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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presented to the ED with carbon monoxide poisoning. High-flow oxygen was administered immediately. She had a GCS of 15 and her vitals were stable. Which one of the following is not an indication for hyperbaric oxygen therapy in this scenario?
Your Answer: Pregnancy and a carboxyhaemoglobin concentration of >20%
Correct Answer: A carboxyhaemoglobin concentration of 16%
Explanation:Carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning, considered as the great imitator of other diseases, as the patients present with a myriad of symptoms. The carbon monoxide diffuses rapidly across the pulmonary capillary membrane binding to the haem molecule with a very high affinity (240 times that of oxygen) forming carboxy-haemoglobin (COHb). Non-smokers have a baseline COHb of ,3% while smokers have a baseline COHb of 10-15%.
Use of Hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBOT) for treatment of mild to moderate CO poisoning is not routine.
The selection criteria for HBOT in cases of CO poisoning include:
• COHb levels > 20-25%
• COHb levels > 20% in pregnant patient
• Loss of consciousness
• Severe metabolic acidosis (pH <7.1)
• Evidence of end-organ ischemia (e.g., ECG changes, chest pain, or altered mental status)
Principle of HBOT:
Exposing patients to 100 percent oxygen under supra-atmospheric conditions results in a decrease in the half-life (t1/2) of COHb, from , 90 min in atmospheric air to , 30 minutes. The amount of oxygen dissolved in the blood also rises from , 0.3 to 6 mL/dL, increasing the delivery of non-haemoglobin-bound oxygen to the tissues. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman presents for review. She is concerned due to absence of menstruation for 5 months. She is 1.76 m in height and weighs only 43.7 kg (7 stone). A pregnancy test is negative and thyroid function testing is normal. Which of the following is the diagnosis of this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Weight-related amenorrhoea
Explanation:Low body weight. Excessively low body weight — about 10 percent under normal weight — interrupts many hormonal functions in your body, potentially halting ovulation.
In Polycystic ovaries there is excess weight gain. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus is feeling more fatigued than usual. She has not attended the previous three annual check-ups and her blood glucose control has been poor. She has not been compliant with his medications. Blood pressure is 170/90 mmHg. Urinalysis shows microalbuminuria. A blood test reveals her glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is 26mL/min. If a renal biopsy was to be performed in this patient, what would be the expected findings?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nodular glomerulosclerosis and hyaline arteriosclerosis
Explanation:This patient has a poorly controlled T2DM with an underlying diabetic nephropathy. The histological findings are Kimmelstiel-Wilson lesions (nodular glomerulosclerosis) and hyaline arteriosclerosis. This is due to nonenzymatic glycosylation.
Diabetic nephropathy is the chronic loss of kidney function occurring in those with diabetes mellitus. Protein loss in the urine due to damage to the glomeruli may become massive, and cause a low serum albumin with resulting generalized body swelling (edema) and result in the nephrotic syndrome. Likewise, the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) may progressively fall from a normal of over 90 ml/min/1.73m2 to less than 15, at which point the patient is said to have end-stage kidney disease (ESKD). It usually is slowly progressive over years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 61-year old mechanic recently attended A&E, with a 3 month history of bilateral paraesthesia's and twitching affecting the thumb, first finger and lateral forearm. He denied any trauma. An MRI scan of his spine was performed and revealed cervical canal stenosis with mild cord compression. He was discharged and advised to see his GP for follow-up. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to spinal surgery services
Explanation:Bilateral median nerve dysfunction is suggestive of degenerative cervical myelopathy (DCM) rather than bilateral carpal tunnel syndrome. DCM should be suspected in elderly patients presenting with limb neurology. This patient’s twitches are probably fibrillations, a sign of lower motor neuron dysfunction.
Degenerative cervical myelopathy is associated with a delay in diagnosis. It is most commonly misdiagnosed as carpal tunnel syndrome. In one study, 43% of patients who underwent surgery for degenerative cervical myelopathy had been initially diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome.
Management of these patients should be by specialist spinal services (neurosurgery or orthopaedic spinal surgery). Decompressive surgery is the mainstay of treatment and has been shown to stop disease progression. Physiotherapy and analgesia do not replace surgical opinion, though they may be used alongside. Nerve root injections do not have a role in management. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old female is admitted with a headache, photophobia, fever and confusion. She is managed with antibiotics. What is the mechanism of action of the most commonly used first line antibiotic class?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
Explanation:In adults, the most common symptom of meningitis is a severe headache, occurring in almost 90% of cases of bacterial meningitis, followed by nuchal rigidity (the inability to flex the neck forward passively due to increased neck muscle tone and stiffness). Other signs commonly associated with meningitis include photophobia (intolerance to bright light) and phonophobia (intolerance to loud noises).
In the United Kingdom empirical treatment consists of a third-generation cefalosporin such as cefotaxime or ceftriaxone. In the USA, where resistance to cefalosporins is increasingly found in streptococci, addition of vancomycin to the initial treatment is recommended. Penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems and monobactams all act via inhibition of cell wall synthesis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman presents to her GP with malaise, anorexia, and weight loss. Screening blood samples reveals urea of 50.1 mmol/l and serum creatinine of 690 μmol/l. Her past history includes frequent headaches, but nothing else of note. She has, however, failed to attend her routine ‘well-woman’ appointments. Ultrasound reveals bilateral hydronephrosis and a suspicion of a central pelvic mass. What diagnosis is most likely to be responsible for this woman’s hydronephrosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cervical carcinoma
Explanation:The patient’s history of recent weight loss and malaise, paired with enlarged kidneys and renal failure, as well as a suspected central pelvic mass on ultrasound, gives a suspicion of cervical carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman is referred to the endocrinology clinic. She has been trying to conceive for the last 3 years without any success. Her prolactin level is 2600 mU/l (normal <360). The Endocrinologist arranges pituitary magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) that demonstrates a microprolactinoma. Which two of the following pharmacological agents may be appropriate treatment choices?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carbergoline
Explanation:Cabergoline, an ergot derivative, is a long-acting dopamine agonist. It is usually better tolerated than Bromocriptine (BEC), and its efficacy profiles are somewhat superior to those of BEC. It offers the convenience of twice-a-week administration, with a usual starting dose of 0.25 mg biweekly to a maximum dose of 1 mg biweekly. Some studies have shown efficacy even with once-a-week dosing. Cabergoline appears to be more effective in lowering prolactin levels and restoring ovulation. Up to 70% of patients who do not respond to BEC respond to cabergoline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which form of study design would you choose if you were trying to ascertain whether the use of dummies in infants is correlated with sudden infant death syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Case-control study
Explanation:A case-control study is designed to help determine if an exposure is associated with an outcome (i.e., disease or condition of interest). In theory, the case-control study can be described simply. Case-control studies have specific advantages compared to other study designs. They are comparatively quick, inexpensive, and easy. They are particularly appropriate for (1) investigating outbreaks, and (2) studying rare diseases or outcomes. Sudden infant death syndrome is a rare medical event, thus case-control study is the most suitable option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 66-year-old man with newly-diagnosed small cell carcinoma discusses his further treatment options with the team of doctors. Which statement is incorrect about small cell carcinoma?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Patients with small cell lung cancer always benefit from surgery
Explanation:Small cell lung cancer (SCLC) is characterized by rapid growth and early dissemination. Prompt initiation of treatment is important.
Patients with clinical stage Ia (T1N0) after standard staging evaluation may be considered for surgical resection, but combined treatment with chemotherapy and radiation therapy is the standard of care. Radiation therapy is often added at the second cycle of chemotherapy.
Historically, patients undergoing surgery for small cell lung cancer (SCLC) had a dismal prognosis. However, more recent data suggest that patients with true stage I SCLC may benefit from surgical resection.
Common sites of hematogenous metastases include the brain, bones, liver, adrenal glands, and bone marrow. The symptoms depend upon the site of spread.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old female presents with tiredness and weakness. On examination, she is pale and has a haemoglobin of 72 g/L with an MCV of 68 fL. Which nail changes may be seen in association with this patient's condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Koilonychia
Explanation:Koilonychia, known as spoon nails, is a condition of the nails bending inwards, taking the shape of a spoon. This is a strong indication of iron-deficiency anaemia (IDA). The rest of the patient’s symptoms further indicate IDA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 70 yr. old male patient presented with chronic congestive heart failure. Which of the following is the most important factor to consider when prescribing drugs for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Administration of a B-blocker reduces the time spent in hospital
Explanation:It is proven that spironolactone has survival benefits and loop diuretics only give symptomatic relief. Beta blockers are however, known to improve exercise tolerance, left ventricular function and reduce symptoms. They also reduce the mortality associated with heart failure. So administration of beta blockers will reduce the time spent in hospital by improving symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 75 year old man was admitted to the hospital with worsening dyspnoea. He was given a five day course of Amoxicillin. On examination, his blood pressure was 89/59 mmHg with a respiratory rate of 35/min. A chest x-ray revealed left lower lobe consolidation. Past medical history: Type 2 diabetes mellitus Arterial blood gas on air: pH 7.34 pCO2 5.4 kPa pO2 9.0 kPa Which antibiotic therapy is the most suitable?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous co-amoxiclav + clarithromycin
Explanation:CURB Pneumonia Severity Score:
– Confusion (abbreviated Mental Test Score <=8) (1 point)
– Urea (BUN > 19 mg/dL or 7 mmol/L) (1 point)
– Respiratory Rate > 30 per minute (1 point)
– Blood Pressure: diastolic < 60 or systolic < 90 mmHg (1 point) Based on the CURB Pneumonia Severity Score, the patient has severe pneumonia. According to the 2009 Centres for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) and Joint Commission consensus guidelines, inpatient treatment of pneumonia should be given within four hours of hospital admission (or in the emergency department if this is where the patient initially presented) and should consist of the following antibiotic regimens, which are also in accordance with IDSA/ATS guidelines. For non-intensive care unit (ICU) patients:
Beta-lactam (intravenous [IV] or intramuscular [IM] administration) plus macrolide (IV or oral [PO])
Beta-lactam (IV or IM) plus doxycycline (IV or PO)
Antipneumococcal quinolone monotherapy (IV or IM)If the patient is younger than 65 years with no risk factors for drug-resistant organisms, administer macrolide monotherapy (IV or PO)
For ICU patients:
IV beta-lactam plus IV macrolide
IV beta-lactam plus IV antipneumococcal quinoloneIf the patient has a documented beta-lactam allergy, administer IV antipneumococcal quinolone plus IV aztreonam.
The most suitable antibiotic therapy for this patient is therefore Intravenous co-amoxiclav + clarithromycin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 13
Incorrect
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An 83-year-old gentleman presents to his GP with increasing oedema and ascites. He is hypertensive, for which he takes amlodipine. There is shortness of breath on exercise. His alcohol history is two cans of stout per day. ECG is normal, and CXR reveals normal heart size and no signs of cardiac failure. Serum albumin is 23 g/dl; urinary albumin excretion is 7 g/24 h, with no haematuria. He has mild anaemia with a normal MCV. Total cholesterol is elevated. What diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nephrotic syndrome
Explanation:Nephrotic syndrome usually presents with the symptoms in this patient: low albumin, abnormal cholesterol, increased urinary albumin excretion, oedema, and as a consequence, hypertension as well.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not a recognised feature of methemoglobinemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decreased pO2 but normal oxygen saturation
Explanation:Normal pO2 but decreased oxygen saturation is characteristic of methemoglobinemia.
Methemoglobinemia is a rare condition in which the haemoglobin iron is in oxidized or ferric state (Fe3+) and cannot reversibly bind oxygen. Normally, the conversion of ferrous form of iron (Fe2+) to its ferric form (Fe3+) is regulated by NADH methaemoglobin reductase, which results in the reduction of methaemoglobin to haemoglobin. Disruption in the enzyme leads to increased methaemoglobin in the blood. There is tissue hypoxia as Fe3+ cannot bind oxygen, and hence the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to the left.
Methemoglobinemia can occur due to congenital or acquired causes. Congenital causes include haemoglobin variants such as HbM and HbH, and deficiency of NADH methaemoglobin reductase. Acquired causes are drugs (e.g. sulphonamides, nitrates, dapsone, sodium nitroprusside, and primaquine) and chemicals (such as aniline dyes).
The features of methemoglobinemia are cyanosis, dyspnoea, anxiety, headache, severe acidosis, arrhythmias, seizures, and loss of consciousness. Patients have normal pO2 but oxygen saturation is decreased. Moreover, presence of chocolate-brown coloured arterial blood (colour does not change with addition of O2) and brown urine also point towards the diagnosis of methemoglobinemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male is admitted with vomiting. He has a long history of alcohol abuse, appears slightly jaundiced and is dishevelled and unkempt. He was started on an intravenous glucose infusion and diazepam and he symptomatically improved. One day later he becomes confused, develops vomiting, diplopia and is unable to stand. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin B deficiency
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis is Wernicke’s encephalopathy. This presents in a long time alcoholic from vitamin BI deficiency. Symptoms include confusion and confabulation, oculomotor symptoms/signs, and ataxia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old man is diagnosed with acute myeloid leukaemia. Cytogenetic testing is carried out. Which one of the following is mostly associated with a poor prognosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Deletions of chromosome 5
Explanation:Deletion of part of chromosome 5 or 7 is a poor prognostic feature for acute myeloid leukaemia (AML).
AML is the acute expansion of the myeloid stem line, which may occur as a primary disease or follow the secondary transformation of a myeloproliferative disorder. It is more common over the age of 45 and is characterized by signs and symptoms largely related to bone marrow failure such as anaemia (pallor, lethargy), frequent infections due to neutropenia (although the total leucocyte count may be very high), thrombocytopaenia (bleeding), ostealgia, and splenomegaly.
The disease has poor prognosis if:
1. Age of the patient >60 years
2. >20% blasts seen after the first course of chemotherapy
3. Chromosomal aberration with deletion of part of chromosome 5 or 7.Acute promyelocytic leukaemia (APL) is an aggressive form of AML.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Choose the correct statement regarding the standard error of the mean:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gets smaller as the sample size increases
Explanation:When statistically comparing data sets, researchers estimate the population of each sample and examine them to see whether they are identical. The standard error of the mean (SEM) – not the standard deviation (SD), which represents the variation in the sample – is used to estimate the population mean. Via this process, researchers conclude that the sample used in their studies appropriately represents the population within the error range specified by the pre-set significance level.
The SEM is smaller than the SD, as the SEM is estimated usually with the SD divided by the square root of the sample size. For this reason, researchers are tempted to use the SEM when describing their samples. It is acceptable to use either the SEM or SD to compare two different groups if the sample sizes of the two groups are equal; however, the sample size must be stated in order to deliver accurate information. For example, when a population has a large amount of variation, the SD of an extracted sample from this population must be large. However, the SEM will be small if the sample size is deliberately increased. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 57 year old homeless man presents with fever and a productive cough which has green sputum with streaks of blood. A chest x-ray reveals consolidation in the right upper lobe with evidence of cavitation. He is a known alcoholic. What is the most likely causative agent?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Klebsiella Pneumoniae
Explanation:Infection with Klebsiella organisms occurs in the lungs, where they cause destructive changes. Necrosis, inflammation, and haemorrhage occur within lung tissue, sometimes producing a thick, bloody, mucoid sputum described as currant jelly sputum.
The illness typically affects middle-aged and older men with debilitating diseases such as alcoholism, diabetes, or chronic bronchopulmonary disease. An increased tendency exists toward abscess formation, cavitation, empyema, and pleural adhesions. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 60 yr. old male patient with hypertension presented with acute onset retrosternal chest pain for 3 hours. On examination his pulse rate was 68 bpm, BP was 100/60 mmHg and JVP was seen 3mm from the sternal notch. Respiratory examination was normal. His ECG showed narrow QRS complexes, ST segment elevation of 2mm in leads II, III and aVF and a complete heart block. What is the most immediate treatment from the following answers?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chewable aspirin 300 mg
Explanation:The diagnosis is inferior ST elevation myocardial infarction. As the right coronary artery supplies the SA and AV nodes and bundle of His, conduction abnormalities are more common with inferior MIs. The most immediate drug management is high dose Aspirin. Definite treatment is urgent cardiac revascularization.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which of the following forms of acute viral hepatitis has a much higher mortality in pregnant than non-pregnant females?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatitis E
Explanation:Pregnant patient in a third world country with hepatitis: The answer is most likely Hepatitis E. The mortality for Hepatitis E in pregnant women is very high. It is transmitted faecal-orally. There is no hepatitis G. Hepatitis C, B, A are less likely to be the correct answer than E given it’s classic association with pregnancy and poor living conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old physiotherapist with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with a painful, red left eye. Visual acuity is normal. Fundoscopy is also unremarkable. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Scleritis
Explanation:Scleritis, or inflammation of the sclera, is usually painful whereas episcleritis is not painful.
Keratoconjunctivitis sicca is usually bilateral and associated more with dryness, burning and itching.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old woman visits the diabetes clinic for review. She has had type-2 diabetes for 9 years and is now on insulin therapy. She has diabetic nephropathy, as exemplified by hypertension and proteinuria (urinary PCR 155); a recent creatinine level was 205 μmol/l and eGFR 24 ml/min. Which of the following options best fits her prognosis or management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Treatment with ARB or ACE-I may slow further deterioration in renal function
Explanation:Treatment with ARB or ACE-I may slow further deterioration in renal function in this patient, as studies have shown that blocking of the RAS in type 2 diabetic patients improve renal function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old electrical technician presents following an overdose. Anticholinergic syndrome is suspected. Which of the following is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mydriasis occurs
Explanation:Anticholinergic syndrome occurs following overdose with drugs that have prominent anticholinergic activity including tricyclic antidepressants, antihistamines and atropine. Features include dry, warm, flushed skin, urinary retention, tachycardia, mydriasis (dilated pupils) and agitation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old female presents to the emergency department having taken an overdose of 40 x 500mg paracetamol tablets and 400ml of vodka. This is her fourth attendance with an overdose over the past 3 years. She is also known to the local police after an episode of reckless driving/road rage. On arrival, she is tearful and upset. Vital signs and general physical examination are normal apart from evidence of cutting on her arms. She is given activated charcoal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder
Explanation:The given clinical scenario is highly suggestive of a borderline personality disorder.
Borderline personality disorder is marked out by instability in moods, behaviour, and relationships. The diagnosis is confirmed by the presence of at least 5 of the following symptoms;
1) Extreme reactions including panic, depression, rage, or frantic actions to abandonment, whether real or perceived
2) A pattern of intense and stormy relationships with family, friends, and loved ones, often veering from extreme closeness and love to extreme dislike or anger
3) Distorted and unstable self-image or sense of self, which can result in sudden changes in feelings, opinions, values, or plans and goals for the future (such as school or career choices)
4) Impulsive and often dangerous behaviours, such as spending sprees, unsafe sex, substance abuse, reckless driving, and binge eating
5) Recurring suicidal behaviours or threats or self-harming behaviour, such as cutting, intense and highly changeable moods, with each episode lasting from a few hours to a few days
6) Chronic feelings of emptiness and/or boredom
7) Inappropriate, intense anger or problems controlling anger
8) Having stress-related paranoid thoughts or severe dissociative symptoms, such as feeling cut off from oneself, observing oneself from outside the body, or losing touch with reality.Other options:
There are no features consistent with endogenous depression, such as early morning wakening or loss of appetite.
There are also no features consistent with hypomania such as pressure of speech, a flight of ideas, or over-exuberant behaviour.
The lack of history of drug abuse rules out drug-induced psychosis.
An anti-social personality disorder is characterized by a failure to conform to social norms and repeated lawbreaking. There is consistent irresponsibility, impulsivity, and disregard for both their safety and that of others. This is not the case in the given scenario. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman is evaluated in the endocrinology clinic for increased urine output. She weighs 60 kg and has a 24-hour urine output of 3500 ml. Her basal urine osmolality is 210 mOsm/kg. She undergoes a fluid deprivation test and her urine osmolality after fluid deprivation (loss of weight 3 kg) is 650 mOsm/kg. Subsequent injection of subcutaneous DDAVP (desmopressin acetate) did not result in a further significant rise of urine osmolality after 2 hours (655 mOsm/kg). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary polydipsia
Explanation:In central and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus (DI), urinary osmolality will be less than 300 mOsm/kg after water deprivation. After the administration of ADH, the osmolality will rise to more than 750 mOsm/kg in central DI but will not rise at all in nephrogenic DI.
