-
Question 1
Correct
-
A participant of a metabolism study is to be fed only granulated sugar and water for 48 hours. What would be his expected respiratory quotient at the end of the study?
Your Answer: 1
Explanation:The respiratory quotient is the ratio of CO2 produced to O2 consumed while food is being metabolized:
RQ = CO2 eliminated/O2 consumed
Most energy sources are food containing carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. Examples include fat, carbohydrates, protein, and ethanol. The normal range of respiratory coefficients for organisms in metabolic balance usually ranges from 1.0-0.7.
Granulated sugar is a refined carbohydrate with no significant fat, protein or ethanol content.
The RQ for carbohydrates is = 1.0
The RQ for the rest of the compounds are:
Fats RQ = 0.7
The chemical composition of fats differs from that of carbohydrates in that fats contain considerably fewer oxygen atoms in proportion to atoms of carbon and hydrogen.Protein RQ = 0.8
Due to the complexity of various ways in which different amino acids can be metabolized, no single RQ can be assigned to the oxidation of protein in the diet; however, 0.8 is a frequently utilized estimate. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A radiologist is conducting an arch aortogram. She begins by entering the brachiocephalic artery using the angiography catheter. As she continues to advance the catheter, what vessels will the catheter enter?
Your Answer: Right subclavian artery
Explanation:As there is no brachiocephalic artery on the left side, the artery is entered by the catheter on the right side.
The brachiocephalic artery branches into the common carotid and the right subclavian artery, so the catheter is most likely to enter the right subclavian artery, or also possibly the right carotid.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
In the adrenal gland:
Your Answer: Catecholamine release is mediated by cholinergic nicotinic transmission
Explanation:The adrenal (suprarenal) gland is composed of two main parts: the adrenal cortex, which is the largest and outer part of the gland, and the adrenal medulla. The adrenal cortex consists of three zones: 1. Zona glomerulosa (outermost layer) is responsible for the production of mineralocorticoids, mainly aldosterone, which regulates blood pressure and electrolyte balance. 2. Zona fasciculata (middle layer) is responsible for the production of glucocorticoids, predominantly cortisol, which increases blood sugar levels via gluconeogenesis, suppresses the immune system, and aids in metabolism. It also produces 11-deoxycorticosterone and corticosterone in addition to cortisol. 3. Zona reticularis (innermost layer) is responsible for the production of gonadocorticoids, mainly dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA), which serves as the starting material for many other important hormones produced by the adrenal gland, such as oestrogen, progesterone, testosterone, and cortisol. It is also responsible for administering these hormones to the reproductive regions of the body.
The adrenal medulla majorly secretes epinephrine (adrenaline), and norepinephrine in small quantity. Both hormones have similar functions and initiate the flight or fight response.
Catecholamine is mediated by cholinergic nicotinic transmission through changes in sympathetic nervous system (T5 – T11), being increased during stress and hypoglycaemia.
Blood supply to the adrenal gland is by these three arteries: superior suprarenal arteries, middle suprarenal artery and inferior suprarenal artery. Venous drainage is via the suprarenal vein to the left renal vein or directly to the inferior vena cava on the right side. There is no portal (venous) system between cortex and medulla.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 64-year old male has shortness of breath on exertion and presented to the cardiology clinic. He has a transthoracic echo performed to help in assessing the function of his heart. How can this echo aid in calculating cardiac output?
Your Answer: (end diastolic LV volume - end systolic LV volume) x heart rate
Explanation:Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate
Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%
Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume
Pulse pressure = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure
Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
-a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
-increased stroke volume -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A chain smoker is interested in knowing how many years of his life would be lessened by smoking. You tell him explicitly that precise determination is impossible but you can tell him the proportion of people who died due to smoking. Which of the following epidemiological term is apt in this regard?
Your Answer: Attributable risk - the rate in the exposed group minus the rate in the unexposed group
Explanation:Attributable proportion is the proportion of disease that is caused due to exposure. It refers to the proportion of disease that would be eradicated from a particular population if the disease rate was diminished to match that of the unexposed group.
