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Question 1
Incorrect
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An older adult patient is admitted with severe epistaxis. The epistaxis continues despite multiple attempts at silver nitrate cautery. The bleeding is successfully slowed with nasal packing. Other history of note includes atrial fibrillation, for which she takes warfarin.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate first line pharmacological therapy for this lady's epistaxis?Your Answer: Packed red blood cells
Correct Answer: Vitamin K
Explanation:Treatment Options for Bleeding in Patients on Warfarin
Patients on warfarin, an oral anticoagulant commonly used to reduce the risk of stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation, may experience bleeding complications. In such cases, it is important to consider appropriate treatment options. One such option is the administration of vitamin K, which is required as a co-enzyme for coagulation factors II, VII, IX, and X. Warfarin’s mechanism of action is as a vitamin K antagonist, and thus, its effects can be reversed by vitamin K. Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) may be used in patients with significant coagulopathy, but it is unlikely to be indicated in patients on warfarin. Prothrombin complex concentrate, such as Beriplex or Octoplex, can also be used to reverse the action of warfarin, but it may be associated with allergic reactions. Factor VIII is used in the treatment of von Willebrand’s disease, a common inherited bleeding disorder. Blood transfusion with packed red blood cells may be appropriate if the patient has had a significant reduction in haemoglobin levels, but continued blood transfusion is unhelpful unless the bleeding is stopped. In summary, the appropriate treatment option for bleeding in patients on warfarin depends on the severity of bleeding and the patient’s medical history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
Correct
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An adolescent with Down's syndrome is being seen at the cardiology clinic due to a heart murmur detected during a routine check-up. It is known that approximately half of infants with Down's syndrome have congenital heart defects, and the prevalence remains high throughout their lifespan. What are the five most frequent types of congenital heart disease observed in individuals with Down's syndrome? Please list them in order of decreasing incidence, starting with the most common cause and ending with the least common cause.
Your Answer: Atrioventricular septal defect, ventricular septal defect, tetralogy of Fallot, atrial septal defect, patent ductus arteriosus
Explanation:Congenital Heart Defects in Down’s Syndrome
Congenital heart defects are common in individuals with Down’s syndrome, with five specific pathologies accounting for approximately 99% of cases. Atrioventricular septal defects and ventricular septal defects occur in roughly a third of cases each, while the remaining third is accounted for by the other three defects. Chromosomal abnormalities, such as trisomy 21, which is commonly associated with Down’s syndrome, can predispose individuals to congenital heart disease. Around 50% of people with Down’s syndrome have one of the five cardiac defects listed above, but the exact cause for this is not yet known.
The development of endocardial cushions is often impaired in individuals with Down’s syndrome, which can lead to defects in the production of the atrial and ventricular septae, as well as the development of the atrioventricular valves. This explains why atrioventricular septal defects are a common congenital defect in Down’s syndrome, as they involve a common atrioventricular orifice and valve. The severity of the defect depends on its size and the positioning of the leaflets of the common atrioventricular valve, which contribute to defining the degree of shunt. Additionally, the type of ventricular septal defects and atrial septal defects that commonly occur in Down’s syndrome can be explained by the impaired development of endocardial cushions. VSDs are usually of the inlet type, while ASDs are more commonly of the prium type, representing a failure of the endocardial cushion to grow in a superior direction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 3
Correct
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A premature infant is born at 30 weeks gestation through a spontaneous vaginal delivery. The amniotic fluid did not show any signs of meconium staining. However, the baby develops sternal recession, tachypnea, grunting, and cyanosis shortly after birth. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (NRDS)
Explanation:When answering questions about respiratory issues in newborns, it is important to consider the risk factors involved. Prematurity is the primary risk factor for neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (NRDS), while caesarean section increases the risk of tachypnea of the newborn (TTN). Meconium staining is a significant risk factor for aspiration pneumonia.
Symptoms of NRDS typically include respiratory distress that worsens over the first few days after birth. TTN, on the other hand, is characterized by rapid breathing shortly after birth, which often resolves within the first day of life. A chest X-ray can be helpful in diagnosing these conditions. NRDS is typically indicated by a diffuse ground glass appearance in the lungs, low lung volumes, and a bell-shaped thorax. TTN, on the other hand, may show a pattern similar to heart failure on the X-ray, with interstitial edema and pleural effusions, but with a normal heart size and rapid resolution of the pattern within a few days.