In primary polydipsia, water deprivation results in an increase in urine osmolality, anywhere between 300 – 800 mOsm/Kg (usually up to 600 – 700 mOsm/Kg), without a substantial increase in plasma osmolality, but the increase in urine osmolality is not as substantial as in a normal response.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old male who is a known case of sickle cell disease presents to the Accident and Emergency (A&E) department with fever, tachypnoea, and rib pain. On examination, he has a low-grade fever of 37.9°C, oxygen saturation of 95% on air, and bilateral vesicular breath sounds on chest auscultation. CXR shows opacification in the right middle zone. Which of these statements most accurately describes the initial management of this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Incentive spirometry is indicated
Explanation:This is a typical picture of acute chest syndrome (ACS). According to the British Committee for Standards in Haematology (BCSH), ACS is defined as ‘an acute illness characterised by fever and/or respiratory symptoms, accompanied by a new pulmonary infiltrate on chest X-ray’. ACS occurs in sequestration crisis, which is one of the four main types of crises occurring in sickle cell disease.
The fundamentals of initial management are as follows:
1. Oxygen therapy to maintain saturation >95%
2. Intravenous fluids to ensure euvolemia
3. Adequate pain relief
4. Incentive spirometry in all patients presenting with rib or chest pain
5. Antibiotics with cover for atypical organisms
6. Bronchodilators if asthma co-exists with acute chest syndrome, or if there is an evidence of acute bronchospasm on auscultation
7. Early consultation with the critical care team and haematology departmentA senior haematologist then makes a decision as to whether a simple or exchange transfusion is necessary in order to achieve a target Hb of 10.0–11.0g/dL in either instance.
Sickle Cell Crises:
Sickle cell anaemia is characterised by periods of good health with intervening crises:
1. Sequestration crisis: acute chest syndrome (i.e. fever, dyspnoea, chest/rib pain, low pO2, and pulmonary infiltrates)2. Thrombotic (painful or vaso-occlusive) crisis: precipitated by infection, dehydration, and deoxygenation
3. Aplastic crisis: sudden fall in haemoglobin without marked reticulocytosis, usually occurring secondary to parvovirus infection
4. Haemolytic crisis: fall in haemoglobin secondary to haemolysis, rare type of sickle cell crises
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 31 year old female complains of bilateral proximal muscle weakness. There is marked blanching of fingers especially in response to cold weather. Lab results are as follows: Anti Jo-1: positive, ANA: positive, CK: 2000 U/L, ESR: 60mm/hr, EMG: myopathic changes. Presence of which of the following signifies the worst prognosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Interstitial lung disease
Explanation:Polymyositis is an inflammatory disorder causing symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness. It is thought to be a T-cell mediated cytotoxic process directed against muscle fibres. It may be idiopathic or associated with connective tissue disorders. It may also be associated with malignancy for example small cell lung carcinoma.
Dermatomyositis is a variant of the disease where skin manifestations are prominent, for example a purple (heliotrope) rash on the cheeks and eyelids.
It typically affects middle-aged, female: male 3:1. Features include proximal muscle weakness +/- tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease: e.g. fibrosing alveolitis or organising pneumonia, dysphagia, dysphonia. Investigations: elevated creatine kinase, other muscle enzymes (lactate dehydrogenase (LD), aldolase, AST and ALT) are also elevated in 85-95% of patients, EMG, muscle biopsy. Anti-Jo-1 antibodies are seen in pattern of disease associated with lung involvement, Raynaud’s and fever. Interstitial lung disease plays a major role in morbidity and mortality in patients with polymyositis and is considered a major risk factor for premature death in patients with myositis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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What is the mechanism of action of sumatriptan?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5-HT1 agonist
Explanation:Triptans are specific 5-HT1 agonists used in the acute treatment of migraine. They are generally used as first-line therapy in combination with an NSAID or paracetamol.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 50 year old retired coal miner with simple silicosis presented with shortness of breath. He had been short of breath for 3 months. Around 3 months ago he began keeping turtle doves as pets. On auscultation he had basal crepitations and chest x-ray showed fine nodular shadowing in the apices. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
Explanation:Extrinsic allergic alveolitis (EAA) refers to a group of lung diseases that can develop after exposure to certain substances. The name describes the origin and the nature of these diseases:
‘extrinsic’ – caused by something originating outside the body
‘allergic’ – an abnormally increased (hypersensitive) body reaction to a common substance
‘alveolitis’ – inflammation in the small air sacs of the lungs (alveoli)Symptoms can include: fever, cough, worsening breathlessness and weight loss. The diagnosis of the disease is based on a history of symptoms after exposure to the allergen and a range of clinical tests which usually includes: X-rays or CT scans, lung function and blood tests.
EAA is not a ‘new’ occupational respiratory disease and occupational causes include bacteria, fungi, animal proteins, plants and chemicals.
Examples of EAA include:
Bird fancier’s lung (BFL) is a type of hypersensitivity pneumonitis (HP). It is triggered by exposure to avian proteins present in the dry dust of the droppings and sometimes in the feathers of a variety of birds. The lungs become inflamed, with granuloma formation. Birds such as pigeons, parakeets, cockatiels, shell parakeets (budgerigars), parrots, turtle doves, turkeys and chickens have been implicated.
People who work with birds or own many birds are at risk. Bird hobbyists and pet store workers may also be at risk. This disease is an inflammation of the alveoli in the lungs caused by an immune response to inhaled allergens from birds. Initial symptoms include shortness of breath (dyspnoea), especially after sudden exertion or when exposed to temperature change, which can resemble asthma, hyperventilation syndrome or pulmonary embolism. Chills, fever, non-productive cough and chest discomfort may also occur.
A definitive diagnosis can be difficult without invasive testing, but extensive exposure to birds combined with reduced diffusing capacity are strongly suggestive of this disease. X-ray or CT scans will show physical changes to the lung structure (a ground glass appearance) as the disease progresses. Precise distribution and types of tissue damage differ among similar diseases, as does response to treatment with Prednisone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 14-day-old baby presented in NICU with the signs and symptoms of hydrocephaly, seizures and chorioretinitis. Which of the following infectious agents is most probably the cause in a case like this?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Explanation: -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 65 yr. old woman was referred due to a pulse rate of 40 bpm. Which of the following answers is associated with the least risk of asystole?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Complete heart block with a narrow complex QRS
Explanation:From the given answers, complete heart block with a narrow complex QRS complex is associated with the least risk of asystole. Transvenous pacing is indicated by the other given responses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 41-year-old gentleman required high doses of intravenous diuretics after his renal transplant for the purposes of fluid management. Soon after administration he developed hearing loss, tinnitus, and vertigo. Which diuretic is most likely to have caused this?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Furosemide
Explanation:Furosemide is a loop diuretic that is known to have significant ototoxicity side-effects although the mechanism is not fully known.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old lady presents with severe morning headaches associated with nausea. Head MRI reveals a large compressive tumour arising from the falx cerebri. The tumour is well delineated. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Meningioma
Explanation:Meningiomas are the most common benign tumours of the brain. Their name is derived from the fact that they arise from the dura mater which together with the pia matter and arachnoid mater form the meninges. The chances that a meningioma is benign are almost 98%. They are non-invasive and well delineated, causing sign and symptoms of brain compression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 50 year old man undergoes a colonoscopy due to the finding of blood in his stools. The colonoscopy revealed four polyps which were variable in size from one at 0.5cm, 2 at approximately 1.5cm and one at 2 cm. When should this patient have a follow up colonoscopy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3 years
Explanation:For the question, you need knowledge of the British Society of Gastroenterology guidelines. This patient has 3-4 adenomas with 3 of them > 1 cm. This places him at medium risk and the recommendation if for a 3-year follow up period.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man has been admitted with dehydration following an attack of gastritis. His initial blood results revealed raised calcium and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). He has a history of hypertension, angina, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and diabetes. His most recent results have arrived on the ward, showing: Hb: 13.8 g/dL, WCC: 7.7 x 10^9/L, Plts: 212 x 10^9/L, Na+: 138 mmol/L, K+: 4.7 mmol/L, Ca+2: 2.4 mmol/L, Urea: 7.2 mmol/L, Creatinine: 104 mmol/L, Albumin: 38 g/L, IgG: 24 g/L (6.0-13.0), IgA: 2.1 g/L (0.8-3.0), IgM: 1.3 g/L (0.4-2.5). Trace amounts of Bence Jones protein have also been detected in the urine. CXR shows normal heart and mediastinal contours, clear lungs bilaterally, osteopenia of the bony skeleton with no lytic lesions. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance
Explanation:Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS)—also known as benign paraproteinemia and monoclonal gammopathy—is a pre-malignant condition not necessarily leading to its malignant form—multiple myeloma. MGUS causes increase of a serum monoclonal protein (M protein). It is not associated with ostealgia or increased risk of infections. It is often mistaken for multiple myeloma, differing from the latter in, no immunosuppression, anaemia, hypercalcaemia, lytic bone lesions, or renal failure; normal levels of beta-2 microglobulin; and stable lower levels of paraproteinemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 26 year old male admits to you that he was sexually abused in his childhood. Which one of the following features is not a characteristic feature of post-traumatic stress disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Loss of inhibitions
Explanation:Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is an anxiety disorder caused by stressful, frightening or distressing events.
PTSD is a lasting consequence of traumatic ordeals that cause intense fear, helplessness, or horror, such as a sexual or physical assault, the unexpected death of a loved one, an accident, war, or natural disaster. Families of victims can also develop PTSD, as can emergency personnel and rescue workers.
PTSD is diagnosed after a person experiences symptoms for at least one month following a traumatic event. However symptoms may not appear until several months or even years later. The disorder is characterized by three main types of symptoms:
-Re-experiencing the trauma through intrusive distressing recollections of the event, flashbacks, and nightmares.
-Emotional numbness and avoidance of places, people, and activities that are reminders of the trauma.
-Increased arousal such as difficulty sleeping and concentrating, feeling jumpy, and being easily irritated and angered.The goal of PTSD treatment is to reduce the emotional and physical symptoms, to improve daily functioning, and to help the person better cope with the event that triggered the disorder. Treatment for PTSD may involve psychotherapy (a type of counselling), medication, or both.
Certain antidepressant medications are used to treat PTSD and to control the feelings of anxiety and its associated symptoms including selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and tricyclic antidepressants. Mood stabilizers such are sometimes used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of a cough and breathlessness for 2 weeks. He reports that before the onset of these symptoms, he was fit and well and was not on any medication. He is a known smoker of 10 cigarettes per day and has been smoking for over 25 years. On examination, the GP diagnosed a mild viral chest infection and reassured the patient that the symptoms would settle of their own accord. Two weeks later, the patient presented again to the GP, this time complaining of thirst, polyuria and generalised muscle weakness. The GP noticed the presence of ankle oedema. A prick test confirmed the presence of hyperglycaemia and the patient was referred to the hospital for investigations where the medical registrar ordered a variety of blood tests. Some of these results are shown: Na 144 mmol/L, K 2.2 mmol/L, Bicarbonate 34 mmol/L, Glucose 16 mmol/L. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ectopic ACTH production
Explanation:The patient has small cell lung cancer presented by paraneoplastic syndrome; Ectopic ACTH secretion.
Small cell lung cancer (SCLC), previously known as oat cell carcinoma is a neuroendocrine carcinoma that exhibits aggressive behaviour, rapid growth, early spread to distant sites, exquisite sensitivity to chemotherapy and radiation, and a frequent association with distinct paraneoplastic syndromes.
Common presenting signs and symptoms of the disease, which very often occur in advanced-stage disease, include the following:
– Shortness of breath
– Cough
– Bone pain
– Weight loss
– Fatigue
– Neurologic dysfunction
Most patients with this disease present with a short duration of symptoms, usually only 8-12 weeks before presentation. The clinical manifestations of SCLC can result from local tumour growth, intrathoracic spread, distant spread, and/or paraneoplastic syndromes.
SIADH is present in 15% of the patients and Ectopic secretion of ACTH is present in 2-5% of the patients leading to ectopic Cushing’s syndrome. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presented with bloody diarrhoea and weight loss. Which one of the following would favour the diagnosis of Crohn’s disease on rectal biopsy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Patchy inflammation
Explanation:The correct answer is patchy inflammation. Superficial ulceration as well as non-patchy inflammation are seen in ulcerative colitis (UC) in the colon and rectum; you would expect to see transmural inflammation in Crohn’s disease and it can be patchy and located anywhere from mouth to anus. Crypt distortion and crypt abscesses are seen in both UC and Crohn’s, however they are more common in ulcerative colitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements regarding dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitors in the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Do not cause weight gain
Explanation:Several dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors are in clinical development; these are orally active and increase levels of active glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which in turn increases insulin secretion and reduces glucagon secretion, thereby lowering glucose levels.
Sitagliptin and vildagliptin both have a long duration of action, allowing once-daily administration. Both sitagliptin and vildagliptin are safe and tolerable with a low risk of hypoglycaemia. In drug-naïve subjects with type 2 diabetes, both sitagliptin and vildagliptin reduce A1C levels by ,1% as monotherapy. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman has a family history of haemochromatosis and is homozygous for the C282Y mutation. Her ferritin is 927 mg/L (normal range 15-150), haemoglobin 12.5 g/dL (normal range 11.5-16) and aspartate aminotransferase 87 U/L (normal range <40). Which is the best course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Weekly venesection to drop her ferritin into the low-normal range
Explanation:Venesection should be done (essentially blood-letting) to decrease the too-high ferratin level. IV Desterrioxamine would have the opposite effect. ASA does not have to do with ferritin. You do not just watch this and recheck. And you do not want to make the patient anaemic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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Sensorineural deafness is strongly associated with which one of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rubella
Explanation:Primary rubella infection during pregnancy, particularly during the first trimester, can affect several organs and cause birth defects that are responsible for congenital rubella syndrome (CRS). The most common defects of CRS are hearing impairment (unilateral or bilateral sensorineural), eye defects (e.g., cataracts, congenital glaucoma, or pigmentary retinopathy), and cardiac defects (e.g., patent ductus arteriosus or peripheral pulmonic stenosis). Congenital hearing loss is the most common sequela, occurring in approximately 60% of cases, especially when infection occurs in the 4th month of pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A homeless woman presented with a cough and fever for the last 3 months. She also complained of night sweats and weight loss. Her CXR showed lung opacities. What is the next appropriate step for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acid fast bacilli
Explanation:History and CXR are suggestive of tuberculosis. Acid fast bacilli should be seen on microscopy to confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 42 year old female presents with a funny bone sensation in her right elbow that is accompanied by numbness and tingling in the 4th and 5th digits. The symptoms are aggravated when the elbow is bent for a prolonged period. Which of the following explains the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cubital tunnel syndrome
Explanation:Cubital Tunnel Syndrome is a condition that involves pressure or stretching of the ulnar nerve (also known as the “funny bone” nerve), which can cause numbness or tingling in the 4th and 5th digit, pain in the forearm, and/or weakness in the hand. Epicondylitis of the elbow is a condition associated with repetitive forearm and elbow activities. Both lateral epicondylitis (commonly known as tennis elbow) and medial epicondylitis (commonly known as golfer’s elbow) are characterized by elbow pain during or following elbow flexion and extension. Radial tunnel syndrome is a set of symptoms that include fatigue or a dull, aching pain at the top of the forearm with use. Although less common, symptoms can also occur at the back of the hand or wrist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 40 year old truck operator who smokes one and a half packs of cigarette per day complains of a cough and fever for the last three days. He also has right-sided chest pain when he inhales. On examination he is slightly cyanosed, has a temperature of 38.1°C, a respiratory rate of 39/min, a BP of 104/71 mm/Hg and a pulse rate of 132/min. He has basal crepitations and dullness to percussion at the right lung base. What could be a probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bronchopneumonia
Explanation:Bronchopneumonia presents as a patchy consolidation involving one or more lobes, usually the dependent lung zones, a pattern attributable to aspiration of oropharyngeal contents.
Symptoms of bronchopneumonia may be like other types of pneumonia. This condition often begins with flu-like symptoms that can become more severe over a few days. The symptoms include:
– fever
– a cough that brings up mucus
– shortness of breath
– chest pain
– rapid breathing
– sweating
– chills
– headaches
– muscle aches
– pleurisy, or chest pain that results from inflammation due to excessive coughing
– fatigue
– confusion or delirium, especially in older peopleThere are several factors that can increase your risk of developing bronchopneumonia. These include:
– Age: People who are 65 years of age or older, and children who are 2 years or younger, have a higher risk for developing bronchopneumonia and complications from the condition.
– Environmental: People who work in, or often visit, hospital or nursing home facilities have a higher risk for developing bronchopneumonia.
– Lifestyle: Smoking, poor nutrition, and a history of heavy alcohol use can increase your risk for bronchopneumonia.
– Medical conditions: Having certain medical conditions can increase your risk for developing this type of pneumonia. These include: chronic lung disease, such as asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), HIV/AIDS, having a weakened immune system due to chemotherapy or the use of immunosuppressive drugs. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old ex-footballer with a long history of alcohol abuse, presents with epigastric pain. Which of the following suggests a diagnosis of peptic ulceration rather than chronic pancreatitis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Relieved by food
Explanation:Relief of symptoms with food suggests duodenal ulceration, for which the pain gets worse on an empty stomach. In chronic pancreatitis, you would expect worsening of symptoms with food.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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How would you advise your patient to apply an emollient and a steroid cream, in order to treat her eczema?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: First use emollient then steroids.
Explanation:If steroid is applied first, applying an emollient after could spread it from where it had been applied. If steroid is applied immediately after the emollient then it cannot be absorbed, this is why there should be a time interval of around thirty minutes between these two treatments in order for them to be effective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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From the options provided below, which intervention plays the greatest role in increasing survival in patients with COPD?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Smoking cessation
Explanation:Smoking cessation is the most effective intervention in stopping the progression of COPD, as well as increasing survival and reducing morbidity. This is why smoking cessation should be the top priority in the treatment of COPD. Long term oxygen therapy (LTOT) may increase survival in hypoxic patients. The rest of the options dilate airways, reduce inflammation and thereby improve symptoms but do not necessarily increase survival.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old male is admitted with worsening shortness of breath with signs of left ventricular failure. He has a known genetic condition. On examination, there is an ejection systolic murmur loudest over the aortic area radiating to the carotids, bibasal crepitations and pitting oedema to the knees bilaterally. On closer inspection of the patient, you note a wide vermillion border, small spaced teeth and a flat nasal bridge. The patient also has a disinhibited friendly demeanour. What is the likely precipitating valvular issue?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Supravalvular aortic stenosis
Explanation:Supravalvular aortic stenosis, is associated with a condition called William’s syndrome.
William’s syndrome is an inherited neurodevelopmental disorder caused by a microdeletion on chromosome 7. The most common symptoms of Williams syndrome are heart defects and unusual facial features. Other symptoms include failure to gain weight appropriately in infancy (failure to thrive) and low muscle tone. Individuals with Williams syndrome tend to have widely spaced teeth, a long philtrum, and a flattened nasal bridge.
Most individuals with Williams syndrome are highly verbal relative to their IQ, and are overly sociable, having what has been described as a cocktail party type personality. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 49
Incorrect
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Which one of the following features is most helpful in distinguishing beta thalassaemia trait from iron deficiency anaemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemoglobin A2 levels
Explanation:Elevated haemoglobin A2 level is seen in beta thalassaemia trait, whereas, it is typically low in iron deficiency anaemia unless the patient has received a recent blood transfusion.
Low mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and reduced haematocrit (Ht) are encountered in both conditions. Peripheral blood smear is grossly abnormal in both beta thalassaemia and severe iron deficiency anaemia, showing bizarre morphology, target cells, and a small number of nucleated red blood cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism, presents with ptosis and muscle weakness. She's noticed that her muscle weakness becomes worse towards the end of the day. Clinical examination reveals fatigable ptosis and proximal limb weakness. Myasthenia gravis is suspected. Which receptor is implicated in the pathophysiology of this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors
Explanation:Myasthenia gravis (MG) is an organ-specific autoimmune disease caused by an antibody-mediated assault on the muscle nicotinic acetylcholine receptor (AChR) at the neuromuscular junction. Binding of antibodies to the AChR leads to loss of functional AChRs and impairs the neuromuscular signal transmission, resulting in muscular weakness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 51
Incorrect
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A 29 year old graduate student is reviewed after feeling anxious all the time. She states that she is unable to relax and she is not sleeping well. However, her mood is okay and her appetite is good. She has been reviewed for several weeks with the same symptoms and has made no improvement with self-help sessions. Which pharmacological option is likely indicated in her diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)
Explanation:Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) is characterized by persistent and excessive worry about a number of different things. People with GAD may anticipate disaster and may be overly concerned about money, health, family, work, or other issues. Individuals with GAD find it difficult to control their worry. They may worry more than seems warranted about actual events or may expect the worst even when there is no apparent reason for concern.