Risk ratio (relative risk) compares the probability of an event in an exposed (experimental) group to that of an event in the unexposed (control) group. Thus two are not the same.
The attributable risk is the rate of a disease in an exposed group to that of a group that has not been exposed to it i.e. how many deaths did the exposure cause.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
Which of the following statement is not true regarding Adrenaline or Epinephrine?
Your Answer: Inhibits Glucagon secretion in the pancreas
Explanation:Adrenaline acts on α1, α2, β1, and β2 receptors and also on dopamine receptors (D1, D2) and have sympathomimetic effects.
Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine
Adrenaline is a sympathomimetic amine with both alpha and beta-adrenergic stimulating properties.
Adrenaline is the drug of choice for anaphylactic shock
Adrenaline is also used in patients with cardiac arrest. The preferred route is i.v. followed by the intra-osseous and endotracheal route.Adrenaline is released by the adrenal glands, acts on α 1 and 2, β 1 and 2 receptors, and is responsible for fight or flight response.
It acts on β 2 receptors in skeletal muscle vessels-causing vasodilation.
It acts on α adrenergic receptors to inhibit insulin secretion by the pancreas. It also stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle, stimulates glycolysis in muscle.
It acts on β adrenergic receptors to stimulate glucagon secretion in the pancreas. It also stimulates Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone (ACTH) and stimulates lipolysis by adipose tissue
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statement is true or false regarding to the respiratory tract?
Your Answer: The trachea starts at the lower end of the thyroid cartilage at the level of the sixth cervical vertebra
Correct Answer: The sympathetic innervation of the bronchi is derived from T2 - T4
Explanation:The diaphragm has three opening through which different structures pass from the thoracic cavity to the abdominal cavity:
Inferior vena cava passes at the level of T8.
Oesophagus, oesophageal vessels and vagi at T10.
Aorta, thoracic duct and azygous vein through T12.
Sympathetic trunk and pulmonary branches of vagus nerve form a posterior pulmonary plexus at the root of the lung. Fibres continue posteriorly from superficial cardiac plexus to form Anterior pulmonary plexus. It contains vagi nerves and superficial cardiac plexus. These fibres then follow the blood vessel and bronchi into the lungs.
The lower border of the pleura is at the level of:
8th rib in the midclavicular line
10th rib in the lower level of midaxillary line
T12 at its termination.
Both lungs have oblique fissure while right lung has transverse fissure too.
The trachea expands from the lower edge of the cricoid cartilage (at the level of the 6th cervical vertebra) to the carina.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A 63-year-old woman, is admitted into hospital. She has undergone a thoracoscopic sympathectomy. To enable ease of access during surgery, her right arm has been abducted. On examination, immediately after surgery, she is noted to have lost the ability to abduct her right arm, with the presence a weak lateral rotation in the same arm. She has also lost sensation in the outer aspect of the lower deltoid area of the skin. Her symptoms are as a result of injury to a nerve during surgery. What nerve is it?
Your Answer: Axillary nerve
Explanation:The axillary nerve arises from spinal roots C5-C6. It has both sensory and motor functions:
Sensory: Provides innervation to the skin over the lower deltoid area
Motor: Provides innervation to the teres minor (responsible for stabilisation of glenohumeral joint and external rotation of shoulder joint) and deltoid muscles (responsible for abduction of arms glenohumeral joint).
Injury to the axillary nerve will result in the patient being unable to abduct the arm beyond 15 degrees and a loss of sensory feeling over lower deltoid area.
These symptoms could also be a result of over-abduction of the arm (>90°) which would cause the head of the humerus to become dislocated.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
Regarding a paramagnetic oxygen analyser, the following statements are TRUE:
Your Answer: Utilises null deflection
Explanation:The electrons in the outer shell of an oxygen molecule are unpaired, thus it has paramagnetic properties and is attracted into a magnetic field.
