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  • Question 1 - An 80-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with increasing pains in his...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with increasing pains in his left hip, lumbar spine, and ribs, more recently associated with confusion, weakness, and falls. Routine investigations reveal low hemoglobin, high mean corpuscular volume, low white cell count, low platelets, high sodium, high urea, high creatinine, high corrected calcium, low PO42-, high alkaline phosphatase, and high erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Based on this presentation and blood results, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Multiple myeloma

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Bone Pain and Confusion

      A patient presents with bone pain, confusion, pancytopenia with macrocytosis, renal impairment, hypercalcaemia, and an ESR >100 mm/hour. The most likely diagnosis is multiple myeloma, as lytic bone lesions are causing the pain and hypercalcaemia is causing the confusion. Further testing for myeloma should be done, including radiographs, urinary Bence-Jones proteins, and serum electrophoresis.

      Other possible diagnoses include small cell carcinoma of the lung, but the pancytopenia and renal impairment make multiple myeloma more likely. Chronic myeloid leukaemia could also cause a raised white cell count, but fever and night sweats are more common symptoms. Hyperparathyroidism is unlikely due to the presence of pancytopenia, and myelofibrosis is a rare diagnosis that may also present with bone pain and pancytopenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      52
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A preterm baby boy is found to have meconium ileus shortly after birth.
    Which...

    Incorrect

    • A preterm baby boy is found to have meconium ileus shortly after birth.
      Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with meconium ileus?

      Your Answer: Edward syndrome

      Correct Answer: Cystic fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that affects various organs in the body, including the lungs, liver, pancreas, and small intestine. This condition causes these organs to progressively fail over time, leading to recurrent bacterial infections, bronchiectasis, pulmonary arterial hypertension, meconium ileus, rectal prolapse, cirrhosis, pancreatic insufficiency, oesophageal dysfunction, chronic sinusitis, and nasal polyps. Meconium ileus is a common presenting feature in up to 20% of cases.

      Patau syndrome is a rare genetic disorder that is characterized by congenital heart disease, central nervous system and spinal abnormalities, abnormal facies, and polydactyly. Infants with this syndrome typically do not survive beyond a few days.

      Down syndrome is a common chromosomal disorder that is strongly associated with maternal age. It is characterized by a range of physical features, including a depressed nasal bridge, epicanthic folds, macroglossia, and a single palmar crease. Common associations include congenital heart disease, anal atresia, duodenal atresia, and an increased risk for leukemia. Meconium ileus is also associated with Down syndrome, and about 30% of cases of duodenal atresia have this condition.

      Myelomeningocele is a spinal anomaly that results from a failure of neural folds to fuse dorsally during embryogenesis. This condition is characterized by a skin defect, lower limb paralysis and sensory loss, bladder and bowel dysfunction, and Chiari II malformations of the posterior fossa in over 95% of cases.

      Edward syndrome is a trisomy disorder that is compatible with extrauterine life. It is the second most common trisomy syndrome after Down syndrome and has the highest incidence of major structural anomalies. Common features include congenital heart disease, central nervous system abnormalities, intrauterine growth restriction, rocker-bottom feet, single umbilical artery, and facial abnormalities. Life expectancy is typically about a week. Meconium ileus is also associated with Edward syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old businesswoman comes to the GP complaining of persistent pain and swelling...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old businesswoman comes to the GP complaining of persistent pain and swelling in her forefoot. She reports that she recently relocated to London for a new job and spends a lot of time on her feet, often wearing high heels. The pain is exacerbated when she bears weight on her foot, and squeezing the area reproduces the discomfort. Based on these symptoms, which bone is most likely affected by a stress fracture?

      Your Answer: Medial cuneiform

      Correct Answer: 2nd metatarsal

      Explanation:

      Metatarsal fractures are a common occurrence, with the potential to affect one or multiple metatarsals. These fractures can result from direct trauma or repeated mechanical stress, known as stress fractures. The metatarsals are particularly susceptible to stress fractures, with the second metatarsal shaft being the most common site. The proximal 5th metatarsal is the most commonly fractured metatarsal, while the 1st metatarsal is the least commonly fractured.