GAD is diagnosed when a person finds it difficult to control worry on more days than not for at least six months and has three or more symptoms.
Treatment usually consists of a combination of pharmacotherapy and/or psychotherapy. Antidepressant agents are the drugs of choice in the treatment of anxiety disorders, particularly the newer agents, which have a safer adverse effect profile and higher ease of use than the older tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs), such as selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 52
Incorrect
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Presence of which of the following indicates a worse prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-CCP antibodies
Explanation:Rheumatoid arthritis is both common and chronic, with significant consequences for multiple organ systems. Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibody testing is particularly useful in the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis, with high specificity, presence early in the disease process, and ability to identify patients who are likely to have severe disease and irreversible damage. However, its sensitivity is low, and a negative result does not exclude disease. Anti-CCP antibodies have not been found at a significant frequency in other diseases to date, and are more specific than rheumatoid factor for detecting rheumatoid arthritis. The other factors that are mentioned do not play a key prognostic role.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 53
Incorrect
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Which of the following is a feature of haemoglobin S?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is the result of a point mutation
Explanation:Hb S is the most common type of abnormal haemoglobin and the basis of sickle cell trait and sickle cell anaemia. It differs from normal adult haemoglobin (called haemoglobin A—Hb A) only by a single amino acid substitution due to point mutation—a valine replacing a glutamine in the sixth position of the beta chain of globin. Hb S molecules polymerize in hypoxic and acidic environments, imparting a sickle shape to the RBCs. Hb S molecules are less negatively charged than Hb A (due to the loss of glutamine) and have a lower affinity for oxygen (right shift of the oxygen-dissociation curve).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 54
Incorrect
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There are number of diseases that have to be notified to the consultant responsible for communicable disease control. Which of the following conditions does not belong to above category?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pneumococcal pneumonia
Explanation:There are number of diseases that have to be notified to relevant authorities to prevent or reduce their spread. Those conditions include Cholera, Diphtheria, Food poisoning, Infectious bloody diarrhoea, Malaria, Measles, Meningococcal septicaemia, Mumps, Plague, Rabies and Rubella.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A 35 year old sales representative presents with severe pain going down her neck and right arm. She admits that this pain is worse on sitting and driving for long periods. Past history is significant for two previous road traffic accidents. Examination reveals weakness and sensory loss over C5/C6 nerve distribution. There is pain with neck movement and particularly extension. Which of the following investigations would be the most helpful in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: MRI scan of the cervical spinal cord
Explanation:Cervical radiculopathy is usually due to compression or injury to a nerve root by a herniated disc or degenerative changes. Levels C5 to T1 are the most commonly affected. It is usually, but not always, accompanied by cervical radicular pain, a sharp and shooting pain that travels from the neck and down the upper limb and may be severe. This needs to be differentiated from pain referred from the musculoskeletal (somatic) structures in the neck, which may be aching rather than sharp, and is more severe in the neck than in the upper limb. The neurological signs of cervical radiculopathy depend on the site of the lesion. The patient may have motor dysfunction, sensory deficits or alteration in tendon reflexes. While pain is a common presenting symptom, not all radiculopathies are painful (i.e. only motor deficits may be obvious). CT scanning cannot accurately demonstrate the commonest cause for cervical radiculopathy (disc herniation) without myelography, which requires hospital admission, lumbar puncture and the use of contrast. In patients with cervical radiculopathy, MRI is the imaging technique of choice for the detection of root compression by disc herniation and osteophytes. MRI allows the nerve roots to be directly visualised. Nerve conduction studies are also useful in determining the nerve roots that are involved.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 56
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old software developer with lung cancer is currently taking MST 30mg bd for pain relief. What dose of oral morphine solution should he be prescribed for breakthrough pain?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 10 mg
Explanation:The total daily morphine dose is 30 x 2 = 60 mg. Therefore, the breakthrough dose should be one-sixth of this, 10 mg.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A 35 year old male who has smoked 20 cigarettes per day was referred to the National Chest Hospital because he has had a nine month history of shortness of breath which is getting worse. Tests revealed that he had moderate emphysema. His family history showed that his father died from COPD at the age of 52. Genetic testing found the PiSZ genotype following the diagnosis of alpha-1 antitrypsin (A1AT) deficiency. What levels of alpha-1 antitrypsin would be expected if they were to be measured?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 40% of normal
Explanation:Alpha1-antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency, first described in 1963, is one of the most common inherited disorders amongst white Caucasians. Its primary manifestation is early-onset of pan acinar emphysema. In adults, alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency leads to chronic liver disease in the fifth decade. As a cause of emphysema, it is seen in non-smokers in the fifth decade of life and during the fourth decade of life in smokers.
Symptoms of alpha1-antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency emphysema are limited to the respiratory system. Dyspnoea is the symptom that eventually dominates alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency. Similar to other forms of emphysema, the dyspnoea of alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency is initially evident only with strenuous exertion. Over several years, it eventually limits even mild activities.
The serum levels of some of the common genotypes are:
•PiMM: 100% (normal)
•PiMS: 80% of normal serum level of A1AT
•PiSS: 60% of normal serum level of A1AT
•PiMZ: 60% of normal serum level of A1AT, mild deficiency
•PiSZ: 40% of normal serum level of A1AT, moderate deficiency
•PiZZ: 10–15% (severe alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old woman presents with lethargy and confusion. On examination, you note a purpuric rash covering the abdominal wall and thighs, and a fever of 38C. Investigations reveal haemolytic anaemia, thrombocytopenia, and acute kidney injury. Which feature of the presentation makes the diagnosis of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura more likely than haemolytic uremic syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Confusion
Explanation:Confusion in the patient refers to neurological symptoms that are more associated with thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura than with haemolytic uremic syndrome. All the other symptoms present in both conditions similarly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old male patient with a downward dislocation of the lens in his right eye is experiencing visual problems. The ophthalmologist notes a constellation of symptoms resembling those of Marfan Syndrome. The patient's history reveals learning disabilities and a diagnosis of homocystinuria is suspected. What is the pathophysiology of homocystinuria?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Deficiency of cystathionine beta synthase
Explanation:Inherited metabolic disorders are often characterized by the lack of an essential enzyme and are currently treated by dietary restriction and other strategies to replace the substrates or products of the missing enzyme. Patients with homocystinuria lack the enzyme cystathionine β-synthase (CBS), and many of these individuals do not respond to current treatment protocols.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A 32 year old female is diagnosed with SLE based on her complaints of polyarthralgia, mouth ulcers and ANA positivity. Labs reveal normal urinalysis, urea and electrolytes. ESR is 90mm in the first hour. How will you manage this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hydroxychloroquine 200 mg/day
Explanation:Hydroxychloroquine is used in the management of SLE as it prevents disease progression and has relatively mild side effects, for instance headache, nausea etc. Its use reduces the usage of corticosteroids. It is particularly effective when the disease is less severe and there is no organ involvement. Cyclophosphamide and prednisolone are indicated in cases of renal, neurological and lung involvement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 61
Incorrect
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In a patient with Hashimoto's thyroiditis, which of the following is most specific to the disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies
Explanation:Hashimoto thyroiditis is part of the spectrum of autoimmune thyroid diseases (AITDs) and is characterized by the destruction of thyroid cells by various cell- and antibody mediated immune processes. It usually presents with hypothyroidism, insidious in onset, with signs and symptoms slowly progressing over months to years.
The diagnosis of Hashimoto thyroiditis relies on the demonstration of circulating antibodies to thyroid antigens (mainly thyroperoxidase and thyroglobulin) and reduced echogenicity on thyroid sonogram in a patient with proper clinical features.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 62
Incorrect
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Which of the following skin conditions is not associated with diabetes mellitus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sweet's syndrome
Explanation:Diabetic dermadromes constitute a group of cutaneous conditions commonly seen in people with diabetes with longstanding disease. Conditions included in this group are:
– Acral dry gangrene
– Carotenosis
– Diabetic dermopathy
– Diabetic bulla
– Diabetic cheiroarthropathy
– Malum perforans
– Necrobiosis lipoidica
– Limited joint mobility
– Scleroderma
– Waxy skin is observed in roughly 50%.Sweet’s syndrome is also known as acute febrile neutrophilic dermatosis has a strong association with acute myeloid leukaemia. It is not associated with diabetes mellitus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 63
Incorrect
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A 20 yr. old male presented after an episode where he had collapsed. This was the second time he has collapsed during the past 3 weeks. His father passed away at the age of 40 due to sudden cardiac death. Echocardiography showed evidence of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. His 24 hr ECG revealed several short runs of non sustained ventricular tachycardia (VT). Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Implantable cardiovertor defibrillator
Explanation:This patient has a high risk of sudden cardiac death due to a strong family history and non sustained VT. So the most appropriate management is implantable cardiovertor defibrillator.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 64
Incorrect
-
A 60 year old man who has been complaining of increasing shortness of breath had a post-bronchodilator spirometry done. FEV1/FVC 0. 63 FEV1% predicted 63% What is the best interpretation of these results?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: COPD (stage 2 - moderate)
Explanation:Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a complex and progressive chronic lung disease. Typically, COPD includes emphysema and chronic bronchitis. COPD is characterized by the restriction of airflow into and out of the lungs. The obstruction of airflow makes breathing difficult. The causes of COPD include smoking, long-term exposure to air pollutants and a rare genetic disorder.
The Global Initiative for Chronic Obstructive Lung Disease (GOLD) developed the GOLD Staging System. In the GOLD System, the forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) measurement from a pulmonary function test is used to place COPD into stages. Often, doctors also consider your COPD symptoms.
COPD has four stages. The stages of COPD range from mild to very severe. COPD affects everyone differently. Because COPD is a progressive lung disease, it will worsen over time.
The Stages of COPD:
Mild COPD or Stage 1—Mild COPD with a FEV1 about 80 percent or more of normal.
Moderate COPD or Stage 2—Moderate COPD with a FEV1 between 50 and 80 percent of normal.
Severe COPD or Stage 3—Severe emphysema with a FEV1 between 30 and 50 percent of normal.
Very Severe COPD or Stage 4—Very severe or End-Stage COPD with a lower FEV1 than Stage 3, or people with low blood oxygen levels and a Stage 3 FEV1.This patient has a FEV1 percent of 63 which falls within the stage 2 or moderate COPD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 65
Incorrect
-
A 23-year-old female known with schizophrenia is being reviewed in the emergency department. Her mother claims that she has been 'staring' for the past few hours but has now developed abnormal head movements and has gone 'cross-eyed'. On examination, the patient's neck is extended and positioned to the right. Her eyes are deviated upwards and are slightly converged. Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Procyclidine
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this patient is an oculogyric crisis, that is most appropriately managed with procyclidine or benztropine (antimuscarinic).
An oculogyric crisis is a dystonic reaction to certain drugs or medical conditions.
Features include:
Restlessness, agitation
Involuntary upward deviation of the eyesCauses:
Phenothiazines
Haloperidol
Metoclopramide
Postencephalitic Parkinson’s diseaseManagement:
Intravenous antimuscarinic agents like benztropine or procyclidine, alternatively diphenhydramine or ethopropazine maybe used. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 66
Incorrect
-
A 59-year-old scientist is referred to you with a 2-year history of ascending lower limb numbness and, more recently, foot drop. In the last 6 months he has also developed numbness in his fingers. He has a distal reduction to pinprick and relatively preserved muscle power, except for ankle dorsiflexion and hyporeflexia in his legs. The GP has already organised nerve conduction studies and the report is sent along with the patient. Which of the following would be suggestive of an axonal neuropathy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduced compound muscle action potential amplitude
Explanation:Reduced conduction velocity is associated with demyelinating neuropathies. An abnormally slow response is associated with very proximal disease, i.e. radiculopathies. Delayed P100 latency is a feature of performing visual evoked potentials in those with optic nerve disease. Conduction block is usually associated with certain types of demyelinating neuropathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 67
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old female presented with complaints of earache and a high-grade fever. During examination, numerous small vesicles were found within the ear canal and her ear is very tender. Which one of the following organisms is most likely to be responsible for such a condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Herpes zoster
Explanation:Herpes zoster is a viral disorder in which painful vesicular lesions are present in a specific dermatome area. High-grade fever may present as well due to infection. Varicella zoster, measles, herpes simplex and HIV do not present with tender lesions of a limited area.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 68
Incorrect
-
A 4-year-old boy admitted with fever for 2 days had a left sided focal fits, which persisted for 4 minutes. There was no history of head injury. On examination, he was drowsy but there were no focal neurological signs. Urine dipstick was negative. What is the investigation of choice that can be done at this stage to arrive at a diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CSF analysis
Explanation:This presentation could be due to either a meningitis or encephalitis, which are clinically not distinguishable from the given history. Encephalitis is mostly viral and in UK herpes simplex virus is the main cause. Advanced neuro imaging and EEG will help to differentiate them however from the given answers CSF analysis is the most appropriate, provided that intracranial pressure is not raised. CSF analysis will help to differentiate a pyogenic meningitis from other forms of meningitis and encephalitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 69
Incorrect
-
A patient develops methemoglobinemia after being prescribed isosorbide mononitrate. Which enzyme is most likely to be deficient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: NADH methaemoglobin reductase
Explanation:Methemoglobinemia is a rare condition in which the haemoglobin iron is in oxidized or ferric state (Fe3+) and cannot reversibly bind oxygen. Normally, the conversion of ferrous form of iron (Fe2+) to its ferric form (Fe3+) is regulated by NADH methaemoglobin reductase, which results in the reduction of methaemoglobin to haemoglobin. Disruption in the enzyme leads to increased methaemoglobin in the blood. There is tissue hypoxia as Fe3+ cannot bind oxygen, and hence the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to the left.
Methemoglobinemia can occur due to congenital or acquired causes. Congenital causes include haemoglobin variants such as HbM and HbH, and deficiency of NADH methaemoglobin reductase. Acquired causes are drugs (e.g. sulphonamides, nitrates, dapsone, sodium nitroprusside, and primaquine) and chemicals (such as aniline dyes).
The features of methemoglobinemia are cyanosis, dyspnoea, anxiety, headache, severe acidosis, arrhythmias, seizures, and loss of consciousness. Patients have normal pO2 but oxygen saturation is decreased. Moreover, presence of chocolate-brown coloured arterial blood (colour does not change with addition of O2) and brown urine also point towards the diagnosis of methemoglobinemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 70
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old woman presents with recurrent headaches and sweating. On examination, a nodule is felt in the region of the thyroid gland. She mentions that her mother had kidney stones and died following a tumour in her neck. A surgeon recommends complete thyroidectomy as her treatment of choice. What is the most important investigation to be done before the surgery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 24-hour urinary catecholamines
Explanation:The patient is most likely to have Medullary Thyroid Carcinoma (MTC).
Sporadic, or isolated MTC accounts for 75% of cases and inherited MTC constitutes the rest.
Inherited MTC occurs in association with multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type 2A and 2B syndromes, but non-MEN familial MTC also occurs.
A 24-hour urinalysis for catecholamine metabolites (e.g., vanillylmandelic acid [VMA], metanephrine) has to be done to rule out concomitant pheochromocytoma in patients with MEN type 2A or 2B, as Pheochromocytoma must be treated before MTC. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 71
Incorrect
-
A 40-year-old male patient, who is otherwise healthy and without a significant family history, presents with a history of early morning headache and visual field defects, When asked, he said that he has been having these complaints for three months now. What is the most possible diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pituitary tumour
Explanation:The most possible diagnosis is a pituitary tumour. Pituitary tumours compress the optic chiasm inferiorly and can cause visual field defects (bitemporal hemianopia or quadrantanopia). Temporal arteritis usually develops in older people and acute glaucoma usually requires a family history. Amaurosis fugax is classed as a stroke and usually leads to reversible unilateral vision loss. A subconjunctival haemorrhage does not typically produce the symptoms described.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 72
Incorrect
-
A 20 year old woman presents to the hospital with sharp, left-sided chest pain and shortness of breath. On examination her pulse is 101 beats per minute and blood pressure is 124/61 mmHg. She is seen to be mildly breathless at rest but her oxygen saturation on air was 98%. CXR reveals a left pneumothorax with a 4 cm rim of air visible. Which management strategy is appropriate in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Needle aspiration
Explanation:Pneumothorax is defined as air in the pleural space and may be classified as spontaneous, traumatic or iatrogenic. Primary spontaneous pneumothorax occurs in patients without clinically apparent lung disease.
Primary pneumothorax has an incidence of 18-28 per 100,000 per year for men and 1.2-6 per 100,000 per year for women. Most patients present with ipsilateral pleuritic chest pain and acute shortness of breath. Shortness of breath is largely dependent on the size of the pneumothorax and whether there is underlying chronic lung disease.Young patients may have chest pain only. Most episodes of pneumothorax occur at rest. Symptoms may resolve within 24 hours in patients with primary spontaneous pneumothorax. The diagnosis of a pneumothorax is confirmed by finding a visceral pleural line displaced from the chest wall, without distal lung markings, on a posterior-anterior chest radiograph.
Breathless patients should not be left without intervention regardless of the size of pneumothorax. If there is a rim of air >2cm on the chest X-ray, this should be aspirated.
Aspiration is successful in approximately 70 per cent of patients; the patient may be discharged subsequently. A further attempt at aspiration is recommended if the patient remains symptomatic and a volume of less than 2.5 litres has been aspirated on the first attempt.If unsuccessful, an intercostal drain is inserted. This may be removed after 24 hours after full re-expansion or cessation of air leak without clamping and discharge may be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 73
Incorrect
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Which of the following is most consistent with small cell lung cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy is rarely seen
Explanation:The clinical manifestations of Small cell lung cancer (SCLC) can result from local tumour growth, intrathoracic spread, distant spread, and/or paraneoplastic syndromes.
Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy (HPO) is a rare paraneoplastic syndrome that is frequently associated with lung cancer; however, the incidence of clinically apparent HPO is not well known.
SIADH is present in 15% of cases and most commonly seen.
Although hypercalcaemia is frequently associated with malignancy, it is very rare in small cell lung cancer despite the high incidence of lytic bone metastases.
Ectopic Cushing’s syndrome in SCLC does not usually exhibit the classic signs of Cushing’s syndrome and Cushing’s syndrome could also appear during effective chemotherapy.
Chemotherapy is the treatment of choice in SCLC. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old male patient presents with severe pharyngitis and dysphagia. He's found to be HIV positive and with oesophageal candidiasis. Which of the following regarding HIV virus is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HIV is an RNA virus
Explanation:The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is grouped to the genus Lentivirus within the family of Retroviridae, subfamily Orthoretrovirinae. The HIV genome consists of two identical single-stranded RNA molecules that are enclosed within the core of the virus particle. The genome of the HIV provirus, also known as proviral DNA, is generated by the reverse transcription of the viral RNA genome into DNA, degradation of the RNA and integration of the double-stranded HIV DNA into the human genome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 75
Incorrect
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Choose the cell organelle involved in the synthesis of lipids:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Explanation:The Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is the major site at which membrane lipids are synthesized in eukaryotic cells. Because they are extremely hydrophobic, lipids are synthesized in association with already existing cellular membranes rather than in the aqueous environment of the cytosol. Although some lipids are synthesized in association with other membranes, most are synthesized in the ER. They are then transported from the ER to their ultimate destinations either in vesicles or by carrier proteins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man with type-1 diabetes presents for review. His HbA1c is 6.8% yet he is concerned that his morning blood sugar levels are occasionally as high as 24 mmol/l. He is currently managed on a bd mixed insulin regime. He was sent for continuous glucose monitoring and his glucose profile reveals dangerous dipping in blood glucose levels during the early hours of the morning. Which of the following changes to his insulin regime is most appropriate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Move him to a basal bolus regime
Explanation:The patients high morning blood sugar levels are suggestive to Somogyi Phenomenon which suggests that hypoglycaemia during the late evening induced by insulin could cause a counter regulatory hormone response that produces hyperglycaemia in the early morning.