It utilizes null deflection -True
Null deflection is a crucial principle in paramagnetic analysers (reflected beam of light on two photocells) which gives very accurate results (typically 0.1%).It can be used to measure the concentration of diamagnetic gases – False
Since most other gases are weakly diamagnetic they are repelled by a magnetic field (nitric oxide is also paramagnetic).Can measure gases dissolved in the blood – False
For accurate analysis the sample gas must be dried before passing into the analysis cell, for example, by passage through silica gel. Therefore, they are unsuitable to measure gases dissolved in blood.Does not require calibration – False
As with most measurement instruments paramagnetic analysers must be calibrated before use.E) The readings are unaffected by water vapour – False
Water vapour affects the readings hence for accurate analysis the sample gas must be dried before passing into the analysis cell, for example, by passage through silica gel. That is why they are unsuitable to measure dissolved blood gases. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
One of two divisions of the autonomic nervous system is the sympathetic nervous system. It is both anatomically and physiologically different from the parasympathetic nervous system. Which best describes the anatomical layout of the sympathetic nervous system?
Your Answer: Short myelinated preganglionic neurones from T1-L5 in lateral horns of white matter of spinal cord, synapse in sympathetic ganglia (neurotransmitter - acetyl choline), long unmyelinated postganglionic neurones, synapse with effector organ (neurotransmitter - adrenaline or noradrenaline)
Correct Answer: Short myelinated preganglionic neurones from T1-L5 in lateral horns of grey matter of spinal cord, synapse in sympathetic ganglia (neurotransmitter - acetyl choline), long unmyelinated postganglionic neurones, synapse with effector organ (neurotransmitter - adrenaline or noradrenaline)
Explanation:The autonomic nervous system is divided into the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system. They are anatomically and physiologically different.
The sympathetic nervous system arises from the thoracolumbar outflow (T1-L5 ) at the lateral horns of grey matter of the spinal cord. Their preganglionic neurones are usually short myelinated and synapse in ganglia lateral to the vertebral column and have acetyl choline (Ach) as the neurotransmitter. Their postganglionic neurones are longer and unmyelinated and synapse with effector organ where the neurotransmitter is either adrenaline or noradrenaline.
The outflow of the parasympathetic nervous system is craniosacral. The cranial part originates from the midbrain and medulla (cranial nerves III, VII, IX and X) and the sacral outflow is from S2, S3 and S4. Their preganglionic neurones are usually long myelinated and synapse in ganglia close to the target organ and has Ach as its neurotransmitter. The unmyelinated postganglionic neurones is shorter and they synapse with effector organ. The neurotransmitter here is also Ach.
Both sympathetic and parasympathetic preganglionic neurons are cholinergic. Only the postganglionic parasympathetic neurons are cholinergic.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
Which statement is true with regards to the cardiac action potential?
Your Answer: The absolute refractory period begins with large influx of potassium ions. Offsets action of sodium channels.
Correct Answer: Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close causes the relative refractory period to start
Explanation:Cardiac conduction
Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium
Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop
Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period
Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period
Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
Among the following, which statement is true regarding electrical safety in an operation theatre?
Your Answer: Class III equipment are double-insulated
Correct Answer: The higher the frequency of the current the less risk to the patient
Explanation:The operating theatre is an unusual place with several applications of electrical equipment to the human body. This can lead to potential dangers associated with it that need to be prevented. Electrical safety in the operation theatre is the understanding of how these potential dangers can occur and how they can be prevented.
Electricity can cause morbidity or mortality by one of the following ways:
(i) electrocution
(ii) burns
(iii) ignition of a flammable material, causing a fire or explosion.Electrocution is dependant on factors like duration of contact with electric current, the current pathway and the frequency and size of current.
Option A: The higher the frequency, the less effects of electrocution on the body.
Option B & D: Equipment can be classified in classes and types.
The class designation describes the method used for protection against electrocution. Class I is basic protection, class II is double insulation and class III is safety extra low voltage.
The type designation describes the degree of protection based on the maximum permissible leakage currents under normal and fault conditions.
Type B:
can be class I, II or III but the maximum leakage current must not exceed 100 µA. It is therefore not suitable for direct connection to the heart.
Type BF
Similar to type B, but uses an isolated (or floating) circuit.