      Fractures of the proximal 5th metatarsal can be classified as either proximal avulsion fractures or Jones fractures. Proximal avulsion fractures occur at the proximal tuberosity and are often associated with lateral ankle sprains. Jones fractures, on the other hand, are transverse fractures at the metaphyseal-diaphyseal junction and are much less common.

      Symptoms of metatarsal fractures include pain, bony tenderness, swelling, and an antalgic gait. X-rays are typically used to distinguish between displaced and non-displaced fractures, which guides subsequent management options. However, stress fractures may not appear on X-rays and may require an isotope bone scan or MRI to establish their presence. Overall, metatarsal fractures are a common injury that can result from a variety of causes and require prompt diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      50.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is the most suitable time to collect blood samples for therapeutic monitoring...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most suitable time to collect blood samples for therapeutic monitoring of phenytoin levels in pediatric patients?

      Your Answer: 6 hours after last dose

      Correct Answer: Immediately before next dose

      Explanation:

      Therapeutic Drug Monitoring: Guidelines for Monitoring Lithium, Ciclosporin, Digoxin, and Phenytoin Levels

      Lithium levels should be monitored 12 hours after the last dose, with the target range being 0.4-1.0 mmol/l. Ciclosporin levels should be measured immediately before the next dose, while Digoxin levels should be checked at least 6 hours after the last dose. Phenytoin levels do not need to be monitored routinely, but trough levels should be checked before the next dose if there is a need to adjust the dose, suspected toxicity, or non-adherence to the prescribed medication.

      Therapeutic drug monitoring is an essential aspect of patient care, especially for drugs with narrow therapeutic windows. The guidelines for monitoring lithium, ciclosporin, digoxin, and phenytoin levels vary depending on the drug and the patient’s condition. It is crucial to follow these guidelines to ensure that the patient receives the optimal dose of medication and to prevent adverse effects. Proper monitoring of drug levels can also help detect non-adherence to the prescribed medication, which can affect treatment outcomes. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can provide safe and effective treatment to their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 10-year-old girl arrives at the emergency department following a fall from a...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl arrives at the emergency department following a fall from a swing, landing on her outstretched right hand. She is experiencing wrist pain and has difficulty moving it. The X-ray report shows:
      Fracture of the distal radius affecting the growth plate and the distal part of the diaphysis, without involvement of the distal epiphysis.
      What Salter-Harris fracture type is this?

      Your Answer: I

      Correct Answer: II

      Explanation:

      Paediatric Fractures and Pathological Conditions

      Paediatric fractures can be classified into different types based on the injury pattern. Complete fractures occur when both sides of the cortex are breached, while greenstick fractures only have a unilateral cortical breach. Buckle or torus fractures result in incomplete cortical disruption, leading to a periosteal haematoma. Growth plate fractures are also common in paediatric practice and are classified according to the Salter-Harris system. Injuries of Types III, IV, and V usually require surgery and may be associated with disruption to growth.

      Non-accidental injury is a concern in paediatric fractures, especially when there is a delay in presentation, lack of concordance between proposed and actual mechanism of injury, multiple injuries, injuries at sites not commonly exposed to trauma, or when children are on the at-risk register. Pathological fractures may also occur due to genetic conditions such as osteogenesis imperfecta, which is characterized by defective osteoid formation and failure of collagen maturation in all connective tissues. Osteopetrosis is another pathological condition where bones become harder and more dense, and radiology reveals a lack of differentiation between the cortex and the medulla, described as marble bone.