Substitution of regular insulin with an immediate-acting insulin analogue, such as Humulin lispro, may be of some help. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 77
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old male with a history of premature cardiovascular disease in the family has come for review of his lab investigations. His fasting cholesterol is 8.4 mmol/l with high-density lipoprotein (HDL) of 1.6 mmol/l. You elect to commence him on atorvastatin 20 mg PO daily. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of the statins?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: They inhibit HMG CoA reductase
Explanation:Statins are a selective, competitive inhibitor of hydroxymethylglutaryl-CoA (HMG-CoA) reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for the conversion of HMG-CoA to mevalonate in the cholesterol synthesis pathway.
Statins are usually well tolerated with myopathy, rhabdomyolysis, hepatotoxicity, and diabetes mellitus being the most common adverse reactions.
This is the rate-limiting step in cholesterol synthesis, that leads to increased hepatic low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptors and reduced hepatic VLDL synthesis coupled with increased very-low-density lipoprotein (VLDL) clearance. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 78
Incorrect
-
The chorda tympani of the facial nerve (CN VII) carries:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: parasympathetic fibres to the submandibular and sublingual glands and taste fibres from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue
Explanation:In the petrous temporal bone the facial nerve produces three branches:
1. The greater petrosal nerve, which transmits preganglionic parasympathetic fibres to the sphenopalatine ganglion. These postganglionic fibres supply the lacrimal gland and the glands in the nasal cavity;
2. The nerve to stapedius;
3. Parasympathetic fibres to the submandibular and sublingual glands and taste fibres from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 79
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old woman presents with a 3 month history of colicky abdominal pain after eating, and diarrhoea. She has lost 7 kg in weight over the last few months. A recent gastroscopy and colonoscopy were normal. Her past medical history includes angina and a right carotid endarterectomy at the age of 62 years. Her current medication includes aspirin, atenolol, simvastatin and losartan. right carotid endarterectomy at the age of 62 years. Her current medication includes aspirin, atenolol, simvastatin and losartan. Blood tests revealed: Haemoglobin (Hb) 118 g/l, Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 80 fl, White cell count (WCC) 12.3 x 109/L, Platelets 210 x 109/L, Na+ 133 mmol/L, K+ 5.2 mmol/L, Urea 8.1 mmol/L, Creatinine 134 mmol/L. Select the most appropriate further investigations.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Contrast-enhanced computed tomography (CT) of the abdomen
Explanation:The patient is 74 years old. She has had a recent gastroscopy and colonoscopy. She has a history of angina and a right CEA. She is having colicky abdominal pain after meals and weight loss, which points to a possible diagnosis of chronic mesenteric ischemia. Thus, you would want to do a contrast-enhanced CT scan of the abdomen to look for this. A 24 hour cardiac monitor would also be helpful to look for any abnormal rhythm that could be a potential aetiology of her disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 80
Incorrect
-
A patient presented with acute onset of mild right hemiparesis affecting the body. He also has evidence of sensory loss on the right hand side. There is evidence of Horner’s syndrome and sensory loss on the face on the left hand side. Which of the following structures are involved?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Brain stem
Explanation:The patient is presenting with symptoms of lateral medullary syndrome also known as Wallenberg’s syndrome or posterior inferior cerebellar artery syndrome, where the symptoms are due to an ischemia in the brainstem. The classical symptoms include contralateral sensory deficits of the trunk region paired with ipsilateral facial sensory deficits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 81
Incorrect
-
A 50 yr. old male with a history of type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension presented with exertional dyspnoea and chest pain for 2 weeks. On examination his blood pressure was 145/80 mmHg. On auscultation reversed splitting of the second heart sound and bibasal crepitations were detected. What would be the most likely finding on his ECG?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left bundle branch block
Explanation:When closure of the pulmonary valve occurs before the aortic valve, reversed splitting occurs. The causes of reversed splitting are aortic stenosis, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, left bundle branch block (LBBB), and a ventricular pacemaker.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 82
Incorrect
-
A 70 year old male complained of poor vision at night which has gradually worsened with time. He has changed his glasses several times but there has been no improvement. On examination his pupils and cornea were normal. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cataract
Explanation:Senile cataract is an age-related, vision-impairing disease characterized by gradual progressive clouding and thickening of the lens of the eye. Patients with senile cataracts often present with a history of gradual progressive visual deterioration and disturbance in night and near vision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 83
Incorrect
-
A 20-year-old pregnant female in her first trimester met a child with chickenpox. She was investigated for the varicella antibody, which came back negative. She visited her GP. Which of the following measures is the most appropriate one?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ig
Explanation:After the exposure to chickenpox while pregnant, even if the patient is negative for antibodies she requires immunoglobulin to prevent further issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 84
Incorrect
-
A 11-year-old is referred to neurology due to episodes her GP feels are epileptiform. Her mother reports that she appears to just 'stop', sometimes even in mid conversation, for several seconds at random times during the day. During these episodes, she can be unresponsive to questioning and has no recollection of them. Which of these drugs is contraindicated in this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carbamazepine
Explanation:The patient’s history points to absence seizures. Carbamazepine has been shown to aggravate generalized seizure types, especially absence seizures, because it acts directly on the ventrobasal complex of the thalamus which is critical to the neurophysiology of absence seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 85
Incorrect
-
Café-au-lait spots are seen in each of the following, except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Friedreich's ataxia
Explanation:Café-au-lait spots is hyperpigmented lesions that vary in colour from light brown to dark brown, with borders that may be smooth or irregular. Causes include:
Neurofibromatosis type I
McCune–Albright syndrome
Legius syndrome
Tuberous sclerosis
Fanconi anaemia
Idiopathic
Ataxia-telangiectasia
Basal cell nevus syndrome
Benign congenital skin lesion
Bloom syndrome
Chediak-Higashi syndrome
Congenital nevus
Gaucher disease
Hunter syndrome
Maffucci syndrome
Multiple mucosal neuroma syndrome
Noonan syndrome
Pulmonary Stenosis
Silver–Russell syndrome
Watson syndrome
Wiskott–Aldrich syndrome -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 86
Incorrect
-
A 50 yr. old male presented with acute severe central chest pain and acute ST elevation myocardial infarction was diagnosed. He was treated with streptokinase. 2 days later he was sweating excessively and he was found to be hypotensive. Which of the following cannot be considered as a reason for this presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypotensive effect of streptokinase
Explanation:Hypotensive effect of streptokinase occurs during the streptokinase infusion which is usually transient. Acute mitral regurgitation due to rupture of papillary muscles, ventricular septal defects and reinfarctions (left or right) are known to cause hypotension after 24 hrs. Pulmonary embolism is less likely but cannot be excluded.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 87
Incorrect
-
A 72 yr. old male with a history of type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension for 15 years, presented with gradual onset difficulty in breathing on exertion and bilateral ankle swelling for the past 3 months. On examination he had mild ankle oedema. His JVP was not elevated. His heart sounds were normal but he had bibasal crepitations on auscultation. Which of the following clinical signs has the greatest sensitivity in detecting heart failure in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Third heart sound
Explanation:The presence of a third heart sound is the most sensitive indicator of heart failure. All of the other signs can be found in heart failure with varying degrees.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 88
Incorrect
-
A defect in DNA gyrase can lead to which of the following cancerous conditions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Xeroderma pigmentosum
Explanation:Xeroderma pigmentosum is an X-linked recessive condition, which is caused by mutations in DNA gyrase which further encodes the XP gene. The defect may lead to skin cancer at an early stage of life, especially at photo exposed sites.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 89
Incorrect
-
A 33-year-old woman presents to the clinic with chronic fatigue. She has 3 children and a full-time job and is finding it very difficult to hold everything together. There is no significant past medical history. On examination, her BP is 145/80 mmHg and her BMI is 28. Investigations show: Hb 12.5 g/dL, WCC 6.7 x109/L, PLT 204 x109/L, Na+ 141 mmol/L, K+ 4.9 mmol/L, Creatinine 120 μmol/L, Total cholesterol 5.0 mmol/L, TSH 7.8 U/l, Free T4 10.0 pmol/l (10-22), Free T3 4.9 pmol/l (5-10). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Subclinical hypothyroidism
Explanation:Elevated TSH (usually 4.5-10.0 mIU/L) with normal free T4 is considered mild or subclinical hypothyroidism.
Hypothyroidism commonly manifests as a slowing in physical and mental activity but may be asymptomatic. Symptoms and signs are often subtle and neither sensitive nor specific.
The following are symptoms of hypothyroidism:
– Fatigue, loss of energy, lethargy
– Weight gain
– Decreased appetite
– Cold intolerance
– Dry skin
– Hair loss
– Sleepiness
– Muscle pain, joint pain, weakness in the extremities
– Depression
– Emotional lability, mental impairment
– Forgetfulness, impaired memory, inability to concentrate
– Constipation
– Menstrual disturbances, impaired fertility
– Decreased perspiration
– Paraesthesia and nerve entrapment syndromes
– Blurred vision
– Decreased hearing
– Fullness in the throat, hoarseness
Physical signs of hypothyroidism include the following:
– Weight gain
– Slowed speech and movements
– Dry skin
– Jaundice
– Pallor
– Coarse, brittle, straw-like hair
– Loss of scalp hair, axillary hair, pubic hair, or a combination
– Dull facial expression
– Coarse facial features
– Periorbital puffiness
– Macroglossia
– Goitre (simple or nodular)
– Hoarseness
– Decreased systolic blood pressure and increased diastolic blood pressure
– Bradycardia
– Pericardial effusion
– Abdominal distention, ascites (uncommon)
– Hypothermia (only in severe hypothyroid states)
– Nonpitting oedema (myxoedema)
– Pitting oedema of lower extremities
– Hyporeflexia with delayed relaxation, ataxia, or both. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 90
Incorrect
-
A 51-year-old man was admitted with right-sided hemiparesis and right upper motor neurone facial nerve palsy. He was known to be on warfarin for a mitral valve replacement and had been adequately anticoagulated. He was also taking furosemide and had recently been started on St John’s wort for low mood. On examination, his pulse was 90 bpm and regular, and his blood pressure was 150/80 mmHg. Cardiac examination demonstrated normal prosthetic valve sounds with an ejection systolic murmur at the left sternal edge. CT scan showed evidence of a left middle cerebral artery infarction. What is the possible explanation for the presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: St John’s wort reduces the activity of warfarin
Explanation:St John’s wort interferes with warfarin by increasing its breakdown and decreasing its effectiveness. This leads to the need for adjustment in the dose of warfarin and careful attention to monitoring if the patient decides to continue with the drug. Ideally, an alternative antidepressant should also be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 91
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old female was brought to the ER in a confused state. The patient works in a photograph development laboratory. On admission, she was hypoxic and hypotensive. A provisional diagnosis of cyanide poisoning was made. What is the definitive treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hydroxocobalamin
Explanation:Cyanide poisoning:
Aetiology:
Smoke inhalation, suicidal ingestion, and industrial exposure (specific industrial processes involving cyanide include metal cleaning, reclaiming, or hardening; fumigation; electroplating; and photo processing) are the most frequent sources of cyanide poisoning. Treatment with sodium nitroprusside or long-term consumption of cyanide-containing foods is a possible source.
Cyanide exposure most often occurs via inhalation or ingestion, but liquid cyanide can be absorbed through the skin or eyes. Once absorbed, cyanide enters the blood stream and is distributed rapidly to all organs and tissues in the body.Pathophysiology:
Inside cells, cyanide attaches itself to ubiquitous metalloenzymes, rendering them inactive. Its principal toxicity results from inactivation of cytochrome oxidase (at cytochrome a3), thus uncoupling mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation and inhibiting cellular respiration, even in the presence of adequate oxygen stores.Presentation:
• ‘Classical’ features: brick-red skin, smell of bitter almonds
• Acute: hypoxia, hypotension, headache, confusion
• Chronic: ataxia, peripheral neuropathy, dermatitisManagement:
• Supportive measures: 100% oxygen, ventilatory assistance in the form of intubation if required.
• Definitive: Hydroxocobalamin (iv) is considered the drug of choice and is approved by the FDA for treating known or suspected cyanide poisoning.
• Coadministration of sodium thiosulfate (through a separate line or sequentially) has been suggested to have a synergistic effect on detoxification.
Mechanism of action of hydroxocobalamin:
• Hydroxocobalamin combines with cyanide to form cyanocobalamin (vitamin B-12), which is renally cleared.
• Alternatively, cyanocobalamin may dissociate from cyanide at a slow enough rate to allow for cyanide detoxification by the mitochondrial enzyme rhodanese. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 92
Incorrect
-
A neonate was brought in by her mother, for a skin lesion present over the neonate's back which is bluish in colour, but otherwise asymptomatic. The most appropriate course of action will be?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure
Explanation:A Mongolian spot can be present in new born babies which usually appears over the back and fades with time. There is nothing to worry about.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 93
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old gentleman has been receiving dialysis for 6 years. His PTH is elevated at 345 pg/ml (NR 25-65), phosphate 2.13 mmol/l and corrected calcium 2.01 mmol/l. Of the following, which is most likely responsible for renal osteodystrophy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diminished activity of renal 1-α-hydroxylase
Explanation:Renal osteodystrophy is a metabolic bone disease often affecting long-term dialysis patients. The kidneys are no longer able to maintain the calcium levels in the blood, thus the PTH increases as the body attempts to raise blood calcium levels. Osteomalacia in these cases is most likely caused by the diminished activity of renal 1-a-hydroxylase that is important for hydroxylation of Calciferol to calcitriol (Vitamin D). This bioactive form of Vitamin D is responsible for increasing intestinal absorption of calcium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 94
Incorrect
-
A 68 year old female is on long term prednisolone therapy for polymyalgia rheumatica. Which of the following would be the most suitable protection against osteoporosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral bisphosphonate
Explanation:Prevention of osteoporosis associated with chronic glucocorticoid therapy is done by administrating bisphosphonates. Oral bisphosphonates are indicated for patients aged above 65 who have been on steroid therapy for over 3 months, so as to reduce the risk of steroid induced osteoporosis. HRT is usually done in post menopausal women who have oestrogen related bone resorption.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 95
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman who is being treated for Hodgkin's lymphoma with ABVD chemotherapy is reviewed on the haematology ward. Six days ago, she was admitted with a fever of 38.9°C and was immediately started on piperacillin + tazobactam (Tazocin). Her blood picture on arrival was as follows: Haemoglobin: 10.1 g/dL, Platelets: 311 x 10^9/L, White cell count: 0.8 x 10^9/L, Neutrophils: 0.35 x 10^9/L, Lymphocytes: 0.35 x 10^9/L. After 48 hours, she remained febrile and tachycardic. Tazocin was stopped and meropenem in combination with vancomycin was prescribed. She still remains unwell today with a temperature of 38.4°C, heart rate of 96 bpm, and blood pressure of 102/66 mmHg. Respiratory examination is consistently unremarkable and blood and urine cultures have failed to show any cause for the fever. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step of management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add amphotericin B
Explanation:This patient meets the diagnostic criteria for neutropenic sepsis, which is a relatively common complication of cancer therapy – usually chemotherapy occurring 7–14 days after. It is defined as a neutrophil count of <0.5 x 10^9/L in a patient undergoing anticancer treatment and who has either a temperature higher than 38°C or has other features consistent with clinically significant sepsis. Management approach is the same as mentioned in this case. However, if the patient still remains unwell, then an antifungal such as amphotericin B is started after risk-stratifying the patient and carrying out investigations (e.g. HRCT and Aspergillus PCR) to determine the likelihood of systemic fungal infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 96
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old man presents with chronic back and right hip pain which has been increasingly affecting him over the past few months. He finds it very difficult to mobilise in the mornings. Clinical examination is unremarkable, apart from a limitation of right hip flexion due to pain. Investigations show: Haemoglobin 12.1 g/dl (13.5-17.7), White cell count 8.2 x 109/l (4-11), Platelets 200 x 109/l (150-400), C reactive protein 9 nmol/l (<10), ESR 15 mm/hr (<20), Sodium 140 mmol/l (135-146), Potassium 3.9 mmol/l (3.5-5), Creatinine 92 µmol/l (79-118), Alanine aminotransferase 12 U/l (5-40), Alkaline phosphatase 724 U/l (39-117), Calcium 2.55 mmol/l (2.20-2.67). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paget's disease
Explanation:Paget disease is a localized disorder of bone remodelling that typically begins with excessive bone resorption followed by an increase in bone formation. This osteoclastic over activity followed by compensatory osteoblastic activity leads to a structurally disorganized mosaic of bone (woven bone), which is mechanically weaker, larger, less compact, more vascular, and more susceptible to fracture than normal adult lamellar bone.
Approximately 70-90% of persons with Paget disease are asymptomatic; however, a minority of affected individuals experience various symptoms, including the following:
– Bone pain (the most common symptom)
– Secondary osteoarthritis (when Paget disease occurs around a joint)
– Bony deformity (most commonly bowing of an extremity)
– Excessive warmth (due to hypervascularity)
– Neurologic complications (caused by the compression of neural tissues)
Measurement of serum alkaline phosphatase—in some cases, bone-specific alkaline phosphatase (BSAP)—can be useful in the diagnosis of Paget disease. Elevated levels of urinary markers, including hydroxyproline, deoxypyridinoline, C-telopeptide, and N -telopeptide, may help identify patients with Paget disease.
Serum calcium and phosphate levels should be within the reference range in patients with Paget disease. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 97
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old male has recently had a splenectomy following a motorcycle accident. He is up to date with all vaccinations which were offered as part of his childhood vaccination scheme. It is July. Which of the following vaccinations does he require in the first instance?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pneumococcus, meningococcus type B and C, Haemophilus type B
Explanation:Acquired asplenia or hyposlenia can occur following splenectomy. Hyposplenism is used to describe reduced (‘hypo-‘) splenic functioning and is associated with increased risk of sepsis from polysaccharide encapsulated bacteria. In particular, patients are at risk from Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and meningococcus. The risk is elevated as much as 350–fold.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 98
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old female presents to the acute medical unit with several lumps in her neck and under her arms, weight loss, vomiting, and low mood. She is investigated and is found to have several areas of suspicious lymphadenopathy including in the neck, both axillae, and mediastinum. She also has multiple lesions in her liver which are confirmed to be the manifestations of Hodgkin lymphoma after biopsy. Which stage of the disease is the patient currently at?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IV
Explanation:The patient is on stage IV according to the Ann Arbor staging system for Hodgkin lymphoma (HL). The disease has spread beyond the lymph nodes into the liver (involvement of extra lymphatic organ).
HL is a malignant proliferation of lymphocytes characterised by the presence of distinctive giant cells known as Reed-Sternberg cells. It has a bimodal age distribution being most common in the third and seventh decades of life.
Staging of HL is done according to the Ann Arbor staging system:
Stage
I: Single lymph node region (I) or one extra lymphatic site (IE)II: Two or more lymph node regions on same side of the diaphragm (II) or local extra lymphatic extension plus one or more lymph node regions on same side of the diaphragm (IIE)
III: Lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III) which may be accompanied by local extra lymphatic extension (IIIE)
IV: Diffuse involvement of one or more extra lymphatic organs or sites
Suffix
A: No B symptomsB: Presence of at least one of the following: unexplained weight loss >10% baseline during 6 months before staging; recurrent unexplained fever >38°C; recurrent night sweats
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 99
Incorrect
-
A 54-year-old woman presents to the A&E department with a five-day history of back pain which is located in the lower thoracic region and is worsened by coughing and sneezing. There has been no change in bowel habit or urinary symptoms. Her past medical history includes breast cancer and osteoarthritis. On examination, there is diffuse tenderness in the lower thoracic region. Perianal sensation is normal and lower limb reflexes are brisk. Which one of the following is the most appropriate management plan?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral dexamethasone + urgent MRI
Explanation:The patient has spinal cord compression until proven otherwise. Urgent assessment is required.
Spinal cord compression is an oncological emergency and affects up to 5% of cancer patients. Extradural compression accounts for the majority of cases, usually due to vertebral body metastases. One of the most common causes of spinal cord compression is osteoarthritis. It is also more commonly seen in patients with lung, breast, or prostate cancer.