Type CF
Only type CF protect against microshock as they allow leakage currents of 0.05 mA per electrode for class I and 0.01 mA for class II. Microshock is a small leakage current that can cause harm because of direct connection to the heart via transvenous lines or wires, bypassing the impedance of the skin, leading to ventricular fibrillation. Microshock current of 100 μA is sufficient to cause VF.Option C: A 75mA electrocution can cause ventricular fibrillation. Use the following as a general guide to understand the effect of current size on the body.
1 mA – tingling pain
5 mA – pain
15 mA – tonic muscular contraction
50 mA – respiratory muscle paralysis
75 mA – ventricular fibrillation.Option E: Wet skin reduces the resistance to current flow and therefore increases the effects of electrocution.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old female suffered a TIA 2 weeks ago. She has been admitted to the vascular ward as she will be undergoing carotid endarterectomy tomorrow morning. To explain the procedure and its complications, the surgeon gives her information about the procedure, telling her the artery will be tied during the operation. She inquires about the areas supplied by the different arteries. You explain that the internal carotid artery supplies the brain while the external carotid artery ascends the neck and bifurcates into two arteries. One of these arteries is the superficial temporal artery. Which of the following is the second branch?
Your Answer: Middle meningeal artery
Correct Answer: Maxillary artery
Explanation:Carotid endarterectomy is the procedure to relieve an obstruction in the carotid artery by opening the artery at its origin and stripping off the atherosclerotic plaque with the intima. This procedure is performed to prevent further episodes, especially in patients who have suffered ischemic strokes or transient ischemic attacks.
The external carotid artery terminates by dividing into the superficial temporal and maxillary branches. The maxillary artery is the larger of the two terminal branches and arises posterior to the neck of the mandible.
The other arteries mentioned in the answer options branch off from the following:
Temporal arteries from the maxillary artery
Middle meningeal artery from the maxillary artery
Lingual artery from the anterior aspect of the external carotid artery
Facial artery from the anterior aspect of the external carotid artery. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 14
Correct
-
Which of the following causes a left shift of the haemoglobin dissociation curve?
Your Answer: With decreased 2,3-DPG in transfused red cells
Explanation:With respect to oxygen transport in cells, almost all oxygen is transported within erythrocytes. There is limited solubility and only 1% is carried as solution. Thus, the amount of oxygen transported depends upon haemoglobin concentration and its degree of saturation.
Haemoglobin is a globular protein composed of 4 subunits. Haem is made up of a protoporphyrin ring surrounding an iron atom in its ferrous state. The iron can form two additional bonds – one is with oxygen and the other with a polypeptide chain.
There are two alpha and two beta subunits to this polypeptide chain in an adult and together these form globin. Globin cannot bind oxygen but can bind to CO2 and hydrogen ions.
The beta chains are able to bind to 2,3 diphosphoglycerate. The oxygenation of haemoglobin is a reversible reaction. The molecular shape of haemoglobin is such that binding of one oxygen molecule facilitates the binding of subsequent molecules.The oxygen dissociation curve (ODC) describes the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and partial pressure of oxygen in the blood.
Of note, it is not affected by haemoglobin concentration.Chronic anaemia causes 2, 3 DPG levels to increase, hence shifting the curve to the right
Haldane effect – Causes the ODC to shift to the left. For a given oxygen tension there is increased saturation of Hb with oxygen i.e. Decreased oxygen delivery to tissues.
This can be caused by:
-HbF, methaemoglobin, carboxyhaemoglobin
-low [H+] (alkali)
-low pCO2
-ow 2,3-DPG
-ow temperatureBohr effect – causes the ODC to shifts to the right = for given oxygen tension there is reduced saturation of Hb with oxygen i.e. Enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues. This can be caused by:
– raised [H+] (acidic)
– raised pCO2
-raised 2,3-DPG
-raised temperature -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
-
-
Question 15
Correct
-
While administering a general anaesthetic to a 65-year-old man booked for a hip hemiarthroplasty, with a weight 70 kg, and an ASA 1 score, you give 1 g of paracetamol IV but notice that he had received the same dose on the ward one hour prior. What is the most appropriate subsequent management of this patient?