Surfactant Deficient Lung Disease in Premature Infants
Surfactant deficient lung disease (SDLD), previously known as hyaline membrane disease, is a condition that affects premature infants. It occurs due to the underproduction of surfactant and the immaturity of the lungs’ structure. The risk of SDLD decreases with gestation, with 50% of infants born at 26-28 weeks and 25% of infants born at 30-31 weeks being affected. Other risk factors include male sex, diabetic mothers, Caesarean section, and being the second born of premature twins.
The clinical features of SDLD are similar to those of respiratory distress in newborns, including tachypnea, intercostal recession, expiratory grunting, and cyanosis. Chest x-rays typically show a ground-glass appearance with an indistinct heart border.
Prevention during pregnancy involves administering maternal corticosteroids to induce fetal lung maturation. Management of SDLD includes oxygen therapy, assisted ventilation, and exogenous surfactant given via an endotracheal tube. With proper management, the prognosis for infants with SDLD is generally good.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 4
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department at 2 pm after intentionally overdosing on paracetamol the previous night at 10 pm. She admits to taking the entire contents of two packs of paracetamol, each containing 16 500 mg tablets, and now regrets her decision.
The patient is conscious and her vital signs are normal. Physical examination findings are unremarkable, and there are no signs of jaundice. She has a medical history of mixed anxiety and depression. Her weight is 60kg. Blood test results are pending.
What is the most appropriate course of action for her treatment?Your Answer: Commence acetylcysteine without awaiting blood results
Explanation:If a patient presents 8-24 hours after taking an overdose of paracetamol that exceeds 150 mg/kg, it is recommended to start administering acetylcysteine immediately, even if the plasma-paracetamol concentration is not yet known. Therefore, in this case, the patient should receive acetylcysteine without waiting for blood results as her overdose was 16g after 11 hours and she weighs 60 kg. Admitting the patient for monitoring and psychiatry assessment only is not sufficient as she meets the criteria for acetylcysteine treatment. Waiting for abnormal LFTs or a plasma paracetamol concentration above the treatment line is also not necessary as the overdose is significant enough to warrant immediate acetylcysteine administration.
Paracetamol overdose management guidelines were reviewed by the Commission on Human Medicines in 2012. The new guidelines removed the ‘high-risk’ treatment line on the normogram, meaning that all patients are treated the same regardless of their risk factors for hepatotoxicity. However, for situations outside of the normal parameters, it is recommended to consult the National Poisons Information Service/TOXBASE. Patients who present within an hour of overdose may benefit from activated charcoal to reduce drug absorption. Acetylcysteine should be given if the plasma paracetamol concentration is on or above a single treatment line joining points of 100 mg/L at 4 hours and 15 mg/L at 15 hours, regardless of risk factors of hepatotoxicity. Acetylcysteine is now infused over 1 hour to reduce adverse effects. Anaphylactoid reactions to IV acetylcysteine are generally treated by stopping the infusion, then restarting at a slower rate. The King’s College Hospital criteria for liver transplantation in paracetamol liver failure include arterial pH < 7.3, prothrombin time > 100 seconds, creatinine > 300 µmol/l, and grade III or IV encephalopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner (GP), complaining of bleeding gums every time she brushes her teeth. She reports that this is very concerning to her and has gotten to the point where she has stopped brushing her teeth.
Her past medical history is significant for hypertension, for which she takes lisinopril. She takes no anticoagulants or antiplatelet medication.
Her observations are as follows:
Temperature 37.1°C
Blood pressure 140/90 mmHg
Heart rate 68 bpm
Respiratory rate 16 breaths/min
Oxygen saturation (SpO2) 98% (room air)
Examination of the oral cavity reveals red, swollen gingiva, with bleeding easily provoked with a periodontal probe.
Which of the following is the next best step?Your Answer: Vitamin K
Correct Answer: Referral to a neurologist
Explanation:Medical Recommendations for Gingival Overgrowth
Gingival overgrowth is a condition where the gum tissues grow excessively, leading to the formation of pockets that can harbor bacteria and cause inflammation. This condition can be caused by certain medications like phenytoin, calcium channel blockers, and ciclosporin. Here are some medical recommendations for managing gingival overgrowth:
Referral to a Neurologist: If the patient is taking antiepileptic medication, a neurologist should review the medication to determine if it is causing the gingival overgrowth.
Avoid Brushing Teeth: Although brushing can exacerbate bleeding, not brushing can lead to poor oral hygiene. The cause of the gingival overgrowth needs to be addressed.
Epstein–Barr Virus Testing: Patients with oral hairy leukoplakia may benefit from Epstein–Barr virus testing.