Clinical features include:
1. Back pain: the earliest and most common symptom, may worsen on lying down or coughing
2. Lower limb weakness
3. Sensory changes: sensory loss and numbness
4. Neurological signs: depending on the level of the lesion.
Lesions above L1 usually result in upper motor neurone signs in the legs. Lesions below L1 usually cause lower motor neurone signs in the legs and perianal numbness. Tendon reflexes are increased below the level of the lesion and absent at the level of the lesion.Management options are:
1. High-dose oral dexamethasone
2. Urgent MRI for consideration of radiotherapy or surgery -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 100
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old girl presents with a swollen left knee following a fall. Her parents state she suffers from haemophilia and has been treated for a right-sided haemarthrosis previously. What other condition is she most likely to have?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Turner's syndrome
Explanation:Haemophilia is a X-linked recessive disorder. In X-linked recessive inheritance only males are affected. An exception to this seen in examinations are patients with Turner’s syndrome, who are affected due to only having one X chromosome. X-linked recessive disorders are transmitted by heterozygote females (carriers) and male-to-male transmission is not seen. Affected males can only have unaffected sons and carrier daughters.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 101
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man, known to have small cell lung cancer and ischaemic heart disease (IHD), presents with increasing shortness of breath for the past 7 days. It becomes worse at night and is associated with an occasional non-productive cough. He has also noticed that his wedding ring feels tight. His cancer was diagnosed five months ago and he has recently completed a course of chemotherapy. From a cardiac point of view, he had a myocardial infarction (MI) two years ago following which he had primary angioplasty with stent placement. He has had no episode of angina since then. Clinical examination of his chest is unremarkable. He does, however, have distended neck veins and periorbital oedema. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superior vena cava obstruction
Explanation:Superior vena cava (SVC) obstruction is an oncological emergency caused by compression of the SVC and is most commonly associated with lung cancer.
Some causes of the condition include:
1. Common malignancies: non small cell lung cancer, lymphoma
2. Other malignancies: metastatic seminoma, Kaposi’s sarcoma, breast cancer
3. Aortic aneurysm
4. Mediastinal fibrosisClinical features of SVC obstruction include:
1. Dyspnoea: most common
2. Swelling of the face, neck, and arms: conjunctival and periorbital oedema may be seen
3. Headache: often worse in the morning
4. Visual disturbances
5. Pulseless jugular venous distensionManagement options are:
1. General: dexamethasone, balloon venoplasty, stenting
2. Small cell lung cancer: chemotherapy and radiotherapy
3. Non small cell lung cancer: radiotherapy -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 102
Incorrect
-
An 88-year-old retired firefighter presents with loss of vision in his left eye since this morning. He is otherwise asymptomatic and of note has had no associated eye pain or headaches. His past medical history includes ischaemic heart disease but he is otherwise well. On examination he has no vision in his left eye. The left pupil responds poorly to light but the consensual light reaction is normal. Fundoscopy reveals a red spot over a pale and opaque retina. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Central retinal artery occlusion
Explanation:The most common causes of a sudden painless loss of vision are:
– ischaemic optic neuropathy
– occlusion of central retinal vein or artery
– vitreous haemorrhage
– retinal detachment.
Central retinal artery occlusion is due to thromboembolism (from atherosclerosis) or arteritis (e.g. temporal arteritis). Features include afferent pupillary defects, and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 103
Incorrect
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A 23 year old man presents with a painful right elbow and left Achilles tendon. He also gives history of dysuria, fever and conjunctivitis. Examination reveals macules and pustules on his hands. He has returned from a trip to Far East 3 weeks ago and admits to having unprotected sex. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Reactive arthritis, (formerly known as Reiter’s syndrome), is an autoimmune condition that occurs after a bacterial infection of the gastrointestinal or urinary tract. It is categorized as a seronegative spondylarthritis because of its association with HLA-B27. Reactive arthritis primarily affects young men and usually presents with musculoskeletal or extra‑articular symptoms. The characteristic triad consists of arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis. The diagnosis is based on clinical features such as patient history and physical examination; there are no specific tests for reactive arthritis. Treatment is primarily symptomatic and consists of the administration of NSAIDs, as most patients recover spontaneously. extraarticular dermatologic manifestations include skin lesions of the glans resembling psoriasis (balanitis circinata); hyperkeratinisation of the palms and soles (keratoderma blenorrhagicum), oral ulcers. Other STDs including HIV, syphilis have different presentations. Psoriatic arthritis is not commonly associated with urethritis and conjunctivitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 104
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old female patient is complaining of a swollen upper limb after an insect bite. Although the bite site looks better, the gross oedema is still present. What is the most likely aetiology? Keep in mind that she has a history of breast cancer and radical mastectomy with axillary lymphadenectomy 10 years ago.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lymphedema
Explanation:Lymphedema is most commonly the result of removal or damage to lymph nodes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 105
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old female who is 37 weeks pregnant presents with a swollen, painful right calf. A deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is confirmed on Doppler scan. What should be the preferred anticoagulant?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)
Explanation:Subcutaneous (S/C) low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) is a preferred anticoagulant in pregnancy. Warfarin is contraindicated due to its teratogenic effects, especially in the first trimester and at term.
Pregnancy is a hypercoagulable state with the majority of VTE incidents occurring in the last trimester.
Hypercoagulability in pregnancy is caused by:
1. Increase in factors VII, VIII, X, and fibrinogen
2. Decrease in protein S
3. Uterus pressing on IVC causing venous stasis in legsManagement options include:
1. S/C LMWH preferred to IV heparin (less bleeding and thrombocytopaenia)
2. Warfarin contraindicated -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 106
Incorrect
-
A social worker has been diagnosed with hepatitis C infection. Which test will conclusively establish the presence of this infection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HCV RNA
Explanation:The most sensitive test for detecting Hepatitis C infection (acute) is HCA RNA; it can be detected 1-2 weeks after infection. Anti-HCV antibodies take at least 6 weeks to develop and be positive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 107
Incorrect
-
A 66 year old COPD patient visits the clinic for a review. He has no increase in his sputum volume or change in its colour. He has been a smoker for 39 years and previously worked at the shipping docks. On examination, he is pursed lip breathing but managing complete sentences. Investigations: BP is 141/72 mmHg Pulse 82 bpm and regular Sp(O2) 92% on room air RR 19 breaths/min Temperature 37.1°C. Examination of his chest revealed a widespread wheeze with coarse crepitations heard in the L mid-zone. FEV1 :FVC ratio in the clinic today was 68%. Which of the following would be the most useful investigation that should be performed to establish the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: High-resolution CT thorax
Explanation:High-resolution CT (HRCT) scanning is more sensitive than standard chest radiography and is highly specific for diagnosing emphysema (outlined bullae are not always visible on a radiograph).
HRCT scanning may provide an adjunct means of diagnosing various forms of COPD (i.e., lower lobe disease may suggest AAT deficiency) and may help the clinician to determine whether surgical intervention would benefit the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 108
Incorrect
-
A case-control study is developed to assess passive smoking as a risk factor for the development of asthma in children. The total number of patients recruited for this study is 200. 40 out of the 200 patients report at least one parent smoking in the house when they were younger. 200 more people without asthma are recruited and 20 out of them report that at least one parent smoked in the house when they were younger. What is the odds ratio of patients with asthma having been exposed to passive smoking during their childhood?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2.25
Explanation:An odds ratio (OR) is a measure of association between an exposure and an outcome. The OR represents the odds that an outcome will occur given a particular exposure, compared to the odds of the outcome occurring in the absence of that exposure. Odds ratios are most commonly used in case-control studies, however they can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs as well (with some modifications and/or assumptions). Where
a = Number of exposed cases
b = Number of exposed non-cases
c = Number of unexposed cases
d = Number of unexposed non-cases
OR=(a/c) / (b/d) = ad/bc
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 109
Incorrect
-
A 50 year old doctor developed a fever of 40.2 °C which lasted for two days. He has had diarrhoea for a day, shortness of breath and dry cough. His blood results reveal a hyponatraemia and deranged LFTs. His WBC count is 10.4 × 109/L and CX-ray shows bibasal consolidation. Which treatment would be the most effective for his condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:Pneumonia is the predominant clinical manifestation of Legionnaires disease (LD). After an incubation period of 2-10 days, patients typically develop the following nonspecific symptoms:
Fever
Weakness
Fatigue
Malaise
Myalgia
ChillsRespiratory symptoms may not be present initially but develop as the disease progresses. Almost all patients develop a cough, which is initially dry and non-productive, but may become productive, with purulent sputum and, (in rare cases) haemoptysis. Patients may experience chest pain.
Common GI symptoms include diarrhoea (watery and non bloody), nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain.Fever is typically present (98%). Temperatures exceeding 40°C occur in 20-60% of patients. Lung examination reveals rales and signs of consolidation late in the disease course.
Males are more than twice as likely as females to develop Legionnaires disease.
Age
Middle-aged and older adults have a high risk of developing Legionnaires disease while it is rare in young adults and children. Among children, more than one third of reported cases have occurred in infants younger than 1 year.Situations suggesting Legionella disease:
-Gram stains of respiratory samples revealing many polymorphonuclear leukocytes with few or no organisms-Hyponatremia
-Pneumonia with prominent extrapulmonary manifestations (e.g., diarrhoea, confusion, other neurologic symptoms)
Specific therapy includes antibiotics capable of achieving high intracellular concentrations (e.g., macrolides, quinolones, ketolides, tetracyclines, rifampicin).
Clarithromycin, a new macrolide antibiotic, is at least four times more active in vitro than erythromycin against Legionella pneumophila. In this study the safety and efficacy of orally administered clarithromycin (500 to 1,000 mg bid) in the treatment of Legionella pneumonia were evaluated.
Clarithromycin is a safe effective treatment for patients with severe chest infections due to Legionella pneumophila. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 110
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is the main mechanism of vitamin B12 absorption?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Active absorption in the terminal ileum
Explanation:Vitamin B12 is mostly used in the body for the development of red blood cells and maintenance of the nervous system. It is actively absorbed in the terminal ileum after binding to the intrinsic factor (IF) which is secreted from the parietal cells of stomach. Moreover, a small amount is also passively absorbed without being bound to IF.
Vitamin B12 deficiency is characterised by sore tongue and mouth, mood disturbances, ataxia, and macrocytic anaemia. Its causes include poor diet, impaired absorption (due to disorders of terminal ileum), pernicious anaemia, and post-gastrectomy. While managing this condition, if the person is also deficient in folic acid, then it is important to treat the B12 deficiency first in order to avoid precipitating subacute combined degeneration of the cord.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 111
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following medications is most useful for helping to prevent attacks of Meniere’s disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Betahistine
Explanation:Betahistine is a histamine analogue that has been the mainstay treatment drug for Meniere’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 112
Incorrect
-
A 47-year-old hypertensive man presents with difficulty using his right arm, slow walking and occasional loss of balance. He has a broad-based gait with cogwheel rigidity and intention tremor of his right arm. His blood pressure is 140/80 mmHg sitting and 100/60 mmHg standing. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Multiple system atrophy
Explanation:This patient presents with a combination of akinetic rigid syndrome, cerebellar signs and the suggestion of autonomic features. This is most indicative of a diagnosis of multiple system atrophy.
Multiple system atrophy (MSA) is a rare neurodegenerative disorder characterized by autonomic dysfunction, tremors, slow movement, muscle rigidity, and postural instability (collectively known as parkinsonism) and ataxia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 113
Incorrect
-
A case-control study is being designed to look at the relationship between eczema and a new vaccine for yellow fever. What is the usual outcome measure in a case-control study?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Odds ratio
Explanation:A case–control study (also known as case–referent study) is a type of observational study in which two existing groups differing in outcome are identified and compared on the basis of some supposed causal attribute. Case–control studies are often used to identify factors that may contribute to a medical condition by comparing subjects who have that condition/disease (the cases) with patients who do not have the condition/disease but are otherwise similar (the controls).
An odds ratio (OR) is a statistic that quantifies the strength of the association between two events, A and B. The odds ratio is defined as the ratio of the odds of A in the presence of B and the odds of A in the absence of B or vice versa. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 114
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is most commonly associated with the development of pseudomembranous colitis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cefuroxime
Explanation:Pseudomembranous colitis is caused by a C. difficile infection that causes membranes to form on the colon wall. It is caused most commonly by broad-spectrum antibiotics. This would include cephalosporins, broad-spectrum penicillin, and clindamycin. Macrolides and quinolones have also been reported as potential aetiologies, but much less commonly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 115
Incorrect
-
A 48 year old male patient presents with fever and signs of delirium. A few hours ago, blisters appeared on his trunk. His past history revealed nothing serious and he's not on any medication. He admits that he went to Italy five months ago on vacation. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chicken pox
Explanation:Chicken pox in adults may manifest with acute encephalitis, causing the confusional syndrome known as delirium. Blisters on the trunk favour the diagnosis. The trip to Italy however seems unimportant since the incubation period of chicken pox is 10 to 21 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 116
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is the most common clinical feature of carbon monoxide poisoning?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Headache
Explanation:Carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning:
It is considered as the great imitator of other diseases as the patients present with a myriad of symptoms. The carbon monoxide diffuses rapidly across the pulmonary capillary membrane binding to the haem molecule with a very high affinity (240 times that of oxygen) forming carboxy-haemoglobin (COHb). Non-smokers have a baseline COHb of ,3% while smokers have a baseline COHb of 10-15%.Clinical features of carbon monoxide toxicity:
Headache: 90% of cases (most common clinical feature)
Nausea and vomiting: 50%
Vertigo: 50%
Confusion: 30%
Subjective weakness: 20%
Severe toxicity: ‘pink’ skin and mucosa, hyperpyrexia, arrhythmias, extrapyramidal features, coma, death
Cherry red skin is a sign of severe toxicity and is usually a post-mortem finding.
Management
• 100% oxygen
• Hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBOT)The use of Hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBOT) for treatment mild to moderate CO poisoning is not routine.
The selection criteria for HBOT in cases of CO poisoning include:
• COHb levels > 20-25%
• COHb levels > 20% in pregnant patient
• Loss of consciousness
• Severe metabolic acidosis (pH <7.1)
• Evidence of end-organ ischemia (e.g., ECG changes, chest pain, or altered mental status) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 117
Incorrect
-
A 71 year-old dentist is seen in clinic with a history of worsening memory problems and confusion. His wife had noted that his sleep was becoming more disturbed and he complains of vivid nightmares and visual hallucinations. Over the past few weeks, he has had increasing difficulty in dressing himself, and his mobility has deteriorated. On examination, he is bradykinesic with a resting tremor and rigidity affecting his arms and legs. His Mini-Mental-State Examination (MMSE) is 18/30. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lewy body disease
Explanation:Lewy body dementia is the second most common cause of dementia in the elderly after Alzheimer’s disease. The core feature is a progressive dementia, but other characteristic features include Parkinsonism, visual hallucinations, fluctuating cognitive abilities and executive function, and an increased risk of falls or autonomic failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 118
Incorrect
-
A 56-year-old male was admitted to the in-patient psychiatric unit last night. He is a poor historian, answering most questions minimally and stating he does not need to be here as he is deceased, and hospitals should be for living patients. What is the type of delusion in this patient and what is it commonly associated with?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cotard syndrome and Major Depressive Disorder
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis of this patient is Cotard syndrome with major depressive disorder.
Cotard syndrome is a rare mental disorder where the affected patient believes that they (or in some cases just a part of their body) is either dead or non-existent. This delusion is often difficult to treat and can result in significant problems due to patients stopping eating or drinking as they deem it not necessary. Cotard syndrome is often associated with severe depression and psychotic disorders (like schizophrenia).
Other delusional syndromes:
– Othello syndrome is a delusional belief that a patients partner is committing infidelity despite no evidence of this. It can often result in violence and controlling behaviour.
– De Clerambault syndrome (otherwise known as erotomania), is where a patient believes that a person of higher social or professional standing is in love with them. Often this presents with people who believe celebrities are in love with them.
– Capgras syndrome is characterised by a person believing their friend or relative had been replaced by an exact double.
– Couvade syndrome is also known as ‘sympathetic pregnancy’. It affects fathers, particularly during the first and third trimesters of pregnancy, who suffer the somatic features of pregnancy.
– Ekbom syndrome is also known as delusional parasitosis and is the belief that they are infected with parasites or have ‘bugs’ under their skin. This can vary from the classic psychosis symptoms in narcotic use where the user can ‘see’ bugs crawling under their skin or can be a patient who believes that they are infested with snakes. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 119
Incorrect
-
A 65 yr. male patient was started on warfarin for chronic atrial fibrillation (AF). Which of the following clotting factors is not affected by warfarin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Factor XII
Explanation:Carboxylation of factor II, VII, IX, X and protein C is affected by warfarin. Factor XII is not affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 120
Incorrect
-
A 38-year-old female is referred to the dermatologist for a rash on both her elbows. The rash is red, is papulovesicular in nature, and looks like it has many small blisters. The dermatologist diagnoses her with dermatitis herpetiformis. Which HLA haplotype is this associated with?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HLA-DR3
Explanation:Dermatitis herpetiformis (DH), or Duhring’s disease, is a chronic blistering skin condition,characterised by blisters filled with a watery fluid. Despite its name, it is neither related to nor caused by herpes virus: the name means that it is a skin inflammation having an appearance similar to herpes.
Dermatitis herpetiformis is characterized by intensely itchy, chronic papulovesicular eruptions, usually distributed symmetrically on extensor surfaces (buttocks, back of neck, scalp, elbows, knees, back, hairline, groin, or face)
Dermatitis herpetiformis is an autoimmune condition associated with HLA-DR3.
HLA-A3 is associated with haemochromatosis. HLA-B5 is most commonly associated with Behcet’s disease. HLA-DR4 is associated with both type 1 diabetes mellitus and rheumatoid arthritis. HLA-B27 is most commonly associated with several diseases, most commonly ankylosing spondylitis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 121
Incorrect
-
A 60-year-old man known to have type 2 diabetes comes for regular follow up. He is on metformin 2 g per day and gliclazide 160 mg per day. His recent HbA1c was 8.4% and his blood pressure was 140/75 mmHg. Eye examination reveals dot and blot haemorrhages and microaneurysms. None are close to the macula. Which of the following defines his eye condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Background diabetic retinopathy
Explanation:Patients with diabetes often develop ophthalmic complications, the most common and potentially most blinding of these complications is diabetic retinopathy.
The following are the 5 stages in the progression of diabetic retinopathy:
1. Dilation of the retinal venules and formation of retinal capillary microaneurysms.
2. Increased vascular permeability.
3. Vascular occlusion and retinal ischemia.
4. Proliferation of new blood vessels on the surface of the retina.
5. Vitreous haemorrhage and contraction of the fibrovascular proliferation.
The first 2 stages of diabetic retinopathy are known as background or nonproliferative retinopathy. Initially, the retinal venules dilate, then microaneurysms (tiny red dots on the retina that cause no visual impairment) appear. As the microaneurysms or retinal capillaries become more permeable, hard exudates appear, reflecting the leakage of plasma.Mild nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR) or background diabetic retinopathy is indicated by the presence of at least 1 microaneurysm, while neovascularization is the hallmark of Proliferative Diabetic Retinopathy (PDR).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 122
Incorrect
-
Choose the hormone secreted only by the adrenal medulla:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adrenaline
Explanation:The major endocrine functions of adrenal gland are to produce catecholamines and steroids. Catecholamine, synthesized by the adrenal medulla, is responsible for blood pressure and blood flow regulation whereas steroids produced by the cortex control energy and water homeostasis and immune responses. Glucocorticoids, a major group of adrenal steroids, have a stimulatory effect on catecholamine synthesis in the medulla.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 123
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man was referred for abnormal liver biochemistry. Investigations showed he had an ALT of 98 U/l and was Hep B surface antigen positive. Which of the following is true of chronic active hepatitis due to the hepatitis B virus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It carries an increased risk of subsequent hepatocellular carcinoma
Explanation:Chronic hepatitis B patients have an increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma. In chronic hepatitis B infection, you have +HBsAg, +anti-HBc, (-)IgM antiHBc, and (-) anti-HBs. In acute hepatitis B infection, you have+HBsAg, + anti-HBc, + IgM anti-HBc, and negative anti-HBs. In immunity due to natural infection, you have negative HBsAg, +anti-HBc, and + anti-HBs. In immunity due to vaccination, you have negative HBsAg, negative anti-HBc, and positive anti-HBs. It is important to remember these serologies, it will get you a lot of points on the test.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 124
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man, originally from Pakistan, was admitted with ascites and weight loss. The protein level on ascitic tap was 9 g/l. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatic cirrhosis
Explanation:This is a low protein level, indicating the fluid is transudative. The only answer choice that is a transudative fluid is in hepatic cirrhosis. Exudative fluid would be seen in tuberculous peritonitis, peritoneal lymphoma, with liver mets, and with intra-abdominal malignancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 125
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man visits the clinic and demands a CT scan of his stomach. He states it is 'obvious' he has cancer despite previous negative investigations. Which disorder is this an example of?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypochondrial disorder
Explanation:Illness anxiety disorder (IAD) is a recent term for what used to be diagnosed as hypochondriasis, or hypochondrial disorder. People diagnosed with IAD strongly believe they have a serious or life-threatening illness despite having no, or only mild, symptoms.