Your Answer: Do nothing and give the next doses of paracetamol at standard 6 hour intervals
Explanation:After ingestion of more than 150 mg/kg paracetamol within 24 hours, hepatotoxicity can occur but can also develop rarely after ingestion of doses as low as 75 mg/kg within 24 hours. Hepatocellular damage will not occur in this patient and therefore no need to engage management pathway for paracetamol overdose. If his weight was <33 kg or he already had a history of impaired liver function, then the management would bde different.
Subsequent post-operative doses will be a standard dose of 1 g 6 hourly.
This is a drug administration error and should be reported as an incident even though the patient will not be harmed.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements about the cricoid cartilage is true?
Your Answer: The upper border is attached to the hyoid bone
Correct Answer: The lower border is attached to the first tracheal ring
Explanation:The cricoid cartilage is a hyaline cartilage ring surrounding the trachea. It provides support for key phonation muscles.
The inferior border of the cricoid cartilage is attached to the thyroid cartilage and the inferior border is attached to the first tracheal ring through the cricotracheal ligament.
Application of pressure to the cricoid cartilage to reduce risk of aspiration of gastric contents (Sellick manoeuvre) does not stop tracheal aspiration and cannot stop regurgitation into the oesophagus.
A force of 44 newtons to the cricoid cartilage is needed to control regurgitation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Antomy
-
-
Question 17
Correct
-
Which of the following best explains the association between smoking and lower oxygen delivery to tissues?
Your Answer: Left shift of the oxygen dissociation curve
Explanation:Smoking is a major risk factor associated with perioperative respiratory and cardiovascular complications. Evidence also suggests that cigarette smoking causes imbalance in the prostaglandins and promotes vasoconstriction and excessive platelet aggregation. Two of the constituents of cigarette smoke, nicotine and carbon monoxide, have adverse cardiovascular effects. Carbon monoxide increases the incidence of arrhythmias and has a negative ionotropic effect both in animals and humans.
Smoking causes an increase in carboxyhaemoglobin levels, resulting in a leftward shift in which appears to represent a risk factor for some of these cardiovascular complications.
There are two mechanisms responsible for the leftward shift of oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve when carbon monoxide is present in the blood. Carbon monoxide has a direct effect on oxyhaemoglobin, causing a leftward shift of the oxygen dissociation curve, and carbon monoxide also reduces the formation of 2,3-DPG by inhibiting glycolysis in the erythrocyte. Nicotine, on the other hand, has a stimulatory effect on the autonomic nervous system. The effects of nicotine on the cardiovascular system last less than 30 min.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
Which of following statements is true regarding the comparison of fentanyl and alfentanil?
Your Answer: Alfentanil has a more rapid onset because of its higher lipid solubility
Correct Answer: Fentanyl is more potent than alfentanil
Explanation:Fentanyl is a pethidine congener, 80€“100 times more potent than morphine, both in analgesia and respiratory depression. Fentanyl is ten times more potent than alfentanil.
Alfentanil has a more rapid onset than fentanyl even if fentanyl is more lipid-soluble because both are basic compounds and alfentanil has lower pKa, so a greater proportion of alfentanil is unionized and is more available to cross membranes.
Elimination of alfentanil is higher than fentanyl due to its lower volume of distribution.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements regarding anticholinergic drugs (hyoscine hydrobromide, atropine and glycopyrrolate) is true?
Your Answer: They have high level of activity at nicotinic receptors
Correct Answer: Hyoscine hydrobromide use may precipitate excitement and ataxia
Explanation:Anticholinergic agents are a group of drugs that blocks the action of the neurotransmitter called acetylcholine at synapses in the central and peripheral nervous system.
Hyoscine, atropine, and glycopyrrolate are anticholinergic which acts at muscarinic receptors with little activity at the nicotinic receptors.
Hyoscine and atropine are naturally occurring esters. Since Glycopyrrolate is a synthetic quaternary amine, it does not cross the blood brain barrier. Noteworthy, hyoscine, butylbromide also does not cross the blood brain barrier significantly.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 20
Correct
-
A strain gauge operates on which of the following principles?
Your Answer: Varying resistance of a wire when stretched
Explanation:The principle by which a strain gauge works is that when a wire is stretched, it becomes longer and thinner, and as a result, its resistance increases.