Pregnancy Test: A pregnancy test is not indicated in patients with gingival overgrowth unless medication is not the likely cause.
Vitamin K: Vitamin K is indicated for patients who require warfarin reversal for supratherapeutic international normalized ratios (INRs). It is not necessary for patients who are clinically stable and not actively bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 28-year-old man presents to the emergency department with difficulty swallowing and blurred vision. He is worried about his slurred speech which started the day before. He has no past medical history or current medications.
Upon examination, the patient appears disheveled and has multiple track marks on both arms with surrounding redness. His vital signs are normal. Cranial nerve examination reveals bilateral ptosis, diplopia, impaired pupil accommodation, and impaired gag reflex. The patient's speech is also slurred. Upper limb examination shows hypotonia and 4/5 power bilaterally, while sensation is intact. Lower limb examination is unremarkable.
What is the most likely causative organism for this patient's presentation?Your Answer: Clostridium botulinum
Explanation:There are various bacterial infections that can cause different diseases. For example, Salmonella can cause food poisoning, while Campylobacter jejuni is a common cause of diarrhoea and can also be linked to Guillain-Barre syndrome. Additionally, Clostridium tetani infection can lead to tetanus.
Understanding Botulism: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Botulism is a rare but serious illness caused by the bacterium Clostridium botulinum. This gram-positive anaerobic bacillus produces botulinum toxin, a neurotoxin that blocks the release of acetylcholine, leading to flaccid paralysis and other symptoms. There are seven serotypes of the bacterium, labeled A-G. Botulism can result from eating contaminated food, particularly tinned food, or from intravenous drug use.
The neurotoxin produced by Clostridium botulinum often affects bulbar muscles and the autonomic nervous system, leading to symptoms such as diplopia, ataxia, and bulbar palsy. However, patients are usually fully conscious and do not experience any sensory disturbance.
Treatment for botulism involves administering botulism antitoxin and providing supportive care. It is important to note that the antitoxin is only effective if given early, as once the toxin has bound, its actions cannot be reversed. Therefore, prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial in managing this potentially life-threatening illness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by her friend. The friend reports that she has been acting strangely and unable to focus on one task at a time. He has observed over the past few days that she has been walking around in the early hours of the morning and not sleeping. He is particularly concerned that she has been returning home with multiple bags of expensive shopping every day for the past three days.
The patient denies experiencing any hallucinations but reports feeling fantastic and having an increased appetite. She has no prior medical history and is not taking any medications.
What is the most probable cause of this patient's presentation?Your Answer: Mania
Correct Answer: Hypomania
Explanation:The patient is displaying signs of hypomania, which is characterized by an elevated mood, pressured speech, and flight of ideas, but without any psychotic symptoms. She is experiencing agitation, insomnia, and an increased appetite. Patients with hypomania may also exhibit disinhibition, such as increased sexuality, spending, or risk-taking behaviors. Hypomania differs from mania in terms of duration (less than 7 days) and the absence of hallucinations. The patient’s history does not suggest any prior episodes of depression, so hypomania is the most appropriate diagnosis at this time. Frontal lobe injury can cause motor symptoms, speech difficulties, and disinhibition, but there is no indication of this in the patient’s history. Mania is more severe than hypomania and lasts longer than 7 days, often involving psychotic symptoms such as hallucinations or delusions, which are not present in this case. The patient is not exhibiting any signs of psychosis, which can also involve thought disorganization, such as tangentiality, word salad, and poverty of speech.
Understanding the Difference between Hypomania and Mania
Hypomania and mania are two terms that are often used interchangeably, but they actually refer to two different conditions. While both conditions share some common symptoms, there are some key differences that set them apart.
Mania is a more severe form of hypomania that lasts for at least seven days and can cause significant impairment in social and work settings. It may require hospitalization due to the risk of harm to oneself or others and may present with psychotic symptoms such as delusions of grandeur or auditory hallucinations.
On the other hand, hypomania is a lesser version of mania that lasts for less than seven days, typically 3-4 days. It does not impair functional capacity in social or work settings and is unlikely to require hospitalization. It also does not exhibit any psychotic symptoms.
Both hypomania and mania share common symptoms such as elevated or irritable mood, pressured speech, flight of ideas, poor attention, insomnia, loss of inhibitions, increased appetite, and risk-taking behavior. However, the length of symptoms, severity, and presence of psychotic symptoms help differentiate mania from hypomania.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Sophie has presented herself to the GP practice as she is interested in starting contraception. She has chosen to use the contraceptive implant as she wants to avoid taking pills for her contraception. After obtaining informed consent, the implant was inserted into her arm. What is the main mechanism of action of this type of contraception?