Symptoms of IAD may include:
-Excessive worry over having or getting a serious illness.
-Physical symptoms are not present or if present, only mild. If another illness is present, or there is a high risk for developing an illness, the person’s concern is out of proportion.
-High level of anxiety and alarm over personal health status.
-Excessive health-related behaviours (e.g., repeatedly checking body for signs of illness) or shows abnormal avoidance (e.g., avoiding doctors’ appointments and hospitals).
-Fear of illness is present for at least six months (but the specific disease that is feared may change over that time).
-Fear of illness is not due to another mental disorder. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 126
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is most associated with the development of acute pancreatitis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyperchylomicronaemia
Explanation:Hyperchylomicronaemia is an increase (markedly) in chylomicrons, and this can cause acute pancreatitis, as well as xanthomas. It can be seen in familial lipoprotein lipase (LPL) deficiency, primary type V hyperlipoproteinemia, idiopathic hyperchylomicronaemia, and familial apolipoprotein CII deficiency. Treatment is dietary fat restriction in order to avoid pancreatitis attacks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 127
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old male is admitted after drinking engine coolant in an apparent suicide attempt. Lab investigations reveal: pH 7.1 (7.36-7.44) pO2 15.3 kPa (11.3-12.6) pCO2 3.2 kPa (4.7-6.0) Standard bicarbonate 2.2 mmol/L (20-28) Serum calcium 1.82 mmol/L (2.2-2.6) After replacing calcium, which of the following is the most urgent treatment for this man?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 8.4% bicarbonate infusion
Explanation:Carbon monoxide has high affinity for haemoglobin and myoglobin resulting in a left-shift of the oxygen dissociation curve and tissue hypoxia. There are approximately 50 deaths per year from accidental carbon monoxide poisoning in the UK. In these circumstances, antidotal therapy to block alcohol dehydrogenase with ethanol or 4-MP alone is insufficient to treat the poisoning. Data suggest that a severe lactic acidosis needs initial correction and in this patient the most appropriate treatment would be IV fluids with bicarbonate to correct the metabolic acidosis. Haemodialysis may be required thereafter.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 128
Incorrect
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Which of the following suggests a diagnosis of molluscum contagiosum rather than chickenpox?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Absence of erythema surrounding lesions
Explanation:Molluscum contagiosum (MC), is a viral infection of the skin that results in small, raised, pink lesions with a dimple in the center with little to no surrounding erythema. They may occasionally be itchy or sore. They may occur singularly or in groups. Any area of the skin may be affected, with abdomen, legs, arms, neck, genital area, and face being most common. Onset of the lesions is around 7 weeks after infection. It usually goes away within a year without scarring.
Chickenpox lesions in the early stages may be mistaken for molluscum. However, the presence of associated macules and later vesicles and pustules help to differentiate them. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 129
Incorrect
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A 60 yr. old man presented with severe central chest pain for the last 2 hours. He was on insulin for diabetes mellitus and he was dependent on haemodialysis because of end stage renal failure. He had undergone haemodialysis 48 hours prior to this presentation. His ECG showed an acute inferior myocardial infarction. Despite thrombolysis and other appropriate treatment, he continued to have chest pain after 6 hours from the initial presentation. His blood pressure was 88/54 mmHg and he had bibasal crepitations. His investigation results are given below. Serum sodium 140 mmol/l (137-144), Serum potassium 6.6 mmol/l (3.5-4.9), Serum urea 50 mmol/l (2.5-7.5), Serum creatinine 940 μmol/l (60-110), Haemoglobin 10.2g/dl (13.0-18.0), Troponin T >24 g/l (<0.04), Left ventricular ejection fraction was 20%. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coronary angiography and rescue PCI
Explanation:According to the history the patient has cardiogenic shock and pulmonary oedema. On-going ischaemia is indicated by persisting symptoms. So the most appropriate management is coronary angiography and rescue PCI. There are no indications for blood transfusion at this moment and it will aggravate the pulmonary oedema. Haemodialysis, beta blockers and furosemide cannot be given due to low blood pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 130
Incorrect
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A 60 yr. old man presented with difficulty in breathing. On examination he was severely dyspnoeic and tachycardic. What is the clinical sign that would favour the diagnosis of cardiac tamponade over constrictive pericarditis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pulsus paradoxus
Explanation:Pulsus paradoxus is defined as the exaggerated fall in systolic blood pressure during inspiration by greater than 10 mmHg. Cardiac tamponade is the classic cause of pulsus paradoxus. Kussmaul’s sign (a rise in the jugular venous pressure on inspiration) is mostly seen in constrictive pericarditis. Hypotension, muffled heart sounds and raised JVP can be seen in both conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 131
Incorrect
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A 56 year old obese female presents due to moderate pain in her finger joints which occurs mostly at the end of the day which gets better with rest. There is also some associated swelling. On examination, there is enlargement of her distal interphalangeal joints and tenderness to palpation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis
Explanation:Osteoarthritis (OA) is a disabling joint disease characterized by a noninflammatory degeneration of the joint complex (articular cartilage, subchondral bone, and synovium) that occurs with old age or from overuse. It mainly affects the weight-bearing and high-use joints, such as the hip, knee, hands, and vertebrae. Despite the widespread view that OA is a condition caused exclusively by degenerative “wear and tear” of the joints, newer research indicates a significant heterogeneity of causation, including pre-existing peculiarities of joint anatomy, genetics, local inflammation, mechanical forces, and biochemical processes that are affected by proinflammatory mediators and proteases. Major risk factors include advanced age, obesity, previous injuries, and asymmetrically stressed joints. In early-stage osteoarthritis, patients may complain of reduced range of motion, joint-stiffness, and pain that is aggravated with heavy use. As the disease advances, nagging pain may also occur during the night or at rest. Diagnosis is predominantly based on clinical and radiological findings. Classic radiographic features of OA do not necessarily correlate with clinical symptoms and appearance. RA involves proximal interphalangeal joints not distal. Gout occurs as a result of overproduction or underexcretion of uric acid and frequently involves first toe. Fibromyalgia is a disorder characterized by widespread musculoskeletal pain accompanied by fatigue, sleep, memory and mood issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 132
Incorrect
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A patient who has mild benign prostatic hyperplasia has been advised to take finasteride. The mechanism of action of this drug involves inhibition of the production of which of the following androgens?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dihydrotestosterone
Explanation:Finasteride inhibits the formation of dihydrotestosterone.
Finasteride is a 5α-reductase inhibitor and thus, inhibits the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT).DHT is much more active than testosterone and binds more avidly to cytoplasmic receptors. DHT stimulates prostate growth and may be responsible for benign prostatic hyperplasia in the elderly.
Thus, finasteride can cause a reduction in prostatic volume and help in managing a patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 133
Incorrect
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A 26 year old male presents with right sided elbow and wrist pain and left sided knee and ankle pain that has persisted for about two weeks. He recently returned from a trip to Thailand that last for two weeks. The patient admits to having unprotected sex while on holiday. Examination reveals swelling and tenderness of tendons around joints but no inflammation of the joints. A vesiculopustular skin rash is also observed. What is the most likely cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gonococcal arthritis
Explanation:Patients with disseminated gonococcal arthritis may present with dermatitis-arthritis syndrome (60%) of with localized septic arthritis. (40%). Arthritis-dermatitis syndrome includes the classic triad of dermatitis, tenosynovitis, and migratory polyarthritis. Gout usually involves a singe joint and does not cause vesicopustular skin rash. Reactive arthritis has ocular symptoms (conjunctivitis), urethritis, and arthritis. Fungal arthritis occurs rarely and it may occur after a surgical infection or fungal spread hematogenously. it presents with tender, red, hot and swollen joint with loss of range of motion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 134
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old gentleman with a history of alcohol excess presents to hospital with progressive abdominal distension. He now complains of early satiety and abdominal discomfort as a result of the distension. Examination reveals a significantly distended abdomen with shifting dullness. A diagnostic ascitic tap is performed and the fluid sent for analysis. What is the most appropriate first line treatment for his ascites?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paracentesis
Explanation:The first line treatment for ascites that is symptomatic is paracentesis. If it is not symptomatic, treatment could be with salt and fluid restriction as well as spironolactone. If spironolactone maximum dosage is reached, you can use furosemide additionally. Amiloride is not a diuretic that is recommended in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 135
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old male with long-standing Alzheimer's disease is being reviewed in your clinic. Which among the following is true regarding memantine, a drug which has been approved for the management of dementia in the UK?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is an NMDA-receptor agonist
Explanation:Memantine is an antagonist of the NMDA (N-Methyl-D-Aspartate)-receptor subtype of glutamate receptor. It is used to slow the neurotoxicity thought to be involved in Alzheimer’s disease and other neurodegenerative diseases.
Drug interactions:
When given concomitantly with other NMDA-receptor antagonists (e.g., ketamine, amantadine) increase the risk of psychosis.
Dopamine agonists, L-dopa, and anticholinergics enhance effects of memantine.
Antispasmodics (e.g., baclofen) enhance effects, as memantine has some antispasmodic effects.
Drugs excreted by cationic transporters in the kidney (e.g. quinine, cimetidine, ranitidine) reduce excretion.Common adverse effects include dizziness, headache, confusion, diarrhoea, and constipation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 136
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man is referred to the haematology department with raised haemoglobin and platelet levels. A diagnosis of polycythaemia vera is suspected. Which other abnormality of the blood would be most consistent with this diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Neutrophilia
Explanation:Neutrophilia is also commonly associated with polycythaemia vera.
Polycythaemia vera (PV), also known as polycythaemia rubra vera, is a myeloproliferative disorder caused by clonal proliferation of marrow stem cells leading to an increase in red cell volume, often accompanied by overproduction of neutrophils and platelets. It has peak incidence in the sixth decade of life, with typical features including hyperviscosity, pruritus, splenomegaly, haemorrhage (secondary to abnormal platelet function), and plethoric appearance.
Some management options of PV include lose-dose aspirin, venesection (first-line treatment), hydroxyurea (slightly increased risk of secondary leukaemia), and radioactive phosphorus (P-32) therapy.
In PV, thrombotic events are a significant cause of morbidity and mortality. 5–15% of the cases progress to myelofibrosis or AML. The risk of having AML is increased with chemotherapy treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 137
Incorrect
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A 42 year old male undergoes a routine cranial nerve examination, which reveals the following findings: Rinne's test: Air conduction > bone conduction in both ears Weber's test: Localizes to the right side What do these test results imply?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left sensorineural deafness
Explanation:Weber’s test – if there is a sensorineural problem, the sound is localized to the unaffected side (right), indicating a problem on the left side.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 138
Incorrect
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A 36 year old man arrives at the clinic complaining of pain and swelling of the left knee, ankles and right hallux. He has acute conjunctivitis, and dysuria. He suffered from an episode of gastroenteritis two weeks back. Clinical examination shows left Achilles tendonitis and right plantar fasciitis. Radiological examination reveals left sacroiliitis, with evidence of enthesitis, joint erosions and periostitis. HLA-B27 is positive. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reiter’s syndrome
Explanation:Reactive arthritis, (formerly known as Reiter’s syndrome), is an autoimmune condition that occurs after a bacterial infection of the gastrointestinal or urinary tract. It is categorized as a seronegative spondylarthritis because of its association with HLA-B27. Reactive arthritis primarily affects young men and usually presents with musculoskeletal or extra‑articular symptoms. The characteristic triad consists of arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis. The diagnosis is based on clinical features such as patient history and physical examination; there are no specific tests for reactive arthritis. Treatment is primarily symptomatic and consists of the administration of NSAIDs, as most patients recover spontaneously. extraarticular dermatologic manifestations include skin lesions of the glans resembling psoriasis (balanitis circinata); hyperkeratinisation of the palms and soles (keratoderma blenorrhagicum), oral ulcers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 139
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man was brought to the ER with acute confusion. He's a known case of bipolar disorder under treatment with mood stabilizers. Blood investigations revealed lithium toxicity. A decision is made to start the patient on sodium bicarbonate. What is the rationale behind the use of sodium bicarbonate in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increases urine alkalinity
Explanation:The rationale behind the use of sodium bicarbonate is that it increases the alkalinity of the urine promoting lithium excretion. The preferred treatment in severe cases would be haemodialysis.
Lithium is a mood-stabilizing drug used most commonly prophylactically in bipolar disorder but also as an adjunct in refractory depression. It has a very narrow therapeutic range (0.4-1.0 mmol/L) and a long plasma half-life being excreted primarily by the kidneys. Lithium toxicity generally occurs following concentrations > 1.5 mmol/L.
Toxicity may be precipitated by dehydration, renal failure, diuretics (especially Bendroflumethiazide), ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs and metronidazole.
Features of toxicity
Coarse tremor (a fine tremor is seen in therapeutic levels)
Hyperreflexia
Acute confusion
Seizure
ComaManagement
Mild-moderate toxicity may respond to volume resuscitation with normal saline
Haemodialysis may be needed in severe toxicity
Sodium bicarbonate is sometimes used but there is limited evidence to support this. By increasing the alkalinity of the urine it promotes lithium excretion. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 140
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman is referred to the oncology clinic by a general surgeon. She has undergone mastectomy for carcinoma of the right breast. Out of the following, which factor is associated with a poor prognosis in patients with breast cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Young age
Explanation:Poor prognostic factors for breast cancer include:
1. Young age (<40 years)
2. Premenopausal at the time of diagnosis
3. Increased tumour size
4. High-grade tumour
5. Oestrogen and progesterone receptor-negative tumour
6. Positive lymph node status -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 141
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old female patient is brought into the emergency department with a 5 day history of altered personality, and visual and auditory hallucinations. On palpation of the abdomen, a mass is felt in the left iliac fossa. Ultrasound of the abdomen suggests a left ovarian tumour. Her basic observations are as follows: Oxygen saturation 99% on air Heart rate 98 beats/minute Respiratory rate 28 breaths/minute Temperature 37.9 °C What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-NMDA receptor encephalitis
Explanation:The case presents with an underlying ovarian tumour, associated with psychiatric symptoms; thus, an organic illness must first be ruled out before considering the other conditions listed which often present with psychiatric features without an underlying organic disease. Among the listed conditions Anti-NMDA receptor encephalitis is the only condition that presents with psychiatric features including agitation, hallucinations, delusions and disordered thinking that is associated with tumours 50% of the time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 142
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy presents with poor development of secondary sex characteristics, colour blindness and a decreased sense of smell. On examination, his testes are small soft and located in the scrotum. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Kallmann’s syndrome
Explanation:Classic Kallmann syndrome (KS) is due to isolated hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. Most patients have gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) deficiency, as suggested by their response to pulsatile GnRH therapy. The hypothalamic-pituitary function is otherwise normal in most patients, and hypothalamic-pituitary imaging reveals no space-occupying lesions. By definition, either anosmia or severe hyposmia is present in patients with Kallmann syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 143
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old woman presents with anxiety and weight loss with increased appetite. Thyrotoxicosis is suspected and various investigations are performed. Which of the following findings is most consistent with Graves’ disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: High titre of thyroid peroxidase autoantibodies
Explanation:Free T4 levels or the free T4 index is usually elevated, as is the free T3 level or free T3 index
– Assays for thyrotropin-receptor antibodies (particularly TSIs) almost always are positive.
– Detection of TSIs is diagnostic for Graves disease.
– Other markers of thyroid autoimmunity, such as antithyroglobulin antibodies or antithyroid peroxidase antibodies, are usually present.
– Other autoantibodies that may be present include thyrotropin receptor-blocking antibodies and anti–sodium-iodide symporter antibody.
The presence of these antibodies supports the diagnosis of autoimmune thyroid disease.
– The radioactive iodine uptake is increased and the uptake is diffusely distributed over the entire gland. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 144
Incorrect
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A 18 yr. old male was screened for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HOCM) as his brother had the same condition. What is the echocardiographic finding that is related to the highest risk of sudden cardiac death?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Significant thickening of the interventricular septum
Explanation:There are five prognostic factors which indicate poor prognosis in HOCM:
-family history of HOCM-related sudden cardiac death
-unexplained recent syncope
-large left ventricular wall thickness (MLVWT ≥ 30 mm)
-multiple bursts of nsVT on ambulatory electrocardiography
-hypotensive or attenuated blood pressure response to exercise -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 145
Incorrect
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An 18-year-old male was diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis, confirmed on lumbar puncture. After 6 months he presents in the infectious clinic with a second episode of meningitis. His past history is clear and he takes no regular medication. Which of the following is most probably deficient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: C5
Explanation:Pneumococcal meningitis is the most common and severe form of bacterial meningitis. Fatality rates are substantial, and long-term sequelae develop in about half of survivors. Disease outcome has been related to the severity of the proinflammatory response in the subarachnoid space. The complement system, which mediates key inflammatory processes, has been implicated as a modulator of pneumococcal meningitis disease severity in animal studies. C5 fragment levels in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) of patients with bacterial meningitis correlated with several clinical indicators of poor prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 146
Incorrect
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A 8 year old boy presented with pain and swelling around the right eye. On examination there was no proptosis or ophthalmoplegia. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Peri orbital cellulitis
Explanation:Infections of the superficial skin around the eyes are called periorbital, or preseptal, cellulitis. It is predominantly a paediatric disease. Erysipelas is a bacterial skin infection involving the upper dermis which extends into the superficial cutaneous lymphatics. Sinusitis is in sinuses. Orbital infections and conjunctivitis are within the eye.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 147
Incorrect
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A 11-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital with diarrhoea and lethargy. There is a known local outbreak of E coli 0157:H7, and his initial bloods show evidence of acute renal failure. Given the likely diagnosis, which one of the following investigation results would be expected?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fragmented red blood cells
Explanation:The likely diagnosis in this case is Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS), which is generally seen in young children presenting with a triad of symptoms, namely: acute renal failure, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, and thrombocytopenia. The typical cause of HUS is ingestion of a strain of Escherichia coli. The laboratory results will usually include fragmented RBCs, decreased serum haptoglobin, reduced platelet count, nonspecific WBC changes, and normal coagulation tests (PTT included).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 148
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presented with polydipsia and polyuria for the last two years. Investigations reveal: Serum urea 9.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), Serum creatinine 108 mol/L (60-110), Serum corrected calcium 2.9 mmol/L (2.2-2.6), Serum phosphate 0.7 mmol/L (0.8-1.4), Plasma parathyroid hormone 6.5 pmol/L (0.9-5.4). Which of the following is directly responsible for the increase in intestinal calcium absorption?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1,25 Dihydroxy vitamin D
Explanation:This patient has hypercalcaemia due to hyperparathyroidism. However, the intestinal absorption of calcium is mainly controlled by 1,25 dihydroxy-vitamin D. Under the influence of calcitriol (active form of vitamin D), intestinal epithelial cells increase their synthesis of calbindin (calcium-binding carrier protein) necessary for active calcium ion absorption.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 149
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old male is brought to the emergency department following his collapse in a night club. His friends who accompanied him admit that, of recent, he has been using increasing amounts of cocaine. Which among the following is commonly associated with cocaine overdose?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metabolic acidosis
Explanation:Metabolic acidosis is associated with cocaine overdose.
In overdose, cocaine leads to agitation, tachycardia, hypertension, sweating, hallucinations, and finally convulsions.
Metabolic acidosis, hyperthermia, rhabdomyolysis, and ventricular arrhythmias also occur.
Chronic use may be associated with premature coronary artery disease, dilated cardiomyopathy, and increased risk of cerebral haemorrhage.
There are 3 stages for acute cocaine toxicity:
Stage I: CNS symptoms of headache, vertigo, pseudo hallucinations, hyperthermia, hypertension.
Stage II: increased deep tendon reflexes, tachypnoea, irregular breathing, hypertension.