A strain gauge, which is used in pressure transducers, acts as a resistor. When the pressure in a pressure transducer changes, the diaphragm moves, changing the tension in the resistance wire and thus changing the resistance.
Changes in current flow through the resistor are amplified and displayed as a pressure change measure.
A Wheatstone bridge, on the other hand, is frequently used to measure or monitor these changes in resistance.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is true in the Kreb's cycle?
Your Answer: Pyruvate condenses with oxaloacetate to form citrate
Correct Answer: Alpha-ketoglutarate is a five carbon molecule
Explanation:Krebs’ cycle (tricarboxylic acid cycle or citric acid cycle) is a sequence of reactions to release stored energy through oxidation of acetyl coenzyme A (acetyl-CoA). Some of the products are carbon dioxide and hydrogen atoms.
The sequence of reactions, known collectively as oxidative phosphorylation, only occurs in the mitochondria (not cytoplasm).
The Krebs cycle can only take place when oxygen is present, though it does not require oxygen directly, because it relies on the by-products from the electron transport chain, which requires oxygen. It is therefore considered an aerobic process. It is the common pathway for the oxidation of carbohydrate, fat and some amino acids, required for the formation of adenosine triphosphate (ATP).
Pyruvate enters the mitochondria and is converted into acetyl-CoA. Acetyl-CoA is then condensed with oxaloacetate, to form citrate which is a six carbon molecule. Citrate is subsequently converted into isocitrate, alpha-ketoglutarate, succinyl-CoA, succinate, fumarate, malate and finally oxaloacetate.
The only five carbon molecule in the cycle is Alpha-ketoglutarate.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 22
Correct
-
A 45-year-old man is being operated on for emergency laparotomy as he presented with bowel perforation. During the surgery, the marginal artery of Drummond is encountered and preserved. Which of the following two arteries fuse to form the marginal artery of Drummond?
Your Answer: Superior mesenteric artery and inferior mesenteric artery
Explanation:The arteries of the midgut (superior mesenteric artery) and hindgut (inferior mesenteric artery) give off terminal branches that form an anastomotic vessel called the marginal artery of Drummond. It runs in the inner margins of the colon and gives off short terminal branches to the bowel wall.
The marginal artery is formed by the main branches and arcades arising from the ileocolic, right colic, middle colic, and left colic arteries. It is most apparent in the ascending, transverse, and descending colons and poorly developed in the sigmoid colon.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 23
Correct
-
Obeying Boyle's law and Charles's law is a characteristic feature of an ideal gas. The gas which is most ideal out of the following options is?
Your Answer: Helium
Explanation:The ideal gas equation makes the following assumptions:
The gas particles have a small volume in comparison to the volume occupied by the gas.
Between the gas particles, there are no forces of interaction.
Individual gas particle collisions, as well as gas particle collisions with container walls, are elastic, meaning momentum is conserved.
PV = nRT
Where:P = pressure
V = volume
n = moles of gas
T = temperature
R = universal gas constantHelium is a monoatomic gas with a small helium atom. The attractive forces between helium atoms are small because the helium atom is spherical and has no dipole moment. Because helium atoms are spherical, collisions between them approach the ideal state of elasticity.
Most real gases behave qualitatively like ideal gases at standard temperatures and pressures. When intermolecular forces and molecular size become important, the ideal gas model tends to fail at lower temperatures or higher pressures. It also fails to work with the majority of heavy gases.
Helium, argon, neon, and xenon are noble or inert gases that behave the most like an ideal gas. Xenon is a noble gas with a much larger atomic size than helium.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 20-year-old man has been diagnosed with mitral regurgitation. He will be treated with mitral valve repair. What is true regarding the mitral valve?
Your Answer: It has two anterior cusps
Correct Answer: Its closure is marked by the first heart sound
Explanation:The mitral valve is the valve between the left atrium and left ventricle. It opens when the heart is in diastole (relaxation) which allows blood to flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle. In systole (contraction), the mitral valve closes to prevent the backflow of blood from the left ventricle to the left atrium.