Your Answer: Prevents uterine lining proliferation
Correct Answer: Inhibition of ovulation
Explanation:The contraceptive implant primarily works by inhibiting ovulation through the slow release of progesterone hormone. While it also increases cervical mucous thickness, this is not its main mode of action. The progesterone-only pill also increases cervical mucous thickness, while the intrauterine copper device decreases sperm viability. The intrauterine system prevents implantation of the ovum by exerting local progesterone onto the uterine lining.
Understanding the Mode of Action of Contraceptives
Contraceptives are used to prevent unwanted pregnancies. They work by different mechanisms depending on the type of contraceptive used. The Faculty for Sexual and Reproductive Health (FSRH) has provided a table that outlines the mode of action of standard contraceptives and emergency contraception.
Standard contraceptives include the combined oral contraceptive pill, progesterone-only pill, injectable contraceptive, implantable contraceptive, and intrauterine contraceptive device/system. The combined oral contraceptive pill and injectable/implantable contraceptives primarily work by inhibiting ovulation, while the progesterone-only pill and some injectable/implantable contraceptives thicken cervical mucous to prevent sperm from reaching the egg. The intrauterine contraceptive device/system decreases sperm motility and survival and prevents endometrial proliferation.
Emergency contraception, which is used after unprotected sex or contraceptive failure, also works by different mechanisms. Levonorgestrel and ulipristal inhibit ovulation, while the intrauterine contraceptive device is toxic to sperm and ovum and inhibits implantation.
Understanding the mode of action of contraceptives is important in choosing the most appropriate method for an individual’s needs and preferences. It is also important to note that no contraceptive method is 100% effective, and the use of condoms can provide additional protection against sexually transmitted infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents for his regular diabetic eye screening. He had visited his GP recently and had his blood sugar levels under control. During the examination, cotton wool spots and neovascularisation are observed throughout the retina, leading to a diagnosis of proliferative retinopathy. What is the most effective treatment for this condition?
Your Answer: Conservative management and monitoring
Correct Answer: Panretinal laser photocoagulation
Explanation:Panretinal laser photocoagulation is the preferred treatment for proliferative retinopathy, a condition characterized by the growth of fragile new blood vessels that can cause vitreal hemorrhage. In addition to controlling blood sugar levels and using anti-VEGF injections, thermal burns are made using a laser to prevent abnormal blood vessel development. Conservative management and monitoring are not sufficient for definitive management, as neovascularization can lead to serious complications. Laser iridotomy and phacoemulsification are not indicated for this condition.
Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy
Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness among adults aged 35-65 years old. The condition is caused by hyperglycemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls and damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage causes increased vascular permeability, resulting in exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovascularization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischemia.
Patients with diabetic retinopathy are classified into those with nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot hemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularization, which may lead to vitreous hemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.
Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. Treatment options include intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors for maculopathy, regular observation for nonproliferative retinopathy, and panretinal laser photocoagulation and intravitreal VEGF inhibitors for proliferative retinopathy. Vitreoretinal surgery may be necessary in cases of severe or vitreous hemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old smoker with a pack year history of 80 years was admitted with haemoptysis and weight loss. A chest X-ray shows a 4-cm cavitating lung lesion in the right middle lobe.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Small-cell carcinoma
Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma
Explanation:Types of Lung Cancer and Cavitating Lesions
Lung cancer can be classified into different subtypes based on their histology and response to treatments. Among these subtypes, squamous cell carcinoma is the most common type that causes cavitating lesions on a chest X-ray. This occurs when the tumour outgrows its blood supply and becomes necrotic, forming a cavity. Squamous cell carcinomas are usually centrally located and can also cause ectopic hormone production, leading to hypercalcaemia.
Other causes of cavitating lesions include pulmonary tuberculosis, bacterial pneumonia, rheumatoid nodules, and septic emboli. Bronchoalveolar cell carcinoma is an uncommon subtype of adenocarcinoma that does not commonly cavitate. Small cell carcinoma and large cell carcinoma also do not commonly cause cavitating lesions.
Adenocarcinoma, on the other hand, is the most common type of lung cancer and is usually caused by smoking. It typically originates in the peripheral lung tissue and can also cavitate, although it is less common than in squamous cell carcinoma. Understanding the different types of lung cancer and their characteristics can aid in diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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