Stage III: Areflexia, coma, fixed and dilated pupils, hypotension, ventricular fibrillation, apnoea, and respiratory failure.Treatment:
– Airway, breathing, and circulation to be secured. The patient’s fever should be managed, and one should rule out hypoglycaemia as a cause of the neuropsychiatric symptoms.
– Cardiovascular toxicity and agitation are best-treated first-line with benzodiazepines to decrease CNS sympathetic outflow.
– The mixed beta/alpha blocker labetalol is safe and effective for treating concomitant cocaine-induced hypertension and tachycardia.
– Non-dihydropyridine calcium channels blockers such as diltiazem and verapamil have been shown to reduce hypertension reliably, but not tachycardia.
– Dihydropyridine agents such as nifedipine should be avoided, as reflex tachycardia may occur.
– The alpha-blocker phentolamine has been recommended but only treats alpha-mediated hypertension and not tachycardia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 150
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements regarding restless leg syndrome is not true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is three times as common in females
Explanation:In restless leg syndrome (RLS), males and females are thought to be equally affected. RLS is a syndrome of spontaneous, continuous lower limb movements that may be associated with paraesthesia. It is extremely common, affecting between 2-10% of the general population and a family history may be present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 151
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old female patient is started on cyclophosphamide for vasculitis associated with Wegener's granulomatosis. Which of the following adverse effects is most characteristically associated with cyclophosphamide use?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemorrhagic cystitis
Explanation:Cyclophosphamide is a cytotoxic alkylating agent that acts by causing cross-linking of DNA strands. Its major adverse effects include haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma.
Cardiomyopathy is caused by doxorubicin and ototoxicity is caused by cisplatin. Alopecia and weight gain are associated with a variety of chemotherapeutic agents especially those that treat breast cancers (e.g. paclitaxel).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 152
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man presents with asymptomatic enlargement of his cervical lymph nodes. Full blood count shows low-grade anaemia, leucocytosis, and thrombocytopaenia. Lymph node biopsy is suggestive of a low-grade non-Hodgkin lymphoma. Which two of the following statements fit best with this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Extra-nodal presentation is more common in non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) than in Hodgkin lymphoma (HL). Bone marrow infiltration is more common in low-grade than in high-grade NHLs.
Low-grade NHL is predominantly a disease of older people. Most present with advanced disease, bone marrow infiltration being almost invariable. Anaemia, leucocytosis, and/or thrombocytopaenia in a patient are suggestive of bone marrow involvement. For definitive diagnosis, lymph node biopsy is sufficient.
The other aforementioned statements are ruled out because:
1. Renal impairment in NHL usually occurs as a consequence of ureteric obstruction secondary to intra-abdominal or pelvic lymph node enlargement.2. Burkitt lymphoma is a high-grade NHL, which was first described in children in West Africa who presented with a jaw tumour, extra-nodal abdominal involvement, and ovarian tumours. It develops most often in children or young adults and is uncommon in older people.
3. High-grade lymphomas are potentially curable. They have a better prognosis and are responsive to chemotherapy unlike low-grade lymphomas, which are incurable with conventional therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 153
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old lawyer presents with non-specific symptoms of tiredness. Blood tests reveal normal thyroid function, cortisol, growth hormone and gonadotrophins. Pituitary MRI reveals a 0.8cm microadenoma. Which of the following represents the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Observation and reassurance
Explanation:The patient has a non-functioning pituitary tumour as her hormone profile is normal.
Non-functioning pituitary tumours are relatively common. A large number of these tumours are incidentally found pituitary microadenomas (<1 cm) and are usually of no clinical importance. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 154
Incorrect
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A woman is prescribed docetaxel as part of her chemotherapy for breast cancer. What is the mechanism of action of docetaxel?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prevents microtubule disassembly
Explanation:The principal mechanism of action of taxanes (e.g. docetaxel) is the prevention of microtubule disassembly.
Other aforementioned options are ruled out because:
1. Doxorubicin: stabilizes DNA topoisomerase II complex and inhibits DNA and RNA synthesis.
2. Vincristine, vinblastine: inhibits formation of microtubules.
3. Cisplatin: causes cross-linking in DNA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 155
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is true of gamma delta T cells?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: They play a role in the skin and gut
Explanation:Gamma delta T cells are of low abundance in the body, are found in the gut mucosa, skin, lungs and uterus, and are involved in the initiation and propagation of immune responses. Their ligands are not known in detail, but the gamma delta T cell receptors recognise intact proteins rather than MHC-presented peptides. Like alpha beta T cells, they develop in the thymus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 156
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old student presents to the university health service complaining of flu-like symptoms, lethargy and jaundiced sclerae and an inability to eat due to a sore throat. He remembered that his father may have suffered from a liver condition. On further questioning a history of intravenous drug use on two occasions is identified. Investigations reveal: Alanine transaminase (ALT) 23 U/l, Aspartate transaminase (AST) 28 U/l, Bilirubin 78 μmol/L, Albumin 41g/l. Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gilbert’s syndrome
Explanation:When a patient presents with an illness (unrelated to the liver) or a stressful event on the body, and develops asymptomatic jaundice, think Gilbert’s syndrome. It is autosomal dominant. It is an unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia from impaired glucuronyl transferase. Classically, Crigler-Najjar would be in infants, and it would be symptomatic. It is also an unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 157
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old woman is admitted with a productive cough and pyrexia. Chest x-ray shows a pneumonia and she is commenced on intravenous ceftriaxone. Following admission a stool sample is sent because of diarrhoea. This confirms the suspected diagnosis of Clostridium difficile diarrhoea and a 10-day course of oral metronidazole is started. After 10 days her diarrhoea is ongoing but she remains clinically stable. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral vancomycin for 14 days
Explanation:When a patient fails treatment with metronidazole (Flagyl) treatment, the next course of action is to change to oral vancomycin, which is shown to be effective in the treatment of c diff colitis. Oral rifampicin is not a treatment for c diff. Oral metronidazole is not resolving her symptoms so is not the correct answer. clindamycin is a cause of c diff colitis, not a treatment. IV Vanc is not active in the gut so is not the treatment; oral is active in the gut.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 158
Incorrect
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A 64-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer has developed progressive back pain over the last 2 days. She also reports of weakness of her lower limbs and difficulty in walking. On examination, she has reduced power in both legs and increased tone associated with brisk knee and ankle reflexes. There is some sensory loss in the lower limbs and feet but perianal sensation is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spinal cord compression at T10
Explanation:The upper motor neurone signs in this patient point towards a diagnosis of spinal cord compression above the level of L1 and rules out cauda equina syndrome.
Spinal cord compression is an oncological emergency and affects up to 5% of cancer patients. Extradural compression accounts for the majority of cases, usually due to vertebral body metastases. One of the most common causes of spinal cord compression is osteoarthritis. It is also more commonly seen in patients with lung, breast, or prostate cancer.
Clinical features include:
1. Back pain: the earliest and most common symptom, may worsen on lying down or coughing
2. Lower limb weakness
3. Sensory changes: sensory loss and numbness
4. Neurological signs: depending on the level of the lesion.
Lesions above L1 usually result in upper motor neurone signs in the legs. Lesions below L1 usually cause lower motor neurone signs in the legs and perianal numbness. Tendon reflexes are increased below the level of the lesion and absent at the level of the lesion.Management options are:
1. High-dose oral dexamethasone
2. Urgent MRI for consideration of radiotherapy or surgery -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 159
Incorrect
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Which one of these features is typical of dermatomyositis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gottron's papules over knuckles of fingers
Explanation:The main symptom of dermatomyositis include skin rash and symmetric proximal muscle weakness (in over 90% of patients) which may be accompanied by pain and tenderness. It occurs more commonly in females. Skin findings include:
Gottron’s sign – an erythematous, scaly eruption occurring in symmetric fashion over the MCP and interphalangeal joints
Heliotrope or lilac rash – a violaceous eruption on the upper eyelids and in rare cases on the lower eyelids as well, often with itching and swelling
Shawl (or V-) sign is a diffuse, flat, erythematous lesion over the back and shoulders or in a V over the posterior neck and back or neck and upper chest, which worsens with UV light.
Erythroderma is a flat, erythematous lesion similar to the shawl sign but located in other areas, such as the malar region and the forehead.
Periungual telangiectasias and erythema occur. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 160
Incorrect
-
A 69 year-old librarian with motor neuron disease is seen in clinic. Which of the following interventions will have the greatest effect on survival?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Non-invasive ventilation
Explanation:Motor neuron disease is a neurological condition of unknown cause which can present with both upper and lower motor neuron signs. It rarely presents before age 40 and various patterns of disease are recognised, including amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, progressive muscular atrophy and bulbar palsy.
Non-invasive ventilation (usually BIPAP) is used at night, with studies having shown a survival benefit of around 7 months. Riluzole prevents stimulation of glutamate receptors, used mainly in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis and has been shown to prolong life by about 3 months. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 161
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman with established metastatic breast cancer is admitted to the A&E with hypercalcemia. She has a clear medical history, doesn't smoke and works in an office based job. At the A&E she's given intravenous fluids and bisphosphonates. She's finally discharged after normalization of her calcium levels. However, before leaving the hospital she's sent to the endocrinology department for consultation regarding outpatient care and serum calcium monitoring. What is the most appropriate and useful advice for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase fluid intake
Explanation:NICE guidelines on hypercalcemia recommend that maintaining good hydration equals drinking 3-4 L of fluid/day, provided there are no contraindications. A low calcium diet is not necessary because intestinal absorption of calcium is reduced. The patient should avoid any other drugs or vitamins that could worsen the hypercalcemia. Mobilization is encouraged and any symptoms of hypercalcemia should be reported.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 162
Incorrect
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An 80 year-old Zimbabwean woman with known rheumatoid arthritis was admitted to hospital with a four week history of weight loss, night sweats and cough. She was given a course of Amoxicillin for the past week but her condition deteriorated and she was referred to the hospital when she developed haemoptysis. She was on maintenance prednisolone 10 mg once per day and four weeks earlier, she had received infliximab for a flare up of rheumatoid arthritis. She lived with her husband but had been admitted to hospital himself with influenza four days earlier. She was a lifelong non-smoker and worked most of her life as a missionary in Zimbabwe and South Africa. On examination she looked cachexic and was pyrexial with a temperature of 38.5°C. Her blood pressure was 181/101 mmHg, pulse 121 beats per minute and oxygen saturations of 89% on room air. Her heart sounds were normal and there were no audible murmurs. Auscultation of her lung fields revealed bronchial breath sounds in the left upper zone. Examination of her abdomen was normal. Mantoux test < 5mm (after 48 hours) A chest radiograph revealed cavitating left upper lobe consolidation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Post-primary tuberculosis
Explanation:Post-primary pulmonary tuberculosis is a chronic disease commonly caused by either endogenous reactivation of a latent infection or exogenous re-infection by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
Post-primary pulmonary tuberculosis (also called reactivation tuberculosis) develops in 5%–20% of patients infected with M. tuberculosis.Found mainly in adults, this form of tuberculosis arises from the reactivation of bacilli that lay dormant within a fibrotic area of the lung. In adults, reinfection with a strain of mycobacterium that differs from that which caused the primary infection is also possible. Predisposing factors include immunosuppression, diabetes, malnutrition and alcoholism.
Infliximab is a monoclonal antibody against tumour necrosis factor α (TNF-α). It is FDA approved for many autoimmune conditions, including rheumatoid arthritis and Crohn’s disease. One of the many known side effects of infliximab therapy is reactivation of latent tuberculosis (TB). Because of the resemblances in clinical and radiological features, tubercular lesions in the lung may mimic malignancy. TB accounts for 27% of all infections initially presumed to be lung cancer on imaging studies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 163
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man who has terminal lung cancer and is taking morphine slow release tablet (MST) 60mg bd as an analgesic, is reviewed. Recently, he has been unable to take medications orally and, thus, a decision has been made to set up a syringe driver. Out of the following, what dose of diamorphine should be prescribed for the syringe driver?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 40mg
Explanation:The dose is calculated, using the conversion factor, as follows:
(Conversion factor used to convert oral morphine to subcutaneous diamorphine = Divide the total daily dose of oral morphine by 3)
Hence,
60mg*2 = 120mg
120mg/3 = 40mgThe side effects of opioids can be transient or persistent, and these include constipation, nausea, and drowsiness. Therefore, all patients taking opioids should also be prescribed a laxative and an anti-emetic (if the nausea is persistent). Dose-adjustment may be necessary in cases of persistent drowsiness. Moreover, strong opioids can also provide quick relief from metastatic bone pain, as compared to NSAIDs, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 164
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old woman presents with painful vesicles in her right ear and a fever for some time. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Herpes zoster
Explanation:Herpes zoster oticus is a viral infection of the inner, middle, and external ear. It manifests as severe otalgia with associated cutaneous vesicular eruption, usually of the external canal and pinna. When associated with facial paralysis, the infection is called Ramsay Hunt syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 165
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman experiences weakness of her left hand. Clinical examination reveals wasting of the hypothenar eminence and weakness of finger abduction and thumb adduction. The lesion is most probably located at:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ulnar nerve
Explanation:Patients with compressive neuropathy of the ulnar nerve typically describe numbness and tingling of the ulnar-sided digits of the hand, classically in the small finger and ulnar aspect of the ring finger. Among the general population, symptoms usually begin intermittently and are often worse at night, particularly if the elbow is flexed while sleeping. As the disease progresses, paraesthesia may occur more frequently and during the daytime.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 166
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old man presents with a swollen, red, and painful left calf. He does not have a history of any recent surgery or a long-haul flight. He is generally fit and well and takes no regular medication other than propranolol for migraine prophylaxis. There is also no history of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in his family. The patient is referred to the deep vein thrombosis (DVT) clinic where he is diagnosed with a proximal DVT in his left calf. Following the diagnosis, he is started on low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) whilst awaiting review by the warfarin clinic. Other than commencing warfarin, what further action, if any, is required?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Investigate for underlying malignancy + check antiphospholipid antibodies
Explanation:CXR, blood, and urine tests should be carried out initially to exclude an underlying malignancy. If these are normal, a CT scan of abdomen and pelvis should be arranged as the patient’s age is >40 years. Antiphospholipid antibodies should also be checked for the first unprovoked DVT/PE. There is no history, however, to support an inherited thrombophilia.
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) published guidelines in 2012 for the investigation and management of DVT. If a patient is suspected of having DVT, a two-level DVT Wells score should be used:
DVT likely: 2 points or more
DVT unlikely: 1 point or lessThis system of points is based on the following clinical features:
1. Active cancer (treatment ongoing, within six months, or palliative)—1
2. Paralysis, paresis, or recent plaster immobilisation of the lower extremities—1
3. Recently bedridden for three days or more, or major surgery within 12 weeks requiring general or regional anaesthesia—1
4. Localised tenderness along the distribution of the deep venous system—1
5. Entire leg swollen—1
6. Calf swelling at least three cms larger than the asymptomatic side—1
7. Pitting oedema confined to the symptomatic leg—1
8. Collateral superficial veins (non-varicose)—1
9. Previously documented DVT—1
10. An alternative diagnosis is at least as likely as DVT—2If two points or more—DVT is ‘likely’
If one point or less—DVT is ‘unlikely’Management
1. LMWH or fondaparinux should be given initially after a DVT is diagnosed.
2. A vitamin K antagonist such as warfarin should be given within 24 hours of the diagnosis.
3. LMWH or fondaparinux should be continued for at least five days or until the international normalised ratio (INR) is 2.0 or above for at least 24 hours. LMWH or fondaparinux is given at the same time as warfarin until the INR is in the therapeutic range.
4. Warfarin should be continued for at least three months. At three months, clinicians should assess the risks and benefits of extending the treatment.
5. Consider extending warfarin beyond three months for patients with unprovoked proximal DVT if their risk of VTE recurrence is high and there is no additional risk of major bleeding. This essentially means that if there is no obvious cause or provoking factor (surgery, trauma, significant immobility, etc.), it may be implied that the patient has a tendency to thrombose and should be given treatment longer than the normal of three months. In practice, most clinicians give six months of warfarin for patients with an unprovoked DVT/PE.
6. For patients with active cancer, LMWH should be used for six months.As both malignancy and thrombophilia are obvious risk factors for DVT, therefore, all patients with unprovoked DVT/PE who are not already known to have cancer should undergo the following investigations:
1. Physical examination (guided by the patient’s full history)
2. Chest X-ray
3. Blood tests (full blood count, serum calcium, and liver function tests) and urinalysis
4. Testing for antiphospholipid antibodies
5. Testing for hereditary thrombophilia in patients who have had unprovoked DVT/PE and have a first-degree relative who has a history of DVT/PE. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 167
Incorrect
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A 34 yr. old male presented with exertional dyspnoea and chest pain for the past 2 weeks. On examination there was a mid-systolic murmur which is best heard at the apex and double apical impulse. His ECG showed left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH). What is the risk factor which would be most indicative of the potential for sudden death in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Degree of left ventricular hypertrophy
Explanation:The history is suggestive of hypertrophic obstructive cardiac myopathy. The degree of left ventricular hypertrophy is strongly associated with sudden cardiac death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 168
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman has been reviewed in the hypertension clinic. Abdominal ultrasound scanning reveals that her left kidney is much smaller than her right kidney. You suspect renal artery stenosis, as her GP noticed a deteriorating serum creatinine concentration within 1 month of starting ACE inhibitor therapy. What is the most appropriate next investigation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Magnetic resonance angiography
Explanation:MRA is next appropriate management for this case. It is non-invasive and has been shown to correlate with angiographic appearance. Although Renal arteriography is considered gold standard, it is invasive, so a non-invasive option is preferred as first line of investigation in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 169
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents to the clinic with nausea, thirst and dehydration. She mentioned that she has an uncle with previous parathyroid gland excision and a cousin who has recently been diagnosed with insulinoma. On examination, her BP is 135/72 mmHg, her pulse is 70/min and regular, her BMI is 20. Cardiovascular, respiratory and abdominal examinations are unremarkable. Investigations show: Hb 12.6 g/dL, WCC 5.4 x109/L, PLT 299 x109/L, Na+ 139 mmol/L, K+ 4.4 mmol/L, Creatinine 121 ىmol/L, Albumin 37 g/l, Ca++ 2.95 mmol/L, PTH 18 (normal<10). Which of the following is the most likely cause of her raised calcium?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parathyroid hyperplasia
Explanation:The combination of Insulinoma and Parathyroid diseases is suggestive of MEN 1 syndrome.
Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN1) is a rare hereditary tumour syndrome inherited in an autosomal dominant manner and characterized by a predisposition to a multitude of endocrine neoplasms primarily of parathyroid, entero-pancreatic, and anterior pituitary origin, as well as non-endocrine neoplasms.
Other endocrine tumours in MEN1 include foregut carcinoid tumours, adrenocortical tumours, and rarely pheochromocytoma. Nonendocrine manifestations include meningiomas and ependymomas, lipomas, angiofibromas, collagenomas, and leiomyomas.Primary hyperparathyroidism (PHPT), due to parathyroid hyperplasia is the most frequent and usually the earliest expression of MEN-1, with a typical age of onset at 20–25 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 170
Incorrect
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A 2-day-old girl is admitted by her mother because she gets cyanotic upon feeding and she wouldn't stop crying. The doctors suspect a congenital heart disease. What is the most probable aetiology?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transposition of the great arteries
Explanation:Transposition of the great arteries results in a significant hypoxemic status that is observed clinically by central cyanosis. The bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes is therefore the basic pattern of clinical presentation in transposition. Its onset and severity depend on anatomical and functional variants that influence the degree of mixing between the two circulations. Limited intercirculatory mixing, usually present if the ventricular septum is intact or the atrial septal defect is restrictive, is related to progressive and profound central cyanosis evident within the first hours of life. Tachypnoea, tachycardia, diaphoresis, poor weight gain, a gallop rhythm, and eventually hepatomegaly can be then detected later on during infancy. Heart murmurs associated with left outflow tract obstruction, due to a persistent arterial duct or a septal defect may be heard, but they are not a constant finding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 171
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman under treatment for long-term epilepsy with valproate presented with complaints of excessive weight gain. She is consuming oral contraceptive pills. Which among the following is the best alternative to valproate for treating long-term epilepsy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lamotrigine
Explanation:Among the given anti-epileptics the best drug that can be given in this patient is lamotrigine.