The mitral valve is located posterior to the sternum at the level of the 4th costal cartilage. It is best auscultated over the cardiac apex, where its closure marks the first heart sound.
The mitral valve anatomy is composed of five main structures:
1. Left atrial wall – the myocardium of the left atrial wall extends over the posterior leaflet of the mitral valve. (left atrial enlargement is one of the causes for mitral regurgitation)
2. Mitral annulus – a fibrous ring that connects with the anterior and posterior leaflets. It functions as a sphincter that contracts and reduces the surface area of the valve during systole (Annular dilatation can also lead to mitral regurgitation)
3. Mitral valve leaflets (cusps) – The mitral valve is the only valve in the heart with two cusps or leaflets. One anterior and one posterior.
i. The anterior leaflet is located posterior to the aortic root and is also anchored to the aortic root.
ii. The posterior leaflet is located posterior to the two commissural areas.
4. Chordae tendinae – The chordae tendinae connects both the cusps to the papillary muscles.
5. Papillary muscles – These muscles and their cords support the mitral valve, allowing the cusps to resist the pressure developed during contractions (pumping) of the left ventricleThe anterior and posterior cusps are attached to the chordae tendinae which itself is attached to the left ventricle via papillary muscle.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is correct about the action of bile salts?
Your Answer: Formation of micelles to facilitate protein absorption
Correct Answer: Emulsification of lipids
Explanation:The emulsification and absorption of fats requires Bile salts.
Absorption of fats is associated with the activation of lipases in the intestine.
Bile salts are involved in fat soluble vitamin absorption and are reabsorbed in the terminal ileum (B12 is NOT fat soluble).
Although Vitamin B12 is also absorbed in the terminal ileum, it is a water soluble vitamin (as are B1, nicotinic acid, folic acid and vitamin C) .
The gastric parietal cells secretes Intrinsic factor that is essential for the absorption of B12.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 26
Correct
-
A 60 year old non insulin dependent diabetic on metformin undergoes hip arthroscopy under general anaesthesia. Her preoperative blood glucose is 6.5mmol/L. Anaesthesia is induced with 200 mg propofol and 100 mcg fentanyl and maintained with sevoflurane and air/oxygen mixture. she is given 8 mg dexamethasone, 40 mg parecoxib, 1 g paracetamol and 500 mL Hartmann's solution Intraoperatively. The procedure took thirty minutes and her blood glucose in recovery is 14 mmol/L. What is the most likely cause for her rise in blood sugar?
Your Answer: Stress response
Explanation:A significant early feature of the metabolic response to trauma and surgery is hyperglycaemia. It is due to an increased glucose production and decreased glucose utilisation bought on by neuroendocrine stimulation. Catecholamines, Growth hormone, ACTH and cortisol, and Glucagon are all increased.
There is also a decreased insulin sensitivity peripherally and an inhibition of insulin production from the beta cells of the pancreas. These changes lead to hyperglycaemia.
The stress response to endoscopic surgery will only be prevented with use of high dose opioids or central neuraxial block at anaesthesia.
To reduce the risk of inducing hyperchloremic acidosis, Ringer’s lactate/acetate or Hartmann’s solution is preferred to 0.9% sodium chloride as routine maintenance fluids.Though it has been suggested that administration of Hartmann’s solution to patients with type 2 diabetes leads to hyperglycaemia, one Litre of Hartmann’s solution would yield a maximum of 14.5 mmol of glucose. A rapid infusion of this volume would increase the plasma glucose by no more than 1 mmol/L..
Dexamethasone, a glucocorticoid, produces hyperglycaemia by stimulating gluconeogenesis . Glucocorticoids are agonists of intracellular glucocorticoid receptors. Their effects are mainly mediated via altered protein synthesis via gene transcription and so the onset of action is slow. The onset of action of dexamethasone is about one to four hours and therefore would NOT contribute to the hyperglycaemia in this patient in the time given.
0.9% Normal saline with or without adrenaline is the usual irrigation fluid. With this type of surgery, systemic absorption is unlikely to occur.
