month old is brought into the emergency department by worried parents. The child has been experiencing diarrhea and has been eating poorly for the past 48 hours. Upon examination, the patient appears alert but shows signs of trembling and excessive sweating. The initial observations are as follows:
Pulse: 150 bpm
Respirations: 32 bpm
Temperature: 37.5ºC
Oxygen Saturations: 98% on air
Capillary glucose: 2.2 mmol/l
Urinalysis: NAD
What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Squeeze glucogel® into child’s mouth between the patients lower cheek and gum
Explanation:Diabetes Mellitus:
– Definition: a group of metabolic disorders characterized by persistent hyperglycemia caused by deficient insulin secretion, resistance to insulin, or both.
– Types: Type 1 diabetes (absolute insulin deficiency), Type 2 diabetes (insulin resistance and relative insulin deficiency), Gestational diabetes (develops during pregnancy), Other specific types (monogenic diabetes, diabetes secondary to pancreatic or endocrine disorders, diabetes secondary to drug treatment).
– Diagnosis: Type 1 diabetes diagnosed based on clinical grounds in adults presenting with hyperglycemia. Type 2 diabetes diagnosed in patients with persistent hyperglycemia and presence of symptoms or signs of diabetes.
– Risk factors for type 2 diabetes: obesity, inactivity, family history, ethnicity, history of gestational diabetes, certain drugs, polycystic ovary syndrome, metabolic syndrome, low birth weight.Hypoglycemia:
– Definition: lower than normal blood glucose concentration.
– Diagnosis: defined by Whipple’s triad (signs and symptoms of low blood glucose, low blood plasma glucose concentration, relief of symptoms after correcting low blood glucose).
– Blood glucose level for hypoglycemia: NICE defines it as <3.5 mmol/L, but there is inconsistency across the literature.
– Signs and symptoms: adrenergic or autonomic symptoms (sweating, hunger, tremor), neuroglycopenic symptoms (confusion, coma, convulsions), non-specific symptoms (headache, nausea).
– Treatment options: oral carbohydrate, buccal glucose gel, glucagon, dextrose. Treatment should be followed by re-checking glucose levels.Treatment of neonatal hypoglycemia:
– Treat with glucose IV infusion 10% given at a rate of 5 mL/kg/hour.
– Initial stat dose of 2 mL/kg over five minutes may be required for severe hypoglycemia.
– Mild asymptomatic persistent hypoglycemia may respond to a single dose of glucagon.
– If hypoglycemia is caused by an oral anti-diabetic drug, the patient should be admitted and ongoing glucose infusion or other therapies may be required.Note: Patients who have a hypoglycemic episode with a loss of warning symptoms should not drive and should inform the DVLA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatal Emergencies
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