Topiramate, carbamazepine, phenytoin, and phenobarbital are all hepatic enzyme inducers and are associated with decreased effectiveness of the oral contraceptive (OCP) due to acceleration of the metabolism of oestrogens and progestogens.
If she is planning on pregnancy then registry studies suggest that lamotrigine would also be the best choice.
Other hepatic enzyme inducers include rifampicin, spironolactone, griseofulvin, etc. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 172
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old male complained of an annular rash following an insect bite he received during a hiking trip. Which of the following is the drug of choice?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Doxycycline PO
Explanation:The described rash is the typical rash of erythema migrans of Lyme disease, which is treated by doxycycline PO
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 173
Incorrect
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All of the following are true regarding carcinoid syndrome, except?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pharmacological blockade is clinically useful in only 10% of patients
Explanation:For medical management of carcinoid syndrome, there are two somatostatin analogues available, Octreotide and Lanreotide. Somatostatin is an amino acid peptide which is an inhibitory hormone, which is synthesized by paracrine cells located ubiquitously throughout the gastrointestinal tract. Both somatostatin analogues provide symptom relief in 50% to 70% of patients and biochemical response in 40% to 60% patients. Many studies have shown that Octreotide and Lanreotide also inhibit the proliferation of tumour cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 174
Incorrect
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Which of the following is caused by vitamin D?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased plasma phosphate
Explanation:Intestinal phosphate absorption is mediated by both transcellular and paracellular routes. The 1,25(OH)2D increases intestinal transcellular phosphate absorption at least in part by enhancing expression of type 2b sodium–phosphate cotransporter, thus increasing plasma phosphate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 175
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old retired physician presents to ophthalmology clinic after seeing his optician. Raised intra-ocular pressure and decreased peripheral vision was noticed. His past medical history includes asthma and type 2 diabetes mellitus. What is the most appropriate treatment given the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Latanoprost
Explanation:The majority of patients with primary open-angle glaucoma are managed with eye drops. These aim to lower intra-ocular pressure which in turn has been shown to prevent progressive loss of visual field. A prostaglandin analogue should be used first-line in patients with a history of asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 176
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the site where B-type natriuretic peptide is mainly secreted?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ventricular myocardium
Explanation:B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is secreted mainly from the left ventricle and it is secreted as a response to stretching caused by increased ventricular blood volume.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 177
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old man with a known history of alcoholic liver disease is reviewed following a suspected oesophageal variceal haemorrhage. He has been resuscitated and intravenous terlipressin has been given. His blood pressure is now 104/60 mmHg and his pulse is 84/min. What is the most appropriate intervention?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Endoscopic variceal band ligation
Explanation:The correct course of action after giving terlipressin and resuscitating with IV fluids is to perform an EGD with endoscopic variceal band ligation. According to NICE: ‘Offer endoscopic variceal band ligation for the primary prevention of bleeding for people with cirrhosis who have medium to large oesophageal varices. There are serious complications of a TIPS procedure and it is not the first line treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 178
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old woman presents with a 7 month history of secondary amenorrhoea and three months history of galactorrhoea. She has been otherwise well. She had menarche at the age of 12 and has otherwise had regular periods. She has been sexually active for approximately one year and has occasionally used condoms for contraception. She smokes five cigarettes daily and occasionally smokes cannabis. On examination, she appears well, and clinically euthyroid, has a pulse of 70 bpm and blood pressure of 112/70 mmHg. Investigations show: Serum oestradiol 130 nmol/L (130-600), Serum LH 4.5 mU/L (2-20), Serum FSH 2.2 mU/L (2-20), Serum prolactin 6340 mU/L (50-450), Free T4 7.2 pmol/L (10-22), TSH 2.2 mU/L (0.4-5.0). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prolactinoma
Explanation:The patient has hyperprolactinaemia with otherwise normal oestradiol, FSH and LH. This is highly suggestive of Prolactinoma rather than a non functioning tumour.
In polycystic ovaries, there is increase in the level of LH while FSH is normal or low. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 179
Incorrect
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A young man complains that he feels paralysed and is unable to move when he wakes up and less often when he is falling asleep. He complains of having hallucinations and sees other strangers in the room. His anxiety has also increased with these episodes. What is his likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sleep paralysis
Explanation:Sleep paralysis is a temporary inability to move or speak that occurs when you’re waking up or falling asleep. Paralysis is often accompanied by hallucinations
REM is a stage of sleep when the brain is very active and dreams often occur. The body is unable to move, apart from the eyes and muscles used in breathing, possibly to stop the person from acting out the dreams and hurting himself.
It’s not clear why REM sleep can sometimes occur while one is awake, but it has been associated with:
-not getting enough sleep (sleep deprivation or insomnia)
-irregular sleeping patterns – for example, because of shift work or jet lag
-narcolepsy – a long-term condition that causes a person to suddenly fall asleep at inappropriate times
-a family history of sleep paralysis
-sleeping on one’s back -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 180
Incorrect
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Through which foramen does the maxillary nerve pass through?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Foramen rotundum
Explanation:The foramen rotundum is one of the several circular apertures (the foramina) located in the base of the skull, in the anterior and medial part of the sphenoid bone. The maxillary branch (V2) of the trigeminal nerve (CN V) passes through and exits the skull via the pterygopalatine fossa and the foramen rotundum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 181
Incorrect
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A 52 year old female, known case of rheumatoid arthritis presents to the clinic with dyspnoea, cough, and intermittent pleuritic chest pain. She was previously taking second line agents Salazopyrine and gold previously and has now started Methotrexate with folic acid replacement a few months back. Pulmonary function tests reveal restrictive lung pattern and CXR reveals pulmonary infiltrates. Which of the following treatments is most suitable in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop methotrexate
Explanation:Methotrexate lung disease (pneumonitis and fibrosis) is the specific etiological type of drug-induced lung disease. It can occur due to the administration of methotrexate which is an antimetabolite, which is given as disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs) in patients with rheumatoid arthritis. The typical clinical symptoms include progressive shortness of breath and cough, often associated with fever. Hypoxemia and tachypnoea are always present and crackles are frequently audible. Symptoms typically manifest within months of starting therapy. Methotrexate withdrawal is indicated in such cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 182
Incorrect
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A 62year-old manpresents with exertional chest pain and is found to have extensive coronary artery disease on angiogram. Which of the following cell types is most implicated in the development of coronary artery plaques?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Macrophages
Explanation:An atheroma is an accumulation of degenerative material in the tunica intima (inner layer) of artery walls. The material consists of (mostly) macrophage cells, or debris, containing lipids (cholesterol and fatty acids), calcium and a variable amount of fibrous connective tissue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 183
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not a tumour suppressor gene?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: myc
Explanation:Myc is a family of regulator genes and proto-oncogenes that code for transcription factors.
A tumor suppressor gene, or antioncogene, is a gene that protects a cell from one step on the path to cancer. When this gene mutates to cause a loss or reduction in its function, the cell can progress to cancer, usually in combination with other genetic changes. Tumor suppressor genes can be grouped into categories including caretaker genes, gatekeeper genes, and landscaper genes; the classification schemes are continually evolving.
Examples include:
Gene Associated cancers
p53 Common to many cancers, Li-Fraumeni syndrome
APC Colorectal cancer
BRCA1 Breast and ovarian cancer
BRCA2 Breast and ovarian cancer
NF1 Neurofibromatosis
Rb Retinoblastoma
WT1 Wilm’s tumour -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 184
Incorrect
-
A 85 yr. old male with a history of hypertension presented with a couple of pre-syncopal episodes. He describes these episodes as him having felt as if he was going to faint and he has had to sit down. There were no precipitating factors, associated chest pain or palpitations. He doesn't have chest pain, shortness of breath on exertion, orthopnoea or paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea. On examination he looked well. Blood pressure was 140/80 mmHg and pulse rate was 78 bpm which was irregular. His lungs were clear and heart sounds were normal. ECG showed sinus rhythm with occasional ventricular ectopic beats. Which of the following is an indication for permanent pacemaker implantation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Second-degree block associated with symptoms
Explanation:Indications for permanent pacemaker implantation
-Sinus node dysfunction
-Acquired Atrioventricular(AV) block (Complete third-degree AV block with or without symptoms, Symptomatic second degree AV block, Mobitz type I and II, Exercise-induced second or third degree AV block in the absence of myocardial infarction, Mobitz II with widened QRS complex)
-Chronic bifascicular block
-After acute phase of myocardial infarction
-Neurocardiogenic syncope and hypersensitive carotid sinus syndrome
-Post cardiac transplantation
-Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
-Pacing to detect and terminate tachycardia
-Cardiac resynchronization therapy in patients with severe systolic heart failure
-Patients with congenital heart disease -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 185
Incorrect
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A 66-year-old gentleman is seen in the Emergency Department complaining of muscle weakness and lethargy. Admission bloods show the following: Na+ 138 mmol/L, K+ 6.6 mmol/L, Bicarbonate 15 mmol/L, Urea 9.2 mmol/L, Creatinine 110 µmol/L, An ECG is done which shows no acute changes. What is the most appropriate initial treatment to lower the serum potassium level?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Insulin/dextrose infusion
Explanation:Insulin/dextrose infusion will increase the activity of the sodium-potassium pump in the cells, which will in turn decrease serum potassium levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 186
Incorrect
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Which of the following is least likely to cause warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mycoplasma infection
Explanation:Mycoplasma infection causes cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (AIHA). The rest of the aforementioned options cause warm AIHA.
AIHA may be divided into ‘warm’ and ‘cold’ types, according to the temperature at which the antibodies best cause haemolysis. It is most commonly idiopathic but may be secondary to a lymphoproliferative disorder, infection, or drugs.
1. Warm AIHA:
In warm AIHA, the antibody (usually IgG) causes haemolysis best at body temperature and tends to occur in extravascular sites, for example, spleen. Management options include steroids, immunosuppression, and splenectomy. It is caused by autoimmune diseases such as SLE (rarely causes mixed-type AIHA), cancers such as lymphomas and CLL, and drugs such as methyldopa.2. Cold AIHA:
The antibody in cold AIHA is usually IgM and causes haemolysis best at 4°C and occurs more commonly intravascularly. Features may include symptoms of Raynaud’s disease and acrocyanosis. Patients do not respond well to steroids. Cold AIHA is caused by cancers such as lymphomas, and infections such as mycoplasma and EBV. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 187
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old patient under treatment for gout gave a history of progressive weakness of his limbs over 2 months. He noticed that it was particularly difficult for him to get up from the toilet seat and to get out of his car. He also felt some tingling and numbness of his toes at night, which was distressing. He was taking several medications which included Ibuprofen, perindopril, colchicine, vitamin supplements, and indapamide. On examination his pulse was 85/min, blood pressure was 140/90 mmHg and fundi revealed arteriovenous nipping. He had proximal lower limb weakness of 4/5 and absent ankle reflexes. Plantar reflexes were upgoing on both sides. His serum creatinine phosphokinase level was normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Colchicine toxicity
Explanation:The given clinical scenario is suggestive of myo-neuropathy and is most likely to be caused by colchicine toxicity.
It gives rise to subacute proximal muscle weakness and on occasions can lead to an acute necrotizing myopathy. Creatine phosphokinase may be normal or may be elevated.
Weakness resolves when the drug is discontinued but the neuropathic features remain.
Death is usually a result of respiratory depression and cardiovascular collapse.
Treatment is symptomatic and supportive, and the treatment for colchicine poisoning includes lavage and measures to prevent shock. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 188
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old hairdresser presented to her GP complaining of tingling in the right palm and right wrist pain. She had intermittently experienced these symptoms; however, recently they had been keeping her awake all night. She had noticed a reduction in grip and was struggling to work at the salon. Otherwise, she felt well in herself and had not noticed any weakness in the other hand or lower limb. Her weight was stable, and she denied any neck problems or swallowing difficulties. She had a past medical history of hypothyroidism and hypertension and took regular thyroxine, Bendroflumethiazide and ibuprofen. She was a non-smoker and rarely drank alcohol. On examination, she appeared alert and orientated. Fundoscopy and cranial nerve examination were all normal and neck movements were full. On examination of the upper limb, there was wasting over the right thenar eminence and fasciculations with a small burn over the right index finger. There was weakness of thumb abduction and opposition, with loss of pinprick and light touch sensation over the thumb, index and middle finger in the right hand. Nerve conduction studies showed absent sensory action potential in right median palmar branches and denervation of the right abductor pollicis brevis. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Median nerve palsy
Explanation:The history is consistent with carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) arising as a result of pressure on the median nerve in the carpal tunnel. The median nerve supplies the muscles of the thenar eminence: the abductor pollicis (C7, C8), flexor pollicis brevis and opponens pollicis, and the lateral two lumbricals. The nerve conduction studies confirm marked denervation and absent sensory potentials within the median nerve territory.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 189
Incorrect
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Choose the wrong statement regarding hypocalcaemia:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chvostek's sign is more sensitive and specific than Trousseau's sign
Explanation:Chvostek and Trousseau signs can be elicited in patients with hypocalcaemia. Chvostek sign is the twitching of the upper lip with tapping on the cheek 2 cm anterior to the earlobe, below the zygomatic process overlying the facial nerve. Trousseau sign (a more reliable sign present in 94% of hypokalaemic individuals and only 1% to 4% of healthy people) is the presence of carpopedal spasm observed following application of an inflated blood pressure cuff over systolic pressure for 3 minutes in hypokalaemic patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 190
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman was investigated following an osteoporotic hip fracture. The following results are obtained: TSH < 0.05 mu/l, Free T4 29 pmol/L. Which of the following autoantibodies is most likely to be present?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: TSH receptor stimulating autoantibodies
Explanation:The patient has hyperthyroidism and its most common cause is Grave’s Disease.
Grave’s Disease is an autoimmune disease due to circulating autoantibodies known as TSH receptor stimulating autoantibodies or Thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins (TSIs) that bind to and activate thyrotropin receptors, causing the thyroid gland to grow and the thyroid follicles to increase the synthesis of thyroid hormone. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 191
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old woman has an 11mm skin lesion on her right forearm, which bleeds easily on contact and has changed in appearance over the last 11 months.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Malignant melanoma
Explanation:Melanoma is more common in men than women. Reasons for the disease includes: UV light and genetic predisposition or mutations. Diagnosis is by biopsy and analysis of any skin lesion that has signs of being potentially cancerous.
Early warning signs of melanoma ABCDE:
Asymmetry
Borders (irregular with edges and corners)
Colour (variegated)
Diameter (greater than 6 mm)
Evolving over time -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 192
Incorrect
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Regarding the thymus, which of the following is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: DiGeorge’s syndrome is a developmental abnormality affecting the thymus
Explanation:The thymus is a lymphoid organ located in the anterior mediastinum. In early life, the thymus is responsible for the development and maturation of cell-mediated immunologic functions. The thymus is composed predominantly of epithelial cells and lymphocytes. Precursor cells migrate to the thymus and differentiate into lymphocytes. Most of these lymphocytes are destroyed, with the remainder of these cells migrating to tissues to become T cells.
DiGeorge’s syndrome (DGS) is a developmental abnormality affecting the thymus. The classic triad of features of DGS on presentation is conotruncal cardiac anomalies, hypoplastic thymus, and hypocalcaemia (resulting from parathyroid hypoplasia). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 193
Incorrect
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Which of following does not promote the release of endothelin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prostacyclin
Explanation:Prostacyclin (PGI2) generated by the vascular wall is a potent vasodilator, and the most potent endogenous inhibitor of platelet aggregation so far discovered. Prostacyclin inhibits platelet aggregation by increasing cyclic AMP levels. Prostacyclin is a circulating hormone continually released by the lungs into the arterial circulation. Circulating platelets are, therefore, subjected constantly to prostacyclin stimulation and it is via this mechanism that platelet aggregability in vivo is controlled.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 194
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman comes to the endocrine clinic for her regular follow up. She has hypertension, controlled by a combination of Ramipril and indapamide and was diagnosed with 11-beta hydroxylase deficiency since birth when she was found to have clitoromegaly. Which of the following is most likely to be elevated?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 11-Deoxycortisol
Explanation:11-beta hydroxylase is stimulated by ACTH and responsible for conversion of 11-deoxycortisol to cortisol and deoxycorticosterone to corticosterone.
In 11-beta hydroxylase deficiency, the previously mentioned conversions are partially blocked, leading to:
– Increased levels of ACTH
– Accumulation of 11-deoxycortisol (which has limited biological activity) and deoxycorticosterone (which has mineralocorticoid activity)
– Overproduction of adrenal androgens (DHEA, androstenedione, and testosterone) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 195
Incorrect
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Which of the following physical findings is least typical on a patient with multiple sclerosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decreased tone
Explanation:Attacks or exacerbations of multiple sclerosis (MS) are characterized by symptoms that reflect central nervous system (CNS) involvement, hence upper motor neuron symptoms are seen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 196
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old gentleman presents with a 2 year history of involuntary neck movements. There is no history of trauma. He is on no drugs. There is no relevant family history. On examination he has an episodic right torticollis. The rest of his neurological examination is normal. MRI of his cervical spine is normal. The neurologist in the Movement Disorders Clinic has diagnosed cervical dystonia. Which of the following treatments will be most beneficial?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Botulinum toxin
Explanation:Botulinum toxin is a neurotoxic protein from Clostridium botulinum that causes flaccid paralysis as it acts by preventing the release of Ach at the neuromuscular joint. It is the first-line treatment for cervical dystonia (torticollis) because the condition is a neurological disorder characterised by unusual muscle contractions of the neck. With the use of Botulinum toxin, the contractions would be released.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 197
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old gentleman is investigated for recurrent renal stones. He has been hospitalised on multiple occasions and has required lithotripsy three times. Investigations show the following: Calcium 2.08 mmol/L, Phosphate 0.85 mmol/L, Parathyroid hormone 4.1 pmol/L (normal range = 0.8 - 8.5) 24 hour urinary calcium 521 mg/24 hours (normal range < 300) Which one of the following treatments will most likely reduce the incidence of renal stones?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Indapamide
Explanation:Indapamide is a mild thiazide-like diuretic with hypotensive effect, and compared to other thiazides, it is reported to also have less metabolic derangements. However, it may have beneficial hypo-calciuric effects that are often associated with thiazides, thus, in this case, we would recommend prescribing this to the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 198
Incorrect
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A man was admitted to the hospital and developed varicella zoster after 48h. Which of the following categories of people should be administered immunoglobulin only?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: All pregnant women who are tested negative for antibodies.
Explanation:Immunoglobulin should be given to all seronegative women within 4 days. However, it is strongly advised to seek medical care immediately if the disease develops.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 199
Incorrect
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In a patient with type-1 diabetes mellitus, which cells when affected, lead to insulin deficiency?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: B cells of the pancreatic islets
Explanation:Insulin is produced by the beta-cells in the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas while Glucagon is secreted from the alpha cells of the pancreatic islets of Langerhans.
Type 1 diabetes mellitus is the culmination of lymphocytic infiltration and destruction of the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas. As beta-cell mass declines, insulin secretion decreases until the available insulin is no longer adequate to maintain normal blood glucose levels. After 80-90% of the beta cells are destroyed, hyperglycaemia develops and diabetes may be diagnosed. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 200
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female presents to the emergency department with severe breathlessness and tinnitus. She is under treatment for asthma and depression with albuterol and amitriptyline respectively. On examination, she seems agitated with a BP of 100/44, a pulse rate of 112 bpm, a respiratory rate of 30 cycles/min, and a temperature of 37.8'C. An arterial blood gas performed reveals: pH: 7.48 (7.36 – 7.44) pO2: 11.2 kPa (11.3 – 12.6 kPa) pCO2: 1.9 kPa (4.7 – 6.0 kPa) Bicarbonate: 13 mmol/l (20 – 28 mmol/L) What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Salicylate poisoning
Explanation:The blood gas analysis provided above is suggestive of a mixed respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis characteristic of salicylate overdose.
Pathophysiology:
The direct stimulation of the cerebral medulla causes hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis.
As it is metabolized, it causes an uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation in the mitochondria.
Lactate levels then increase due to the increase in anaerobic metabolism. This, along with a slight contribution from the salicylate metabolites result in metabolic acidosis.Tinnitus is characteristic and salicylate ototoxicity may produce deafness. Other neurological sequelae include encephalopathy and agitation, seizures and CNS depression and coma. Cardiovascular complications include tachycardia, hypotension, and dysrhythmias (VT, VF, and asystole).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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