Fentanyl is not likely the primary cause of hyperglycaemia in this patient. In high doses (50 mcg/Kg) it has been shown to reduce the hyperglycaemic responses to surgery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 27
Correct
-
A 42 year old man came to the out-patient department with attacks of facial pain. Upon further questioning, he reported that the pain was intermittent, often occurring spontaneously. The quality of the pain was sharp, and severity was moderate to moderately severe. The pain was non-radiating, and often involved the left maxillary and mandibular areas. Other medical information of the patient, such as allergies and co-morbidities, were unremarkable. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis of the patient?
Your Answer: Trigeminal neuralgia
Explanation:Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by excruciating paroxysms of pain in the lips, gums, cheek, or chin and, very rarely, in the distribution of the fifth nerve. The pain seldom lasts more than a few seconds or a minute or two but may be so intense that the patient winces, hence the term tic. The paroxysms, experienced as single jabs or clusters, tend to recur frequently, both day and night, for several weeks at a time. They may occur spontaneously or with movements of affected areas evoked by speaking, chewing, or smiling. Another characteristic feature is the presence of trigger zones, typically on the face, lips, or tongue, that provoke attacks; patients may report that tactile stimuli – e.g., washing the face, brushing the teeth, or exposure to a draft of air – generate excruciating pain. An essential feature of trigeminal neuralgia is that objective signs of sensory loss cannot be demonstrated on examination.
Trigeminal neuralgia is relatively common, with an estimated annual incidence of 4€“8 per 100,000 individuals. Middle-aged and elderly persons are affected primarily, and ,60% of cases occur in women. Onset is typically sudden, and bouts tend to persist for weeks or months before remitting spontaneously. Remissions may be long-lasting, but in most patients, the disorder ultimately recurs.
An ESR or CRP is indicated if temporal arteritis is suspected. In typical cases of trigeminal neuralgia, neuroimaging studies are usually unnecessary but may be valuable if MS is a consideration or in assessing overlying vascular lesions in order to plan for decompression surgery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 28
Correct
-
A 50-year-old man is admitted in hospital. Over four hours, he produces 240 mL of urine and has a plasma creatinine concentration is 10 mcg/mL. The normal concentration of creatinine in urine is 1.25 mg/mL. Calculate his approximate creatinine clearance.
Your Answer: 125 ml/minute
Explanation:Creatinine clearance is a test used to approximate the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) as an assessment of kidney function.
Creatinine is formed during the breakdown of dietary sources of meat and skeletal muscle. It is secreted at a consistent concentration and pace into the body’s circulation, and is easily filtered across the glomerulus without being reabsorbed or metabolized by the kidney.
It is represented mathematically as:
Creatinine clearance (CL) = U x V/P
where,
U: Urinary creatinine concentration (mg/mL)
V: Volume of urine (mL/min)
P: Plasma creatinine concentration (mg/mL)Therefore, in this case:
CL: 1.25 x 1 = 125mL/min. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
Which of the following nerves is responsible for relaying sensory information from the laryngeal mucosa?
Your Answer: None of the above
Correct Answer: Laryngeal branches of the vagus
Explanation:Sensory innervation of the larynx is controlled by branches of the vagus nerve.
The internal and external bifurcations of the superior laryngeal nerve is responsible for sensory innervation of the aspect of the larynx superior to the vocal cords, while the recurrent laryngeal nerve is responsible for sensory innervation of the intrinsic musculature of the larynx except for the cricothyroid muscle.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 30
Correct
-
The average diastolic blood pressure of a control group was found out to be 80 with a standard deviation of 5 in a study aimed at exploring the efficiency of a novel anti-hypertensive drug. The trial was randomised. Making an assumption that the data is normally distributed, find out the number of patients that had diastolic blood pressure over 90.
Your Answer: 3%
Explanation:Since the data is normally distributed, 95% of the values lie with in the interval 70 to 90. This can be calculated as follows:
Interval= Mean ± ( 2 times standard deviation)
= 80 ± 2(5)
= 80 ± 10
= 70 & 90The rest of the 5% are distributed symmetrically beyond 90 and below 70 which means 2.5% of the values lie above 90.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
0
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)