      Overall, paediatric fractures and pathological conditions require careful evaluation and management to ensure optimal outcomes for the child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      69.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 28-year-old woman (an immigrant from India) complained of lower back and pelvic...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman (an immigrant from India) complained of lower back and pelvic pain, as well as weakness when climbing stairs. Her physician suspects that she may have a vitamin D deficiency.
      Which of the following blood tests would be most consistent with this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Serum calcium 7.9 mg/dl (8.4–10.2 mg/dl)

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Laboratory Results of Vitamin D Deficiency

      Vitamin D deficiency can lead to various health problems, including hypocalcaemia and osteoporosis. To diagnose this deficiency, laboratory tests are conducted to measure the levels of different substances in the blood. Here is an explanation of some of the common laboratory results associated with vitamin D deficiency:

      – Serum calcium: A low level of serum calcium is a common indicator of vitamin D deficiency. This is because vitamin D helps in the absorption of calcium from the intestine and its reabsorption in the kidneys.
      – Alkaline phosphatase: Vitamin D deficiency can cause secondary hyperparathyroidism, which leads to increased bone turnover. This, in turn, results in high levels of alkaline phosphatase.
      – Serum phosphate: Due to secondary hyperparathyroidism, there is phosphaturia, which causes low levels of serum phosphate.
      – 25-(OH) D3 level: The best way to diagnose vitamin D deficiency is by measuring the levels of 25-(OH) D3 in the blood. Normal levels would exclude vitamin D deficiency.
      – Magnesium level: Magnesium and vitamin D levels are correlated, but the mechanism for this is still unknown. In vitamin D deficiency, magnesium levels tend to be low or normal, but they are never high.

      In conclusion, understanding the laboratory results associated with vitamin D deficiency can help in its diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
      32.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old woman presents with symptoms of lethargy, weight gain, dry hair and...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with symptoms of lethargy, weight gain, dry hair and skin, cold intolerance, constipation and low mood. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hypothyroidism and Differential Diagnosis

      Hypothyroidism is a condition characterized by a range of symptoms, including lethargy, weight gain, depression, sensitivity to cold, myalgia, dry skin, dry hair and/or hair loss, constipation, menstrual irregularities, carpal tunnel syndrome, memory problems, difficulty concentrating, and myxoedema coma. Diagnosis is made by measuring TSH and T4 levels, with elevated TSH and decreased T4 confirming the diagnosis. Treatment involves titrating doses of levothyroxine until serum TSH normalizes and symptoms resolve. Differential diagnosis includes hypercalcaemia, hyperthyroidism, Addison’s disease, and Cushing’s disease, each with their own unique set of symptoms. Understanding these conditions and their symptoms is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is a true statement about fractures of the scaphoid bone? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about fractures of the scaphoid bone?

      Your Answer: Anteroposterior and lateral radiographs reveal most fractures

      Correct Answer: When complicated by avascular necrosis the proximal pole is usually affected

      Explanation:

      Scaphoid Fractures and Wrist Injuries

      Scaphoid fractures are frequently seen in young adult males and are caused by a fall on an outstretched hand. If the fracture is complicated by avascular necrosis, the proximal pole is typically affected due to the scaphoid blood supply’s distal to proximal direction. Undisplaced fractures can be treated with a plaster. Wrist fractures are also common. Due to difficulties in visualizing fractures, initial radiographs usually involve four views of the scaphoid.

      In summary, scaphoid fractures and wrist injuries are prevalent in young adult males and can result from falls on outstretched hands. If complicated by avascular necrosis, the proximal pole is typically affected. Undisplaced fractures can be treated with a plaster, and initial radiographs usually involve four views of the scaphoid due to difficulties in visualizing fractures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      102.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of fatigue, breast tenderness, and bloating...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of fatigue, breast tenderness, and bloating in the week leading up to her period. She also experiences mild difficulty concentrating and occasional mood swings during this time, but not at any other point in the month. The patient has a medical history of migraines with aura and takes sumatriptan as needed, without known allergies. Although her symptoms do not significantly impact her daily life, she finds them bothersome and wishes to find a way to alleviate them. What is the most appropriate approach to managing these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill

      Correct Answer: Advise regular exercise and small, regular meals rich in complex carbohydrates

      Explanation:

      To manage premenstrual syndrome, it is recommended to make specific lifestyle changes such as regular exercise and consuming small, balanced meals rich in complex carbohydrates every 2-3 hours. These changes are advised by the Royal College of Obstetrics and Gynaecology as a first-line management approach. It is also suggested to quit smoking, reduce alcohol intake, maintain regular sleep patterns, and manage stress levels. Contrary to popular belief, reducing dietary fats and carbohydrates is not recommended. Additionally, prescribing diazepam is not a routine management approach and is only used in select cases where anxiety is a significant symptom. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors like sertraline can be used for severe premenstrual syndrome, but lifestyle changes are usually sufficient for mild symptoms that do not interfere with daily life.

      Understanding Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)

      Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is a condition that affects women during the luteal phase of their menstrual cycle. It is characterized by emotional and physical symptoms that can range from mild to severe. PMS only occurs in women who have ovulatory menstrual cycles and does not occur before puberty, during pregnancy, or after menopause.

      Emotional symptoms of PMS include anxiety, stress, fatigue, and mood swings. Physical symptoms may include bloating and breast pain. The severity of symptoms varies from woman to woman, and management options depend on the severity of symptoms.

      Mild symptoms can be managed with lifestyle advice, such as getting enough sleep, exercising regularly, and avoiding smoking and alcohol. Specific advice includes eating regular, frequent, small, balanced meals that are rich in complex carbohydrates.

      Moderate symptoms may benefit from a new-generation combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), such as Yasmin® (drospirenone 3 mg and ethinylestradiol 0.030 mg). Severe symptoms may benefit from a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which can be taken continuously or just during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle (for example, days 15-28, depending on the length of the cycle). Understanding PMS and its management options can help women better cope with this common condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      87.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 54-year-old man visits the GP clinic with concerns about his inability to...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old man visits the GP clinic with concerns about his inability to sustain an erection during sexual activity. He has no known medical conditions and reports no stress or relationship issues. Upon examination, he exhibits bilateral toe proprioception loss. Cardiovascular and respiratory evaluations are normal. There are no notable findings on physical examination, including genital examination. What is the initial investigation that should be conducted for this patient?

      Your Answer: Fasting blood sugar

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Erectile Dysfunction: Understanding the Role of Different Tests

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a common condition that can have a significant impact on a man’s quality of life. It is also considered an independent risk factor for cardiovascular disease and can be a presenting symptom of diabetes mellitus. Therefore, it is important to conduct appropriate investigations to identify any underlying causes of ED. Here, we will discuss the role of different tests in the evaluation of ED.

      Fasting Blood Sugar Test

      As mentioned earlier, diabetes mellitus is a common cause of ED. Therefore, it is recommended that all patients with ED undergo a fasting blood sugar test to rule out diabetes.

      Ultrasound of Testes

      Testicular pathology does not lead to ED. Therefore, an ultrasound of the testes is not indicated unless there are specific indications for it.

      Prostate-Specific Antigen (PSA) Test

      ED is not a presentation of prostate cancer. However, treatment of prostate cancer, such as radical prostatectomy, can lead to ED. Therefore, a PSA test is not indicated for the evaluation of ED.

      Semen Analysis

      Semen analysis is performed when couples present with infertility. It does not have a role in the evaluation of ED unless there are specific indications for it.

      Serum Hormone Levels

      Serum oestrogen and progesterone levels are hormones that are found abundantly in women. They are assayed, along with LH and FSH levels, to pursue the cause of hypogonadism when it is suspected. However, in the case of ED, hypogonadism must be ruled out with serum testosterone level.

      In conclusion, appropriate investigations are necessary to identify any underlying causes of ED. A fasting blood sugar test and serum testosterone level are the most important tests to perform in the evaluation of ED.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      53.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Orthopaedics (1/1) 100%
Genetics (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal (0/2) 0%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Clinical Biochemistry (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Surgery (0/1) 0%
Gynaecology (0/1) 0%
Urology (1/1) 100%
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